```` COMPETENCE 1 DECK

• What is the position obtained by applying only your vessel's course and
speed to a known position?
A. Applied position
B. Dead-reckoning
C. Fix
D. Probable position
• Where can the data relating to the direction and velocity of rotary tidal
currents be found?
A. Tidal Current Tables
B. Tide Tables
C. Mariner's Guide
D. Nautical Almanac
• The dividing meridian between zone descriptions +4 and +5 is _____.
A. 75° 00’ E
B. 60° 30’ W
C. 60° 00’ E
D. 67° 30’ W
• What do you call the altitude after applying the Dip and index
error?
A. Sextant altitude
B. Computed altitude
C. Apparent altitude
D. Observed Altitude

• When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know the
__________.
A. Maximum rudder angle previously used
B. Gyro error
C. Variation
D. Course per magnetic steering compass
• On an echo sounder, which of these is used to draw a line on the
paper to mark a specific time of an occurrence?
A. Event marker
B. Range switch
C. Unt selector switch
D. Timing device
• Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro-pilot engaged when
you notice that the vessel's course is slowly changing to the right. What
action should you take FIRST?
A. call the Master
B. shift steering to the emergency steering station
C. switch to hand steering
D. notify the engine room
8. What is the speed of sound in the water?
A. 1.5 kilometers per second
B. 0.8 kilometer per second
C. 1.1 kilometers per second
D. 1.3 kilometers per second
9. This Chart covers a large area
A. Large scale chart
B. Small scale chart
C. Coastal chart
D. General chart
10. While voyage planning and navigating, a mariner must refer to
both texts and tables. Tables includes the following EXCEPT:
A. Light Lists
B. Sight Reduction
C. Almanac
D. Sailing Directions
11. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation
and __________ .
A. precession
B. Compass error
C. Annual rate of variation change
D. Deviation
12. How many degrees north or south of the Tropic of Cancer is the
Arctic Circle?
A. 23° 27’ South
B. 23° 27’ North
C. 44° 06’ South
D. 44° 06’ North
13. When the water salinity increases, what happens to the speed
of sound?
A. It increases.
B. It decreases.
C. It fluctuates.
D. It remains the same.

14. What is the position obtained by applying estimated current

and wind to your vessel's course and speed?
A. Estimated position
B. Estimated position
C. Dead-reckoning position
D. Assumed position
15. The shortest distance between any two points on earth defines
a __________.
A. Mercator
 B. Great circle
C. Rhumb line
D. Small cirle
16. A Mercator Chart is a
A. Rectangular projection
B. Cylindrical projection
C. Polyconic projection
D. Simple conic projection
17. Which of these is an echo sounder transducer type?
A. Magnetostriction
B. Diesel-electric
C. Piezo-hydraulic
D. Blue-diode
18. In the IALA Buoyage System, what is the color of an East
Cardinal Mark?
A. Black band with above and below yellow band
B. Black band above yellow band
C. Black band below yellow band
D. Black band above and below yellow band
19. The bending of a wave as it passes an obstruction is called
_________.
A. refraction
B. attenuation
C. persistence
D. diffraction
20. Which of these may cause false echoes in an echo sounder?
A. Protruding rocks from the seabed
B. Turbulence from the interaction of tidal streams with solid
particles In suspension
C. Schools of big fish
D. Bioluminescent microorganisms in the water
21. The interval between the sun’s upper limb being in the horizon
and its center being 12° below is called:
A. Astronomical twilight
B. Observational twilight
C. Civil twilight
D. Nautical twilight
22. What publication contains ocean current information for
voyage planning from Tokyo to San Francisco?
A. Guide to port entry
B. Coast pilot
C. Sailing Directions
D. World port index
23. The angle between the grid and magnetic meridians is called
grid variations or __________ .
A. Deviation
B. Variation
C. Grivation
D. Declination
24. What is the frequency of the low frequency pulse of the echo
sounder?
A. 24 kHz
B. 18 kHz
C. 27.5 kHz
D. 33.3 kHz
25. Which chart symbol indicates that the bottom is coral?
A. Cl
B. Sh
C. Co
D. R
26. Physical checks of gyro, azimuth circle and pelorus are the
following EXCEPT:
A. synchronize gyro repeaters with master gyro
B. ensure azimuth circle and peloruses are in good condition
C. alignment of the compass north to the fore and aft line of the
ship
D. alignment of peloruses with fore –and-aft line of the ship

27. When navigating using DGPS, you may expect your position to
be accurate to within a radius of __________ meters.
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 10 m
D. 20 m
28. Apparent altitude is sextant altitude corrected for __________.
A. inaccuracies in the reading and reference level
B. double-second difference
C. chronometer error and dip
D. difference in assumed latitude and actual latitude
29. What is an error in a gyrocompass caused by rapid changes in
course, speed and latitude causing deviation before the gyro
can adjust itself?
A. Rapid error
B. Stream error
C. Parallax error
 D. Error of collimation
30. What is the length of a nautical mile?
A. 1,850 meters
B. 5,280 meters
C. 1,760 yards
D. 6,076 feet
31. A navigational instrument used to indicate direction. It is
designed to measure course and bearing.
A. Azimuth circle
B. Sextant
C. Compass
D. Pelorus
32. The visibility of lights indicated in the charts is in nautical miles
for
A. height of the observer's eye 15 feet above the water
B. Charted range of the light
C. Luminous range of the light
D. Geographic range of the light
33. Your vessel's heading is 330°pgc and 345°psc with a 2°E gyro
error. What is the deviation on this heading?
A. 0°
B. 3°W
C. 4°E
D. 7°W
34. When using GPS, you may expect your position to be accurate
95% of the time within a radius of __________ meters.
A. 20 m
B. 10 m
C. 100 m
D. 50 m
35. Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating
A. Ponits of Zero variation
B. Points of equal variation
C. the Magnetic Latitude
D. Magnitic dip
36. Who is responsible for the voyage plan?
A. The owner
B. The person who has done the planning
C. The Master
D. The navigation officer
37. A barometric pressure reading of 29.92 inches of mercury is
equivalent to __________.
A. 1013.25 millibars
B. 1012.35 millibars
C. 1015.25 millibars
D. 1010.35 millibars
38. The revision of a chart is printed on what area of the chart?
A. any clear area around the neat line
B. Lower left center
C. Top center
D. part of the title
39. Which statement about the Flinders bar on a magnetic compass
is correct?
A. It corrects the semi-quadrantal error at intercardinal headings.
B. It compensates for the error caused by the vertical component
of the earth's magnetic field.
C. It reduces the deviation into half.
D. It allows the magnetic compass to move freely in the fluid.
40. A phase correction is applied to observations of:
A. The Moon
B. Stars
C. Planets
D. The sun
41. The standard Atmospheric pressure in millimeters of Mercury
is:
A. 29.92
B. 23.25
C. 760
D. 1013.25
42. What is the nature of the beam transmitted by echo sounder?
A. Directional
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Linear
43. The reaction of a gyro compas to an applied force is known as:
A. Earth rate
B. Gravity effect
C. Precession
D. Gyroscopic inertia
44. Automatic device for steering a vessel by means of control
signals received from a gyro compass is called _____.
A. gyro repeater
B. automatic pilot
C. gyroscopic steering
D. gyropilot
45. What is a phenomenon in which the axis of an object wobbles
when torque is applied?
A. Gyroscopic inertia
B. Torque-induced precession
C. Wobble parallax
D. Equinoctial eccentricity
46. In a microbarograph, the pen should be checked and the
inkwell filled __________.
 A. each time the chart is changed
B. once per month
C. once per week
D. daily
47. What is correct UTC in this example? Approx. Pos: N49°51'
W35°23', zone +2, Local Time 0900.
A. 11 00
B. 07 00
C. 23 00
D. 19 00
48. An amplitude of the Sun in high latitudes _____________?
A. is most accurate before sunrise
B. is most accurate after sunset
C. should only be observed when the Sun's lower limb is above
the horizon
D. is most accurate when the Sun's center is observed on the
visible horizon
49. A lighted buoy to be left to starboard, when entering a U.S. port
from seaward, shall have a __________.
A. red light
B. white light
C. green light
D. light characteristic of Morse (A)
50. The moon is said to be "waning" during the period from
______________.
A. full moon to new moon
B. new moon to full moon
C. last quarter to first quarter
D. first quarter to last quarter

51. Cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and

have become cumulonimbus in form, indicate __________.
A. clearing weather
B. that a warm front has passed
C. probable thunderstorm activity
D. an approaching hurricane or typhoon
52. It is angular distance measured westerly from the observer's
meridian to the hour circle passing to the body
A. intercept
B. GHA
C. SHA
D. LHA
53. The lunar day is also known as the __________.
A. lunitidal interval
 B. vulgar establishment of the port
C. nodal day
D. tidal day
54. In high latitudes, celestial observations can be made over a
horizon covered with pack ice by bringing the sun tangent to
the ice and __________.
A. adding 30° of arc to the sight
B. using a dip correction based on the height of eye above the ice
C. doubling the semi diameter correction
D. using a dip correction from table 22 in Bowditch Vol. II
55. The date is the same all over the world at __________.
A. 0000 GMT
B. 1200 GMT
C. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
D. no time
56. A single barometric pressure reading of 28.60 indicates
__________.
A. rapidly improving weather
B. deteriorating weather
C. a severe low pressure system
D. fair weather and calm
57. The recording fathometer produces a graphic record of the
_________
A. bottom contour only up to depths of 100 fathoms
B. depths underneath the keel against a time base
C. contour of the bottom against a time base
D. depth of water against a distance base
58. It is in the yellow pages of the Nautical Almanac which is used
for the interpolation of the difference of GHA and declination
A. Increment corrections
B. Logarithmic table
C. Haversine table
D. Altitude correction table
59. The alternative sailing in lieu of Great Circle to limit the latitude
of vertex.
A. Mercator sailing
B. Parallel Sailing
C. Great circle sailing
D. Composite sailing

60. In a river subject to tidal currents, the best time to dock a ship
without the assistance of tugs is __________.
A. at high water
B. when there is a following current
 C. at slack water
D. at flood
61. At latitude 19 degrees 33'N, the rising sun was observed to
have an amplitude of E 13 degrees 58.2'S. Find the declination
of the sun.
A. 18 degrees 29'N
B. 13 degrees 09'S
C. 13 degrees 09'N
D. 18 degrees 29'S
62. The line joining the points of zenith and nadir.
A. Prime vertical
B. zenith distance
C. declination
D. quadrature
63. At evening stars, the first stars that should be observed are
those with an azimuth in what quadrant?
A. Southern
B. Western
C. Northern
D. Eastern
64. Isogonic lines are lines on a chart indicating __________.
A. points of equal variation
B. points of zero variation
C. the magnetic latitude
D. magnetic dip
65. A slow rise in the barometric pressure forecasts __________.
A. rainy weather for the next 48 hours
B. high seas
C. improving weather conditions
D. deteriorating weather conditions
```` COMPETENCE 2 DECK

• The light which may be used with a vessel's whistle must be

__________.
A. used when the whistle is broken
B. a white light
C. used only at night
D. used prior to sounding the whistle
• Vessel "A", a power driven vessel underway, sights vessel "B"
which is a vessel underway and fishing. Which statement is TRUE?
• Vessel "A" must keep out of the way of vessel "B" because "B"
is to port.
• Vessel "B" must keep out of the way of vessel "A" because "A"
is to starboard.
• Both vessels are required by the Rules to keep clear of each
other.
• Vessel "A" must keep out of the way of vessel "B" because "B"
 is fishing.
• Which signal, other than a distress signal, can be used by a vessel
to attract attention?
A. Searchlight beam
B. Burning barrel
C. Continuous sounding of a fog signal apparatus
D. Calling "Mayday" on the radiotelephone

• Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor. Visibility is

restricted. You should sound __________.
A. the danger signal
B. one prolonged blast only
C. one long blast only
D. one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when
leaving the slip
• You intend to overtake a vessel in a narrow channel. As you
approach the other vessel's stern__________.
A. both vessels will gain speed
B. the vessels will drift apart
C. you will gain speed
D. the vessels will drift together
• Your intention is to overtake a vessel moving in a parallel course in a
narrow channel. As you approach the other vessel's stern _______
A. the vessel's will drift apart
B. both vessels will gain speed
C. you will gain speed
D. the vessel will drift together
• Two power-driven vessels are crossing within one half mile of each other,
with Vessel "P" as the stand-on vessel, and Vessel "Q" as the give-way
vessel. Vessel "P" sounds two short blasts on the whistle. What signal
should vessel "Q" sound?
A. None of these
B. One short blast
C. Two short blasts
D. Five short and rapid blasts

• Which vessel would NOT sound a fog signal of one prolonged

and two short blasts?
A. A vessel being towed
B. A vessel not under command
C. A vessel constrained by her draft
D. A vessel sailing
• You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog
signal of one prolonged and two short blasts. It could be any of the
 following EXCEPT a vessel __________.
A. constrained by her draft
B. being towed
C. minesweeping
D. engaged in fishing
[Link] can an officer of the watch deviate from the Rules of
Road?
A. Never
B. When the bearing of the vessel does not appreciably change.
C. Only if there is risk of collision.
D. To avoid immediate danger.
11. The prohibition against displaying lights which may be confused
with required navigation lights applies __________.
A. Only when other vessels are in the area
B. Only when operating in a traffic separation scheme
C. Only when under tow
D. From sunset to sunrise and during restricted visibility

12. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another and

NOT in or near an area of restricted visibility?
A. One prolonged blast
B. Four short blasts
C. One short blast
D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast
13. What whistle signal, if any, would be sounded when two vessels
are meeting, but will pass clear starboard to starboard?
A. Two short blasts
B. Five or more short blasts
C. One short blast
D. No signal is required.
14. Which signal is required to be sounded by a power-driven vessel
ONLY?
A. A signal sounded when approaching a bend.
B. A signal meaning, "I intend to overtake you on your starboard
side."
C. A signal meaning, "I am altering my course to starboard."
D. A signal meaning that the vessel sounding it is in doubt as to
the other vessel's actions.
15. Vessel "X" is overtaking vessel "Y" on open waters and will pass
without changing course. Vessel "X" __________.
A. should sound one long blast
B. should sound the danger signal
C. will not sound any whistle signals
D. should sound two short blasts
16. A vessel may use any sound or light signals to attract the
attention of another vessel as long as __________.
• the signal cannot be mistaken for a signal authorized by the
Rules
B. red and green lights are not used
C. the vessel signals such intentions over the radiotelephone
D. it is one of those listed under Annex IV of the Collision
Regulations
17. Which signal may be sounded ONLY by vessels in restricted
visibility?
A. Four short blasts
B. One prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short blast,
in that order
C. At least five short and rapid blasts
D. Two short blasts
18. You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this
situation?
A. The stern will be pushed away from the bank
B. The bow will be sucked towards the bank
C. None of the options
D. The bow will be pushed away from the bank
19. Which light(s) is(are) AMONG those shown by a 200-meter
vessel at anchor?
A. Any available working lights to illuminate the decks
B. In the forepart of the vessel, a 225° white light
C. In the after part of the vessel, a 135° white light
D. All-round red or green light

20. When two vessels are in sight of one another and NOT in or near
an area of restricted visibility, any of the following signals may
be given EXCEPT __________.
A. a light signal of at least five short and rapid flashes
B. two short whistle blasts
C. four short whistle blasts
D. one prolonged, one short, one prolonged, and one short
whistle blasts
21. You are in sight of a power-driven vessel that sounds two short
blasts of the whistle. This signal means that ______.
A. you should sound the danger signal
B. the vessel is altering course to port
C. the vessel intends to leave you on her starboard side
D. you should alter course to port.
22. A light used to signal passing intentions must be an __________.
 A. alternating white and yellow light
B. an all-round white light
C. a searchlight or beam
D. all-round white or yellow light
23. You are in sight of another vessel in a crossing situation, and the
other vessel sounds one short blast. You are going to hold
course and speed. You should __________.
A. answer with one short blast
B. answer with two short blasts
C. sound the danger signal
D. sound no whistle signal

24. Which whistle signal may be sounded by one of two vessels in

sight of each other?
A. One prolonged blast
B. Four short blasts
C. One short blast
D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast
25. Which signal is sounded ONLY by a vessel in sight of another?
A. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle
B. One prolonged blast on the whistle
C. One short blast on the whistle
D. Four short blasts on the whistle
26. INTERNATIONAL ONLY Two prolonged blasts followed by one
short blast on the whistle is a signal which would be sounded by
a vessel .
A. overtaking another in a narrow channel
B. anchored
C. engaged in mine clearing operation
D. engaged in fishing
27. INTERNATIONAL ONLY A single vessel being towed alongside
shall show .
A. one all-round white light
B. sidelights and a stern light
C. only the outboard sidelight and a stern light
D. a masthead light, sidelights, and a stern light

28. INTERNATIONAL ONLY What whistle signal, if any, would be

sounded when two vessels are meeting, but will pass clear
starboard to starboard?
A. One short blast
B. Two short blasts
C. Five or more short blasts
 D. No signal is required.
29. INTERNATIONAL ONLY : You are underway on the high seas in
restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of one prolonged and
two short blasts. It could be any of the following EXCEPT a
vessel __________.
A. minesweeping
B. engaged in fishing
C. constrained by her draft
D. being towed
30. INTERNATIONAL ONLY : Which signal is sounded ONLY by a
vessel in sight of another and NOT in or near an area of
restricted visibility?
A. Four short blasts on the whistle
B. One prolonged blast on the whistle
C. One short blast on the whistle
D. One short, one prolonged, and one short blast on the whistle

31. INTERNATIONAL ONLY : A wing in ground (WIG) craft cannot

comply with the spacing requirement for masthead lights. What
is required in this situation?
• The WIG must carry only the lights that comply with the rules;
the others may be omitted.
• The WIG's lights must comply as closely as possible, as
determined by her government.
• The WIG must be altered to permit full compliance with the
rules.
• An all-round light should be substituted for the after masthead
light and the stern light.
32. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: Two prolonged blasts followed by one
short blast on the whistle is a signal which would be sounded by
a vessel __________.
A. overtaking another in a narrow channel
B. anchored
C. engaged in mineclearance
D. engaged in fishing
33. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: The light which may be used with a
vessel's whistle is to be __________.
A. used when the whistle is broken
B. used prior to sounding the whistle
C. used only at night
D. a white light
34. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: Two power-driven vessels are crossing
within one half mile of each other as shown. Vessel "A" sounds
one short blast of the whistle. This signal means .
A. "I intend to leave you on your starboard side"
B. "I am altering my course to starboard"
C. "I am altering my course to port"
D. None of the above
35. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a
harbor. Visibility is restricted. You should sound .
A. one prolonged blast only
B. one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the
last line is taken aboard
C. one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when
leaving the Slip
D. the danger signal
36. INTERNATIONAL ONLY : What statement is TRUE when
operating in fog and other vessels are detected by radar?
• You should make an ample change to port for a vessel crossing
On The starboard bow.
• You should maneuver in accordance with the steering and
Sailing rules.
• You should determine the course and speed of all radar
contacts at six minute intervals.
• You should make a series of small course alterations when
maneuvering in order to continually assess the situation.

37. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: In a crossing situation on international

waters, a short blast by the give-way vessel indicates that the
vessel .
A. is holding course and speed
B. is turning to starboard
C. intends to pass port to port
D. will keep out of the way of the stand-on vessel
38. INTERNATIONAL ONLY Vessels "A" and "B" are meeting on a
river as shown and will pass 1/4 mile apart. If you are on vessel
"A", in addition to the sidelight, which other light(s) will you see
on vessel "B"?
A. special flashing yellow light
B. two white masthead lights in a vertical line
C. two yellow towing lights
 D. None of the above
39. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: You are operating a vessel in a narrow
channel. Your vessel must stay within the channel to be
navigated safely. Another vessel is crossing your course from
starboard to port, and you are in doubt as to his intentions.
According to Rule 9, you .
A. may sound the danger signal
B. must sound one prolonged and two short blasts
C. should sound one short blast to indicate that you are holding
Course And speed
D. are required to back down

40. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: If a towing vessel and her tow are

severely restricted in their ability to deviate from their course,
the towing vessel shall show lights in addition to her towing
identification lights. These additional lights shall be shown if the
tow is .
A. pushed ahead
B. towed alongside
C. towed astern
D. All of the above
41. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: Which statement applies to a vessel
"constrained by her draft"?
A. The term only applies to vessels in narrow channels.
B. She is severely restricted in her ability to change her course
Because of her draft in relation to the available depth and width
of navigable water.
• She is designated as a "vessel restricted in her ability to
maneuver".
D. The vessel must be over 100 meters in length.
42. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: You are underway in fog and hear a fog
signal consisting of one prolonged and two short blasts. It could
be any of the following EXCEPT a vessel .
A. engaged in mine clearing operation
B. engaged in fishing
C. constrained by her draft
D. being towed

43. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: Which vessel is NOT regarded as being

"restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
 A. A vessel servicing an aid to navigation
B. A vessel engaged in dredging
C. A towing vessel with tow unable to deviate from its course
D. A vessel constrained by her draft
44. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: In international waters, you are on
Vessel "I" in the situation as shown. Vessel "II" sounds one
short blast. Which action should you take?
A. Sound one short blast and hold course and speed.
B. Hold course and speed
C. Sound one short blast and slow down or turn to starboard.
D. Sound two short blasts, slow down and turn to port
45. INTERNATIONAL ONLY: Your vessel is crossing a narrow
channel. A vessel to port is within the channel and crossing your
course. She is showing a black cylinder. What is your
responsibility?
A. Hold your course and speed.
B. Sound the danger signal.
C. Begin an exchange of passing signals.
D. Do not cross the channel if you might impede the other vessel.
```` COMPETENCE 3 DECK

1. With regards to ARPA, what does the "lost target" warning tell?
A. Radar failure
B. Computer failure
C. Target can no longer be plotted
D. Display failure
2. An increase in temperature with an increase in altitude would
tend to cause:
A. Diffraction
B. Super-refraction
C. Sub-refraction
D. Attenuation
3. In a Polar region with very cold wind blowing over warmer sea,
you would expect__________ .
A. Sub-refaction
B. Sub-refraction
C. Attenuation
D. Diffraction
4. X-band radar is the name for __________ radar and S-band is the
name for __________ radar.
A. 3 cm - 10 cm
B. 10 cm - 3 cm
C. 6 cm - 10 cm
D. 10 cm - 6 cm
 5. The radar control that reduces weak echoes out to a limited
distance from the ship is the __________._
A. receiver gain control
B. brilliance control
C. fast time control
D. sensitivity time control (sea-clutter control)
6. Does the COLREGS give any preference to ships equipped with
ARPA?
A. Only during reduced visibility
B. Yes
C. No
D. Only in Good visibility
7. Your ARPA has automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to
currents, the log is indicating a faster speed than the speed over
the grounds. What should you expect under these circumstances?
A. The range on initial target acquisition will be less than normal
B. The generated CPA will be than the actual CPA
C. The generated TCPA will be later than the actual TCPA
D. The targets true course vector will be in error.
8. What is the purpose of the anti-clutter "sea" control on the
radar?
A. Reduce the sea echoes
B. Remove wash return from the propeller
C. Intensify sea return
D. Increase brilliance of large echoes against sea

9. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should you
take?
• Increase the radar gain to pick up weak echoes through the
rain.
B. Increase the STC setting to reduce close-in spurious signals.
C. Navigate as though the effective range of the radar has been
reduced.
D. Increase the range of the inner and outer guard rings.
10. It is equivalent to one complete oscillation.
A. One wavelength
B. amplitude
C. Cycle
D. Frequency
11. This is a radar transponder which emits a characteristics signal
when triggered by ship's radar
A. RECON
B. BEACON
C. None of the stated options
D. RACON
12. An indirect radar echo is caused by a reflection of the main lobe
of the radar beam of the observer’s vessel. Which of the
following is NOT a characteristic of indirect echoes?
• Their bearing is almost constant, even when the true bearing of
The Contact changes appreciably.
B. When plotted, their movements are usually abnormal
C. They always appear on a bearing of 90º from the true bearing
of the contact.
D. The indirect echoes usually appear in shadow sectors

13. A large ship close by may cause _________ .

A. Increased range resolution
B. Multiple echoes
C. Refraction
D. Diffraction
14. Which of the following radar displays is not stabilized?
A. North-up, True motion
B. Ship's head-up, Relative motion
C. North-up, Relative motion
D. True motion
15. It is the term used at the instant an electro-magnetic wave is
passing by an obstruction between two places?
A. Attenuation
B. ducting
C. Diffraction
D. Refraction
16. What does RADAR stands for?
A. Radio detection and ranging
B. Radio detection and reconnaissance
C. Radio display and reconnaissance
D. Radio Director and reviewer

17. When using an ARPA, what should you consider in order to

evaluate the information displayed?
A. You cannot determine if a small target has been lost due to sea
return.
• The trial maneuver feature will automatically determine a
Course that will clear all targets.
• The target vessel's generated course and speed are based
solely on Radar inputs.
• Navigational constraints may require a target vessel to change
 course.
18. How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in
the immediate vicinity?
• The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with
The two-tone alarm.
• The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two
nautical mile radius, per IMO standards.
• The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the
Effect Of heavy swells on a SART.
• The SART's blips on the PPI will become arcs and eventually
become concentric circles.
19. Which ARPA data should you use in order to determine if a close
quarters situation will develop with a target vessel?
A. Set and drift of the current
B. Predicted time of CPA
C. Initial range of acquisition
D. Relative track information

20. What is the IMO requirement for ARPA detection?

A. Performance not inferior to the radar display
B. Acquisition should be automatic
C. No special requirement
D. Detection should be done manually
21. The Components that generates the radio-frequency energy in
the form of short powerful pulse is the:
A. Magnetron
B. Receiver
C. Indicator
D. Modulator
22. When you are using a radar in which your own ship is shown at
the center of the screen and 0 deg always appear at the top the
screen, the bearings can be defined by which of the following?
A. magnetic
B. relative
C. compass
D. TRUE
23. A signal which has undergone single reflection from E layer.
A. one-hop signal
B. single reflection signal
C. one-hop E signal
D. diffraction
24. This is a layer of the ionosphere whose height is quite constant
at about 60 [Link].(52n ml)
A. E layer
 B. F layer
C. G layer
D. D layer
25. You have another ship overtaking you close aboard to
starboard. You have 3 radar targets bearing 090° relative at
ranges of .5 mile, 1 mile, and 1.5 miles. In this case, the
unwanted echoes are called __________.
A. multiple echoes
B. spoking
C. indirect echoes
D. side-lobe echoes
26. This is a radar transponder which emits a characteristics signal
when triggered by ship's radar
A. RACON
B. RECON
C. BEACON
D. None of the stated options
27. The signal from a ramark will show on the PPI as a __________.
A. coded signal on the same bearing and at a greater range then
The transponder
B. circle surrounding the transponder
C. radial line from the transponder to the center of the PPI
D. dashed circle at the same range as the transponder
28. Solar radiation of 0.4 mm to 1 meter is
A. Gamma rays
B. infra-red
C. microwave
D. cosmic rays

29. A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

A. should never use radar bearings
B. should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the
distance to the horizon
C. can use radar information from one object to fix the position
D. must use information from targets forward of the beam
30. When utilizing the focus control on the radar, you would adjust
for the:
A. largest possible target image
B. largest possible spot
C. brightest center spot
D. sharpest center spot
31. Your ARPA has been tracking a target and has generated the
targets course and speed. The radar did not receive a target
echo on its last two scans due to the weather. What should you
expect under these circumstances?
 • The ARPA will generate date as if the targets was still being
Tracked by radar
B. The ARPA will give an audible and/or visual lost target alarm
C. The ARPA will generate data based on sea return
D. The ARPA has lost all "memory" of the target and must
Recomputed the target date
32. What will cause the ARPA to emit a visual alarm, audible alarm,
or both?
A. An acquired target entering into a guard zone
B. A tracked target lost for one radar scan
C. A tracked target entering your preset CPA-TCPA limits
D. A target being initially detected within a guard zone

33. When using an ARPA, Which of the following should you

consider in order to evaluate the information displayed?
A. target course and speed are based solely on radar inputs
B. Navigational constraints may require a target vessel to change
Course
[Link] trial maneuver feature will automatically determine a
course that will clear all targets
34. Your radar indicates a target; however, there is no visible object
at the point indicated. A large mountain, approximately 50
miles away on the same bearing as the target, is breaking the
horizon. You should suspect the radar target is caused by
_______
A. a submerged submarine
B. ducting
C. sub-refraction
D. ionospheric skip waves
35. The description "Racon" beside an illustration on a chart would
mean a _______.
A. radar conspicuous beacon
B. radar transponder beacon
C. radar calibration beacon
D. circular radio beacon
36. An unwanted echo produced by choppy seas.
A. Sea clutter
B. Weather echoes
C. Second trace echoes
D. Normal radar echoes

37. You are using radar in which your own ship is shown at the
center, and the heading flash always points to 0 degrees. If
bearings are measured in relation to the flash, what type of
bearings are produced
A. relative
B. TRUE
 C. Compass
D. Magnetic
38. This is due to the difference of the conducting properties of land
and water resulting to the bending of the ground wave as it
crosses a coast at an oblique angle
A. coastal refraction
B. land effect
C. either a or b
D. neither a or b
39. A radar contact will remain stationary on a relative motion
radar display only when it is:
A. on the same course as your vessel
B. on the same speed as your vessel
C. on a reciprocal course as
your vessel
D. on the same course and speed as your vessel
40. With respect to automatic identification systems (AIS), which
information is required to be broadcast every 1 to 10 seconds?
A. Call sign
B. Vessel's draft
C. Route plan
D. None of the stated options

41. A typical speed of scanner rotation is about:

A. 20 revs per minute
B. 5 revs per minute
C. 200 revs per minute
D. 20 revs per second
```` COMPETENCE 4 DECK

1. What does "ECDIS" means __________ .

A. Electronic chart display and information system
B. Electronic chart data information system
C. Electronic chart digital and information system
D. Electronic chart direction and injection system
2. ECDIS is set with performance standard by IMO called:
A. DX 90
B. DT 40
C. DP 90
D. TX 50
3. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which
include __________.
A. imposed viewing
B. raster only
C. vector only
D. vector and raster
4. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic
identification systems (AIS) ?
• AIS cannot be used to make passing arrangements because the
ship-to-ship text messaging feature is for emergency use only.
• AIS can be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship
Text messaging but a vessel operator is not relieved from the
requirement to sound whistle signals or make arrangements
via bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone.
• AIS can be used to make passing arrangements via ship-to-ship
Text massaging thus relieving a vessel operator from making such
arrangements via bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone or signaling intent to
pass via whistle signals.
• AIS cannot be used to make passing arrangements because the
system is not capable of this type of ship-to-ship
communications.
5. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding automatic
identification systems (AIS)?
• AIS is designed to replace ARPA, maneuvering boards, and
Visual Bearings as a means to ascertain the risk of collision.
• AIS provides near real-time information regarding another
vessel's Speed over ground and heading regardless of visibility.
• AIS can be relied upon as the sole means to determine course
changes due to other AIS equipped traffic.
• AIS will not provide information on another vessel if that vessel
Is indistinguishable in radar sea clutter.

6. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest

edition of information originated by a government-authorized
hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the)
__________.
A. international Maritime Organization
B. NASA
C. US Coast Guard
D. International Hydrographic Organization
7. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest
edition of information originated by a government-authorized
hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the)
__________.
A. International Maritime Organization
B. International Hydrographic Organization
C. US Coast Guard
D. NASA
8. The Component of the IBS which contains the heart of the whole
system is the:
A. Chart data base
B. Planning station
C. Control system
D. RADAR
9. Which information must automatic identification systems (AIS)
automatically provide to appropriately equipped shore stations,
vessels and aircraft?
A. Destination
B. Draught
C. Vessel's course
D. ETA
10. The Component of the IBS that allows a navigator to see an
integrated navigation and tactical display and to avoid
navigational hazard is:
A. RADAR
B. System display unit
C. Control system
D. Tactical display unit
11. An ECDIS is required to display which information?
A. Temperature, Density, Distance
B. Pressure, Vibration
C. Brightness, Darkness
D. Hydrographic data, RADAR targets, ARPA vectors
12. The database information that should be shown when a chart is
first displayed on ECDIS is the __________.
A. system electronic nautical chart
B. display base information
C. standard display information
D. chart display information
13. Raster-scan chart data is __________.
A. composed of files that are smaller than vector files
B. organized into many separate files
C. the only format recognized by IMO/IHO
D. a digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
 14. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute
intervals?
A. Speed through the water
B. Shaft RPM
C. Course made good history
D. Estimated time of arrival
15. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the
track for the previous __________.
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 18 hours
16. This is the ship's electronic data base used in the ECDIS System
A. Electronic Nautical Chart
B. Digital Chart
C. Chart data base
D. maps
17. An ECDIS is required to display which information?
A. Meteorological data
B. Soundings
C. Waypoints
D. Radar targets

18. While underway, a vessel over 100,000 gross tons with an

automatic identification systems (AIS) is expected to broadcast
all of the following information every 1 to 10 seconds
EXCEPT__________.
A. ship's heading
B. navigational status
C. name of vessel
D. rate of turn
19. An ECDIS is required to display which information?
A. Waypoints
B. Meteorological data
C. Radar target
D. Soundings
20. While underway, automatic identification systems (AIS)
broadcast all of the following information every 1 to 10 seconds
EXCEPT the __________.
 A. latitude and longitude
B. speed over ground
C. ship's scantlings
D. course over ground
21. The first satellite datum was based on _____.
A. Russian Glonass
B. American GPS
C. American NNSS
D. American DCPS

22. The reference datum for GPS is _____.

A. WGS
B. WGS – 72
C. WGS – 84
D. GGS – 72
23. When the route planning process is completed, what should
then be done?
A. Checking basic route data
B. Make a safety copy of the route data
C. Store the route in a safe way
D. Validate and check all route data
24. The database information that should be shown when a chart is
first displayed on ECDIS is the __________.
A. display base information
B. standard display information
C. system electronic nautical chart
D. chart display information
25. Can raster charts provide navigational warnings?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only when used on an ECDIS
D. Only when used on a RCDS

26. The level of database information which cannot be removed

from the ECDIS display and consists of information which is
required at all times in all geographic areas and under all
circumstances is the_________.
A. display base information
B. standard display information
 C. system electronic nautical chart
D. chart display information
27. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to
perform?
A. Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
B. Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum
C. Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two
geographical points
D. all of the options
28. What is the name of the International Standard for exchange of
maritime digital electronic chart information?
A. S – 52
B. S – 57
C. S – 75
D. S – 84
29. HMI is an abbreviation for:
A. Hydrographic Maritime Institute
B. Human Machine Interface
C. High Maritime Intelligence
D. Human Maritime Interference

30. The purpose of voyage planning is _____.

A. to satisfy STCW regulation
B. to support the bridge team
C. to meet company regulations
D. to satisfy IMO regulation
31. The “flattening” of the earth is approximately _____.
A. 0
B. 1/300
C. 1/400
D. 1/900
32. What is the number of the IMO resolution for ECDIS
performance standards?
A. IMO Res. A 817
B. IMO Res. A 572
C. IMO Res. A 827
D. IMO Res. A 728
33. An ellipsoid is formed by _____.
A. rotating an ellipse about its minor axis
B. rotating an ellipse about its larger axis
C. moving a circle about its north/south axis
D. moving a circle about its east/west axis
34. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the
track for the previous __________ .
 A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

35. What does a navigator who uses as ECDIS require?

A. A good navigational knowledge and a professional attitude
B. Good computer knowledge
C. Good system knowledge
D. Nothing special
36. The most important thing to know about computerized systems
is/are their _____.
A. A good navigational knowledge and a professional attitude
B. Good computer knowledge
C. Good system knowledge
D. Nothing special
37. A raster chart is best defined as _____.
A. a chart made by giving digital values to each and every object
on the chart.
B. a chart made by giving analogue values to each and every
object on The chart.
C. a digital facsimile of the paper chart.
D. a computerized chart.
38. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS
display, as required by IMO/IHO?
A. Hydrography
B. Ferry routes
C. Regulatory boundaries
D. all of the options

39. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?
A. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route
Is Exceeded
B. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is
going to cross a safety contour
C. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is
going to Cross the boundary of a prohibited area
D. all of the options
40. In which IMO Resolution you can find information about
standard terms used in connection with electronic charts?
A. IMO resolution 472
B. IMO resolution 572
C. IMO resolution 817
D. IMO resolution 888
 41. Raster-scan chart data is __________.
A. the only format recognized by IMO/IHO
B. organized into many separate files
C. composed of files that are smaller than vector files
D. a digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer
42. In worst case the difference that can be expected between local
datum and satellite is up to _____.
A. 100 meters
B. 500 meters
C. 1000 meters
D. several nautical miles

43. Can a raster chart be displayed in head-up mode on today's

ECDIS?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Only during route planning
D. Only charts with small scale
44. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on
ECDIS?
A. Notice to Mariners information
B. ECDIS warnings and messages
C. Ship hydrodynamic information
D. Hydrographic Office data
45. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT
__________.
• determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points
B. determine magnetic compass deviation
C. transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum
D. convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"
```` COMPETENCE 5 DECK

• What should you do when you see a person fall overboard at

night?
A. Call for help and keep the victim in sight
B. Throw a red flare to the victim
C. Initiate a "Mayday" call to alert other vessels in the vicinity
D. Put the rudder hard over to the side where the victim fell and
start The Scharnow turn
• Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard
liferafts to look for __________.
A. Survivors in the water
B. Food and water
C. Land
 D. Bad weather
• After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a
liferaft to __________.
A. Stay in the general location
B. keep the liferaft from capsizing
C. Navigate against the current
D. Keep personnel from getting seasick

• Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must

be abandoned because of a distress situation?
• Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them
to The survival craft.
• Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable
INMARSAT unit.
• Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location
and situation.
• No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both
automatically float free and operate properly.
• When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you
should __________.
A. stay in the immediate area
B. plot a course for the nearest land
C. take a vote on which direction you should go
D. go in one direction until fuel runs out
• You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding
forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. The center of
pressure of the shores on the bulkhead should be located __________.
A. approximately two-thirds of the way up the bulkhead
B. at the bottom of the bulkhead
C. evenly over the surface of the bulkhead
D. approximately halfway up the bulkhead
• You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire.
You should approach __________.
A. to windward of the wrecked vessel
B. at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vessel
C. to leeward of the wrecked vessel
D. at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vessel
8. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of
your vessel. If possible you should __________.
A. put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. call for assistance
C. abandon ship to windward
 D. keep going at half speed
9. All passenger ships are divided into vertical ’zones’. What is the
purpose of this?
• All vertical zones are separated with watertight doors, which will
be closed in the case of a grounding, etc.
B. This is fire zones which can be divided from each other with fire
doors. If a fire start in one zone, all fire doors in front and aft of
the fire will be closed from the bridge to stop the smoke and fire
from spreading.
• Vertical zones are separated with fire doors which will be closed
Automatically when the fire alarm start.
D. there is one fire team in each zone
10. When are power-operated watertight sliding doors (class 3
doors) compulsory for all watertight doors aboard passenger
ships?
A. Where one or more doors are situated below deepest load line
B. Where the ship has passenger spaces below the bulkhead deck
C. Where the ship is fitted with through-going car decks
D. When the ship is certified for more than 150 passengers
11. Which international code regulates the required safety
equipment onboard a passenger ship?
A. MARPOL
B. STCW
C. IMO
D. SOLAS
12. How many lifejackets shall it be in a passenger cabin?
A. None. They will be handed out at the muster station
B. Twice the number of beds in the cabin
C. same number as beds in the cabin
D. None. They will be handed out by the crew
13. What is the purpose of watertight doors?
A. They will be closed during a fire to prevent the smoke and fire
to spread to other parts of the ship.
B. They will be closed from the bridge or locally in case of
damage on the ships hull, and taking in water.
C. They will be closed if the ship get a damage on the ships hull,
and taking in water. It will prevent the water to fill the whole
deck. In case of fire they can also be used to stop the fire and
smoke from iverge.
D. They are doors in engine area which will be closed during
Navigation In shallow waters.
14. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships
regarding personal life-saving appliances do not correspond to
present regulations?
• Three immersion suits and a thermal protective aid for every
person to be accommodated in the lifeboat and not provided with an
immersion suit
• For persons to be accommodated in totally or partially enclosed
lifeboats, immersion suits and thermal protective aids need not be
 carried
C. On all international voyages (except on short voyages) all
lifejackets shall be fitted with a light and a smoke signal
D. Passenger ships of under 60 metros in length shall carry not
less than Six lifebuoys provided with self-igniting lights

15. What kind of information must be posted in all passenger

cabins?
A. Where the restaurant is located
B. the route to open deck
C. The route to muster station, how to put on lifejacket and
different Emergency signals used onboard the ship.
D. The route to muster station, and how to put on lifejacket.
16. Is there a time limit for when all life rafts must have been
launched after sounding of abandon ship signal.?
A. no time limit
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour
17. Passenger ship engaged in international voyages must conduct a
muster for all passengers. What is the time limit for this
exercise?
A. 4 hours
B. before departure
C. no time limit
D. 24 hours
18. How many lifejackets shall it be in a passenger cabin?
A. None. They will be handed out at the muster station
B. twice the number of beds in the cabin
C. None. They will be handed out by the crew
D. same number as beds in the cabin

19. It is late night and a tanker has just been involved in a collision.
Should the tanker, prior to the collision, carry a red light in
addition to the normal navigation lights. Is this correct?
• No, the tanker should carry two red lights in addition to the
navigation lights.
• No, the tanker should carry red, white and red in addition to
the Ordinary navigation lights.
C. Correct, the tanker did show the correct navigation lights.
D. No, the tanker should show the normal navigation lights only.
20. During which time may watertight doors in watertight
bulkheads in tweendeck cargo spaces be kept open in passenger
ships
A. daytime only
 B. in ports only
C. At any time if watched by an authorized person
D. during cargo handling only
21. In which ships shall fire hoses be connected to hydrants in
interior locations at all times? (SOLAS II-2/4.7.1)
A. Passenger ships carrying more than 12 passengers
B. Passenger ships carrying more than 100 passengers
C. passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
D. passenger ships engaged on short trips
22. In case a fire alarm is sounded from the bridge, what action
would you take as Engineer on Duty?
A. start the fire pump
B. report to the muster station
C. stop the engines
D. Contact the bridge by telephone and ask for instructions

23. What alarm signal is to be sounded by the alarm bells in case of

fire onboard ships?
A. series of short blasts
B. one long blast followed by seven short blasts
C. series of long blasts
D. continuous signal
24. What maneuver should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a
ship?
• Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the fire zone to the
leeward of the ship
B. keep the stem up against the wind if possible
C. Let the ship follow the wind in order to reduce the oxygen
supply
D. continue on course and speed
25. During which time may watertight doors in watertight
bulkheads in tween deck cargo spaces be kept open in
passenger ships?
A. daytime only
B. during cargo handling only
C. At any time if watched by an authorized person
D. in ports only
26. During a stay in port, a towing wire is to be put out forward and
aft. What is important to take care of regarding this wire?
A. That the wires are just above the water line at all times.
B. The wires are just stand by on deck.
C. for daytime use only.
D. for night-time use only.

27. If some of the passengers are disabled, i.e. using wheelchair,

cane, blind etc. What precaution should the crew take?
 • Passenger with some form for disability must travel with
accompany, and live in same cabin or next door.
• They must be placed in cabins on the same level as the muster
station.
• All passengers that will require some form for assistance in case of
evacuation, etc. must be registered, so there can be sent crew to assist
them if needed.
D. Locate then in large cabins, to ease their stay.
28. For passenger ships of 1000 gross tons and over, the availability
of water for fire-extinguisher purposes shall be: (SOLAS II-
2/4.3.4)
• Immediate availability of water for at least one effective jet of
Water from any hydrant in an interior area
• Within two minutes availability of sufficient quantities for at
Least two jets of water from any hydrant in the accommodation
• Within one minute availability of sufficient quantities of water
for at least one effective jet of water from all hydrants
• Immediately full water pressure on all hydrants aboard the
ship
```` COMPETENCE 6 DECK

1. What is the smallest area containing all possible survivors and

search object locations?
A. Possibility area
B. Expanding square
C. Dangerous semi-circle
D. Containment area
2. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire.
You should approach __________.
A. at a speed of at most one-half that of the wrecked vessel
B. to windward of the wrecked vessel
C. at a speed of at least that of the wrecked vessel
D. to leeward of the wrecked vessel
3. What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take
when a DSC distress alert is received?
• The operator should immediately set continuous watch on the
Radiotelephone frequency that is associated with the
frequency band on which the distress alert was received.
• No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will
Automatically switch to the NBDP follow-on communications frequency.
• The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF
channel 70.
• The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the
NBDP frequency that is associated with the frequency band on which
the distress alert was received.

4. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning

ship, they should __________.
 A. form a raft by lashing their life preservers together
B. form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water
in the center of the circle
C. tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with the current
D. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
5. Which action should be taken on receipt of a GMDSS Distress
alert?
A. Silence the alarm.
B. Listen for any follow up voice/TELEX transmission on the
Appropriate frequency.
C. All of the above
D. Read the display screen and/or printout.
6. How is "radio silence" imposed?
A. By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the Distress
communications on that frequency
B. It is imposed by the Public Correspondence Station (PCS)
Controlling the distress communications on that frequency or
channel
C. It is imposed by the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the
Distress communications on that frequency or channel
D. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC)

7. What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence?

A. To ensure that a distressed vessel will have a "window" twice
each hour for transmitting routine messages
B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on
The Distress frequency or channel
C. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is
minimized
• To ensure that interference on a particular frequency or
channel to communications concerning emergency traffic is minimized
8. Which step should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be
abandoned because of a distress situation?
• No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both
automatically float free and operate properly.
• Place the SART and EPIRB in the "ON" position and secure them
to The survival craft.
• Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable
INMARSAT unit.
• Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location
And situation.
9. Which of the following signals, used or exhibited either together
or separately, indicate distress and need of assistance?
 i. the radiotelegraph alarm signal
ii. A continuous sounding with any fog-signaling apparatus
iii. Rockets of shells, throwing green
A. I and II only
B. I only
C. I and III only
D. I, ii and iii

10. Which signal is recognized as a distress signal?

A. International Code Signal "PAN" spoken over the
radiotelephone
B. A smoke signal giving off orange colored smoke
C. Directing the beam of a searchlight at another vessel
D. A whistle signal of one prolonged and three short blasts
11. What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator
fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC
distress alert?
• It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that
must Be manually reset.
• It will initiate the DSC distress alert but, as no information will
be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel,
its position or its situation.
• It will initiate the DSC distress alert and default information will
Automatically be transmitted.
• It will initiate the DSC distress alert, but any station receiving it will have
to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity,
position and situation.
12. What is the smallest area containing all possible survivors and
search object locations?
A. Containment area
B. Possibility area
C. Expanding square
D. Dangerous semi-circle

13. When can routine communications be resumed when radio

silence has been imposed?
• If, in the Master's opinion, communications on that frequency
Will Interfere with emergency communications
• After determining that geographic distance from the distress
situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with
emergency communications
C. After determining that
the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use
D. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue
Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or
channel being used for emergency communications stating that
 such traffic has concluded.
14. What is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS Radio
Operator to take in a distress situation where immediate help is
needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be
abandoned?
A. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually.
B. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM
on Channel 13.
• Transmit Distress call by activating the radiotelegraph
Automatic alarm signal.
D. Transmit Distress call by MF/HF, VHF or INMARSAT.

15. If a GMDSS radio operator initiates a DSC distress transmission

but does not insert a message, what happens?
• The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on
the Display readout.
• The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in
distress to download the necessary information
• The transmission will be made with "default" information
provided automatically.
• The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate
This data must be provided by the operator.
16. Which action should you take after sending a false Distress alert
on VHF?
A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A.
B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16.
C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13.
17. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface
craft?
A. Flashing Morse T
B. Opening and closing the throttle
C. Rocking the wings
D. Flashing the navigational lights off and on
18. Which equipment is not a source of locating signals?
A. Survival craft VHF transceivers that provide a beacon on 121.5
MHz
B. EPIRB's that transmit on 406 MHz
C. COSPAS-SARSAT EPIRBs
D. SARTs operating on 9 GHz
19. When should you use distress flares and rockets?
A. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue
vessels
B. At half-hour intervals
C. At one-hour intervals
D. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
20. When sending a DSC call, the vessel's __________.
A. MMSI will indicate its ocean region
B. None of the above
C. position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a
"Distress Hot Key" alert
D. position will automatically be sent
21. What is meant by the term "radio silence"?
A. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary
information
B. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the
hour, that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed
vessels to transmit distress alerts using J3E
• Communications on a distress frequency or channel is banned
for 24 Hours following the cessation of the distress traffic
• Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress
communications may not transmit on the distress frequency or
channel
22. An airplane should NOT send which signal in reply to a surface
craft?
A. Opening and closing the throttle
B. Rocking the wings
C. Flashing the navigational lights off and on
D. Flashing Morse T
23. When should you use distress flares and rockets?
A. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel
B. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue
vessels
C. At half-hour intervals
D. At one-hour intervals
24. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course
of the search units should normally be which of the
following?
A. In the same direction as the anticipated drift
B. In the opposite direction of the anticipated drift
C. Perpendicular to the line of anticipated drift
D. Downwind
25. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during
the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is
the primary advantage of this maneuver under these
circumstances?
• You will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the track-line
 run during the night.
• The turn provides the maximum coverage of the area to be
searched.
• The turn enables you to reverse course in the shortest possible
time.
• You have extra time to maneuver in attempting to close in on
the man for rescue.

26. The key to rescuing a man overboard is __________.

A. good communication
B. a dedicated crew
C. good equipment
D. well-conducted drill
27. Which statement is FALSE, concerning the Williamson turn?
A. In a large vessel (VLCC) much of the headway will be lost
thereby Requiring little astern maneuvering.
B. When the turn is completed, the vessel will be on a reciprocal
Course And nearly on the original track line.
• The initial actions are taken at well defined points and reduce
the need for individual judgment.
• The turn will return the vessel to the man's location in the
shortest Possible time.
28. What is the color of the smoke signal used by life-saving
stations or rescue units indicating that distress signals are
observed in daylight?
A. Orange
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green
29. A man is reported missing in the morning and was last seen
after coming off the mid-watch. What type of return to the tract
line steamed during the night?
A. Williamson
B. Racetrack
C. 180 degrees turn
D. Anderson

30. Several merchant ships are arriving at the scene of a distress

incident. One of the them must assume the duties of the
Coordinator Surface Search (CSS). Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
• CSS duties are always assumed by passenger vessels, dry cargo
vessels, or tankers in that order of precedence.
• The CSS must be established by mutual agreement between the Ships
concerned.
• A tank vessel should never be assigned CSS duties unless only
 Tank Vessels are present.
• The first vessel to arrive at the distress incident is designated as
the CSS.
31. The most probable position of the object of a search at any
given time is the __________.
A. datum position
B. incident position
C. reported position
D. dead-reckoning position
32. The Coordinator Surface Search (CSS) in a SAR situation should
display by night __________.
A. deck lights forward and aft
B. a white light over two red lights
C. a red light, white light, and blue light in a vertical line
D. a distinctive signal promulgated by the CSS

33. You are proceeding of the area of reported distress. When you
arrived at the reported position, the vessel in distress is not
sighted. What type of search should be conducted?
A. sector search
B. expanding square
C. track crawl
D. initial search
34. The Coordinator Surface Search in a SAR situation should display
by day __________.
A. the code flags FR
B. a black ball over a black diamond shape
C. code flag Quebec over a black ball
D. two black diamond shapes in a vertical line
35. What color flare is used to signal a highly dangerous landing
place?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Orange
D. Yellow
36. When carrying out a parallel track search pattern, the course of
the search unit normally be which of the following?
A. in the same direction as the anticipated drift
B. in the opposite direction of the anticipated drift
C. perpendicular to the line of anticipated drift
D. downwind
37. An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed
towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey
this message will NOT include __________.
A. circling the vessel at least once
B. heading in the direction of the distress location
C. flashing the navigation lights on and off
D. crossing ahead and rocking the wings
38. You are approaching a distressed vessel which is on fire in order
to remove survivors. Your approach should be
A. from the bow
B. from the low side
C. to leeward of the distressed vessel
D. to windward of the distressed vessel
39. You are using a racetrack turn to recover a man overboard. The
vessel is first steadied when how many degrees away from the
original heading?
A. 60° to 70°
B. 90°
C. 135°
D. 180°
40. In a racetrack turn, to recover a man over board the vessel is
steadied for the second time after a turn of how many degrees
from the original heading?
A. 60 degrees
B. 35 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees

41. What is the signal used by a life saving station or rescue unit
indicating that distress signals are observed at night time ?
A. 3 White star rockets
B. 2 Blue star rockets
C. 3 Yellow star rockets
D. 1 Green star rocket
42. A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a
Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. What type of search
should be conducted?
A. Expanding circle
B. Sector search
C. Parallel track pattern
D. Datum-drift search
43. You should conduct a sector search under which of the
following circumstances?
A. the search target is sighted and then lost
 B. more than one vessel is available for the search
C. the search object is a target that will be readily detected by
radar
D. an aircraft is available to assist a surface vessel
```` COMPETENCE 7 DECK

• The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is

administered by the __________.
A. U.S. Coast Guard
B. Minerals Management Service
C. Department of Energy
D. Corps of Engineers
• What is the International Code signal for calling an unknown
station using flashing light?
A. STA
B. CQ
C. AA AA
D. UNK
• You are calling another vessel by radiotelephone using the
International Code of Signals. He responds with the words "Alpha Sierra".
This indicates that __________.
A. you should proceed with your message
B. you should send your message in International Code
C. you should send your message in plain language
D. he cannot accept traffic immediately

• You are piloting a vessel, which is required to have a

radiotelephone, on the navigable waters of the United States. You must
__________.
• use the bridge-to-bridge VHF-FM designated frequency only to
Exchange navigational information or necessary tests
B. maintain a listening watch and communicate in English
C. All of the above
D. have on board an operator who holds a restricted
Radiotelephone Operator permit or higher license, as well as a
FCC ship station license
• Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to-bridge
radiotelephone must be able to __________.
A. send Morse Code
B. speak a language the vessel's crew will understand
C. speak English
D. repair the unit
• How does a coast radio station communicating by HF radio
normally identify itself?
A. By its MID
B. By its call sign
C. By its subscriber number
D. By its MMSI
• If you are transmitting a distress message by radiotelephone you
should __________.
A. preface it by the word "Interco"
B. follow the transmission with the radio alarm signal
C. use English language
D. always use the International Code

• When using the International Code of Signals to communicate, the end of

a radiotelephone transmission is indicated by the signal __________.
A. WA
B. CQ
C. YZ
D. AR
9. Which satellite system promulgated Maritime Safety
Information?
A. SafetyNET
B. AMVER
C. NAVTEX
D. INMARSAT-M SES
[Link] making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of
transmitting power should you use?
A. High power
B. Low power
C. Extra high power
D. Medium power
11. When signaling a course using the International Code of Signals,
the signal __________.
• should include the compass deviation if a compass course is
signaled
B. should be preceded by the letters CSE
C. must be followed by "T", "M" or "C" to indicate if it is true,
Magnetic Or compass
D. always indicates a true course unless indicated otherwise in the
message

12. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio,

confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the
__________.
A. Standard phonetic alphabet
B. Delimiter switch
C. Low power switch
 D. High power switch
13. AMVER is a system which provides __________.
A. Satellite communications
B. Position reporting service
C. Weather information
D. Navigational information
14. The signal "AS" when used in signaling by the International Code
of Signals means "________________".
A. Finished with transmission
B. Over
C. Repeat this signal
D. Wait
15. When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio,
confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the
__________.
A. High power switch
B. Standard phonetic alphabet
C. Delimiter switch
D. Low power switch

16. When making VHF radio calls to nearby stations, what level of
transmitting power should you use?
A. Low power
B. Extra high power
C. Medium power
D. High power
17. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with
safety of a person would be prefixed by the word __________.
A. Safety
B. Interco
C. Pan Pan (3X)
D. Mayday
18. AMVER is a system which provides __________.
A. Position reporting service
B. Weather information
C. Navigational information
D. Satellite communications
19. When communicating on the radiotelephone using plain English,
what procedure word indicates the end of my transmission and
that a response is necessary?
A. Roger
B. Wilco
C. Over
D. Out
20. How is "radio silence" imposed?
A. By the High Seas Service (HSS) controlling the distress
communications on that frequency or channel.
• By the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) controlling the
Distress communications on that frequency or channel
• By the Coast Earth Station (CES) controlling the distress
communications on that frequency or channel
• By the Public Correspondence Station (PCS), controlling the
Distress communications on that frequency or channel
21. If you receive the signal over radiotelephone of "Romeo Papa
Tango" while using the International Code of Signals, you should
__________.
A. report to the caller
B. continue since he received your last transmission
C. end the transmission
D. repeat your last transmission
22. The AMVER system for vessels in the Gulf of Mexico is
administered by the __________.
A. Corps of Engineers
B. U.S. Coast Guard
C. Minerals Management Service
D. Department of Energy
23. You wish to communicate by radiotelephone with a foreign
vessel using the International Code of Signals. This is indicated
by the signal __________.
A. . "Code"
B. "Charlie Quebec"
C. "Interco"
D. "Kilo"
24. The word SHIP is spelled conform the international phonetic
alphabet__________
A. Sierra, Hotel, Item, Paris
B. Sugar, Hotel, Italia, Peter
C. Sierra, Hotel, India, Papa
D. Don't know
25. In the IMO SMCP, the prefix "SECURITY" is used ______
A. to announce distress
B. to announce urgency
C. to announce safety
D. to announce emergency
26. The word SATCOM is spelled conform the international phonetic
alphabet__________
 A. Sierra, Anna, Tango, Cornelis, Oslo, Mike
B. Sierra, Alfa, Tango, Charlie, Oscar, Mike
C. Sierra, Able, Tripoli, Charlie, Oscar, Mike
D. Don't know
27. The term "shift the rudder" means __________.
A. use right or left rudder
B. change from right (left) to left (right) rudder an equal amount
C. check, but do not stop the vessel from swinging
D. put the rudder amidships
28. The word NAVTEX is spelled conform the international phonetic
alphabet__________
A. November, Alfa, Victor, Tango, Echo, X-ray
B. November, Able, Valencia, Tripoli, Echo, Xantippe
C. November, Anna, Victor, Tango, Eduard, X-ray D. Don't know

29. The year 1945 is spelled to conform with the international

phonetic alphabet__________
A. Wun-Niner-Fower-Fife
B. Wan-Nayn-Poor-Payb
C. One-Nine-Four-Five
D. Won-None-Flower-Fiver
30. The word VOLUME is spelled conform the international phonetic
alphabet__________
A. Victor, Oslo, Lima, Uncle, Mike, Echo
B. Valencia, Oslo, Love, Uncle, Mike, Eduard
C. Victor, Oscar, Lima, Uniform, Mike, Echo
D. Don't know
31. In the IMO SMCP, the prefix "PAN PAN" is used ______
A. to announce distress
B. to announce urgency
C. to announce safety
D. to announce emergency
32. The helm command "Steady as you go" means __________.
A. steer the course you are on now
B. steer the course when the swing stops
C. maintain the rate of swing
D. don't allow the vessel to swing off course so much
33. The helm command "shift your rudder" means __________.
A. double your rudder angle or go to full rudder
B. change from right rudder to left rudder an equal number of
degrees
C. bring your rudder amidships
D. check the swing of the vessel
34. The word EIGHT is spelled conform the international phonetic
alphabet__________
 A. Echo, Israel, Golf, Hotel, Tango
B. Echo, India, Golf, Hotel, Tango
C. Echo, Istria, Gulf, Hotel, Tango
D. Don't know
35. The term "shift your rudder" means __________.
A. change from right rudder to left rudder an equal number of
degrees
B. double your rudder angle or go to full rudder
C. bring your rudder amidships
D. check the swing of the vessel
36. When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should find it
handy to know the __________.
A. leeway
B. variation in the area
C. amount of helm carried for a steady course
D. deviation on that heading
37. How should the letter "D" be pronounced when spoken on the
radiotelephone?
A. DUKE
B. DA VID
C. DOG
D. DELL TAH

38. The word CHANNEL is spelled conform the international

phonetic alphabet__________
A. Cornelis, Hotel, Alfa, November, November, Edison, Lodewijk
B. Charlie, Hotel, Able, November, November, Echo, Liverpool
C. Charlie, Hotel, Alfa, November, November, Echo, Lima
D. Don't know
39. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which
prefix when sent by radiotelephone?
A. Pan-Pan (3 times)
B. Securite Securite Securite
C. TTT TTT TTT
D. No special prefix
40. What is a CORRECT reply to a pilot's request, "How's your
head"?
A. Steady
B. Eased to 10° rudder
C. Checked
D. Passing 50°
41. The helm command "Nothing to the left" means do NOT
__________.
 A. use left rudder
B. steer left of the ordered course
C. steer right of the ordered course
D. leave any buoys on the port side

42. By the term “Stand by” the operator of a coast-station means

that one should__________
A. Wait until the coast-station calls again
B. Switch back to the calling channel C. Give the position of the
Ship
[Link]'t know
43. The word LOBITH is spelled conform the international phonetic
alphabet__________
A. Lima, Oscar, Bravo, India, Tango, Hotel
B. Lima, Oscar, Bernhard, Italia, Tripoli, Havana
C. Liverpool, Oslo, Bernhard, India, Taro, Hotel
D. Don't know
44. In the IMO SMCP, the prefix "MAYDAY" is used ______
A. to announce distress
B. to announce urgency
C. to announce safety
D. to announce emergency
```` COMPETENCE 8

• If a receiving station cannot distinguish a signal sent by flag hoist it

should __________.
A. keep the answering pennant at the dip
B. Hoist ZQ
C. Raise and lower the answering pennant
D. Hoist ZL
• A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone
alarm signal followed immediately by the __________.
A. spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
B. Distress position
C. Ship's name
D. Ship's call letters
• The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with
safety of a person would be prefixed by the word __________.
A. Safety
B. Interco
C. Pan pan
D. Mayday
• Which statement about transmitting distress messages by
 radiotelephone is INCORRECT?
A. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 kHz.
B. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 kHz by two
dashes of 10 to 15 seconds duration.
C. Channel 16 (156.8 MHz) may be used for distress messages.
D. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies,
repeat the distress call on any frequency available.
• The Rules concerning the display of lights starts and ends under
which of the following?
A. sunset to sunset
B. sunrise to sunrise
C. sunrise to sunset
D. sunset to sunrise
6. A bell or gong, or other device having similar sound characteristics shall
produce a sound pressure level of not less than ________
A. 80 dB at 1 meter
B. 50 dB at a meter
C. 100 dB at 1 meter
D. 110 dB at 1 meter
7. Which is NOT a distress signal?
A. Dye marker on the water
B. Code flags "November" and "Charlie"
C. Flames on a vessel
D. Vertical motion of a white lantern at night
8. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the
safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word
__________.
A. Safety
B. Securite
C. Mayday
D. Pan-pan

9. A message giving warning of a hurricane should have which prefix

when sent by radiotelephone?
A. No special prefix
B. Securite Securite Securite
C. TTT TTT TTT
D. Pan-Pan (3 times)
10. How is the International Code Signal of distress indicated?
A. D.S
B. Interco
C. N.C
D. S.O.S
11. Which communications functions must all vessels be capable of
performing under GMDSS as defined by the International
Maritime Organization?
A. Radio direction finding
B. Communications in each of the operational ocean areas
C. All communications possible within the International Safety-
NET Service
D. Distress alerting to and from vessels, search and rescue
coordination, Onscene communications, signals for locating,
Maritime Safety Information, general and bridge-to-bridge
communications.
12. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act",
your radiotelephone log must contain __________.
A. a summary of all distress calls and messages
B. The home address of the vessel's Master or owner C. A record
of all routine calls
C. A record of your transmissions only

13. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is

__________.
A. 156.65 MHz (channel 13)
B. 156.6 MHz (channel 12)
C. 156.8 MHz (channel 16)
D. 156.7 MHz (channel 14)
14. A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n)
__________.
A. distress message
B. safety message
C. routine message
D. urgent message
15. A plane circles your vessel, crosses your course at a low altitude
opening and closing his throttle and heads off in a direction which
you are to be directed. How would you indicate you INABILITY to
comply?
A. Hoist the International code flag November(N).
B. Flash the Morse Code procedure Signal T
C. Hoist the answering pennant
D. Emit large quantities of black smoke from your stack
16. A visual signal displayed to indicate a weather forecast is called:
A. Weather message
B. Weather Signal
C. Weather codng
D. Synoptic signals

17. Which word preludes a navigational or meteorological warning?

 A. PAN
B. SECURITE
C. MAYDAY
D. Zulu
18. Which word indicated a message of urgency?
A. SECURITE
B. MAYDAY
C. LIMA
D. PAN
19. The letter HOTEL when hoisted means:
A. I require a doctor
B. I require a pilot
C. I have a doctor on board
D. I have a pilot on board
20. A radiotelegraph message commencing with XXX has the same
meaning as a message sent by radio telephone commencing with:
A. TTT
B. SOS
C. The spoken word PAN PAN
D. The Spoken word URGENCY
21. Figures preceded by the letter "R" indicate:
A. Latitude
B. Bearing
C. none of these
D. Distance

22. In a set of code flags, how many substitutes are there?

A. 10
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
23. Which word preludes a navigational or meteorological warning?
A. PAN
B. SECURITE
C. MAYDAY
D. Zulu
24. The top letter of the numeral hoist signaling course and bearing
is:
A. Charlie
B. Apha
C. Bravo
D. Papa
25. The use of 3 figure signals denotes:
A. Bearing or azimuth
B. Distance
 C. Longitude
D. Time
26. When requesting for free pratique, which single hoist is
exhibited?
A. lima
B. Quebec
C. X ray
D. Bravo

27. What international signal letter is used when calling another

vessel by light signal?
A. November
B. Delta
C. Kilo
D. Bravo
28. A vessel which sound on her whistle 7 successive short blast and
followed by 1 prolonged blast means:
A. Abandonship
B. Man overboard
C. Fire drill
D. boat drill

29. The call for unknown station and general call:

A. W
B. C
C. T
D. AA
30. The signals of sound composed of dots and dashes is known as:
A. Morse code
B. Telegraphic signals
C. International Code
D. Telephonic signal
31. The horizontal dimension of a flag is called:
A. Tack
B. Fly
C. Wrap
D. Length
32. If, by flashing light, you see "YU". This would indicate:
A. The following message is from the international code group

33. The vertical motion of white light or arms indicates:

A. This is the best way to land
B. Affirmative
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
 34. In acknowledging receipt of a distress message, what code would
be sent on the radiotelegraph to let the vessel in distress know
that the message was received?
A. R
B. EL
C. OK
D. QRT
```` COMPETENCE 9 DECK

• You are standing the wheelwatch when you hear the cry, "Man
overboard, starboard side". You should instinctively __________.
A. Give full right rudder
B. Put the rudder amidships
C. Throw a life ring to mark the spot
D. Give full left rudder
• it is a propeller which is almost invariably right-handed. When
the ship is driven ahead, the propeller revolves in a clockwise direction,
when viewed from astern. To go astern the rotation of the propeller is
reversed. It is __________.
A. twin screw
B. Single screw
C. quadruple screw
D. triple crew
• A ship is having a slow speed, by using the backing maneuver, the ship is
considered to be dead on the water when the
A. speed of the ship is the same speed as quick water
B. quick water reaches the amidships
C. quick water reaches the stern
D. quick water reaches about 1/4 distance from the stern
• Your engine is going astern and you pick up sternway. The rudder is
midships, and you are operating on a single, right-handed fixed screw.
How will your ship react?
A. She will most likely go straight astern
B. The stern will be lifted to starboard
C. She will most likely change heading to port
D. She will most likely change heading to starboard
5. Your ship is equipped with a right-handed propeller. As you go
full astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to starboard. Is
there anything you can do to reduce the change in heading?
• Put the rudder hard to port to reduce the water flow to the left
Side of the propeller
B. I can swing the rudder from side to side
C. no, there is nothing I can do
D. Put the rudder hard to port to reduce the water flow to the
right side of the propeller
• It is a particular professional knowledge regarding own ship
various methods available and how to change over to secondary from
primary methods. It is the knowledge on __________.
 A. steering and conning
B. maneuvering
C. ship handling
D. propulsion
• You have anchored in a mud and clay bottom. The anchor appears to be
dragging in a storm. What action should you take?
A. Drop the other anchor underfoot.
B. Shorten the scope of the cable.
C. Veer cable to the anchor.
D. Drop the second anchor, veer to a good scope, then weigh the
first anchor.
• You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance.
How will the stopping distance be, compared to deep water?
A. shorter
B. The same as in all depths
C. about 1 ship-length longer
D. longer
• You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too
much change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this?
A. make a complete turning circle
B. do a zig zag maneuver
C. put the engine full astern
D. Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine
power, so-called "high frequency rudder cycling".
[Link] vessel is backing on the starboard screw, and going ahead
on the port screw. The bow will __________.
A. back on a straight line
B. move ahead on a straight line
C. swing to starboard
D. swing to port
11.A ship is turning around a point called the "pivot point". What is
the position of this invisible point when the ship is "dead" in the
water?
A. near the bow
B. About same position as the center of gravity.
C. near the stern of the ship
D. outside of the center line
12. When going astern in a right-handed propeller ship and need to
maintain the ship's heading, the rudder would be place
at__________.
A. Rudder to starboard enough to compensate the swing
B. Rudder amidship to compensate the swing
C. rudder to port to neutralize the swing
D. hard port

13. A single-screw vessel going ahead tends to turn more rapidly to

 port because of propeller __________.
A. thrust
B. discharge current
C. sidewise force
D. suction current
14. You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel
Clearance. With full RPM, what will your speed be compared to
deep water?
A. stay the same
B. The RPM will drop with 15% of full
C. faster
D. slower
15. Your ship is dead in the water with the rudder amidships. As the
right-handed screw starts to turn ahead, the bow will tend to go
__________.
A. to starboard
B. straight ahead
C. to port
D. as influenced by the tide and sea
16. Your ship is going full astern and making sternway. Where will
the "pivot point" be located? No wind, current.
A. at the center of gravity
B. At 1/6 of the ship's length off the bow
C. Somewhere aft of the center of gravity, but it is impossible to
Pin-point the exact location
D. At 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

17. Your ship is equipped with a single, right-handed fixed screw.

Steaming full ahead you reverse the engine to stop the ship.
How will the ship react? No wind or current.
A. She will stop on 1,5 times the ship's length
B. She will most likely sheer to port and stop rather quickly
C. She will most likely continue on a straight course
D. She will most likely sheer to starboard and gradually loose
headway
18. Your ship is going full ahead as you start to slow down. Where is
the position of the "pivot point" now? No wind, current.
A. Same position as when the ship is on full ahead
B. The "pivot point" will move to the stern
C. It will move aft as the ship slows down
D. It will move to the side of the center line
19. You have made a turning test on full speed in deep water. You
are now going to make a test in shallow water. Do you think the
turning diameter will be the same?
A. Yes, the turning diameter will be the same for all depths.
B. No, the turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water.
C. Yes, it will be the same provided the UKC is 25 % - 50 %.
 D. No, the turning diameter will be increased in shallow water.
20. A ship is not turning around the center of gravity, but another
point. What is the point called?
A. point of turning
B. pivot point
C. point of no return
D. point of radius

21. Your ship is drifting in open sea with temporary engine

malfunction. You are equipped with precise navigation
equipment. What should you do in this situation?
A. Go to bed and wait for the engine to be ready
B. call the company immediately
C. Use the opportunity to plot direction and rate of drift for later
use
D. ask the chief engineer when the engine will be ready
22. When making a Scharnow turn, the __________.
A. Rudder is put hard over and the initial turn is maintained until
about 240° from the original course
B. Initial turn direction is away from the side the man went over
C. Rudder must be put over towards the side the man went over
D. Man overboard must be not more than 300 feet astern when
starting the turn
23. Your ship has right handed propeller and is on half ahead when
you put her full astern to stop her. Do you think the rudder will
have any effect while the ship is making headway?
• No the rudder must be put midships, otherwise it could be
destroyed.
• Yes, by putting the rudder hard to port the ship will go to port,
even if the propeller is going astern.
• No, the rudder should always be amidships when the propeller
is Going astern.
• Yes, by putting the rudder hard starboard. it will shield water
flow to The starboard. side of the propeller and vice versa to port. This
will effect turning of the ship.

24. Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring.
Which action should you take?
A. Put the bow directly into the sea and proceed at full speed.
B. Heave to in the trough of the sea.
C. Put the sea and wind about two points on either bow and
reduce speed.
• Put the sea and wind on either quarter and proceed at
Increased speed.
25. Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will __________.
 A. increase your visibility
B. reduce your drift rate
C. keep the survival craft from turning over
D. aid in recovering the survival craft
26. This type of screw is principally used by fast coastal craft and
some classes of aircraft carriers. The propeller revolve in the
same direction, so as to facilitate engine installation. This
propeller is __________.
A. Triple or multiple screw
B. single screw
C. quadruple screw
D. twin screw
27. In principle of shiphandling which factor that a master or a pilot
has no direct control of the ship ?
A. Shallow water factor
B. reduced engine power
C. wind power
D. ship stops

28. When steering a tow downstream around the shape of a sand

bar, and staying on the proper side of the buoys, an operator
should be cautious of __________.
A. swift current under the bar causing loss of control
B. eddies under the bar
C. cross-currents pushing the tow into the bar
D. cross-currents pushing the tow away from the bar
29. this propeller consist of the screws that are out-turning, are
right-handed on the starboard side and left-handed on the port
side, this type of propeller is __________.
A. single screw
B. Twin screw
C. quadruple screw
D. triple crew
30. You have made a turning test on full speed in deep water. You
are now going to make a test in shallow water. Do you think the
turning diameter will be the same?
A. Yes, the turning diameter will be the same for all depths.
B. No, the turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water.
C. Yes, it will be the same provided the UKC is 25 % - 50 %.
D. No, the turning diameter will be increased in shallow water.
31. Maneuvering with tug(s) in USA ports, LET GO tug lines is
indicated on the ship's whistle by:
A. One long blast and two short blast
B. Two short blast
C. Two long blast and one short blast
D. Three short blasts
32. In most cases, when a large merchant vessel enters shallow
water at high speed the ______.
A. maneuverability will increase
B. speed will increase
C. bow will squat farther than the stern
D. vessel will rise slightly on a level plane
33. Under COLREGS Annex IV, the firing of a gun at one minute
intervals indicates that the vessel:
A. rendering the 21-gun salute
B. uses her guns to warn other vessels as a danger signal
C. is indicating the danger signal
D. is in distress
34. A drift lead indicates that the vessel is dragging anchor when
the line is ________.
A. taut and leading forward
B. slack
C. leading out perpendicular to the centerline
D. leading under the hull
35. When two power-driven vessels are crossing, which of the
vessels has the right of way?
A. the vessel which is to starboard of the other vessel
B. the vessel which is to port of the other vessel
C. the larger vessel
D. the vessel that sounds the first whistle signal

36. The effect known as "bank cushion" acts in which of the

following ways on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a
narrow channel?
A. it heels the vessel towards the bank
B. it forces the stern away from the bank
C. it forces the entire vessel away from the bank
D. it forces the bow away from the bank
37. A vessel will "squat" when it proceeds underway ______.
A. only in deep water
B. only in shallow water
C. in all depths of water
D. only in narrow channels
38. How is shallow water effect felt in a vessel?
A. The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder
B. The vessel responds very quickly to the rudder
C. The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (left turning
propeller)
 D. The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (right turning
propeller)
39. Using a scope of 6, determine how many feet of anchor cable
you should pay out your anchor in a water with a depth of 12
feet.
A. 72 feet
B. 12 feet
C. 18 feet
D. 48 feet

40. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a

lifeboat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the lifeboat
should make __________.
A. an approach from leeward
B. an approach from windward
C. the most direct approach
D. an approach across the wind
41. The anti-rolling device which reduce the amplitude the of roll by
varying the amount of water in tanks on opposite side of the
ship, is referred to as.
A. gyroscopic stabilizer
B. none of these
C. anti-rolling tanks
D. bilge-keel
42. A vessel engaged in trawling, in addition to its identity lights, is
exhibiting two white lights in a vertical line. What is she doing?
A. her nets have come fast an obstruction
B. she is in distress
C. shooting her nets
D. hauling her nets
43. Under COLREGS Annex III, a power-driven bell striker is
recommended to ensure:
A. that it will not get rusty
B. it will surely hit the bell
C. it has a diameter of 300 mm
D. constant force

44. In restricted visibility, a vessel which detects by radar alone the

presence of another vessel, shall determine if a close quarters
situation is developing or risk of colision exists. If so, she shall:
A. all of these
B. avoid altering course toward a vessel abaft the beam
C. sound the danger signal
 D. when taking action, make only course changes

45. The tendency for the vessel to be attracted bodily towards the
bank when proceeding along a narrow channel.
A. bank suction
B. bow cushion
C. squat
D. transfer
46. Which of the following is NOT a distress signal?
A. flames on a vessel as in a burning tar barrel
B. code flags "November" and "Charlie'
C. dye marker on the water
D. vertical motion of a white lantern at night
47. Find the scope of an anchor cable with three shackles paid out
in a depth of 45 feet.
A. six
B. five
C. four
D. two

48. In ship handling, as the beam increases for a given length, it is

apparent that the directional stability:
A. remains constant
B. increases
C. decreases
D. None of the above
49. On a single-screw vessel, when coming port side to a pier and
being set off the pier, you should _______.
• swing wide and approach the pier so as to land starboard side
to
B. approach the pier on a parallel course at reduced speed
C. make your approach at a greater angle than in calm weather
D. point the vessel's head well up into the slip and decrease your
speed
```` COMPETENCE 10 DECK

• Some of the material listed in BC Code also appear in IMDG Code

The material may at times reduce oxygen content of a cargo space or are
prone to self heating and one of these cargo is:
A. ore
B. fertilizer
C. phospate
D. woodchips
2. Which of the following statements is true?
 I. Dunnages should be cleaned and dried before being used in
frozen compartments.
II. Dunnages should not be pre-cooled prior loading in
refrigerated compartments.
A. Only I is true
B. I and II are false
C. Only II is true
D. I and II are true
3. “Overstowing” cargo occurs when;
A. more cargo is accepted than the vessel can carry
B. excess cargo must be stowed on deck
C. one cargo prevents unloading another cargo and must be
moved Before unloading can continue
D. one commodity is stowed above another

4. When loading Frozen beef it is necessary to put ( 75mms x 75

mms) dunnage on decks and inserted every five or six tiers. What
is the purpose?
A. All of the choices are correct
B. To allow proper air circulation
C. To spread out the vertical pressure evenly from top to bottom
D. To segregate cargo systematically
5. Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a stack
of containers with twist locks, lashing are required when the tier
exceeds what height?
A. Lashing are always required
B. Two containers
C. One container
D. Three containers
6. A high cube container is often used to stow which of the
following?
A. dense bulk cargoes
B. fragile and breakable cargoes
C. industrial machineries
D. household appliances
7. How should grain cargoes be ventilated?
A. Ventilate vigorously
B. Do Not Ventilate
C. Surface ventilation
D. Through ventilation
8. Before a tank is crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank
must be measured at a position:
A. At the top of the tank
B. In the vent riser
C. One meter from the deck
D. Immediately above the level of the oil
9. What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing
containers?
A. Ties a container to the container below it
B. Restrains racking loads
C. Ties a container stack to the deck
D. Restrains the container against horizontal motion
10. When loading containers into the cell guides in the hold of a
container ship, which statement is true?
A. All containers must have vertical and horizontal lashings
B. No further securing is usually required
C. Containers must have vertical lashings if they do not have twist
lock securing
D. The container must be locked into the cell guide
11. The process of removing cargo residues in preparation for the
next cargo.
A. Hold Sweeping
B. Hold washing
C. Residue disposal
D. Hold cleaning

12. You are in a containership. Which of the following statements

about the stowage of hazardous materials in containers is True?
• The containers provide automatic segregation of hazardous
materials except for class A explosives
• Package liquids within a container should be stowed on top of
packages of solids to prevent crushing
• All packages within a container must be mark this end up to
Indicate correct
• refrigerated container with a fuel tank containing a flammable
liquid must be stowed on deck
13. Which factor is not important when calculating the best use of
the cubic capacity of a ship’s hold?
A. The value of the cargo
B. The proper use of filler cargo
C. The skill of the longshoremen
D. The choice of cargo to fit the hold
14. In case of loss overboard of packaged of marine pollutants into
the sea what must be done?
 • Immediately conduct retrieval operation then report to the
owners
• Report the incident by the fastest telecommunication channel
to the nearest coastal state
C. Report to the owners first then to the nearest coastal state
D. Report the incident by the fastest telecom channel to the CSO
And wait for others

15. One of the major advantage of the "load-on-top" system is that:

A. corrosion within the cargo tanks is reduced
B. the cargo that was previously lost is recovered
C. multiple product ships can use it without contamination
problem
D. discharge time is significantly reduced
16. Which of the following could result in an incorrect oxygen
concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
• Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no
more than 2 minutes
B. Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute
C. Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes
D. None of the above
17. Cargo transport units, including freight containers shall be
loaded, stowed and secured throughout the voyage in
accordance with the cargo securing manual approved by the
______.
A. classification society
B. IMO
C. Organization
D. administration
18. What group of refrigerated cargoes requires oxygen and gives
off carbon dioxide while in storage?
A. None of these
B. Living cargoes
C. Non-living organic cargoes
D. Inert commodities

19. A survey of refrigerated cargo, to certify that proper methods of

stowage were utilized, can be conducted by the ________.
A. Safety and Health Administration
B. American Bureau of Shipping
C. U.S. Coast Guard
D. National Cargo Bureau
20. A reel;
I. Should be stowed on its side whenever possible
II. If not possible to stow flat, stow it with its axis running
athwartships
A. None of the above
B. I and II
C. II only
D. I only
21. Which of the following is an example of fundamental objective
of cargo stowage?
A. Load so the trim does not exceed 3 feet by the stern
B. Prevent overcarriage by block stowage
C. Load so the trim does not exceed 3 feet by the stern
D. Separate wet and dry cargoes into separate holds
22. On a manned ship carrying packaged hazardous cargo, the
hazardous materials shall be inspected __________.
A. All of the above
B. Prior to the entry into a U.S. port
C. After stowage is complete
D. Every 24 hours. unless equipped with a fire detecting system

23. You are arriving at Edinburg to load 1,000 cases of Scotch

whiskey. The cases are packed with 12 bottles of one liter each
to a case. The flash point of the Scotch isº F. Which of the
following is TRUE?
• The Scotch is not required to be shipped under the
requirements of The hazardous materials regulations
• The individual cases must be labeled with a red label reading
"Combustible Liquid"
C. This cargo is not permitted to be towed on deck
D. The optional shipping name that can be used on the manifest is
"Intoxicant"
24. In grain loading computations at all times during a voyage, the
ship shall have sufficient intact stability to provide adequate
dynamic stability after taking into account the ________.
A. maximum loadable grain
B. fore and aft
C. adverse heeling moment
D. effect of draft limit
25. Determine whether the following statements are true or false?
I. The separation of odorous and sensitive cargo into separate
airtight compartment would prohibit tainting.
II. An odorous cargo may well leave a well tainted atmosphere
Behind after discharge.
A. I and II are true
B. Only II is false
C. Only I is true
D. I and II are false
26. If a fruit or other strong smelling cargo has been carried in the
compartment previously, it is necessary to ____.
A. wash and load it with a different cargo
B. wash and deodorize it
C. wash and dry it with clean cloth
D. wash and make it air dry
27. Which of the following could result in an incorrect oxygen
concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
• Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no
More than 2 minutes
B. Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute
C. Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes
D. None of the above
28. What is the usual carrying temperature of frozen cargoes?
A. 0º C
B. -10º or - 15º C
C. 20º C
D. 30º C
29. When heating a metal and cooling it down for desired fashion.
This is called:
A. annealing
B. cooling
C. heating
D. strengthening

30. Some coals may be liable to react with water and produce acids
which may cause corrosion. An odorless gas much lighter than
air and has flammable limit in air of 4% to 75 % by volume has
because this reaction.
A. carbon monoxide
B. carbon dioxide
C. methane
D. hydrogen
31. With a given load on the cargo hook, the thrust on a cargo boom
_____.
A. increases as the angle to the horizontal decreases
B. increases as the angle to the horizontal increases
C. is greatest at an angle of 45º and decreases as the boom is
raised or lowered
[Link] least at an angle of 45º and increases as the boom is raised or
lowered
32. Measurement for tonnage and issue of an International tonnage
certificate is the responsibility of:
A. Port State
B. Classification Society
C. International Maritime Organization
D. Flag State
33. Your ship has been holed in amidships compartment and
partially flooded. If flooded compartment does not have free
flow with the sea, you should use which of the following
method to calculate the effect of flooding on your stability.
A. added weight method
B. compartment standard method
C. lost buoyancy method
D. all answers are correct
34. In a general cargo ship, bales of LINEN or FABRIC should not
be stowed together with sacks of TEA because:
A. tea could damage the linen by staining
B. tea could damage the fabric by tainting
C. tea is a food item
D. tea could contaminate the linen
35. These are devices which secure standing and running riggings
that includes cleats, bitts, chocks, fairleads and pad eye.
A. deck fittings
B. deck store
C. deck device
D. deck gear
36. What is the weight of the product carried at 15 deg. Celsius?
A. Absolute
B. Relative
C. Net
D. Gross
37. To remove any odor on your cargo holds after discharging
refrigerated cargoes, you should .
A. wash down and thoroughly ventilate the hold
B. wash down with fresh water, before spraying with a solution
C. thoroughly ventilate, spray with solution of ½ lb. of chloride of
Lime to 3 gallons of fresh water
D. wash down with fresh water then spray with solution

38. The weight of the container and its contents is supported on

deck by what parts?
A. Bottom flooring only
B. Four lower corner casting
C. Bottom side and end rails
D. Bottom flooring and end panels
39. If you are on duty and observe any situation which presents a
safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations what
action should you take first?
A. Shut down the transfer operation
B. Close the valves at the manifold
C. Notify the person in charge from shore
D. Close the valves at the manifold
40. A most important consideration in loading cardboard cartons is
to keep the tiers ____.
A. straight and clean
B. level
C. staggered at different levels
D. dunnaged
41. Which of the following could result in an incorrect oxygen
concentration reading on the oxygen indicator?
• Exposure to a very low concentration of sulfur dioxide for no
more than 2 minutes
B. Exposure to carbon dioxide for no more than 1 minute
C. Exposure to carbon dioxide for more than 10 minutes
D. None of the above

42. What percent of cargo in international trade moves by container

ship?
A. Under 75%
B. Under 25%
C. 75% or over
D. Under 50%
43. The tendency of flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its:
A. Flammable Range
B. convection index
C. flash point
D. ignition temperature
44. The timber deck cargo should be secured throughout
independent lashing spaced not more than _____ apart.
A. 4 meters
B. 2meters
C. 1 meter
D. 3 meters
45. Which data cannot be found on a moisture equilibrium chart?
A. Vapor Pressure
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Moisture content
46. The label on a package of an oxidizing hazardous material is___.
 A. Red
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Green

47. Argon is classified as a __________.

A. non flammable gas
B. flammable gas
C. flammable liquid
D. corrosive
48. What action would you not take in case of a coal gas fire or
explosion occurs?
A. isolate for ½ miles in all directions if tank is involved in fire
B. isolate hazard area and deny entry
C. keep unnecessary people away from the explosion
D. stay at the direction of the wind
49. You are to load a bagged cargo in the lower hold of a ship
equipped with drain walls in the after end of the hold. The first
layer of dunnage should be laid down;
A. At an angle to the keel, with forward end outboard
B. At an angle to the keel, with the forward end inboard
C. Diagonally across the entire hold
D. In the fore and aft pattern
50. To separate different kinds of bulk grain stowed in the same
hold separation cloths should____:
A. not be used
B. placed next to the cargo
C. be laid slack between the cargoes
D. be laid tight between the cargoes
51. The stowage factor for cargo is based upon _____.
A. one long ton
B. one short metric ton
C. one short ton
D. one long metric ton
52. Which of the following STATEMENTS regarding fumigation is
NOT TRUE?
I. Personnel employed in opening hatches should wear
respirators
II. The area should be checked for gas concentration with
reading recorded in the log.
A. II only
B. Both I and II
C. I only
D. Neither I nor II
53. Good left over at the completion of discharging operation which
is eventually sold by the ship owner to meet claims for short
delivery are called:
A. Residue
 B. excess cargo
C. oddments
D. remnants
54. Hygroscopic cargoes should be ventilated in cases
when_________?
• The dew point of the outside air is greater than the dew point
of the air in the hold
• The outside dew point is 60°F and the cargo temperature is
54°F
C. The dew point of the air in the hold is very low
D. Going from a warm to a cold climate

55. A vessel is proceeding along the English Coast when it sprang a

leak on the hull below the waterline. Efforts to patch her proved
futile. It was added to ditch her to the nearest shoal. This is
termed as:
A. stranding
B. Ditching
C. grounding
D. beaching
56. This type of container is used transporting large, shapeless, or
break bulk cargoes such as large machinery, pipes, vehicles etc.
A. Dry bulk container
B. General cargo container
C. Thermal container
D. Special container
57. The timber deck cargo should be secured throughout
independent lashing spaced not more than _____ apart.
A. 4 meters
B. 2 meters
C. 1 meter
D. 3 meters
58. It is the movement of moisture contained in materials by
settling and consolidation of the materials due to vibration and
ship's motion.
A. moisture content
B. moist cargo
C. moisture laden cargo
D. moisture migration

59. A condition in which the oxygen content throughout the

atmosphere of a tank has been reduced to 8%.
A. Inert gas condition
 B. Poisonous condition
C. Safety condition
D. None of these
60. If you are loading fruit in reefer spaces and you notice that the
fruit is beginning to mold, you should:
A. Refuse to carry the cargo
B. Discharge C02 into the compartment after loading
C. Write up exceptions on the cargo
D. Carry the cargo at a cooler temperature than originally planned
61. Ullages are measured from the_________.
A. above deck datum
B. bushing
C. Tank ceiling
D. thievage mark
62. Spontaneous heating of coal rapidly accelerates at the
approximate minimum temperature of:
A. 100 degrees F
B. 88 degrees F
C. 111 degrees F
D. 119 degrees F

63. This is a modern method of welding where there is actual

melting of the materials being joined although the weld metal is
composed largely of added materials having the same
characteristics as the metal being joined.
A. fusion weld
B. arc weld
C. butt weld
D. fillet weld
64. What is the term used when a cargo of the same density
throughout?
A. bulk cargoes other than grain
B. Heterogeneous cargo
C. Grain cargo
D. Homogeneous cargo
65. The securing systems for containers were developed to prevent
container movement during which of the following ship
motions?
A. Yaw
B. Roll
C. Surge
D. Sway
66. The first layer of dunnage should be laid down _______, if you
are to load a bagged cargo in lower hold of a ship with drain
wells at the after end of the hold.
A. vertically
B. horizontally
C. fore and aft
D. transversely

67. Which material should not be used to secure cargo on deck for a
voyage?
A. Steel chain
B. Wire rope
C. Steel strapping
D. Fiber rope
68. The IMDG Code ensures safety mainly by stipulating the
packaging required and _____.
• segregation from other cargoes with which there could be an
adverse action
B. maximizing the most available space
C. maximizing the load capacity
D. all answers are correct
69. Container spreader are used to ________.
A. Lift containers for loading and unloading
B. Keep the container in place during the voyage
C. To secure the containers in hold
D. Spread the contents of the containers for Customs Inspection
70. Open or partially opened hatches should not be:
A. provided handrails or stanchions
B. provided with warning sign
C. covered with tarpaulins
D. Lighted

71. How long is the standard container used to measure equivalent

units?
A. 7 meters
B. 5 meters
C. 3 meters
D. 6 meters
72. The signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm
extended with the palm down and holds this position rigidly.
This is the signal to _____
A. retract boom
B. stop
C. extend boom
 D. emergency stop
73. After loading or discharging cargoes, ventilation of the cargo
space may be necessary except:
A. remove taint
B. dissipate gasses
C. removed heat
D. accommodate taint
74. Sweat damaged in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons will
occur when the __________.
A. air temperature is lower than the temperature of the cargo
B. dew points is lower than the temperature of the cargo
C. dew point is higher than the temperature of the cargo
D. air temperature is higher than the temperature of the cargo

75. Of the general methods of stowing bagged cargo, which allows

maximum ventilation?
A. Brick method
B. Cross tier method
C. Half-bag method
D. Full-bag method
76. What kind of gauging is used in airtight enclosed cargo tanks?
A. Closed gauging
B. Slip tubes
C. Float gauge
D. Sounding tape
77. In stowing carboys of acid which are not completely boxed,
what is the maximum tiers permitted?
A. Not less than 2 tiers
B. At least 1 tier
C. Just 3 tiers
D. Not more than 2 tiers
78. Actions to take once cargo has shifted include the following
EXCEPT:
• re-stowing or reset during the cargo and, where possible,
increasing the friction
• alterations of course to reduce accelerations
• de-ballast the area where the cargo has shifted
• reduction of speed to reduce accelerations and vibrations
79. A vessel has an amidships superstructure. Which location would
be most suitable for on-deck stowage of automobiles?
A. On top of # 1 hatch
B. On top of the hatch immediately aft of the midships house
C. Beside the hatches, forward of the midships house
D. On top of the hatch immediately forward of the midships
house
80. With respect to “Cargo Securing”, which type of cargo is subject
to the sea motion of roll, pitch and heave?
I. Standardized Cargo
II. Non-Standardized Cargo
A. I
B. Neither I nor II
C. I & II
D. II
81. Which term describes a part of a natural fiber line?
A. Marline
B. Strands
C. Reeves
D. Lays
82. For package freight, an average allowance for “broken stowage”
is.
A. 60%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 30%

83. Of the general methods of stowing bagged cargo, which

method will allow for maximum ventilation?
A. Half-bag method
B. Full bag method
C. Cross tier method
D. Brick method
84. Which of the following is the main purpose of ventilating cargo
holds?
A. All of these
B. To prevent ship’s sweat
C. To remove oxygen
D. To warm the cargo
85. Mousing a cargo with marline or small line:
A. increase the lifting capacity of the hook
B. prevents undue strain on the sling ring
C. prevents the sling ring from coming out of the hook
D. protects the hook from the sling ring
86. Rice cargo emits what form of gas?
 A. Carbon monoxide
B. Methane
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide
87. You have a quantity of bagged cargo to stow in a block in #3
UTD. Which stow will provide the maximum block stability:
A. Half-bagged cargo
B. Bilge and cantline
C. Alternate layer direction
D. Bag on bag cargo
88. The main advantage of a unitized cargo system such as pre-sling,
palletization, or containerization is:
A. avoid shifting of cargo at sea
B. cleaner operation
C. all of these
D. cost reduction in terms of cargo operation
89. Signal man assisting the crane operator has his arm extended
downwards, forefinger pointing down and moves his hand in
small horizontal circles. This is the signal to;
A. lower swing load
B. lower
C. lower the load
D. lower boom
90. When viewed from above, the best position for the guy in
relation to the boom is_____.
A. right angle
B. at 45 degrees angle
C. parallel to the boom
D. aft of the boom
91. A high cube container is designed specifically to _________.
A. protect fragile cargoes
B. stow cargoes with concentrated weights such as machinery
C. carry low density
D. carry cargoes of very low stowage factors

92. Precaution/s to be taken to avoid spontaneous heating when

bulk cargoes are carried in a general cargo vessel?
A. Raising the vapor pressure of the commodity
B. Proper ventilations and surveillance of temperature
C. Lowering the dew point of the air
D. Ensure fitness and safety of cargo spaces
93. A cargo of refrigerated fruit is packed in crates with transverse
members dividing the crate in two equal parts. Which of the
 following is TRUE?
• The cargo block should be tightly packed if the cargo suitably
Chilled Upon delivery to the vessel.
B. The crates should NEVER be stowed brick fashion
C. Both side of each crate must be checked for the temperature
and the appearance of the fruit.
D. The cargo block should stowed with air channels built
throughout the stowage cargo.
94. When loading a cargo of taconite, proper sequencing of loading
by hatch number is necessary to:
A. Provide proper trim
B. Control list
C. Prevent excessive longitudinal stresses
D. Prevent negative stability from developing
95. You are loaded with bundles of steel from Yokohama to Manila.
On passing Northern Luzon, the dew point of the ambient air
was observed to be higher than the dew point inside the cargo
hold, under this condition, should you ventilate?
A. No, because steel products do not require air
B. Yes, the hold should be ventilated vigorously
C. No sweat will form on the steel bundles
D. Yes, but only if the air is free of moisture
96. To separate different kinds of bulk grain stowed in the same
hold separation cloths should______.
A. not be used
B. placed next to the cargo
C. be laid slack between the cargoes
D. be laid tight between the cargoes
97. Where will the Master find the detailed guidance for proper
precaution prior loading aexplosive cargoes ?
A. Carriage of dangerous goods in vessels
B. IMDG code
A. A only
B. Both choices is correct
C. B only
D. Neither A nor B
98. The term use to denote a quality of change in some cargoes
which damages the commodity itself is known as ______.
A. Deterioration
B. Tainting
C. Inherent vice
D. A latent defect
99. When pre-cooling the holds in preparation to receiving
refrigerated cargoes, the hold temperature must be:
A. at zero temperature within 24 hours
B. at constant temperature within 24 hours
C. slightly above carrying temp. within 24 hours
D. slightly below carrying temp. within 24 hours
 100. What percent of cargo in international trade moves by
container ship?
A. Under 75%
B. under 25%
C. 75% or over
D. Under 50%
101. When a two-leg sling attached to one hoist line is used to lift a
load, a sling of 40 ft. in length is better than one of 30 ft.
because the ____________.
A. tension in the sling leg is less
B. load can be lifted higher
C. sling will be easier to attach
D. sling will easier to remove
102. Proper stowage for cardboard cartons is __________:
A. with the large cartons on the bottom and small ones on top
B. with small cartons placed on top of and inside the perimeter of
the top of large cartons
[Link] fashion, with an upper carton resting on two cartons
below it
D. where one carton rests directly on top of another
103. “Optional Cargo” refers to cargo that;
A. the shipper may substitute for another
B. maybe carried either on deck or below deck
C. may be all or partly discharged at one or more ports
D. may or may not be carried

104. Which practice should be followed while loading a tanker?

A. When closing valves, close them down, then open one or two
turns, and reclose
B. Keep the seamen on watch on standby in the mess room
C. Keep a strain on the loading hoses
D. Have all tanks closed except the pone you are loading
105. To remove the effects of free communication flooding, it would
usually be most advantageous to:
A. Ballast double bottom wing tanks
B. Completely flood the forepeak tank
C. Completely flood off-center deep tanks
D. Completely flood high center tanks
106. It means a vehicle, container, flat, pallet, portable tank,
packaged unit, or any other entity:
A. Cargo stowage unit
B. Hold unit
 C. Stowage unit
D. Cargo unit
107. What purpose does a bridge fitting serve when lashing
containers?
A. Ties a container to the container below it
B. Ties a container stack to the deck
C. Restrain racking loads
D. Restrains the container against horizontal motion

108. To facilitate faster discharging operation, each port of

discharge is allocated a distinctive color mark.
A. color coding
B. Ship markings
C. port markings
D. cargo coding
109. What type of a bulk carrier that has high freeboard and
equipped with its own unloading equipments?
A. coal carrier
B. Cement Carrier
C. iron ore carrier
D. wood chip carrier
110. IMO Grain Regulations assume a pattern of movement of grain
in the void spaces above the grain surfaces which give________.
A. rise to adverse heeling moment
B. increase of stability due to heeling moment
C. increase heeling angle
D. increase of GM
111. What is the proper method of lashing cars?
A. Body unit lashed, brakes engaged, wheels choked
B. Weight of the body supported, brakes on engine gear, wheels
lashed
C. Wheels lashed, wheels choked, hand brakes engaged
D. Brakes on engine gear, wheels choked, body unit lashed

112. A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic commodity

of_______.
A. lowering the dew point of the air
B. causing moisture to accumulate against the bulkhead.
C. raising the vapor pressure of the commodity
D. lowering the vapor pressure of the commodity
113. What is NOT a problem when carrying coal?
A. Spontaneous heating
B. The corrosion for some types of coal will cause to the ship
C. The requirement for through-ventilation
D. Generation of machine gas
114. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with
a cargo of a non-hygroscopic nature in the holds, which is
TRUE?
• Danger of heavy ship sweat exists; constant and vigorous
ventilation Is required
• There is little danger of ship’s sweat, slight possibility of cargo
sweat; moderate ventilation is needed
• The possibility of any sweat problem, either cargo or ship, is
remote
• There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if outside air is
introduced by ventilation
115. Damage to cargo caused by dust is known as __________.
A. tainting
B. contamination
C. Vaporization
D. oxidation

116. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the carriage of

containers on ships not designed to carry containers?
• Containers carried on deck or on hatches should preferably be
stowed in the fore-and-aft direction
B. Containers should not extend over the ship’s sides
C. Containers should be stowed and secured so as to permit safe
Access For personnel
D. Containers do not overstress the deck or hatches on which they
are stowed
117. Which of the following is not a precaution to be taken when
topping off?
A. Notify the engine room of procedure
B. Maintain communications with the dock man
C. Reduce the loading rate
D. Give the operation undivided attention
118. Under normal weather and sea conditions when securing a
stack of containers with non- locking fittings, lashings are
required when the tier exceeds what height?
A. Lashing are always required
B. One container
C. Two containers
D. Three containers
119. When loading a container vessel, the operation is basically that
of a vertical loading. The important factors to be considered
when loading containers is port of discharge:
 A. Crushability and inherent vice
B. Available dunnage and chocking
C. Sweat and weight
D. Weight and refrigeration

120. Materials which at least contain some fine particles and some
moisture, usually water, although they need not be visibly wet
in appearance are called:
A. Wet cargoes
B. Flow state
C. Concentrates
D. Cargoes which may liquefy
121. Which of the following is the advantage of having a (COW)
crude oil washing?
A. an effective monitoring system
B. an effective monitoring system
C. reduction in time of passage tank cleaning
D. increased work load in port
122. If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo,
it will most likely cause.
A. mold to develop on commodities
B. malfunction of the refrigeration equipment
C. contamination of the insulation in the space
D. all answers are correct
123. When commencing cargo operations on a container ship, one
cell at a hatch is generally discharged completely (to the
bottom of the ship) before removing any containers from the
adjoining cells to:
A. Improve stability during cargo operations.
B. Allow longshoremen easy access to the hatch
C. Remove an existing list that would slow cargo operations.
D. Initiate loading in conjunction with unloading at the hatch.

124. The principal hazards associated with coal which are of

importance when shipping the commodity except:
A. The potential to emit methane
B. The potential for self heating in extreme case to ignition
C. The potential to cause corrosion to the ship’s structure
D. The potential for ship sweat is extreme
125. When transporting heavy lift cargoes at the time of loading,
certain conditions must be required except:
A. maximum load of each specific support points
B. where may the lifting attachments be made on the load
C. what additional lifting equipments are required to handle the
load
D. technique of moving the load vertically
126. Strips of timber fixed to the frames of a vessel, either in
horizontal or vertical direction, which keep cargo away from
the sides of the vessel.
A. pallet
B. cargo battens
C. dunnages
D. limber boards
127. Which factor is not important when calculating the best use of
the cubic capacity of a ship’s hold?
A. The skill of the longshoremen
B. The choice of cargo to fit the hold
C. The value of the cargo
D. The proper use of filler cargo

128. On the fully containerized ship, approximately one third or

more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center. Top
stowed containers are subject to.
A. accelerations less than on conventional vessels
B. no accelerations
C. accelerations greater than on conventional vessels
D. accelerations the same as on conventional vessels
129. What is the frequent incidents of tanker pollution?
A. Collision
B. Loading and discharging
C. Routine discharge of oil during ballasting
D. Grounding
130. How should the first layer of the dunnage be laid for loading of
bagged cargo in the lower hold of a ship equipped with side
bilges?
A. At an angle to the keel with the forward end outboard
B. At an angle to the keel with the forward end inboard
C. Diagonally across the entire hold
D. In a fore and aft pattern
131. When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to
the dew point of the air in the cargo hold, you should:
A. energize the exhaust blowers
B. energize the intake blowers
C. ventilate the cargo
D. not ventilate the cargo

132. Which factor is the most important in preventing sweat

damage within a cargo hold?
A. Outside air temperature
 B. Dew point of the cargo hold
C. Temperature of the cargo
D. Dew of the outside atmosphere
133. The measurement from the tank top to the beams beneath the
overhead and from sweat batten to sweat batten is called a
vessel's _______.
A. Grain cubic
B. Net cubic
C. Gross cubic
D. Bale cubic
134. “Long Hatch is;
A. a hatch over 13 meters in length
B. a hatch whose length is the same as the length of the cargo
hold
[Link] disproportionate amount of cargo for one port is stowed
under anyone hatch
D.a hatch with a large opening to accommodate cargo such as
pipe and railroad
135. The damage caused by insects, mice or rats is:
A. contamination
B. tainting damage
C. pilferage
D. vermin damage

136. What precaution must you take when setting a heavy lift on
deck if it exceeds the deck load capacity?
I. Place dunnage under it to disperse the weight
II. Shore up in the area where it is to be placed
A. II only
B. I and II
C. None of the above
D. I only
137. Segregating a cargo of finished lumber is best done by _______:
A. wire and staples
B. chalk or a marking pen
C. laying rope yarns athwartship
D. painting stripes across the different cargo blocks
138. The pre-wash procedure for ships carrying non-solidifying
substances which have a viscosity equal to or greater than 25
mPa at 20º C is hot water wash of at least:
A. 100º C
B. 120º C
C. 60º C
D. 80º C
139. What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for reception
 of a bulk grain cargo?
A. Steam clean areas obstructed by structural members
B. Remove loose rust and scale
C. Remove residue of previous cargo
D. Spray of fumigate any insect colonies

140. The REID vapor pressure is used for the classification of:
A. grade D liquids only
B. flammable liquids
C. grade E liquids only
D. Combustible liquids
141. When fumigation with sulfur is performed, what will be the
minimum time required allotted for preparing the materials
before fumigating?
A. 10 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 15 hours
142. It means a log which is "slab-cut" or ripped lengthwise so that
the resulting thick pieces have two opposing, parallel flat sides.
A. pulpwood
B. poles
C. lumber
D. cant
143. Cargo holds is to be washed down after all cargo residue were
put on deck. Likewise, holds floorings and bilges should be
dried. A cloth is place around the bilges cover for protection to
other cargoes to be loaded.
A. net
B. Canvass
C. burlap cloth
D. synthetic cloth

144. The heaviest type pallet is the __________.

A. factory pallet
B. stevedoring pallet
C. Shipping pallet
D. warehouse pallet
145. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to
maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo?
A. The horizontal distribution of the deck cargo
B. The under deck cargo
C. The cargo in the lower hold
 D. The vertical distribution of the deck cargo
146. Overcarriage is best prevented by__________.
A. assuming heavy cargo is stowed low in the vessel
B. stowing the cargo which is to be discharged last on the bottom
C. inspection of the hold at completion of discharge
D. checking the vessel’s load line calculation carefully
147. You are to load styrene in bulk, which is subject to self-
polymerization. You must __________.
• not carry any cargo in the tanks surrounding the tank loaded
with styrene
• use heating coils to maintain the styrene within the
temperatures specified by the shipper.
• be furnished with a Certificate of Inhibition to be maintained on the
bridge
• inject nitrogen to pad any ullage above the styrene to prevent
contact with oxygen.

148. A heated bulkhead has the effect on a hygroscopic commodity

of:
A. lowering the dew point of the air
B. raising the vapor pressure of the commodity
C. causing moisture to accumulate against the bulkhead
D. lowering the vapor pressure of the commodity
149. Your ship has been holed in amidships compartment and
partially flooded. If flooded compartment has free
communication with the sea, you should use which of the
following method to calculate the effect of flooding on your
stability.
A. all answers are correct
B. lost buoyancy method
C. compartment standard method
D. added weight method
150. Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, the MOST
important factor while loading containers is the ___.
A. Contents of the container
B. Size of the shore side crane
C. Weight of the container
D. List of the vessel
151. A port mark shows;
A. the name of the shipper
B. where the cargo is going
C. where the cargo is coming from
D. the name of the consignee
 152. On the fully containerized ship, approximately one-third or
more of the cargo is on deck above the rolling center. Top
stowed containers are subject to __________.
A. accelerations the same as on conventional vessels
B. accelerations greater than on conventional vessels
C. no accelerations
D. accelerations less than on conventional vessels
153. Which of the following is INCORRECT when carrying coal?
A. coal generates methane gas
B. spontaneous combustion is possible for coal cargo
C. some types of cargoes cause corrosion to the vessel
D. spontaneous combustion is possible for coal cargo
154. Under IMDG Code, acids are labeled with a _________ placard
A. white
B. red and white
C. red
D. skull an crossbones
155. Liquids that evaporate readily are known as___________
liquids. Any petroleum product with a flash point below 60º C
is classed as:
A. Flammable
B. non- volatile
C. volatile
D. combustible

156. When referring to dry bulk cargoes, the term “flow state”.
A. Refers to the saturation of dry a bulk product with water to the
Point where it acts as a liquid
• Relates to the suitability of loading a cargo by flowing down
Inclined chutes.
• Designates the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled
past the angle of repose.
• Relates to the minimum granule size of a particular product
where it will flow like a
157. How do you arrange a suitable system of ventilation for cargoes
of copra assuming that the vessel is not fitted with a mechanical
ventilation system ?
A. Good ventilation is not required
B. Ventilate only when going from warm to cold weather
C. Ventilate only when going from cold to warm weather
D. Raise corner hatches and trim all vents which should also be
covered with mesh
158. Some cargoes are stowed in a secured place. They are known as
 “special cargoes”. What does “special cargoes” means?
A. They are cargoes that contains hydrogen sulfide
B. These cargoes give off toxic gases when heated
C. They are of high value and easily pilferable
D. Periodic inspection is required while in transit to prevent
spoilage
159. Which of the following is an example of a fundamental
objective of cargo stowage?
A. Prevent over carriage by block stowage
B. Separate wet and dry cargoes into separate hold
C. Load so that trim does not exceed 3’ by the stern
D. Make maximum use of existing dunnages
160. On a reefer vessel, the compartment has been prepared and
cooled to the loading temperature. This makes the vessel ready
for ______.
A. Inspection of reefer
B. classification society surveyor to carry out a loading port survey
C. the loading of reefer cargoes
D. ocular inspection by Port State inspections
161. When chilled meat is to be carried, the requisite number of
metal bars, hooks and chains will have to be placed in the
compartment for pre-cooling. What important concern would
you look into regarding the hooks and chains?
A. It should be checked for it’s tensile strength
B. It should have been sterilized on shore
C. It should have been wrapped in plastic before use
D. It should have been dried by a clean cloth
162. What will happen if the flash point of kerosene which is 100
deg F be heated above 110 deg F?
A. boil off to atmosphere
B. less volatile and easier to handle
C. burn and explode
D. nothing
163. “Optional Cargo” refers to cargo that;
A. the shipper may substitute for another
B. maybe carried either on deck or below deck
C. may be all or partly discharged at one or more ports
D. may or may not be carried

164. Shoring under a deck load is usually required when the deck
load exceeds how many pounds per square foot?
A. 500
B. 100
C. 350
D. 200
165. Which of the two systems used in cargo handling considers the
 prevention of damage to cargo from heat, fire and water
damage?
I. Cargo Securing
II. Cargo Stowage
A. Both I and II
B. Neither I or II
C. II only
D. I only
166. A spreader bar is used in handling cargoes in container to
______.
A. increase the lifting radius
B. protect the slings
C. protect the upper part of the load
D. increase the lifting capacity
167. When reference is made to methods of discharging a crude oil
ship. This covers the following EXCEPT:
• pumps can be employed as one unit and have a common
suction line
B. sequenced in which the tanks are discharged and stripped
C. completing the checklist as required by ISGOTT
D. pumps can be employed as one unit and have a common
suction line
168. You are on a fully loaded tanker on a even keel. Which of the
following actions would create the biggest trim by the head?
A. Adding 350 tons to the forepeak
B. Removing 400 tons from the afterpeak tank
C. Shifting 300 tons from the afterpeak tank
D. Shifting 500 tons from the forepeak to afterpeak tank
169. The main function of a stripping system is on ________.
A. discharged liquid left in the cargo after the main pumps have
discharged the bulk
B. dispose of dangerous vapors within the cargo tanks
C. increase the loading rate of the shore side pumps
D. maintain the temperature of the cargo
170. In preparation for receiving chilled reefer cargo, the reefer
space has been pre-cooled for over twenty-four hours. Loading
may begin when the space has been cooled to a temperature
between ____________.
A. 28° F and 40° F
B. 12° F and 20° F
C. -10° F and + 10° F
D. 42° F and 55° F
171. Which of the following will NOT increase friction of a liquid
flowing in a pipe and cause a loss of suction head?
A. Slowing the pumping rate
B. Pipeline valves
C. Bends in the piping
D. Backing rings for pipe welds
172. When carried at a lower temperature than required, bananas
are chilled. At higher temperature, they ripen. What is the
carrying temperature of bananas?
A. 11.3º C
B. 14.3º C
C. 13.3º C
D. 12.2º C
173. In containerization, what is meant by "Stuffing"?
A. putting bales of cotton in a container
B. unloading good inside a freight container
C. placing foodstuffs in a tight container
D. stowing good inside a freight container
174. What International Code Flag is hoisted to denote loading of
flammable liquid is going on?
A. Zebra
B. Bravo
C. Hotel
D. Golf
175. The certificate of loading required by each vessel carrying grain
in bulk is issued by the ____.
A. Shipper of the cargo
B. American Bureau of Shipping
C. Owner or charterer of the vessel
D. National Cargo Bureau

176. With the buttress securing system, containers of different

height must be stowed ______.
A. on the top tier
B. in the hold
C. next to the buttress tower
D. on the bottom tier on deck
177. The Master should be provided with sufficient information on
any heavy cargo offered for shipment. The information should
at least include the following EXCEPT:
A. lifting points or slinging positions
B. securing points, where provided, including details of their
strength
C. bedding areas and particular bedding precautions if applicable
D. exact weight
178. A “Heterogeneous cargo” refer to:
 I. A bulk carrier loaded withsteel
II. A bulk carrier loaded with heavy ore
A. II only
B. I only
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II
179. Which of the following contains all the information necessary
to check that a proposed loading plan complies with the
stability requirements of the regulations at all stages of the
voyage.
A. grain loading stability booklet and associated plans
B. hydrostatic curve
C. Tank calibration curve
D. all the given choices are correct
180. What is the name called to a single fitting installed in a pipeline
that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a
liquid through the pipe?
A. Spectacle Flange
B. Blind Flange
C. Pivot coupling
D. Quick Release Coupling
181. Which of the following is an example of a fundamental
objective of cargo stowage?
A. Make maximum use of existing dunnages
B. Separate wet and dry cargoes into separate hold
C. Prevent over carriage by block stowage
D. Load so that trim does not exceed 3’ by the stern
182. This is a piece of securing dunnage that runs from a high
supporting level down to the cargo to prevent shifting.
A. tomming
B. shoring
C. bracing
D. Cribbing
183. Packages containing dangerous goods shall be provided with
______, as appropriate, so as to make clear the dangerous
properties of the goods contained therein.
A. all the given choices are correct
B. stencils of the labels
C. distinctive labels
D. Placards

184. On a vessel proceeding from a very cold to a warm climate with

a cargo of non-hygroscopic nature in the holds. Which is True?
A. Danger of heavy ship sweat exists
B. There is little danger of ship sweat, slight possibility of cargo
sweat; moderate ventilation is needed
 C. The possibility of sweat problem, either cargo or ship, is remote
D. There is danger of heavy cargo sweat if outside air is
introduced by ventilation
185. Which of the following is one major advantage of the load-on-
stop system?
A. Oil that was previously lost is recovered
B. Cargo tanks corrosion is reduced
C. Discharge time is significantly reduced
D. No danger of contamination
186. A grain filled cargo compartment has a permeability of about
_________.
A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 80-85 %
D. 60-65 %
187. You are planning to use crude oil washing system. What
precaution must be taken with the tank as the source for the
washing machines?
A. The source tank must have been crude
B. All of these choices are correct
C. It must be de-bottomed and the level lowered by at least 1
meter
D. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility

188. It is a close container with doors at one end and others with
doors in one end and sides, sometimes ventilated but not
insulated.
A. Dry bulk container
B. Close container
C. Thermal container
D. General cargo container
189. Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo
into separate holds?
A. Contamination of a clean cargo by a dirty cargo
B. Contamination of dry cargo by a wet cargo
C. Overcarriage, overstowage, and short landing
D. Contamination of a food cargo by an odorous cargo
190. The most accurate account of cargo will be found in the______.
A. Portage bill
B. Manifest
C. Charter party
D. Bill of ladings
191. Ship's officers should check every cargo compartment after it is
filled with bulk grain to ensure ______.
A. The correct grade of cargo has been loaded
B. All lighting circuits are energized
C. The heavier grade of cargo is in the lower hold
 D. All void spaces are filled

192. To “shore up” the main deck for, the stowage of deck cargo
means to _____.
• strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the
tween deck
• distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore & aft planks
on the Main deck
• package the cargo in wooden crates so that it will not damage
the deck
D. weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo
193. A cargo compartment filled with grain has a permeability of
about:
A. 80-85%
B. 100%
C. 0%
D. 60-85%
194. When the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to
the dew point of the air is cargo hold, you should _________.
A. Ventilate the cargo holds
B. Shut down the exhaust blowers
C. Shut down the intake blowers
D. Secure all ventilation
195. Which of the following is not an advantage of filler cargo?
A. The hold space has maximum utilization
B. Overcarriage is reduced or eliminated
C. Voids in the cargo stow are filled
D. Dunnage costs are reduced
```` COMPETENCE 11 DECK

• While underway, part of your cargo is damaged by fire. In marine

insurance terms this partial loss is called __________.
A. general average
B. absolute total loss
C. particular average
• Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be
liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises from __________.
A. quarantine delays
B. mismanagement of the vessel
C. unseaworthiness when sailing
D. insufficient packing
3. A Master should file a marine note of protest if __________.
A. portions of his vessel's cargo were illegally impounded in a
 foreign port
B. longshore labor went on strike in the port causing undue vessel
delay
C. cargo was received at ship side which was damaged in land
transit
D. the vessel encountered heavy weather which might have
caused Cargo damage

• The damage to a vessel is over $25,000. Who must notify the

nearest Coast Guard Marine Safety or Marine Inspection Office as soon as
possible?
A. The Chief Officer
B. All of the above
C. The Master of the vessel
D. The Radio Officer
• Ballasting is performed once cargo on each hold is half-empty. A
usual check on each deep tank cover to ensure that it’s all watertight to
prevent any flooding is due to:
A. water-ingress
B. rusty bolts and nuts
C. leak at deep tank cover
D. loosen nuts
• Your vessel has been damaged and you must shore a bulkhead.
You should cut the shore __________.
A. to the same length as the measured length
B. approximately 1/2 inch shorter than the measured length to
Allow for wedges
C. approximately 1/2 inch longer than the measured length to
allow for trimming
D. approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow for
Wet expansion

7. Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is

TRUE?
A. Sweat damage is not a problem except in insulated and
Refrigerated containers.
B. In general, containerized hygroscopic cargoes are the only ones
subject to sweat damage.
C. Sweat damage in containers is unusual due to the small
 enclosed volume of air
D. Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents
Physically protected against sweat damage.
8. Which type of hull damage should be repaired FIRST?
A. Damage below the waterline
B. Damage at or just above the waterline
C. Damage in way of machinery rooms
D. Damage to interior watertight boundaries
9. While a vessel is at sea, the mate on watch discovers a fire in one
of the hatches. Fire hoses are used to put the fire out and some
of the cargo is damaged by water. In marine insurance terms, this
partial loss by water is called __________.
A. an Act of God
B. fire and water damage
C. particular average
D. general average
10. When underway with a tow, you are required to notify the
Coast Guard in which casualty situation?
A. Damage to property amounting to $12,500
B. Accidental stranding or grounding
C. An injury requiring first aid treatment
D. Damage of bridge-to-bridge radio capability
11. A declaration made by the Master before a U.S. Consul, giving
particulars regarding heavy weather or other incidents which
may have caused damage to the vessel or cargo, through no
fault of the vessel, her officers, or crew is a(n) __________.
A. exception report
B. cargo addendum
C. note of protest
D. Master's declaration
12. Ballasting is performed once cargo on each hold is half-empty.
A usual check on each deep tank cover to ensure that it’s all
watertight to prevent any flooding is due to:
A. Loosen nuts
B. rusty bolts and nuts
C. leak at deep tank cover
D. Water- ingress
13. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be
liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of
__________.
A. fire caused by lightning
B. poor stowage of cargo in a container
C. inherent vice
D. overloading
14. A reinspection of the vessel shall be made between which of the
following months while the Certificate of Inspection is valid?
A. 12 - 14 months
 B. 10 - 14 months
C. 8 - 12 months
D. 10 - 12 months

15. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if
such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to
__________.
A. prevent delays due to quarantine restrictions
B. ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces
C. correct all defects in the ship's construction
D. ensure adequate packaging of the cargo
16. What is NOT an item requires the vessel to be dry-docked?
A. Verification of loadline measurement
B. Inspection of the tail shaft liner
C. Belt gauging
D. Repacking and grinding of skin valves
17. While in drydock, your vessel will be belt-gauged. This process
involves:
• drilling a sonic- testing the hull to determined the plate
thickness
B. testing and examining the anchor cables for detective links
C. measuring the thickness of the tail shaft liner
D. taking the vessel affect the deck for hull deterioration
18. This system has been used for many years. The fittings of these
plates in way of bronze propellers and other immersed fittings is
a common practice:
A. sacrificial anode system
B. electro-chemical system
C. impressed current system
D. cathodic protection system

19. Which factor(s) might indicate that a towline should be

removed from service?
A. Measurements showing a decrease in diameter.
B. Visible damage to the towline, including fishhooks.
C. All of the above
D. A surface condition of corrosion and discoloration.
20. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be
liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises from
__________.
A. perils of the sea
B. an error in navigation
C. lack of ventilation in transit
D. an act of war
21. A vessel has sustained damage in a collision with another vessel.
It is necessary to have a Seaworthy Certificate before the vessel
sails. Who will issue this certificate?
A. Captain of the Port
B. Officer in Charge, Marine Inspection
C. Classification Society
D. American Consul
22. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely
damaged are to plug the openings or to __________.
A. dewater the compartment
B. secure power to the compartment
C. ballast to maintain even keel
D. establish and maintain flooding boundaries

23. Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that

examines the internal structure of a weld?
A. Undercut
B. Lack of penetration
C. Overlap
D. Lack of reinforcement
24. When a vessel is involved in a casualty. The cost of property
damage includes the __________.
• loss of revenue while the vessel is being repaired, up to a
maximum Of $50,000
• damage claims awarded to individuals or companies involved in
thecasualty
C. All of the above
D. cost of labor and material to restore the vessel to the service
condition which existed before the casualty 3
25. A vessel has been damaged by fire. The survey shows the cost of
repairs will exceed the value of the repaired vessel. This is an
example of a(n) __________.
A. salvage loss
B. actual loss
C. preferred loss
D. constructive total loss
26. What is the meaning of the term tare weight?
A. Weight of the contents of a container
B. Weight of a container
C. Pounds of force necessary to damage a container
D. Total weight of a container and contents

27. What would have the greatest affect on a vessel's longitudinal

strength?
A. Collision damage to the bow, forward of the collision bulkhead
 B. Extensive corrosion to the centerline deck plating
C. Damage to the side shell, midway between the bilge and the
Stringer plate
D. Grounding damage to the bilge strake, just aft of midships
28. You must shore up the collision bulkhead due to solid flooding
forward. The bulkhead approximates an inverted triangle. The
center of pressure of the shores on the bulkhead should be
located __________.
A. approximately two-thirds of the way up the bulkhead
B. at the bottom of the bulkhead
C. evenly over the surface of the bulkhead
D. approximately halfway up the bulkhead
29. The declaration made by the Master when he anticipates hull
and/or cargo damage due to unusual weather conditions is a
__________.
A. Notice of Casualty
B. Portage Bill
C. Bottomry Bond
D. Note of Protest
30. A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on watch
discovers that some of the cartons have been damaged and has
an exception made on the Bill of Lading. What is this document
called?
A. Letter of Indemnity
B. Damage Bill of Lading
C. Unclean Bill of Lading
D. Non-negotiable Bill of Lading
31. Control of flooding should be addressed __________.
A. following control of fire
B. first
C. following restoration of vital services
D. only if a threat exists
32. Sweat damage in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons will
occur when the __________.
A. dew point is lower than the temperature of the cargo
B. dew point is higher than the temperature of the cargo
C. air temperature is higher than the temperature of the cargo
D. air temperature is lower than the temperature of the cargo
33. Repairing damage to the hull at or above the waterline reduces
the threat of __________.
A. capsizing
B. free surface effects
C. continued progressive flooding
D. wind heel
34. A document used to indicate suspected cargo damage caused by
rough weather would be the __________.
A. Unseaworthy Certificate
B. hull damage report
C. cargo report
 D. Master's Note of Protest

35. What would NOT require that a detailed report of the release of
hazardous cargo be made to the Local Authorities?
• Heavy weather causes damage to packages of a hazardous
liquid that Is subsequently pumped out at sea through the bilge
pumping system
• Part of your deck cargo of five gallon cans of paint is damaged
And leaking so you jettison them to eliminate the fire hazard.
• A carboy of nitric acid is broken on deck while loading and is
Flushed overboard with no injury or damage.
• The valve on an empty portable tank that contained acetone is
Accidentally opened and some of the residue escapes to the
open sea
36. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be
liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises out of
_________.
A. strikes or lockouts
B. fire caused by fault of the carrier
C. delays due to seizure of the vessel
D. improper stowage
37. Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased
machinery when the __________.
• outside air temperature is colder than the temperature of the
cargo
• dew point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the
ship's skin
• air temperature of the hold is higher than the temperature of
the outside air
• dew point of the outside air is lower than the temperature of
the cargo

38. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by

_______________________.
A. hygroscopic absorption
B. ship's sweat
C. inherent vice
D. tainting
39. A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum
superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
• The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of
fire by conduction
• If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum
structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent
 fracture.
• The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must
be Closely checked for galvanic corrosion.
• The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming
by a Method that insulates the two metals.
40. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner if
such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to
__________.
A. ensure adequate packaging of the cargo
B. correct all defects in the ship's construction
C. prevent delays due to quarantine restrictions
D. ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces
41. When shoring a damaged bulkhead, effort should be taken to
spread the pressure over the __________.
A. minimum possible area
B. nearest watertight door
C. nearest longitudinal girder
D. maximum possible area
42. Which type of hull damage should be repaired first?
A. damage at or just above waterline
B. damage in way of machinery room
C. damage below the water line
D. damage to interior watertight boundaries
43. A fire has damaged 20 bales of cotton on a freighter loaded with
general cargo. This claim would come under __________.
A. constructive total loss
B. total loss of a part
C. note of protest
D. particular average
44. The objective of shoring a damaged bulkhead is to __________.
A. support and hold the area in the damaged position
B. force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections back into place
C. withstand subsequent additional damage
D. make a watertight seal at the damaged area
45. The document that establishes the facts of a casualty and is the
prima facie relief from liability for the damage is the _________.
A. insurance policy
B. adjuster's report
C. Master's protest
D. invoice
46. Which factor is MOST important in preventing sweat damage
within a cargo hold?
A. Temperature of the cargo
B. Outside air temperature
C. Dew point of the cargo hold
D. Dew point of the outside atmosphere
47. Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine
 casualty to the Coast Guard?
• A seaman slips on ice on deck and sprains his ankle, requiring
An Ace Bandage
• You collide with a buoy and drag it off station with no apparent
damage to the vessel or the buoy.
• Your vessel is at anchor and grounds at low tide with no
apparent damage
• Storm damage to the cargo winch motors requiring repairs
costing $19,000.
48. Particular average is __________.
A. claimed after all liens against the vessel are settled
B. the average distance steamed per day over the duration of the
voyage
• charges against all parties in a marine venture to pay for
damages
D. loss sustained by only one party
49. A report of casualty to a vessel must include __________.
A. the amount of ballast on board
B. the estimated cost of damage
C. the name of the owner or agent of the vessel
D. an evaluation of who was at fault
50. Extended cyclical variations in tensions will cause an anchor
chain to break due to __________.
A. Fatigue
B. Corrosion
C. Distortion
D. Abrasion

51. Rule I of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990

relates to ________.
A. Jettison of Cargo
B. Damage by Jettison & sacrifice for the common safety
C. Extinguishing fire on shipboard
D. Cutting away wreck
52. In cases where the cargo is perishable or the Master has
grounds to fear that cargo maybe damaged, what can a Master
do aside from noting a Note of Marine Protest?
• arrange a hatch survey and notify charterers only when
damage is discovered
• arrange a cargo survey and notify charterers only when damage is
discovered
C. arrange a cargo survey and notify charterers accordingly
D. arrange a cargo survey and notify consignees accordingly
53. Which condition would NOT entitle a vessel to carry goods on
deck?
A. The shipper agrees to deck stowage
B. The cargo will damage other cargoes by tainting or
contamination
 C. Deck stowage is required by law or regulation
D. Deck stowage is customary in the trade (i.e. timber cargoes)
54. An implied warranty of seaworthiness on the part of the vessel's
owner lies in the __________.
A. Cargo Manifest
B. Certificate of Inspection
C. Classification Certificate
D. contract of carriage, i.e. Bill of Lading

55. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for

progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
A. The integrity of the water tight boundaries
B. The capacity of the water sprinkler systems
C. The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms
D. all of the options
56. To "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo
means to __________.
A. weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo
B. strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the
tween-decks
• distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the
main deck
• package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the
deck
57. Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from
odorous cargo is called __________.
A. clean cargo
B. delicate cargo
C. dry cargo
D. immune cargo
58. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by
_______________________ .
A. ship's sweat
B. inherent vice
C. tainting
D. hygroscopic absorption

59. The Certificate of Inspection for a containership __________.

A. is issued by the Coast Guard and is usually valid for 2 years
B. must be posted under transparent material near the officers'
licenses
• lists all of the stability limitations and conditions imposed on
the vessel
D. shows the due date of the quadrennial test of the cargo gear
60. You are serving on a 5 year old chemical tanker. You are called
upon to order a portable blower for ventilation of DB tanks,
 cofferdams & pipe tunnels prior entry & during inspection. You
would order a blower of capacity__________
• Able to effect a complete change of air of the space being
ventilated 16 times an hour
• Able to effect a complete change of air of the space being
ventilated once an hour
• Able to effect a complete change of air of the space being
ventilated 4 times an hour
• Able to effect a complete change of air of the space being
Ventilated 12 times an hour
61. According to the regulation in force, which of the ballast tanks
shall be crude oil washed on a clean ballast tanker before
departure from discharging port.
• Departure and arrival ballast tanks plus 25% of remaining cargo
Tanks For sludge control.
B. departure ballast tanks.
C. arrival ballast tanks.
D. the master’s decision.

62. If there is cargo damage as a result of failure of the ship’s

officers to ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces, a claim
for cargo damages may be held against __________?
A. the officer's concerned
B. the Master of the vessel
C. the ship owner
D. the shipper
63. Damage to cargoes caused by fumes or vapors from liquids
gases or solid is known as ________
A. contamination
B. oxidation
C. tainting
D. vaporization
64. Under the Hamburg Rules, which is NOT TRUE regarding notice
of loss or damage?
• notice of loss or damage of goods given in writing to a person
acting on carrier's behalf is deemed to have given to the carrier
• if the state of the goods at the time they were handed over to
the Consignee has been the subject of a joint survey by the parties,
notice in writing need not be given of loss or damage ascertained during
such survey
• in the case of any actual loss or damage, the carrier and the
consignee must give all reasonable facilities to each other for
inspecting and tallying the goods
• unless notice of loss or damage specifying the general nature of
such loss or damage, is given in writing by the consignee to the carrier
within 120 days after delivery of goods, the goods are deemed to be in
good condition
65. When filling departure ballast on a clean ballast tanker, which
valve is the last to be opened after the pump has started (M/T
«Seagull» is equipped with steam driven centrifugal pumps).
A. the sea chest valve.
B. the bulkhead valve.
C. The pump’s delivery valve.
D. The tank’s suction valve.
66. Rule VI of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990
relates to__________.
• Expenses in lightening a ship when ashore and consequent
damage
B. Voluntarily stranding
C. Damage to Machinery & Boilers
D. Salvage
67. A vessel loads 100 tons of glass jars. The mate on watch
discovers that some of the cartons have been damaged and has
an exception made on the Bill of Lading. What is this document
called?
A. Damage Bill of Lading
B. Letter of Indemnity
C. Non-negotiable Bill of Lading
D. Unclean Bill of Lading
68. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must
be made in the __________.
A. Oil Record Book
B. Official Logbook
C. deck rough log
D. engine rough log

69. What is NOT surveyed at an annual load line survey?

A. The overall structure and layout of the vessel for alterations to
the superstructure
B. The bilge pumping system
C. Main deck hatch covers
D. Portholes and deadlights in the side plating
70. What does BT in a fixture means?
A. Berth terms
B. Bills terms
C. Both terms
D. Ballast tank
71. Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a
vessel's shell plating and to __________.
A. provide tail shaft clearances
B. test welds for subsurface defects
C. check the wear of the rudder carrier bearing
D. test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged
72. Segregation of cargoes refers to __________.
A. separating cargoes so that the inherent characteristics of one
Cannot damage the other
B. separating cargoes by destination
C. classifying cargoes according to their toxicity
D. listing the cargoes in order of their flammability
73. Hull and machinery insurance covers the following
EXCEPT__________.
A. grounding
B. jettison
C. contact damages
D. loading/discharging damages
74. What should be given due regard when loading heavy cargo on
deck or hatch covers?
A. The watertight integrity of the vessel
B. The effect of the cargo to the environment
C. Stability and strength of the deck and the supporting structure
of the ship
D. The type of lifting gear to be used
75. Which statement concerning sweat damage in containers is
TRUE?
• Sweat damage in containers is unusual due to the small
enclosed volume of air
• In general, containerized hygroscopic cargoes are the only ones
subject to sweat damage.
• Containers should be ventilated, dehumidified, or the contents
Physically protected against sweat damage.
• Sweat damage is not a problem except in insulated and
Refrigerated containers.
76. The document that establishes the facts of a casualty and is the
prima facie relief from liability for the damage is the _________.
A. adjuster's report
B. insurance policy
C. invoice
D. Master's protest
77. Rule XV of the York-Antwerp Rules 1974 as amended in 1990
relates to ________.
A. Loss of freight
B. Contributory values
C. Temporary repairs
D. Damage to ship
78. Do we have full side ballast tanks on all gas carriers
A. Only when the design temperature is below –55oC and the
tank is Not independent type C , we must have full side ballast
tanks
• When the design temperature is below –55oC we must have
full side Ballast tanks
 C. When we are carrying cargo on less than –10oC
D. Only if the cargo tanks are loaded
79. Protection of cargo against tainting damage can be best
obtained by ___________?
A. ventilating the space
B. not ventilating the space
C. proper use of paper separation and dunnage
D. segregation of cargo using different holds
80. When cleaning stainless steel tanks, it is generally required that
the last water wash be of fresh water to avoid salt water or
chloride damage. However, if you took fresh water from ashore
and found the water chlorinated for disinfection purpose, you
would
• Normally use it, as free or dissolved chlorine is not aggressive
towards stainless steel
B. Use it, but only after mixing a neutralising agent in it
C. Not use the water as it may cause damage to the stainless steel
D. Use it, but only if it's temperature is below 30°C

81. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will
be liable for damage to a cargo when the damage arises from
__________.
A. unseaworthiness when sailing
B. insufficient packing
C. quarantine delays
D. mismanagement of the vessel
82. The disadvantage(s) of using web lashing on light vehicles
aboard Ro-Ro vessels is that it __________.
A. deteriorates in sunlight
B. cuts on sharp edges
C. is vulnerable to damage and pilferage
D. all of the options

83. While enroute from Japan to Long Beach a fire has damaged 50
cartons of canned sardines on a ship loaded with general cargo.
This claim would come under ______.
A. Particular Average
B. General Average
C. Constructive Total loss
D. Actual total loss
84. The two courses of action if the underwater hull is severely
damaged are to plug the openings or to __________.
A. establish and maintain flooding boundaries
B. dewater the compartment
 C. secure power to the compartment
D. ballast to maintain even keel

85. Under the Carriage of Goods by Sea Act of 1936, a vessel will be
liable for damage to cargo when the damage arises out of
__________.
A. poor stowage of cargo in a container
B. fire caused by lightning
C. overloading
D. inherent vice
86. While underway part of your cargo is damaged by fire. In marine
insurance, this is called _______
A. fire damage
B. general damage
C. partial loss
D. particular average
87. During cargo operation damage occur to the ship's gear or
equipment. What to do first?
A. Report to the chief officer or chief engineer.
B. Just place the damage gear or equipment out of the way
C. Report to the stevedore superintendent
D. Report to the Port Captain
88. A Notice of Marine Casualty to a vessel must include _________.
A. the estimated cost of damage
B. the name of the owner or agent of the vessel
C. an evaluation of who was at fault
D. the amount of ballast on board

89. Sweat damage will occur in a cargo hold containing cased

machinery when __________?
• air temperature of the hold is higher than the temperature of
the outside air
• dew point of the hold is higher than the temperature of the
ship's shell platings
• dew point of the outside air is lower than the temperature of
the cargo
• outside air temperature is colder than the temperature of the
cargo
90. A tank specifically used for the collection of tank draining, tank
washing and other oily mixture is called _____.
A. Slop tank
B. Ballast tank
C. Wing tank
 D. Deep tank
91. What must you ensure when operating steel hatch covers?
A. To follow manufacturer’s instructions for safe operation at all
times
B. That all hands keep clear of hatches and stowage areas
C. That stowage areas are clear of all items that should not be
there
D. all of the options
92. A vessel loads packaged cargoes. The Mate discovers some of
the packages have been damaged and put some exceptions on
the Bill of Lading. This document is called__________.
A. Unclean Bill of Lading
B. Exceptional Bill of Lading
C. Ordinary Bill of Lading
D. Non-negotiable Bill of Lading
93. Once a vessel has loaded packaged hazardous cargo, the cargo
spaces shall be inspected. The spaces shall also be inspected at
least once in every 24 hours. The only exception to daily
inspection is when __________.
• a vessel is equipped with an automatic smoke or fire detecting
system
B. the cargo hatches are of steel construction
C. the cargo is of a nonflammable type
D. there is sufficient fire protection located on the main deck
Adjacent to the cargo hatch
94. A disadvantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard
Ro-Ro vessels is that __________.
A. it is easily damaged
B. it is affected by temperature
C. the links lose strength if placed over corners
D. it has high initial cost
95. Your vessel has been damaged and you must shore a bulkhead.
You should cut the shore __________.
• approximately 1/2 inch longer than the measured length to
allow for trimming
• approximately 1/2 inch shorter than the measured length to
allow for wedges
• approximately 1/2 inch shorter per foot of shoring to allow for
wet expansion
D. to the same length as the measured length

96. Damaged bulkheads often take a permanent set which is

independent of the panting or bulge caused by water pressure.
To control this, you should __________.
• install shoring so the shoring supports the damaged bulkheads
 without pushing on them
• install shoring so that it pushes on the damaged bulkhead while
supporting it
• use jacks or chain falls to remove the set before installing
shores
D. place sandbags by the bulkhead without installing shores
97. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order
to make passenger ships able to withstand critical damage?
A. Maintain sufficient intact stability
B. Damaged stability to be increased by use of water ballast
C. avoid overloading the ship
D. Damaged stability to be increased by weight redistribution.
98. Damage to cargo caused by fumes or vapor from liquid, gasses
or solid is called __________?
A. tainting
B. vaporization
C. oxidation
D. contamination
99. Cargo that is highly susceptible to damage by tainting from
odorous cargo is called ________
A. clean cargo
B. delicate cargo
C. dry cargo
D. immune cargo

100. A claim for cargo damages may be held against the ship owner
if such damage is the result of failure of the ship's officers to
__________.
A. ensure the fitness and safety of cargo spaces
B. ensure adequate packaging of the cargo
C. prevent delays due to quarantine restrictions
D. correct all defects in the ship's construction
```` COMPETENCE 12 DECK

• A shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan is required of

__________.
• any barge or ship constructed or operated in such a manner
that no oil in any form can be carried aboard
• an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150
gross Tons and above
C. all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application
D. an oil tanker of 150 gross tons and above, or other ship of 400
Gross tons and above
• The operator of a vessel subject to the pollution regulations shall
keep a written record available for inspection by the COPT or OCMI
containing __________.
• the date and result of the most recent test on the system relief
valves
 • the name of each person currently designated as a person in
charge
C. All of the above
D. hose information including the minimum design burst pressure
For each hose
• The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water
is(are) __________.
A. booms
B. straw
C. skimmers
D. chemical dispersants

• The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan(SOPEP) must include

__________.
A. all information ordinarily provided in the Oil Record Book
B. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented
C. the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators
Installed aboard the vessel
D. an explanation and purpose of the plan
• Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed
deck area have a __________.
A. soft rubber plug
B. two-piece soft patch
C. mechanical means of closing
D. wooden plug
• In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time
during bunkering is when __________.
A. hoses are being blown down
B. hoses are being disconnected
C. final topping off is occurring
D. you first start to receive fuel
• Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and
containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil?
A. Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water
B. Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard
C. Placing it in proper disposal facilities
D. Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway

• The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water
is(are) __________.
A. skimmers
B. chemical dispersants
C. booms
D. straw
9. When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________.
A. drained, blanked off, and stored securely
B. cleaned internally with a degreaser
C. washed out with hot soapy water
D. stowed vertically and allowed to drain
10. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
A. It does little harm to marine life.
B. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil.
C. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
D. It is not covered by the pollution laws.
11. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it
is __________.
A. 25 miles from shore
B. None of the above
C. 3 miles from shore
D. 12 miles from shore

12. Why is it important for fuel oil tank not to be topped off when
loading cold oil?
• The fuelling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel
oil to Spill before the valve can be opened
• The change in its specific volume when heated may cause an
overflow
• Air pockets may cause the fuel oil to bubble out of the ullage
hole
• Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading
pressure which increases the chance of spill
13. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations
is NOT required to keep written records of __________.
A. hose information not marked on the hose
B. the date and results of the most recent equipment inspection
C. the name of each person designated as a person in charge
D. cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations
14. Which is NOT a mandatory part of the shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan?
A. Reporting requirements
B. Steps to control a discharge
C. National and local coordination
D. Diagrams
15. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to
the sea you must __________.
A. notify the U.S. Coast Guard
 B. make an entry in the Official Logbook
C. No action is required if you are more than 25 miles from land
and no Plastic materials are dumped.
D. keep a record for two years
16. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held
responsible?
A. Owners only
B. Master only
C. Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the
operation
D. Licensed officers only
17. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil
spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the
engine room should first be informed and then __________.
A. sound the general alarm
B. spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust
C. rig a fire hose and call for water on deck
D. remove the plugs from the scuppers
18. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________
A. plug the scuppers
B. plug the vents
C. plug the sounding pipes
D. close the lids on the vents
19. Pipelines should be standard to enable pipes of reception
facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for
residues from machinery bilges. Its bolt circle diameter should
be _____.
A. 179 mms.
B. 183 mms.
C. 185 mms.
D. 181 mms.

20. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.

A. human error
B. equipment failure
C. major casualties
D. unforeseeable circumstances
21. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must
be kept __________.
A. one year
B. until the next Coast Guard inspection
C. until the end of the voyage
D. two years
22. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are
the responsibility of the __________.
A. Master and union delegate
B. Master and Chief Mate
 C. Master and Chief Engineer
D. Master and Second Mate
23. To whom is the first report rendered in the oil pollution
contingency plan of the vessel?
A. Ship's owner
B. port authorities
C. Coast guard
D. Ship's agent

24. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?

A. They usually stay in a small area.
B. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area.
C. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be
cumulative.
D. They usually disappear quickly.
25. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with
Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped
with_________.
A. Two separate slop tanks
B. An oil content meter
C. A COW system
D. Segregated Ballast Tanks and PL
26. SOPEP means _______.
A. Spill of Oil Prevention and Environmental Protection
B. Shipboard Oil Pollution and Emergency Plans
C. Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Protection
D. Shipboard Oil Prevention and Environmental Protection
27. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should
you do after reporting the discharge?
A. Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.
B. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
C. Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the
water.
D. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.

28. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil
spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the
engine room should first be informed and then __________.
A. spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust
B. rig a fire hose and call for water on deck
 C. remove the plugs from the scuppers
D. sound the general alarm
29. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held
responsible?
• Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the
operation
B. Licensed officers only
C. Owners only
D. Master only
30. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast
Guard __________.
A. one month before the anniversary date of the plan
B. six months before the end of the approval period
C. and can be implemented without immediate approval as long
as final approval is received within six months of submission
D. and cannot be implemented without approval
31. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by __________.
A. unforeseeable circumstances
B. human error
C. equipment failure
D. major casualties

32. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and
containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the
waste oil?
A. Placing it in proper disposal facilities
B. Draining it overboard when the vessel gets underway
C. Adding sinking agents and discharging it into the water
D. Mixing it with dispersants before draining it overboard
33. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the
pollution prevention regulations?
A. Sludge
B. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
C. Oil mixed with dredge spoil
D. Petroleum and fuel oil
34. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should
you do after reporting the discharge?
• Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the
water.
B. Throw chemical agents on the water to disperse the oil.
C. Throw sand on the water to sink the oil.
D. Obtain your permit from the Corps of Engineers
35. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessel’s
incinerator which has burned packages containing plastic?
A. discharge at sea provided you are at least 12 miles offshore
 B. discharge to shore facility only
C. discharge overboard provided you are not in a river or estuary
D. discharge at sea provided you are more than 25 miles offshore

36. Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of __________.
A. lengthening the distance between successive crests
B. increasing the height of the seas
C. preventing the wave crests from breaking
D. diminishing the height of the seas
37. On a tankship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are
the responsibility of the __________.
A. Master and Chief Engineer
B. Master and Second Mate
C. Master and union delegate
D. Master and Chief Mate
38. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by
______:
A. plugging the scuppers
B. driving wooden plugs into the vents
C. closing the lids on the vents
D. plugging the sounding pipes
39. The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations,
means __________.
A. inerting & venting
B. Gassing Up & Incinerating
C. spilling, leaking, pumping
D. ballasting & deballasting
40. Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of __________.
A. preventing the wave crests from breaking
B. diminishing the height of the seas
C. lengthening the distance between successive crests
D. increasing the height of the seas
41. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has
to comply with the following conditions EXCEPT:
• that the filter system have an automatic cut-off when the
wastes are found to exceed 15 ppm of oily residue
B. it must be more than 12 miles from the nearest coast
C. be underway
D. have an oily water separating system in operation
42. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution
hazard during fuel transfer operations, what action should you
take FIRST?
A. Close the valves at the transfer manifold
B. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility
C. Sound the fire alarm
 D. Shut down the transfer operation
43. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the
pollution prevention regulations?
A. Sludge
B. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes
C. Oil mixed with dredge spoil
D. Petroleum and fuel oil
44. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the
pollution prevention regulations?
A. Oil mixed with dredge spoil
B. Petroleum and fuel oil
C. Sludge
D. Oil refuse and oil mixed with wastes

45. The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78

concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on
which waters?
A. Inland waters only
B. Great Lakes only
C. All of the above
D. International waters
46. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it
is__________.
A. 12 miles from shore
B. 25 miles from shore
C. None of the above
D. 3 miles from shore
47. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution
Emergency Plan?
A. Removal equipment list
B. Planned exercises
C. List of individuals required to respond
D. Reporting requirements
48. Which list is NOT required to be provided as part of the
appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
• A list specifying who will be responsible for informing the
parties listed and the priority in which they must be notified.
B. A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports.
C. A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State Administrators
responsible for receiving and processing incident reports.
D. A list of personnel duty assignments.

49. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution

hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you
 take FIRST?
A. Close the valves at the manifold.
B. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility.
C. Sound the general alarm.
D. Shut down the operation.
50. The term, "cargo tank length", as used in part 157 of the
Pollution Regulations, means the __________.
A. diagonal measurement of a cargo tank
B. greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkheads
C. length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to
bulkhead
D. length from the forward bulkhead of the forward most cargo
tanks to the after bulkhead of the aftermost cargo tanks
51. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes of
reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge
pipelines for residues from machinery bilges should
be_________.
A. 250 mm
B. 215 mm
C. 225 mm
D. 235 mm
52. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
Plan expires after __________.
A. two years
B. three years
C. four years
D. five years

53. The rating to hazard to human health by oral intake of greater

than 5 mg/kg is__________.
A. Highly toxic
B. highly flammable
C. highly hazardous
D. highly volatile
54. Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard
oil pollution emergency plan?
A. List of individuals required to respond
B. removal equipment list
C. Reporting requirements
D. Plan exercises
55. The owner of a ship registered in a contracting state shall
maintain insurance or other financial security if she carries a
cargo of oil in bulk more than__________.
A. 2,000 tons
B. 1,800 tons
C. 2,500 tons
D. 1,000 tons
56. As per MARPOL 73/78 Annex I Reg. 26, SOPEP shall be carried to
every ship other than oil tanker of ___________ or more.
A. 300 GRT
B. 400 GRT
C. 150 GRT
D. 100 GRT

57. The hazard by human health by oral intake greater than

5000mg/kg is rated as ____
A. Slightly hazardous
B. Practically non-hazardous
C. Highly hazardous
D. Non-hazardous
58. Satisfying the requirements for SBT, existing oil tankers with
deadweight of 40,000 tons and above should be designed
as________
A. Product carrier
B. Oil tanker
C. Crude oil/Product carrier
D. Crude tanker
59. The most critical part of the bunkering operations which can
result in oil spill is__________.
A. when the system is being lined up
B. when the hose joints are made up
C. when the tanks are being topped off
D. when pumping operation is first started
60. Segregated ballast tanks shall be provided to an existing crude
oil tanker with deadweight of ____ tons
A. 70,000
B. 40,000
C. 20,000
D. 30,000

61. SBT shall be provided to ___________ of 40,000 tons

deadweight and above.
A. existing crude oil tanker
B. existing product tanker
C. new crude oil tanker
D. new product tanker
62. New Tanker mean a tanker whose keel is laid after ______
according to MARPOL.
 A. Jan. 1, 1980
B. June 1, 1984
C. June 1, 1982
D. June 1, 1980
63. Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Garbage from
Ships (Annex V) entered into force on__________.
A. Dec. 31, 1983
B. Dec. 31, 1987
C. Dec. 31, 1986
D. Dec. 31, 1988
64. What type of vessels are applicable for OPA-90.
A. all vessels carrying more than 10 000 gallons of oil , irrespective
whether as cargo or bunker
B. tanker vessels carrying oil
C. Tanker vessels carrying oil or other dangerous cargo
D. tanker vessels carrying oil without segregated tanks

65. New tanker means a tanker which constructed and completed

after____
A. January 1,1979
B. January 1,1980
C. June 1,1982
D. June 1,1980
66. A new product carrier of 30,000 deadweight shall be provided
with__________.
A. SBT
B. SSBT
C. BST
D. BSST
67. Which of the following occasions need NOT be recorded in the
Oil Record Book of a tanker?
• the method used to determine the oil content of discharge not
exceeding 100 ppm
B. date and duration of cleaning
C. date and position of ship at the start of deballasting
D. date and position of the ship at the start of discharge at sea
68. Why should water ballast not in general be carried in tanks
intended for oil fuel in passenger ships?
A. risk for pollution
B. risk of engine stop due to water in fuel oil
C. risk of ship stability problems
D. risk of corroded fuel oil tanks
 69. The hazard to human health by oral intake greater than 5-50
mg/kg is rated as__________.
A. Moderately hazardous
B. Highly hazardous
C. Slightly hazardous
D. Non-hazardous
70. The PSCO may determine if all operational requirements of
Annex I of MARPOL 73/78 have been met, taking into account
the following EXCEPT__________.
A. the capacity of sludge and bilge holding tank
B. the quantity of oil residues generated
C. the effective operation of the oily water separator
D. the capacity of the oily water separator
71. For accidental and exceptional discharge of oil, which should be
recorded in the Oil Record Book?
I. Date and time of occurrence
II. Position of the ship
III. Type of oil and estimated quantity
A. all of the options
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
72. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills
aboard a ship?
A. contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
B. rig an oil boom around the ship
C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill
D. have sawdust ready for use

```` COMPETENCE 13 DECK

• Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free
surface correction?
A. The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
B. The width of the tank
C. The length of the tank
D. The draft of the vessel
2. GM is a measure of:
A. The initial stability of the vessel
B. The amount of reserve bouyancy
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
• The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of
liquids__________.
 A. flowing from side to side within the vessel
B. flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
C. pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels
D. flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
• Your vessel has amidship engine room, and the cargo is
concentrated in the end holds. The vessel is said to be:
A. hogging with compressive stress on the main deck
B. sagging with compressive stress on the main deck
C. hogging with tensile stress on the main deck
D. sagging with tensile stress on the main deck

• The instrument always used with the salinity indicator is the:

A. Hydrometer
B. Thermometer
C. Manometer
D. Pyrometer
• Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12 deg to port
and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll.
What action will you take first?
A. Press up an after, slack, centerline double bottom tank
B. Jettison deck cargo from the port side
C. Jettison the anchors and anchor cables
D. Pump-out forepeak tank
• There are two classification surveys, one is classification in survey for the
first entry, that is initial survey and the other is _____.
A. annual classification survey
B. intermediate survey
C. Docking survey
D. classification survey under construction
• In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo
of lumber, you should __________.
A. maximize your deck load
B. distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per
unit of weight are in the upper holds
C. keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
D. place the heaviest woods in the lower holds

• The last link of the anchor chain attached to the pad eye in the
chain locker is called:
A. Securing piece
B. Stud link
C. Bitter end
D. Anchor Shackle
[Link] type of rudder may loss its effectiveness at angles of 10 or
more degrees?
A. Flat plate
B. Unbalance
C. Balance
D. Contra-guide
11. The inward curvature of the ship's side is the:
A. Tumble home
B. Flare
C. Hogging
D. Sagging
12. Brackets joining the deck beam and the side frames are known
as:
A. Plate web
B. beam knees
C. tripping bracket
D. deep web

13. The frame of the vessel that runs parallel to the keel is
called_______.
A. Parallel frame
B. transverse frame
C. Longitudinal frame
D. Center frame
14. In passenger ship, watertight doors may be closed by remote
control from central
A. electrical means
B. hand pump
C. all of these
D. hydraulic means
15. It is the work of measuring the various dimension and capacities
of the ship in order to get the tonnage for official registration.
A. Deck capacity plan
B. Dry dock plan
C. Measurement
D. Ship's plan
16. A negative metacentric height __________.
A. All of the above are correct
B. should always be immediately corrected
C. will always cause a vessel to capsize
D. always results from off-center weights
17. This is the type of hatch cover which are made of one or more
separate covers each designed to be lifted independently to
expose the entire hatch opening. They can be used for weather
and ‘tween deck hatchways.
A. Hinged and Folding Hatch Covers
B. Sliding Hatch Cover
C. Pontoon Hatch Covers
D. Roll Stowing Hatch Covers
18. How many cubic meters are there in 120 cubic foot?
A. 3.410 cubic meters
B. 3.255 cubic meters
C. 3.598 cubic meters
D. 3.398 cubic meters
19. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll
to a stiff vessel?
A. Concentrate weights on upper decks
B. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
C. Move weights lower in the ship
D. Ballast the peak tanks
20. A negative metacentric height __________.
A. will always cause a vessel to capsize
B. always results from off-center weights
C. All of the above are correct
D. should always be immediately corrected

21. Mainly used to hold the anchor cable in place while the ship is
riding at anchor.
A. Chain locker
B. Windlass
C. Chain stopper
D. Cable stopper
22. The tube leading from the foc’sle deck to the chain locker
enclosing the anchor chain is called:
A. Hawse pipe
B. Fairlead
C. Spurling pipe
D. Scupper
23. What is the purpose of the stripping bar on the anchor
 windlass?
A. Clean of mud
B. Act as a fairlead
C. Prevent chain from fouling the wildcat
D. Engaged and disengaged the wildcat
24. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
A. It increases in direct proportion to the length of the tank times
The breadth squared.
B. It decreases in direct proportion to increasing specific gravity of
The liquid in the tank.
C. In practice, the correction is considered to be a virtual
reduction of KG.
D. It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when
a tank is 90% full.

25. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.

A. concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B. concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C. evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D. concentrated and with the double bottoms full
26. A preventer guy________.
A. is the same as the black smith
B. is a safety measure in case one of the outboard guys part
C. prevents anyone from working the cargo at unauthorized times
D. is a longshoreman who watches for accidents
27. Another name for the sheer strake is the _________.
A. Stringer plate
B. Side keel plate
C. Z strake
D. A strake
28. Which of the following is not exempted when calculating gross
tonnage?
A. Steering gear room
B. Emergency generator room on upper deck
C. Passenger cabin
D. Wheelhouse chart room
29. If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the anchor,
what prevents the anchor cable from running out?
A. Devil’s Claw
B. Hawse Ratchet
C. Riding Pawl
D. Chain stopper

30. The bilge keel is for the purpose of:

A. Reducing rolling
B. Strengthening the bilge
 C. Adding strength to main structural members
D. Acting bumper when vessel is on drydock
31. The volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above water line is
called:
A. Reserved buoyancy
B. Freeboard
C. Free surface
D. Marginal stability
32. This is a part of a vessel's side projecting upwards along the line
of the weather deck or uppermost deck.
A. transverse frame
B. bulwark
C. flush deck
D. bulkhead
33. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
A. Width of the tank
B. Length of the tank
C. Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
D. Registered tonnage
34. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of
the cargo is __________.
A. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
B. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
C. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
D. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full

35. Watertight equipment means:

A. Enclosed equipment that a stream of water can be played for 5
minutes under full pressure without leakage
B. Enclosed equipment that can be submerged for a period of 1
Hour Without leakage
C. Enclosed equipment that can be submerged for a period of 30
minutes without leakage
D. Enclosed equipment so constructed that a steam of water from
those under a head of 35 ft. can be played on the apparatus for
5 minutes without leakage
36. What do you call the distance from the keel to the upper deck?
A. Extreme draft
B. Extreme breadth
C. Extreme depth
D. Extreme freeboard
37. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.
A. concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
B. concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
C. evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
D. concentrated and with the double bottoms full
38. The elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker which
 prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the chain locker
and allows water to flow to the drain is:
A. Manger
B. Draft
C. Craddle
D. Harping

39. When heating a metal and cooling it down for desired fashion.
This is called:
A. heating
B. strengthening
C. annealing
D. cooling
40. The safety factors which must be considered both and when
using a pair of derricks rigged to operate in union purchase?
A. Increase the mechanical advantages of the union purchase.
B. Allow greater than normal loads to be handled by the gear.
C. Guys tightly rigged and as mean as possible at 90° to the
derrick.
D. Should be rigged at an angle of 70° to 90°.
41. What kind of cargo weighing 2,240 lbs. occupies less than 40
[Link]. of space?
A. measurement cargo
B. advalorem cargo
C. special cargo
D. deadweight cargo
42. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll
to a stiff vessel?
A. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
B. Move weights lower in the ship
C. Ballast the peak tanks
D. Concentrate weights on upper decks

43. The rudder with small area forward of the turning axis is known
as the:
A. semi-balanced rudder
B. balanced rudder
C. neutral rudder
D. unbalanced rudder
44. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled
tanker?
A. Initial stability
B. Bending moments
C. draft
 D. trim
45. A thirty pound plate would be:
A. 1 inch thick
B. ¾ inch thick
C. 1/4 inch thick
D. 5/8 inch thick
46. What is drawn to give the immersed area of transverse section
to any draft and may be used to determine the longitudinal
distribution of buoyancy?
A. Load curves
B. Curves of shear force
C. Buoyancy curves
D. Bonjean curves

47. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded

compartment that can be occupied by water by damage is
called:
A. Permeability
B. Form gain
C. One compartment standard
D. Center of buoyancy
48. Control of flooding should be addressed __________.
A. only if a threat exists
B. following control of fire
C. first
D. following restoration of vital services
49. In regards to the center of buoyancy, which of the following
statement is correct?
A. It is located in the same position regardless of displacement
B. It moves toward the low side of an inclines vessel
C. It moves toward the high side of an inclines vessel
D. It is the measure of metacentric height
50. Which part of the hull through which the section shape remains
unchanged?
A. Middle body section
B. Fine form
C. Full form
D. Parallel middle body
51. Deep tanks are normally located aboard ship;
A. abaft the peak tanks
B. any of the answer
C. abaft engine space
D. amidship
52. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll
to a stiff vessel?
A. Concentrate weights on upper decks
B. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
C. Move weights lower in the ship
D. Ballast the peak tanks
53. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the
vessel __________.
A. has off-center weights
B. has a greater draft forward than aft
C. has a greater draft forward than aft
D. has poor stability
54. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
A. She will have a large metacentric height.
B. Her period of roll will be large due to her large metacentric
height.
C. She will have an unusually high center of gravity.
D. She will pitch heavily.
55. Reference to freeboard categories, Type A ships are those
designed specifically for the carriage of ________.
A. timber cargoes
B. liquid cargoes in bulk
C. Dry bulk cargoes
D. general cargoes
56. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.
A. concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
B. evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
C. concentrated and with the double bottoms full
D. concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
57. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
__________.
A. for all angles of inclination
B. for large angles of inclination
C. in no case
D. for small angles of inclination
58. A vessel is tender if cargo weight is __________.
A. concentrated low and the double bottoms empty
B. evenly distributed vertically with the double bottoms full
C. concentrated and with the double bottoms full
D. concentrated high and the double bottoms empty
59. Concerning the use of stabilogauge, which of the following
cannot be found?
A. Displacement
B. Mean draft
C. Deadweight
D. Trim
60. What is the function of a CARLING?
A. To act as girder in order to stiffen the deck
B. To act as a longitudinal and to add strength to the inner bottom
C. To act as a vertical support for a deck
D. To act as a boundary stiffener for the hatches
61. During a stability test on a small passenger vessel __________.
A. the vessel must be moored snugly
B. each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak
C. all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured

62. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.

A. increase righting moments
B. increase GM
C. All of the above
D. reduce reserve buoyancy
63. The strake next to the keel is:
A. Garboard
B. Gangplank
C. Gunwale
D. Keelson
64. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the
vessel __________.
A. is taking on water
B. has poor stability
C. has a greater draft forward than aft
D. has off-center weights
65. These are those portions of the accommodation spaces which
are used for halls, dining rooms, lounges and similar
permanently enclosed spaces.
A. crew spaces
B. Passenger space
C. service spaces
D. public spaces
66. Which doors usually have lever type, quick acting closures?
A. Sliding
B. Watertight
C. Panel
D. Airtight
67. A metal chimney or passage through which the smoke and gases
are led from the uptakes to the open air:
A. pigment
B. funnel
C. smokestack
D. Chimmey
68. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability
__________.
 A. for small angles of inclination
B. for all angles of inclination
C. for large angles of inclination
D. in no case
69. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the
vessel __________.
A. has poor stability
B. has off-center weights
C. has a greater draft forward than aft
D. has a greater draft forward than aft
70. A plate used vertically in the bottom of a ship running
athwartship from bilged usually on every frame is the:
A. frames
B. floor
C. intercostals plates
D. double bottom
71. What does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
A. Specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
B. Registered tonnage
C. Width of the tank
D. Length of the tank
72. This is the type of hatch cover which consist of single or multi-
paneled covers operated by either a wire rope of the ship’s gear
or by an electro-hydraulic system.
A. Pontoon Hatch Cover
B. Hinged and Folding Hatch covers
C. Roll Stowing Hatch Covers
D. Sliding hatch cover
73. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when
carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
A. place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
B. maximize your deck load
C. distribute lumber so that those stowing most compactly per
unit of weight are in the upper holds
D. keep the vessel's frame spaces free from lumber
74. The vertical plate of ship's girder is called:
A. bracket
B. Knee
C. web
D. flange
75. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank
onboard a vessel?
A. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid
B. Loss of stability from free surface effect
C. Corrosion from the shifting liquid
D. Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
76. What is called the upper horizontal member of the backbone of
the ship?
A. Vertical keel
B. Keelson
C. Keel rider plate
D. Flat keel
77. Which of the following is a bow shape of a ship constructed
where the stern is at right angle to the keel?
A. Raked
B. Clipper
C. Plumb
D. Ice breaker
78. An intact buoyancy means:
A. An intact space below the flooded area
B. The volume of all intact spaces above the waterline
C. An intact space when flooded will not cause the vessel to sink
D. The space where all the vertical upward forces of buoyancy are
considered to be concentrated
79. ______ may be closed by a vertical screw thread which is
turned by a shaft extending above the bulkhead and fitted
with a crane handle
A. door way
B. horizontal sliding door
C. Watertight door
D. vertical sliding door

80. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a

vessel when it is __________.
A. completely full
B. slack
C. low in the vessel
D. completely empty
81. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.
A. determine the location of the metacenter
B. verify the hydrostatic data
C. verify data in the vessel's operating manual
D. determine the lightweight center of gravity location
82. The horizontal line 300mm by 25mm wide which is positioned
amidship on port and starboard side.
A. loadline
B. deck line
C. summer line
 D. Drop Line
83. The making of the load lines are painted in __________ in a dark
ground.
A. red
B. black
C. white
D. yellow
84. What bulkheads subdivide the ship into independent
compartments to limit the extent for flooding?
A. Compartment
B. Transverse watertight
C. Accomodation
D. Longitudinal
85. Which of the following will increase the height of the center of
buoyancy of your vessel?
A. Discharging weight from lower decks
B. Loading weight in upper decks
C. Shifting weight from lower to upper decks
D. Shifting weight from upper to lower decks
86. This is the ratio of the immersed volume to the area of the load
waterplane multiplied by the mean draught:
A. Waterplane area coefficient
B. Midship section area coefficient
C. Vertical Prismatic coefficient
D. Prismatic coefficient
87. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free
surface correction?
A. The length of the tank
B. The draft of the vessel
C. The specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
D. The width of the tank
88. Which of the following is the deep fore-and-aft member
supporting the deck?
A. Beam
B. Pillar
C. Girder
D. Stanchion
89. A vertical side battens is the same______.
A. bottom dunnage
B. horizontal battens
C. spar ceiling
D. a hook
90. In the formula, I = L X B X K, what does “B” means?
A. Breadth of ship
B. Breadth of the cargo
C. Breadth of the waterplane
D. Breadth of the vessel
91. What term indicates the immersed body of the vessel aft of the
parallel mid-body?
A. Stern
B. Entrance
C. Run
D. Stem
92. On a Tanker vessel, the cargo pump relief valves are piped to
the:
A. crossover lines interconnecting two pumps
B. cargo pump gauges
C. atmosphere through pump vents
D. suction side of pump
93. A vertical side battens is the same __.
A. Botton dunnage
B. horizontal battens
C. spar ceiling
D. a hook
94. The curvature of the deck in the longitudinal direction.
A. freeboard
B. sheer
C. camber
D. baseline
95. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
A. Its period of roll is long.
B. It has a large GM.
C. It has a very low center of gravity.
D. It has a good transverse stability.
96. The weight of a vessel without a load. It includes hull and
fittings, engines and boilers, shafting and propellers, water in
boilers, permanent ballast, etc
A. Loaded displacement
B. Light displacement
C. Dead weight tonnage
D. Displacement tonnage
97. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside
faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams,
and the top of the tank top ceiling is known as the _______.
A. Grain cubic
B. Net cubic
C. Gross cubic
D. Bale cubic
98. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first
step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to
__________.
• calculate the free surface effect and lost buoyancy to
 determine the vessel's stability
• establish flooding boundaries and prevent further spread of
flood water
C. plug the hole(s) in the outer shell
D. pump out the water inside the vessel

99. What is an arthwartship member supporting the deck?

A. Girder
B. Frame
C. Bulkhead
D. Beam
100. Floors aboard ship are ________.
A. Longitudinal beams in the extreme bottom of a ship from which
the ship’s ribs start
B. Longitudinal angle bars fastened to a surface for strength
C. Frames to which the tank top and bottom shell are fastened on
a Double bottomed ship
D. Transverse members of the ships frame which support the
decks
101. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to ________.
A. length and width of space
B. length of space only
C. width of space only
D. neither length nor width
102. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of
the cargo is __________.
A. evenly distributed vertically and the double bottoms are full
B. concentrated low and the double bottoms are empty
C. concentrated low and the double bottoms are full
D. concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty

103. Your vessel midship draft is 30’-03” The mean draft is 29’-11”.
You have:
I. 5” hog
II. Concentration of weights fore and aft
A. II only
B. Both I and II
C. I only
D. Neither I nor II
104. The ratio of the transverse area of the midship section to a
rectangle having the same breadth and depth:
A. Block coefficient
B. Prismatic coefficient
C. Midship coefficient
 D. Coefficient of fineness
105. A negative metacentric height __________.
A. should always be immediately corrected
B. will always cause a vessel to capsize
C. always results from off-center weights
D. All of the above are correct
106. This is the underwater narrowing part of a ship’s hull forward
of the middle body section?
A. Double
B. Entrance
C. Fine line
D. Run

107. The value of KM at any draft may be taken from the:

A. Hydrostatic Table
B. Building plans of the ship
C. Trimming Table
D. Stabilty Table
108. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of
the water and the hull of a vessel is the _______.
A. longitudinal reference plane
B. amidship plane
C. waterplane
D. baseline
109. In order to determine the heeling moment due to grain shift,
the master must have the position above the bulkhead deck
and powered by ______. sufficient grain loading information.
The following information shall include except:
A. details of scantlings of any temporary fittings
B. tables of maximum permissible heeling moment
C. curves and tables of grain heeling moment for every
compartment
D. tween deck compartment extend from deck to deck
110. When using clamp shell discharging of cargo, what damage to
ship’s structure it caused?
A. Cargo residue on top of the coaming
B. Hatch coaming may suffer minor harmful knocks
C. Hatch covers are commonly hit by clamp shell
D. Damage on deck’s railing when swinging

111. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?

A. Her period of roll will be large due to her large metacentric
 height.
B. She will have an unusually high center of gravity.
C. She will pitch heavily.
D. She will have a large metacentric height.
112. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for
progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
A. The operation of emergency bilge system
B. The integrity of the water tight boundaries
C. The capacity of the water sprinkler systems
D. The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms
113. Racking stress caused when ship rolls in a seaway is more
severe or evident on:
A. middle top
B. fore and aft
C. top corner
D. bottom ports
114. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the
__________.
A. GM will increase
B. center of buoyancy will move downward
C. All of the above
D. center of gravity will move upwards

115. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo

vessel of 900 GT?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
116. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which
action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
A. Removing burned debris from the cargo hold
B. Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
D. Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
117. What is the “F” in ship’s construction refers?
A. Beam
B. Girders
C. Floors
D. Pillars
118. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck
into the lower hold of a vessel?
A. The metacenter will move upward.
B. The center of buoyancy will move upward.
 C. All of the above
D. The GM will increase.
119. Where will be the center of gravity of a cargo compartment
filled with general cargo with heavier items stowed on the
bottom?
A. One-half the height of the compartment above its deck
B. One-quarter the height of the compartment above its deck
C. At the top of the compartment
D. One-third the height of the compartment above its deck
120. What is the uppermost continuous deck exposed to the
weather and the sea which has permanent means of watertight
closure?
A. Weather deck
B. Freeboard deck
C. Superstructure
D. Boat deck
121. The term “CARGO TANK LENGTH” as used in part 157 of the
Pollution Regulations, means the:
A. greatest distance between two opposite cargo tank bulkhead
B. length of any individual cargo space, from bulkhead to
bulkhead
C. diagonal measurement of a cargo tank
D. length from the collision bulkhead to the forward bulkhead of
the machinery
122. The enclosed area defined as the intersection of the surface of
the water and the hull of a vessel is the _______.
A. Longitudinal reference plane
B. amidship plane
C. waterplane
D. baseline

123. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?

A. It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when
a tank is 90% full.
B. It increases in direct proportion to the length of the tank times
The Breadth squared.
• It decreases in direct proportion to increasing specific gravity of
The liquid in the tank.
• In practice, the correction is considered to be a virtual
reduction of KG.
124. It refers to any break or change in section thickness or amount
of plating materials.
A. stiffening
B. framing
C. discontinuity
D. strength of materia
125. The figure obtained by dividing the total volume of the ship in
cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) by 100 is the
______.
A. light displacement
B. net tonnage
C. gross tonnage
D. Bale cubic
126. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which
action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
A. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B. Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
C. Removing burned debris from the cargo hold
D. Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard

127. The internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside
of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tank top is
known as ________.
A. Net cubic
B. Gross cubic
C. Bale cubic
D. Grain cubic
128. This is the tonnage of the space below the tonnage deck. It is
found by dividing the tonnage length into a specified number of
parts.
A. Gross tonnage
B. Tonnage deck
C. Net tonnage
D. Underdeck tonnage
129. Which technique could be used to give a more comfortable roll
to a stiff vessel?
A. Add weight near the centerline of the lower hold
B. Move weights lower in the ship
C. Ballast the peak tanks
D. Concentrate weights on upper decks
130. What do you call the distance from the keel to the upper deck?
A. Extreme draft
B. Extreme breadth
C. Extreme depth
D. Extreme freeboard
131. When using stabilogauge, unless the density correction is
applied, the center of gravity of a loadable compartment is
assumed to be:
A. At the geometric center of the compartment
B. At 1/3 of the height of the compartment
C. At 1/2 of the height of the compartment
D. On deck of the compartment
132. The ___ is an imaginary line, 75 mms below the bulkhead deck.
It is assumed that the ship which is sunk to this line would still
be navigable in fine weather.
A. statutory line
B. surge line
C. margin line
D. Deck Line
133. “Length between perpendiculars” is measured;
I. Along the summer loadline
II. From the forward stem to the after part of the rudder.
III. Vertically
A. II and III only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III
D. II only
134. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck
into the lower hold of a vessel?
A. All of the above
B. The GM will increase.
C. The metacenter will move upward.
D. The center of buoyancy will move upward.

135. What is the purpose of the stripping bar on the anchor

windlass?
A. Clean of mud
B. Act as a fairlead
C. Prevent chain from fouling the wildcat
D. Engaged and disengaged the wildcat
136. When a metal is tampered, it becomes:
A. More brittle
B. softer
C. harder
D. less brittle
137. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships,
the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
A. G is above the center of lateral resistance
B. the vessel has very little draft
C. G is below the center of lateral resistance
D. the vessel is deeply laden
138. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental
effect of free surface __________.
• may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the
vessel's form
B. decreases
C. increases
D. remains the same

139. Lightening holes cut out of a solid floor allow for which of the
following?
• Access during construction and maintenance of the double
bottom
II. A saving weight
A. Neither I nor II
B. Both I and II
C. II only
D. I only
140. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise
and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the
__________.
A. metacentric point
B. metacentric radius
C. tipping center
D. metacenter
141. A welding process in which the arc is maintained within a
blanket of granulated flux; a consumable filler wire is employed
and the arc is maintained between this wire and parent wire is
______.
A. gravity welding
B. tungsten inert gas welding
C. submerged arc welding
D. stud welding

142. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental

effect of free surface __________.
A. increases
B. remains the same
C. may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the
vessel's form
D. decreases
143. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
A. It has a large GM.
B. It has a very low center of gravity.
C. It has a good transverse stability.
D. Its period of roll is long.
144. It means that a piping on venting system, for example, is in no
way connected to another system and that there are no
provisions available for the potential connection to other
system.
A. Segregated
B. separate
C. independent
D. self-contained
145. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between
perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most
points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest
operating draft?
A. LBP
B. LOA
C. LWL
D. LLL

146. The ratio of volume of displacement to a block having the same

length, breadth and draft of the vessel is known as:
A. Block coefficient
B. Beam-draft ratio
C. Area of waterplane
D. Block ratio
147. How long is the loadline mark across the loadline disk?
A. 400 mm
B. 450 mm
C. 425 mm
D. 350 mm
148. This is a modern method of welding where there is actual
melting of the materials being joined although the weld metal is
composed largely of added materials having the same
characteristics as the metal being joined.
A. fillet weld
B. fusion weld
C. arc weld
D. butt weld
149. Which of the following component parts of cargo gear is
associated with Topping Lifts?
A. Schooner Guy
B. Flounder Plate
C. Heel Block
 D. Gooseneck

150. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of
your vessel. If possible you should __________.
A. call for assistance
B. abandon ship to windward
C. keep going at half speed
D. put the vessel's stern into the wind
151. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.
A. determine the lightweight center of gravity location
B. determine the location of the metacenter
C. verify the hydrostatic data
D. verify data in the vessel's operating manual
152. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the
__________.
A. All of the above
B. center of gravity will move upwards
C. GM will increase
D. center of buoyancy will move downward
153. Your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can
reduce the danger of capsizing by __________.
A. moving all passengers to one side of the boat
B. rigging a sea anchor
C. moving all passengers to the stern
D. constantly shifting the rudder
154. Which of the following is the general cargo ship usual
construction using mild steel section and plating?
A. Longitudinal
B. Horizontal
C. Diagonal
D. Transverse
155. Which of the following surveys is an initial other than the
classification in survey for the first entry?
A. Intermediate
B. Docking
C. Annual Classification
D. Classification during Construction
156. How long is the loadline mark across the loadline disk?
A. 425mm
B. 350mm
C. 400mm
D. 450mm
157. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise
 and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the
_________.
A. metacenter
B. metacentric point
C. metacentric radius
D. tipping center
158. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
A. initial stability only
B. stability through all angles
C. maximum righting arm
D. All of the above
159. What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank
onboard a vessel?
A. Corrosion from the shifting liquid
B. Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
C. Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid
D. Loss of stability from free surface effect
160. What is the TPC of a rectangular shaped vessel 80m x 14m
floating in SW at an even keel draft of 4m?
A. 10.22
B. 12.52
C. 13.68
D. 11.48
161. Which of the following condition will cause a vessel’s bottom to
be subjected to tension stresses?
A. concentration of weight forward
B. concentration of weight aft
C. concentration of weight at both end of the vessel
D. concentration of weight amidships
162. What authorities arranged the order of merit of ships built
according to the standard of seaworthiness?
A. Port authorities
B. Port state control
C. Government authorities
D. Classification society
163. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of
the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Three

164. What kind of block is used as a cargo block?

A. Fiddle Block
 B. Heel Block
C. Gin Block
D. Snatch Block
165. A stress called compression is being placed on the sheer strakes
if the vessel is ___________?
A. hogging
B. sagging
C. under shearing force
D. inclined
166. In a longitudinally framed vessel, the longitudinal frames are
held in place in a place and supported by athwartship members
called:
A. Web frames
B. Stringers
C. Margin plates
D. Floor
167. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a
vessel when it is __________.
A. low in the vessel
B. completely empty
C. completely full
D. slack
168. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________.
A. reduce reserve buoyancy
B. increase righting moments
C. increase GM
D. All of the above
169. Which kind of pipe has the best resistance to internal and
external combustion?
A. spiral welded
B. cast-steel
C. centrifugally cast
D. cast iron
170. Length overall (L.O.A) is measured___________?
A. from the forward most part of the vessel to the aftermost part
of the rudder
B. from the hawse pipe to the aft perpendicular
C. from the forward perpendicular to the aft perpendicular
D. from the forward most to the aftermost part of the vessel
171. What is not usually a concern when loading a single-hulled
tanker?
A. Bending moments
B. draft
C. trim
D. Initial stability
172. A negative metacentric height __________.
A. will always cause a vessel to capsize
 B. always results from off-center weights
C. All of the above are correct
D. should always be immediately corrected
173. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
A. stability through all angles
B. maximum righting arm
C. All of the above
D. initial stability only
174. By definitions, a “SPAR DECK’ is the:
A. after most weather deck above the main strength deck
B. deck of light construction below the main or strength deck
C. upper or weather deck above the main strength deck
D. lower most continuous deck broken by water tight
175. Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks ______.
A. provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines
B. allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
C. prevent stress concentration in the bulwark
D. permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergency
176. If the winch should fail while you are hauling in the anchor,
what prevents the anchor cable from running out?
A. Devil’s Claw
B. Hawse Ratchet
C. Riding Pawl
D. Chain stopper
177. Freeboard is a measure of:
A. The amount of reserve buoyancy
B. The initial stability of the vessel
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
178. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to _________.
A. length of space only
B. width of space only
C. neither length nor width
D. length and width of space

179. The ratio of the transverse area of the midship section to a

rectangle having the same breadth and depth:
A. Coefficient of fineness
B. Block coefficient
C. Prismatic coefficient
D. Midship coefficient
180. The deck plating nearest to the deck edges are termed:
A. Intercoastals plate
B. longitudinal plates
C. stringer plates
 D. transverse plates
181. During a stability test on a small passenger vessel __________.
A. each tank must be partially full to show it does not leak
B. all dunnage, tools, and extraneous items are secured
C. the vessel must be moored snugly
182. What is the distance from the lower edge of the winter loadline
permitted on ships 100 meters or less in length?
A. 30mms
B. 60mms
C. 50mms
D. 75mms
183. The piping that routes an oil cargo from the manifold to under
deck pipelines is known as a:
A. Cargo fill
B. Branch line
C. transfer
D. drop line

184. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between

perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most
points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest
operating draft?
A. LOA
B. LWL
C. LLL
D. LBP
185. What doors are classified the strongest doors among the
doors?
A. Non watertight
B. Watertight
C. Sliding
D. Airtight
186. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships,
the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
A. the vessel has very little draft
B. G is below the center of lateral resistance
C. the vessel is deeply laden
D. G is above the center of lateral resistance
187. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of
liquids __________.
A. pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels
B. flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
C. flowing from side to side within the vessel
D. flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
 188. When loading different cargo through the same pipeline, you
should determine which cargo to load first EXCEPT:
A. Specific gravity
B. Flash point
C. Cleanliness of commodity
D. Trim, hog and sag

```` COMPETENCE 14 DECK

1. Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screen to prevent:

A. Damage to the ball check
B. Flames entering the tank vent
C. Escape of flammable vapors
D. Corrosion in the tank vent
2. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.
A. the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
B. smoke sensors
C. pressure loss due to air being heated
D. an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the
beam
3. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
________.
A. use different fire hose pressures
B. use fire hoses of different sizes
C. not wear protective clothing
D. not attack the fire from opposite sides
4. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an
EPIRB.
A. A sailing vessel
B. A fishing vessel
C. A towing vessel
D. A non self-propelled vessel in tow

5. A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent

is its characteristic of __________.
• alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state
becomes a vapor
• absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a
liquid to vapor
C. rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
D. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
6. Fire hose couplings __________.
 A. are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B. should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C. are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D. should be greased frequently
7. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing
agent?
A. It is noncorrosive.
B. It leaves no residue.
C. It is always non-toxic.
D. It is more effective than CO2.
8. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a
result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
A. CO2
B. Water stream
C. Water spray
D. Foam

9. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
__________.
A. not attack the fire from opposite sides
B. use different fire hose pressures
C. use fire hoses of different sizes
D. not wear protective clothing
10. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained
breathing apparatus be carried?
A. Bridge or pilothouse area
B. Where they can be readily found
C. The same location as the equipment it reactivates
D. Emergency gear locker
11. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher
has been partially discharged. It should be __________.
A. replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
B. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than
15%
C. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
D. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than
25%
12. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their
stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties
assigned to them ________.
A. By the Coast Guard regulations
B. In the Muster List (“Station Bill”)
C. At the previous safety meeting
D. By the person conducting the drill
13. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a
result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
A. Water spray
B. Foam
C. CO2
D. Water stream
14. A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent
is its characteristic of __________.
A. rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
B. alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state
becomes a vapor
• absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a
liquid to a vapor
D. rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
15. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
A. once every week
B. once every month
C. once every 6 months
D. once every year
16. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set
with __________.
• the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
• the master control valve open and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
C. all valves open
D. the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks open

17. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in case
of a fire?
A. All fire-fighting teams are organized as soon as possible
B. Extinguishing attempt is started immediately
C. Call the Chief Officer
D. All possible fire-fighting equipment is brought to the scene
18. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine
room. You should secure the power, then __________.
A. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
B. determine the cause of the fire
C. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
D. use a portable foam extinguisher
19. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing
apparatus is to __________.
A. control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
B. release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle t
explode
 C. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
D. allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
20. The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a cargo hold
loaded by general cargo. What first action should be taken?
• Start the fire pumps, open the hatches and start fighting the
fire by fire hoses
• Close the ventilation system and other openings to the hold in
Order to choke the fire
• Use the ship's gas extinguishing central system to put out the
fire
• Inspect the scene before deciding the method to be used for
fire-fighting
21. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an
explosive mixture is called the __________.
A. flash point
B. threshold limit value (TLV)
C. lower explosive limit (LEL)
D. auto-ignition point
22. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT
__________.
A. fuel
B. electricity
C. oxygen
D. heat
23. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by?
A. an electric eye which actuates when smoke interfere with the
beam
B. difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
C. smoke sensors
D. pressure loss due to air being heated
24. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of
your vessel. If possible you should __________.
A. put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. call for assistance
C. abandon ship to windward
D. keep going at half speed
25. Control of fire should be addressed __________.
A. Following control of flooding
B. Following establishment of fire boundaries
C. Immediately
D. Immediately after restoring vital services
26. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard
fire by __________.
A. interrupting the chain reaction
B. removing the oxygen
C. removing the heat
D. removing the fuel
27. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained
breathing apparatus?
• The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the
Bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding.
• When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above
atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
• The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi
above atmospheric pressure.
• In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can
be operated manually to give the wearer air.
28. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent
when dealing with oil fires?
A. By cooling only
B. By smothering and also providing some cooling
C. By smothering only
D. The heat from the fire causes the foam to produce an inert gas
which gradually extinguishes the fire.
29. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of
your vessel. If possible you should __________.
A. call for assistance
B. abandon ship to windward
C. keep going at half speed
D. put the vessel's stern into the wind
30. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the
fire triangle to have a fire?
A. Electricity
B. Chain reaction
C. Pressure
D. Smoke
31. Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for
absorbing heat?
A. Dry chemical
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Carbon dioxide
32. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample
into the instrument __________.
A. where it is mixed with nitrogen
B. where it is ignited by a sparking device
C. where its specific gravity is measured
D. over an electrically heated platinum filament
33. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher
has been partially discharged. It should be __________.
A. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
B. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than
25%
C. replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than
 15%

34. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed extinguishing
system of a cargo vessel shall be at least sufficient
for____________.
A. Engine room and largest cargo space
B. Space requiring largest amount
C. All cargo-space
D. All the space of the vessel
35. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with
__________.
A. an identification number
B. the name of the vessel on which it is located
C. the date that it was installed
D. the names of the individuals qualified to use it
36. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
A. By increasing the weight of the oil
B. By excluding the oxygen from the fire
C. By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
D. By removing the fuel source from the fire
37. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set
with __________.
A. all valves open
B. the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
Tanks open
• the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut
• the master control valve open and valves to individual cargo
tanks shut

38. Foam extinguishes fire by:

A. Inerting the air
B. Smoothering
C. Cooling
D. Chemical action
39. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with least
side effects in case of a large fire in the engine room?
A. Central foam extinguishing system
B. Central gas extinguishing system and/or water fog.
C. Sprinkler system
D. Powder extinguishing system
40. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part
of the fireman's outfit?
A. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
 B. Flame safety lamp
C. Combustible gas indicator
D. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
41. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
__________.
A. use fire hoses of different sizes
B. not wear protective clothing
C. not attack the fire from opposite sides
D. use different fire hose pressures

42. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine
room. You should secure the power, then __________.
A. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
B. use a portable foam extinguisher
C. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
D. determine the cause of the fire
43. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you
should put the __________.
A. Stern into the wind and increase speed
B. Stern into the wind and decrease speed
C. Bow into the wind and decrease speed
D. wind off either beam
44. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained
breathing apparatus?
• In the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can
be operated manually to give the wearer air.
• The valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the
Bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding.
• When pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above
atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
• The valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi
above atmospheric pressure.
45. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon
dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
A. Closing the compartment except for the ventilators
B. Increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers
C. Completely closing the compartment
D. Leaving the compartment open to the air

46. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would

__________.
A. order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump
B. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way forward
 C. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back
D. attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
47. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should
__________.
A. not attack the fire from opposite sides
B. use different fire hose pressures
C. use fire hoses of different sizes
D. not wear protective clothing
48. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample
into the instrument __________.
A. over an electrically heated platinum filament
B. where it is mixed with nitrogen
C. where it is ignited by a sparking device
D. where its specific gravity is measured
49. Fire hose couplings __________.
A. are specially hardened to prevent crushing
B. should be greased frequently
C. are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
D. should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths

50. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such
as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and
figures must be at least __________.
A. 1 inch
B. 1-1/2 inches
C. 2 inches
D. 1/2 inch
51. Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when:
A. Spraying with water
B. Cutting off oxygen source
C. Cooling below its ignition temperature
D. Removing fuel
52. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that
foam
A. cannot be made with salt water
B. Conducts electricity
C. is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters
D. is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface
53. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with
__________.
A. the date that it was installed
 B. the names of the individuals qualified to use it
C. an identification number
D. the name of the vessel on which it is located

54. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.

A. smoke sensors
B. pressure loss due to air being heated
C. an electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the
Beam
D. the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
55. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained
breathing apparatus be carried?
A. The same location as the equipment it reactivates
B. Emergency gear locker
C. Bridge or pilothouse area
D. Where they can be readily found
56. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing
apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of
the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. One
57. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed
to prevent the spread of fire by __________.
A. convection
B. conduction
C. radiation
D. ventilation

58. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo

vessel of 2,000 GT?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
59. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
A. Foam
B. CO2
C. Dry chemical
D. Water fog
60. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an
explosive mixture is called the __________.
A. lower explosive limit (LEL)
B. auto-ignition point
C. flash point
D. threshold limit value (TLV)
61. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no
portable fire extinguishers in the pump room. To comply with
regulations, you __________.
• should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit
B. may substitute sand for the required extinguishers
C. should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower
Pump room
D. need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are
required in the pump room

62. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed
to prevent the spread of fire by __________.
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. ventilation
D. convection
63. The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing
system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for
__________.
A. the engine room and largest cargo space
B. all cargo spaces
C. all the spaces of a vessel
D. the space requiring the largest amount
64. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no
portable fire extinguishers in the pump room. To comply with
regulations, you __________.
• should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower
Pump room
• need not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are
required in the pump room
• should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity
of the exit
D. may substitute sand for the required extinguishers
65. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard
fire by __________.
A. removing the fuel
B. interrupting the chain reaction
C. removing the oxygen
D. removing the heat
66. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such
 as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters
and figures must be at least __________.
A. 2 inches
B. 1/2 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 1-1/2 inches
67. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST
firefighting response should be to __________.
A. Open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
B. Release the CO2 flooding system
C. Secure the ventilation
D. Enter and use a portable extinguisher
68. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing
apparatus is to __________.
A. allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
B. control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
C. release excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to
explode
D. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
69. The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing
system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for
__________.
A. all the spaces of a vessel
B. the space requiring the largest amount
C. the engine room and largest cargo space
D. all cargo spaces

70. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part

of the fireman's outfit?
A. Combustible gas indicator
B. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
C. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
D. Flame safety lamp
71. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would
__________.
A. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back
B. attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
C. order the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump
D. put the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way forward

```` COMPETENCE 15 DECK

• The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB)

must be tested __________.
A. weekly
B. every 2 months
 C. every 3 months
D. monthly
• When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf,
sternway is checked by ________.
• slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor from the
stern
B. towing with the tripping line and leaving the holding line slack
C. towing the apex end forward with the tripping line
D. slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor by the
holding line
• How often must inspection of proper working of the EPIRB ‘s and
SART ’s take place on board? Once per__________
A. week
B. 14 days
C. month
D. Don't know
• Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You
can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.
A. moving all personnel forward and low
B. moving all personnel aft
C. rigging a sea anchor
D. constantly shifting the rudder
5. How are lifelines attached to a life float?
A. With an approved safety hook or shackle
B. Securely attached around the outside in bights no longer than
three feet
C. By serving
D. By splicing one end of the line around the apparatus
6. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
A. used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow
B. used for the stroke oar
C. shorter than the others
D. longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
7. Which of the following is considered primary life-saving
equipment?
A. Lifeboat
B. Life Preserver
C. Lifering
D. Personal flotation device
8. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of
the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included in the
"muster list" according to present regulations?
• Closing of watertight doors, fire doors, valves, scuppers, side
scuttles, skylights.
• Preparation of immersion suits and thermo protective aids for
The ship's passengers.
 • Preparation of survival craft's Emergency Positions Indicating
Radio Beacons.
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion system.

9. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

A. used by the forward man in the boat to direct the bow
B. used for the stroke oar
C. shorter than the others
D. longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
10. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with
__________.
A. drinking water
B. pendants
C. a righting line
D. red hand flares
11. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out
at sea, it is important that the crew members should _________.
• get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the
vessel
• separate from each other as this will increase the chances of
being rescued
• remain together in the area because rescuers will start
searching at the vessel's last known position
D. immediately head for the nearest land
12. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating
Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
A. tested annually
B. secured inside the wheelhouse
C. secured in the emergency locker
D. tested monthly

13. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft, you can
see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search
pattern. You should:
A. Use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
B. Turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
C. Use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the
aircraft to your raft
D. Switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
14. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Category 1
15. The battery of an EPIRB__________
A. load must be checked weekly
B. Don't know
C. must be renewed every year
D. must be replaced before the expiry date is exceeded
16. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by
A. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side
containing the CO2 cylinder
• doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports
inflate
• standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and
throwing your weight backwards
D. pushing up on one side

17. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How
much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink
after the first 24 hours?
A. 1 gallon
B. 1 pint
C. 1 can
D. 1 quart
18. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane
__________.
A. which coincides with the center of buoyancy
B. which, in the absence of external forces, is always vertically
Aligned with the center of gravity
C. which is shown in the hydrostatic tables as VCB
D. about which the vessel lists and trims
19. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent
__________.
• the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated
accidentally
B. accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
C. the falls from rehooking after they have been released
D. operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne
20. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
__________.
A. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
B. remain in the immediate vicinity
C. head for the nearest land
D. head for the closest sea-lanes

21. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without

desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied
with __________.
 A. a life preserver
B. 3 liters of water
C. 2 pounds of condensed milk
D. a signaling whistle
22. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
__________.
A. head for the closest sea-lanes
B. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
C. remain in the immediate vicinity
D. head for the nearest land
23. One can check the functioning of the SART by__________
A. activating the SART and checking the effect on the radar screen
B. removing it from the holder and turning the SART upside down
C. activating it by extracting the antenna
D. Don't know
24. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water
__________.
A. will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
B. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right
itself
C. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder,
holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
D. should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards

25. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with

__________.
A. red hand flares
B. drinking water
C. pendants
D. a righting line
26. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be __________.
A. forwardmost on the starboard side
B. abaft #1 lifeboat port side
C. abaft #1 lifeboat starboard side
D. forwardmost on the port side
27. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the
greatest danger is __________.
A. starvation
B. hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
D. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
28. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you
should __________.
• spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding
 you
• reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as
possible into as few rafts as possible
C. tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
D. go in a different direction in search of land

29. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by

__________.
• doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports
inflate
• standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and
throwing your weight backwards
C. pushing up on one side
D. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side
containing the CO2 cylinder
30. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which
procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a
raft?
A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration.
B. All of the above
C. Keep the entrance curtains open.
D. Get plenty of rest.
31. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather
__________.
A. the entrance curtains should never be opened
B. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
C. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling
breezes
D. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent
excessive air pressure
32. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a life raft
during storm conditions?
A. bring it inside the life raft and leave it on
B. bring it inside the life raft and turn it off until the storm passes
C. bring it inside the life raft and turn it off until the storm passes
D. bring it inside the life raft and turn it off until the storm passes
33. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the
greatest danger is __________.
A. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
B. starvation
C. hypothermia caused by cold temperature
D. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
34. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which
statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?
• A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is
operated by a High volume manual pump.
 • The motor takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to
Prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
• The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible
links.
• An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the
survivors and the engine
35. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft
is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a
safety valve. You should __________.
A. unscrew the deflation plugs
B. remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
C. not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of
time
D. plug the safety valve
36. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to
__________.
A. aid in casting off
B. direct the drift of the vessel
C. maintain maximum resistance to broaching
D. aid in its recovery
37. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you
should pull on the __________.
A. sea painter
B. righting strap
C. canopy
D. manropes
38. The following information must be given on the SART
A. the MMSI number
B. date of replacement of the hydrostatic release unit
C. date of replacement of the battery
D. Don't know
39. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of
your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
A. call for assistance
B. keep going at half speed
C. put the vessel's stern into the wind
D. abandon ship to windward
40. Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I
personal flotation devices)?
• Life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious person's
face clear of the water
B. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.
C. Life preservers must always be worn with the same side facing
outwards to float properly.
41. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF
the __________.
A. sea anchor is deployed to windward
B. fuel tanks are not less than half full
C. lower ballast tanks are filled with water
D. passengers are strapped to their seats
42. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a cargo
vessel must be stowed __________.
A. so that it is accessible from the bridge of the vessel
B. in an approved bracket
C. in an inside passageway
D. so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
43. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a
compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of
the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
A. Two
B. Three
C. . Four
D. One
44. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft
muster and embarkation arrangements corresponds to the
present SOLAS regulations?
• Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily accessible
From accommodation and work areas.
• Muster and embarkation stations are to be arranged separately
To Improve working conditions.
C. Searchlights to be provided at the launching station.
D. Davit-launched survival craft muster and embarkation stations
shall not be arranged to enable stretchers to be placed in
survival craft.
45. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________.
A. on the starboard side
B. abaft #1 lifeboat on the port side
C. abaft #1 lifeboat on the starboard side
D. on the port side
46. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather
__________.
• the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling
breezes
• the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent
excessive Air pressure
C. the entrance curtains should never be opened
D. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
47. The purpose of storm oil is to:
A. Smooth the sea
B. Weight down the sea anchor
C. Lubricate sea anchor
D. Repel dangerous fish
48. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a
liferaft to __________.
A. Keep personnel from getting seasick
B. Stay in the general location
C. keep the liferaft from capsizing
D. Navigate against the current
49. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is _________.
A. get the provisions out of the raft
B. set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
C. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
D. find some wood for a fire
50. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft:
A. Must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
B. Wll inflate the liferaft
C. Should be kept watertight before release
D. Must be wet before it will release
51. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft:
A. Must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
B. Wll inflate the liferaft
C. Should be kept watertight before release
D. Must be wet before it will release
52. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship
drill?
A. Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned.
B. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals.
C. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies.
D. Checking passenger's immersion suits.
53. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing
__________.
A. from side to side in the tanks of the vessel
B. from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel
C. in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank
D. in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
54. An orange colored smoke signal or detonating luminous signals
fired at interval of one minute means:
A. We see you, we will provide help as soon as possible
B. To embark here is dangerous
C. This is the most suitable place to embark
D. Man in the buoy

55. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.

A. balanced rudders
B. contra guide rudders
C. straight rudders
D. unbalanced rudders
56. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is _________.
 A. set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
B. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
C. find some wood for a fire
D. get the provisions out of the raft
57. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
A. Rolling period
B. Freeboard
C. Metacentric height
D. Righting moment
58. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity
Of wearing a life jacket.
C. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
D. They should be tight fitting.

59. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated.
You should __________.
• check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are
rough
• check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the
initial opening
• not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to
escape
D. quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
60. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above
the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.
A. use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
B. pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
C. pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
D. pull the hook release handle
61. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its
sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.
A. get out of the raft and swim to safety
B. boat the sea anchor
C. paddle away from the fire
D. splash water over the liferaft to cool it
62. You have abandoned ship in a life raft. Which of the following
actions should you take?
• Organize a watch system, post as a lookout, tie up with other
Survival craft if possible, and stream the sea anchor
B. Join up with any other survival craft and stream the sea anchor
 C. organize a lookout system
D. start paddling in the direction of the nearest land

```` COMPETENCE 16 DECK

• There has been an accident on board. Urgent medical advice is

needed. The call is preceded by__________
A. safety signal
B. urgency signal
C. Don't know
D. emergency signal
• Which of the following should NOT be a treatment for a person
who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?
A. Treat for shock.
B. Elevate his head.
C. Give a stimulant.
D. Stop severe bleeding.
3. Another name for pain reliever is _______ .
A. depressant
B. tranquilizer
C. hypnotic
D. analgesic
4. What is considered a Serious Marine Incident?
A. grounding of a vessel on a sandbar that does not result in
injuries and/or any damage to the vessel
B. an injury to a crewmember, passenger, or other person which
requires professional medical treatment beyond first aid
C. a collision that results in $500 damage to a boat dock
D. None of the stated options

5. Universal antidote is used to neutralize a sick person with:

A. Hemorrhage
B. Diarrhea
C. Clean wounds
D. Poison
6. There has been an accident on board. Urgent medical advice is
needed. The call is preceded by__________
A. MAYDAY (3x)
B. SECURITE (3x)
C. PAN PAN (3x)
D. Don't know
7. If a person is in a state of shock, what of the following is the
correct thing of you to do?
A. Move the casualty as much as possible.
B. Be kind to the casualty and give anything to eat or drink at first
 opportunity.
C. Treat and reassure the casualty and stay with the person at all
times.
D. Apply hot-water bottles to keep the patient warm.
8. When a person is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain
should be relieved by:
A. Giving the patient morphine sulfate.
B. Giving the patient laxative.
C. Keeping an ice bag over the location of the appendix.
D. Giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water.

9. ____ is the proper stimulant for an unconscious person?

A. tiger balm
B. dextran
C. Ammonia
D. water
10. A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal
injuries should __________.
A. be assisted in walking around
B. be examined then walked to a bunk
C. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair
Or bunk
D. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance
arrives
11. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive
damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury
classified using standard medical terminology?
A. Dermal burn
B. Major burn
C. Lethal burn
D. Third-degree burn
12. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This
means "_____."
A. The wound should not be stitched
B. Place patient in hot bath
C. The wound should be stitched
D. You should pass a stomach tube

13. Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen

located in the ___________.
A. lower left side
B. upper right side
C. lower right side
 D. upper left side
14. What is not a treatment for traumatic shock?
A. Have the injured person lie down.
B. Keep the patient warm but not hot.
C. Relieve the pain of the injury.
D. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation.
15. You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the
lower arm. Which action should you take?
• Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and splint.
• Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint, and
apply A pressure dressing.
• Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding,
and splint.
• Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding,
then apply a temporary splint, and obtain medical advice.
16. On board an accident happened. Urgent radio-medical advice is
needed. We choose the category__________
A. Safety
B. Routine
C. Urgency
D. Don't know

17. Narcotics is given to a patient when:

A. He is groggy
B. Unconscious
C. In great pain
D. Intoxicated
18. Stimulant is given to a person who is _______ .
A. intoxicated
B. poisoned
C. none of these
D. fainting
19. If one requires medical advice by means of an Inmarsat-C
terminal one should use the following address__________
A. Radiomedical
B. MED +
C. 32
D. Don't know
20. One of the sailors needs urgent medical assistance. The VHF-call
starts with__________
A. PAN PAN (3x)
B. MAYDAY (3x)
C. Don't know
D. SOS (3x)
21. While operating off the coast of Greece, a seaman is injured.
 What indicator should be in the preamble of a radio telegram
asking for medical advice from a Greek station?
A. Radio medical
B. Medico ellas
C. Mayday
D. DH medico
22. What is the purpose of a Medico Message?
A. Calling the health department in the next port of call and ask
for free Radio practice.
B. Call a hospital for professional medical assistance by radio
when needed
C. Medico is the certificate which permit the Master to be doctor
onboard.
D. Giving a regular statement of the health of the vessel's crew.
23. While operating off Panama, a seaman is injured. What
indicator should be included in the preamble of a telegram
requesting a medical advice from a Panamanian station?
A. DH medico
B. Med rad
C. XXX
D. Radio medical
24. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a
passenger ship that has a doctor and hospital on board. You
want to rendezvous in a certain position so the oiler can be
evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your
message contain?
A. MAE
B. MAB
C. MAF
D. MAA

25. Crew has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the
skin but no other apparent damage. This is an example of
_________.
A. Minor burn
B. extremity burn
C. first degree burn
D. None of the stated options
26. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they
should be __________.
A. walked around until he is back to normal
B. given several shots of whiskey
C. kept lying down and warm
D. asked about the circumstances of the accident
27. In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal
burns it is important to prevent or reduce __________.
A. disfigurement
B. infection
C. pain
D. asphyxia
28. The treatment that is NOT for traumatic shock is ____________.
A. Have the injured person lie down
B. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation
C. Relieve the pain of the injury
D. None of the stated options

29. The FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of

having airway burns is to__________.
A. move him to a cool location
B. confirm and maintain an open airway
C. apply cool damp dressing to his neck
D. have him drink cool liquids
30. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be
__________.
• given mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids
B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously
C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15
minutes of rest
D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down
31. A person who gets battery acid in an eye should IMMEDIATELY
wash the eye with __________.
A. boric acid solution
B. water
C. baking soda solution
D. ammonia
32. What is the cause of heat exhaustion?
A. by excessive loss of body temperature
B. by excessive loss of water and salt from the body
C. by excessive gain in body temperature
D. None of the stated options

33. Proper effective warming treatment for a crew member

suffering from hypothermia is ____________.
A. running or jumping to create heat
 B. a warm water bath
C. mouth to mouth resuscitation
D. None of the stated options
34. To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is __________.
A. bicarbonate of soda
B. paregoric
C. aspirin
D. aromatic sprits of ammonia
35. What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?
A. increase in body temperature and pulse rate
B. massive loss of fluid through the burned area
C. all of these
D. None of the stated options
36. A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult
victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.
A. carotid artery in the neck
B. femoral artery in the groin
C. brachial artery in the arm
D. radial artery in the wrist
37. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should
be done __________.
A. at ten minute intervals
B. by not stopping the respiration for more than five minutes
C. only with the help of two other people
D. without losing the rhythm of respiration

38. When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the vicinity of

electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to __________.
• remove the person from the vicinity of the electrical equipment or
wiring
B. shutdown electrical power in the area
C. flush water over any burned area of the victim
D. apply ointment to the burned area of the victim
39. Which procedure should NOT be done for a person whom has
fainted?
A. Revive the person with smelling salts.
B. Loosen the clothing.
C. Lay the person horizontally.
D. Give pain reliever.
40. When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost
importance to __________.
A. use the mouth-to-mouth method
B. clear airways
C. use rhythmic pressure method
D. know all approved methods
41. Better treatment of frostbite is to:
A. rub with ice or snow
 B. wrap tightly in warm cloths
C. warm exposed parts rapidly
D. None of the stated options
42. Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive __________.
A. loss of body temperature
B. loss of water and salt from the body
C. gain in body temperature
D. intake of water when working or exercising
43. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive
damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury
classified using standard medical terminology?
A. Dermal burn
B. Third degree burn
C. Major burn
D. Lethal burn
44. For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial
obstruction of the airway by a foreign body, a potential rescuer
should __________.
A. immediately give four abdominal thrusts
B. wait for the victim to become unconscious then give four back
Blows followed by four abdominal thrusts
• encourage the victim to continue coughing. If the victim is
unable to expel the object, arrange for prompt transport to an
appropriate medical facility
D. bend the victim over and give back blows
45. The most essential element in the administration of CPR is
__________.
A. to have the proper equipment for the process
B. the speed of treatment
C. the administration of oxygen
D. the treatment for traumatic shock
46. The most effective warming treatment for a crew member
suffering from hypothermia is __________.
A. running or jumping to create heat
B. lying in the sun
C. a warm water bath
D. laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly

```` COMPETENCE 17 DECK

• According to SOLAS requirement for lifeboat fall, what action must be

taken with the fall at interval of not more than 5 years?
A. Renewed
B. Proof tested
C. weight tested
D. reverse
2. Sludge are to be disposed off at sea
A. during darkness only
B. 25 miles offshore
C. 50 miles offshore
D. disposal prohibited
• At what security level is further specific protective security
measures to be maintained for a limited period of time when a security
incident is probable or imminent, although it may not be possible to
identify the specific target?
A. Security level 1
B. Security level 2
C. Security level 3
D. Security level 4
• ISPS Code was formulated as a result of what incident
A. Grounding of Exxon Valdez
B. Agreed upon by IMO member countries to address safety issues
C. 9/11 bombing of World Trade Center
D. Sinking of RMS Titanic

5. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo

vessel of 2,000 GT?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
6. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo
vessel of 900 GT?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
7. ____ is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78?
A. Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Oil
B. Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Harmful
Substances in a Packaged Form
C. Regulations for the Prevention of Pollution by Sewage
D. Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid
Substances
8. One of the many objectives of the ________ is to ensure the
early and efficient collection and exchange of security-related
information.
A. Code of Safe Practice for the Handling of Cargo
B. FTP Code
C. ISPS Code
D. STCW Code
9. Due to the nature of a vessel's construction for a particular
trade, it does not fully comply with the provisions of SOLAS.
Where will this be indicated?
A. On the Exemption Certificate
B. On the reverse of the particular SOLAS certificate affected
C. On the face of the Certificate of Inspection
D. Nowhere; the vessel must comply to engage in international
trade.
10. Oily mixtures according to Marpol means:
A. a mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
B. a mixture with oil content above 50 ppm
C. a mixture with oil content above 100 ppm
D. a mixture with any oil content
11. ISPS Code was formulated as a result of what incident
A. 9/11 bombing of World Trade Center
B. Sinking of RMS Titanic
C. Grounding of Exxon Valdez
D. Agreed upon by IMO member countries to address safety
issues
12. Under SOLAS passenger ships and ships other than passenger
ships of ______ and upwards constructed on or after 2002 must
carry Voyage Data Recorders (VDR) to assist in accident
investigation.
A. 2,000 GRT
B. 10,000 GRT
C. 3,000 GRT
D. 4,000 GRT

13. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an

EPIRB?
A. A towing vessel
B. A non self-propelled vessel in tow
C. A sailing vessel
D. A fishing vessel
14. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in the
__________.
A. Oil Record Book
B. engine rough log
C. Official Logbook
D. deck rough log
15. Oil discharge in large quantities form ______ which will affect
birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not disperse
into the water as water droplets before reaching shore:
A. patches
 B. spills
C. emulsions
D. slicks
16. _________ must counter sign any completed pages of the Oil
Record Book.
A. Master and Chief Engineer
B. Master
C. Chief Engineer
D. Designated Officer

17. MEPC as referred to in the MARPOL Convention stands for:

A. Marine Environment Pollution Control
B. Marine Environment Protocol Committee
C. Marine Environment Protection Control
D. Marine Environment Protection Committee
18. Annex V of MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to
the discharge into the marine environment of:
A. Sewage
B. Oil
C. Noxious liquid substances
D. Garbage
19. The ISPS Code applies to:
I. Passenger ships
II. Mobile offshore drilling units (MODU)
A. I only
B. Neither I or II
C. Both I and II
D. II only
20. _________ must counter sign any completed pages of the Oil
Record Book.
A. Chief Engineer
B. Designated Officer
C. Master and Chief Engineer
D. Master

21. SOLAS stipulates that ships of 500 GRT or more shall have at
least one international shore connection with an outside
diameter of____
A. 172 mm
B. 176 mm
C. 178 mm
 D. 174 mm
22. Oil discharge in large quantities form ______ which will affect
birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not disperse
into the water as water droplets before reaching shore:
A. emulsions
B. slicks
C. patches
D. spills
23. Lifeboats for ocean-going vessels shall carry in excess of the
required regulation by:
A. 25% of persons on board
B. 50% of persons on board
C. 75% of persons on board
D. 100% of persons on board
24. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship
drills corresponds to present SOLAS regulation?
A. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in a harbor.
B. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and
maneuvered in the water at least once every three months
during an abandon ship drill.
C. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills.
D. On ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be
launched and maneuvered in the water at least every six
months.
25. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must
be made in the __________.
A. Official Logbook
B. deck rough log
C. engine rough log
D. Oil Record Book
26. Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a
certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS as amended
of the ISPS Code?
A. Security Administration
B. Port State Control
C. Recognize Security Organization
D. Contracting Gov’t Coast Guards
27. In accordance with SOLAS convention, how long shall the
auxilliary steering gear be capable of turning 15 degrees on one
side to 15 degrees on the other side?
A. not more than 60 seconds
B. not more than 40 seconds
C. not more than 30 seconds
D. not more than 20 seconds
28. The ISM Code requires ship owners or shipping companies to
assign a ______ onboard their ship:
A. Logistics Committee
B. Overseeing Committee
 C. Safety Committee
D. Welfare Committee

29. In case each hydrant is not fitted with hose and nozzles, what is
the requirement? (SOLAS II-2/4.6.1)
• At each fire station, sufficient number of hoses with nozzles for
the Hydrants in the area shall be available
• Hoses and nozzles for each hydrant to be available at the fire
stations
C. Complete interchangeability of hose couplings and nozzles
D. Hoses with fixed nozzles to be kept ready for use in
Conspicuous Positions near the hydrants
30. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must
be made in the __________.
A. Oil Record Book
B. Official Logbook
C. deck rough log
D. engine rough log
31. Under the New Regulations, what does SOLAS Chapter XI-1
deals with?
A. Special provisions for Ship Security and Port Facilities
B. Additional provisions to combat Terrorism
C. Special measures to enhance Maritime Safety
D. Security planning and Ship and Port Facility
32. SOLAS stipulates that if more than 25% of crew have not
participated in abandonship and fire drills in the previous
month, the drills of the crew shall take place__________.
A. within 48 hours after ship leaves port
B. within 24 hours after ship leaves port
C. 24 hours after embarkation
D. 48 hours after embarkation

33. CSO is responsible for :

A. enhancing security awareness of port facility personnel
B. conducting audit of vessel regarding safety
C. Development, implementation and maintenance of SSP
D. undertaking regular security inspection of the vessel
34. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in the
__________.
A. engine rough log
B. Official Logbook
C. deck rough log
D. Oil Record Book
35. An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for what
 period of time?
A. 5 years
B. 2 years
C. 1 year
D. 6 months
36. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign
voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than _______.
A. 48 months
B. 36 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months
37. The ISM Code requires ship owners or shipping companies to
assign a ______ onboard their ship:
A. Safety Committee
B. Welfare Committee
C. Logistics Committee
D. Overseeing Committee
38. Regulation concerning the stowage, lashing and securing of
timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels may be found
in the:
A. International Cargo Bureau Regulations
B. Rules and Regulations for Cargo and Miscellaneous Vessel
C. Vessels Classification Society Rules and Regulations
D. Load Lines Regulations
39. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with:
A. bulk cargoes other than grain
B. radioactive materials
C. General Provision
D. carriage of grain
40. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting Government with
Part A & B. The mandatory requirements & guidance is under
the provisions of _______ of the SOLAS as amended.
A. Chapter XX-1
B. Chapter IX-2
C. Chapter XI-2
D. Chapter X-1
41. A "CSO" is designated by the__________.
A. Administration
B. Contracting Governments
C. Company operating the ship
D. Captain of the Port
42. Sludge are to be disposed off at sea
A. disposal prohibited
B. during darkness only
C. 25 miles offshore
D. 50 miles offshore
43. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign
voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than________.
 A. 12 months
B. 24 months
C. 48 months
D. 36 months
44. As per SOLAS Regulation, the capacity rate of ships emergency
fire pumps shall be ____.
A. 75 cu.m./hour
B. 25 cu.m./hour
C. 30 cu.m./hour
D. 50 cu.m./hour
45. For carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems for machinery spaces
the fixed piping system shall be such that: (SOLAS II-2/5.2.4)
• 100% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two
minutes
• 85% of the gas can be discharged into the space within two
minutes
• 100% of the gas can be discharged into the space within three
minutes
• 70% of the gas can be discharged into the space within one
minute
46. An IOPP Certificate on an inspected vessel is valid for what
period of time?
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 5 years
47. Where in accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors be
located? (SOLAS II-2/13.2.2)?
A. In messrooms, public lounges and other public rooms
B. Near ventilation ducts throughout the accommodation spaces
C. In all crew and passenger cabins
D. In stairways, corridors and escape routes
48. Oily mixtures according to Marpol means:
A. a mixture with any oil content
B. a mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
C. a mixture with oil content above 50 ppm
D. a mixture with oil content above 100 ppm
49. As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for fast
Rescue Boat shall last for__.
A. 16 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 12 hours
```` COMPETENCE 18 DECK

• To deal with the change constructively, manager can take two

major approaches, they can react to the signs that changes are needed,
and they can____
A. developed a program of planned change
B. maximize the effect of change
C. deal with the forces for change when they appear
D. deal with the particular problems as they arise
• Which of the following is not an indication of error chain
development?
I. ambiguity
II. Distraction
III. inadequacy and confusion
IV. Communication
V. proper conning or lookout
VI. Procedural violation
A. I
B. II,IV
C. V
D. III, VI
3. This is the most effective management development technique.
A. Coaching
B. Modeling
C. Irritation
D. Training

4. What is the most effective management development

technique?
A. familiarization
B. training
C. coaching
D. teaching
5. Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment of
_____________.
A. objectives
B. responsibilities
C. duties
D. choices
6. One of the most important things to look for in a job when
seeking employment is _____
A. a good boss
B. human resource management
C. expected behavioral pattern
D. the top management level
7. Designing the organization is a _________ process.
A. continuous
B. precise
C. rational
D. definitive
8. Assigning authority and responsibility to others for carrying out
specific tasks is called__________.
A. specialization
B. decentralization
C. communication
D. delegation
9. Goals and actions refer to the management function of______
A. leading
B. organizing
C. planning
D. controlling
10. When we talk of human values we generally ask__________.
A. who
B. why
C. where
D. how
11. A "CSO" is designated by the ___________.
A. Company Operating the ship
B. ISPS Code
C. ISM Code
D. Ship Security Officer
12. The word "organization" has two meaning, the first implies a/an
_____, the second refers to__________.
A. continuous, a process
B. coaching, a process
C. coordination, a process
D. institution, a process
13. When you carry out a job, you should consider the following
questions. Which of the following is not fitting?
A. how best could I carry out the job
B. is it possible for me to carry out the job
C. what kind of tools shall I bring
D. what precautions should I take before starting the job

14. MARINA was created and geared towards the following

objectives EXCEPT:
• To create sub-agencies for the safe transport of goods and
passengers
B. To create more job opportunities
C. To increase production and productivity in the various islands
and regions of the archipelago through the provision of linkage
D. To provide for economical, safe, adequate and efficient
shipment of Raw materials, products, commodities and people
15. The routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic ship
operators are prescribed by which government agency?
A. MARINA
B. Office of the President of the Philippines
C. PCG
D. DOTC
16. The scope of instructional objective which deals with how a
trainee should know about something in relation to the training
program is_____
A. cognitive objective
B. affective objective
C. psychomotor objective
D. enabling objective
17. The more difficult part of ethical decision making
involves__________.
A. technical, human, conceptual
B. making better decisions
C. social responsibility
D. who has the right to do what and when

18. Overcoming resistance to planned change may best be

accomplished by__________.
A. identify the symptoms
B. involving the crew in planning process
C. managers interacting with employees
D. taking them seriously
19. To determine training needs, which of the following ways is
used that may possibly be of help to the personnel concerned?
A. Brainstorming
B. Observation
C. Survey
D. Testing
20. Welding and burning are among the factors which give the
highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to be taken to
avoid this risk. Which of the following safety rules may be
regarded as the most important?
• The welder shall have been instructed in the use of the ship's
welding plant.
• Only holders of welding certificates shall be allowed to carry
Out welding on board ships.
C. Only use electrodes from a well-known manufacturer.
D. Electric welding plants shall be controlled by a responsible
engineer before use.
21. The criteria involved with the principle of respect for persons
includes__________.
A. integrating
B. survival
 C. self-esteem
D. taking them seriously
22. Once a problem has been defined by the management, the next
move is__________.
A. identify the decisions objectives
B. diagnose the causes
C. make remedial measures
D. develop alternatives
23. ____________ is a particular learning scope for instructional
objective which deals with how a trainee should feel about
something in relation to the training program.
A. Affective Objective
B. Cognitive Objective
C. Psychomotor Objective
D. Enabling Objective
24. Watchkeepers should have a mandatory rest periods of _______
in any one week.
A. 70 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 56 hours
D. 48 hours
25. This is designed to provide a new employee with the
information needed in order to function comfortably in the
organization.
A. Training
B. Orientation
C. Security
D. Human Resource Planning

26. Which of the following steps is NOT a part of the rational

problem solving process?
A. identify the symptoms of the problem
B. investigate the situation
C. develop, evaluate, and select the best alternative
D. implementation and follow up
27. Recruitment, training and development of organization
members is ________
A. human resource management
B. staffing
C. organizing
D. organizational development
28. In bridge resource management, which of the following
statements are example of "hazardous thoughts"
I. I can do it
II. It won't happen to me
 III. Why takes chances
IV. it's not my job
V. Don't tell me what to do
VI. We're all in the same ship
A. I, II, III, IV, V
B. IV, V, VI
C. I, II, IV, V
D. I,II,III
29. Human relations consider__________.
A. managers interacting with the employees
B. morale of the organization
C. identify employees with better performance
D. type and nature of work
30. Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment of
_____________.
A. responsibilities
B. duties
C. choices
D. objectives
31. ___________ is a kind of teaching-learning principle where the
trainee must see why he should study something.
A. perceived purpose
B. graduated sequence
C. knowledge of results
D. individual differentiation
32. Which of the following would fit MOST on motivation?
A. factor that cause, channel and sustain people's behavior
B. that special inner desire to excel
C. efforts at keeping employees "cheered up" at all times
D. managerial strategies to inspire the working force
33. A _____ is the means by which data are transmitted across the
levels of the organization.
A. vertical information system
B. chain of command
C. lateral relationship
D. liaison individual
34. The planning process__________.
A. does not end but may involve "re-planning"
B. ends when plans are agreed upon
C. ends when plans are implemented
D. ends when the control process begins
35. The following concerns ethics EXCEPT__________.
A. decisions
B. social responsibility
C. rights and duties
D. charity
36. Ethics concerns all of the following EXCEPT__________.
A. rights and duties
B. decisions
C. charity
D. social responsibility
37. The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager is
known as__________.
A. the span of management
B. division of work
C. the degree of coordination
D. departmentalization
38. What are the three basic kinds of skills that all managers
display?
A. technical, human, conceptual
B. responsibility, strategy, production
C. technical, survival, human
D. conceptual, strategy, human
39. Providing a new employee with the information needed in order
to function comfortably in the organization is called _______
A. orientation
B. familiarization
C. security
D. training
40. A well written instructional objective should have three
components. Which of the following is NOT one of these
components?
• a description of what the trainee should be able to do or
produce
B. indicate desired terminal behavior
C. a statement of the conditions in which the trainee should be
able to do
D. a statement of the criteria that will be used to judge what he
has done
41. When detailed plans are drawn to meet the training objectives
the method of training becomes a/an _______.
I. Formal training
II. Informal training
A. II only
B. I only
C. I & II
D. neither I nor II
42. The purpose of organization is to _______.
A. helps us to do things we could not do as individuals
B. serve the needs of society
C. accomplish things
D. all of these
43. A significant development of environment of a number of
 organization is__________.
A. global culture
B. international competition
C. globalization
D. global competition
44. This is a particular learning scope for instructional objective
which is concerned with how a trainee controls or moves his
body.
A. Psychomotor Objective
B. Affective Objective
C. Enabling Objective
D. Cognitive Objective
45. The process of management includes__________.
A. leading
B. planning
C. organizing
D. all of the options
46. What is commonly asked when we talked of human values?
A. how
B. what
C. why
D. where
47. The function which is the most important in the
accomplishment of objectives is__________.
A. planning
B. coordinating
C. leading
D. controlling
48. Directing and influencing subordinates concerns the
management function of__________.
A. controlling
B. organizing
C. leading
D. planning
49. __________ describes the necessary checks and balances in the
assessment system.
A. verification
B. comparison
C. monitoring
D. statistics

```` COMPETENCE 19 DECK

1. The MOST important element in administering CPR is:

 A. Treating for traumatic shock
B. Administering of oxygen
C. Starting the treatment quickly
D. Having the proper equipment for the process
2. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to
immediately __________.
A. Apply ointment to the burned area
B. Wrap the burn with sterile dressing
C. Apply an ice pack to the burned area
D. Flood the affected area with water
3. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found on the
__________.
A. shipping articles
B. crewman's duty list
C. Certificate of Inspection
D. muster List
4. Every inflatable life raft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic
release units shall be serviced__________
A. every 12 months.
B. every 24 months.
C. every 18 months.
D. every 36 months.

5. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to

__________.
• lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding
stops
• apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding
stops
C. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
D. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and
cover it
6. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin become
very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose
reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine will the person
need as soon as possible?
A. Nothing at all
B. A glass of cold milk
C. Insulin
D. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet
7. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to
the:
A. Area of the body burned
B. Size of the burned area
C. Layers of skin affected
 D. Source of heat causing the burn
8. The primary objective of First Aid is:
A. To give life
B. To prevent further injury
C. To alleviate pain
D. To help a patient

9. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders know

how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands for?
A. A Better Control
B. Airway Breathing Circulation
C. Adults Behind Children
D. Anything But Continuation
10. Which of the following is FALSE why there may not be enough
oxygen in an enclosed space or tank?
A. cargo inside may have absorb the oxygen
B. oxygen is depleted as oxidation may have taken place
C. tank may have been coated with preservatives
D. enclosed as it is, no proper circulation of air
11. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may
be either superficial or deep, and the affected tissues may be
destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given a person with
frostbite ?
A. Rub the affected area.
B. Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen
hand in Persons opposite armpit...)
C. Give the casualty a cigarette.
D. Heat the affected area with hot-water bottles.
12. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting
equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle.
How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire using
water?
A. Water should not be used on any type of oil fire.
B. The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front
in a Sweeping motion.
C. Water should be applied in a jet to the back of the fire.
D. Water should be applied to the oil in a single jet only.
13. When should training in personal survival techniques be given?
A. Before being employed.
B. After one period at sea.
C. During the first week on board.
D. After joining the ship.
14. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is
__________.
A. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger
medication
B. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
C. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration
 D. Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
15. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose?
A. Laying on the back, holding a wet, cold towel on the top of the
nose.
B. Laying on the back, leaning the head as much back as possible.
C. Sitting on a chair, leaning forward, with two fingers pressing the
Nose together.
D. Holding the nose above steamed water.
16. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of life-
saving appliances is not required by the regulations?
A. general emergency alarm to be tested daily
B. lifeboat engines to be run for at least 3 minutes every week
C. Survival crafts and rescue boats with launching appliances shall
be Visually inspected weekly to ensure they are ready for use
• Inspection of life-saving appliances, including lifeboat
equipment shall be carried out monthly to ensure they are complete and
in good order

17. A lifejacket should be provided with__________ .

A. a whistle and a light
B. On ships built after February 1992 all lifejackets should be
fitted with a light
C. a light
D. a whistle
18. What is a contingency plan for ships?
A. Plan for maintenance and repair
B. Loading plan for general cargo
C. Plan for next voyage
D. Plan for safety preparedness
19. While underway, fire break out in the forward part of the
vessel. Whenever practicable, what will be the first thing you
will do if your are on watch?
A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. Keep going on half spead
C. Abandonship to windward
D. Call for assistance
20. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations
to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a
passageway. This technique should only be used when:
A. Using a 2 ½ inch hose
B. There is an outlet for the smoke and heat
C. At least two fog streams can be used
D. The fire is totally contained by the ship’s structure
21. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You
must:
A. Administer oxygen immediately
B. Make the victim as comfortable as he could be
C. Check his pulse and start CPR
D. Let him lie on his side
22. To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should
__________.
A. Administer artificial respiration
B. Put him in a tub of ice water
C. Cover him with a light cloth
D. Give him sips of cool water
23. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first act is
to:
A. Close all ventillation to the quarters
B. Ventilate the quarters
C. Prepare to abandonship
D. Attempt to put out the fire by portable fire-extinguisher
24. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY
__________.
A. when the victim is unconscious
B. to prevent bleeding from minor wounds
C. when all other means have failed
D. with puncture wounds

25. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not
bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to
suturing to close the wound?
A. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
B. Apply a compression bandage.
C. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
D. Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
26. In reviving a person who has been overcomed by gas fumes,
which of the following would you AVOID doing?
A. Keeping him warm and comfortable
B. Giving stimulants
C. Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating
atmosphere
D. Applying artificial respiration and massage
27. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the
injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns and scalds?
A. Remove all sticky clothing from the casualty.
B. Break blisters, remove any loose skin or foreign objects from
the injured area.
 • Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at
least 10 minutes, but preferably until the pain is gone. If no water is
available, use any cold, harmless liquid.
D. Apply lotions, ointments or fat to the injury.
28. Before CPR is started, you should ____________.
A. treat any bleeding wounds
B. Insure the victim is conscious
C. establish an open airway
D. make the victim comfortable
29. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.
A. Any conversation with the patient
B. Instructing bystanders
C. Touching the patient before washing your hands
D. Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
30. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical
response is to check for __________.
A. Symptoms of concussion
B. Indication of broken bones
C. Bleeding injuries
D. Breathing and heartbeat
31. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to
immediately __________.
A. Apply ointment to the burned area
B. Wrap the burn with sterile dressing
C. Apply an ice pack to the burned area
D. Flood the affected area with water
32. A device used to immobilize fractures and help prevent bone
displacement is:
A. Tourniquet
B. Stretcher
C. Splint
D. Bandage
33. When giving first aid you should avoid __________________.
A. Any conversation with the patient
B. Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
C. Touching the patient before washing your hands
D. Instruction by standers
34. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, your should first:
A. Check the bilge drain plug
B. Check the cracks in the hull
C. Shift all personnel to the stern
D. Abandon the survival craft
35. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.
A. Any conversation with the patient
B. Instructing bystanders
C. Touching the patient before washing your hands
 D. Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
36. Injuries resulting from slips and falls constitute the largest
percentage of accidents that occur in the catering department.
What shall be done to reduce this high accident rate?
• Ensure that slippery substances are not left where several
Persons are expected to be around.
B. Install thermostat to avoid water from freezing to ice.
C. Do not wash off all rubbish to prevent persons slipping.
D. Keep the floors and decks free from fat and grease.
37. On small passenger vessels of less than 100 gross tons,
watertight doors and watertight hatches are __________.
A. not required to be marked
B. required to be marked, but on only one side
C. require to be marked on both sides in at least 1 inch high
letters
D. None of the stated options

38. When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior
to entering the cargo pump room to repair a leaking pump?
A. Benzene
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. Tetrathyl lead
39. What is the maximum content in percent of Sulfur Dioxide to be
maintained in an inert gas system onboard tanker vessel?
A. 0.02
B. 0.04
C. 0.06
D. 0.08
40. A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having
a flash point at or above 100░F is called a/an __________.
A. explosive liquid
B. combustible liquid
C. flammable liquid
D. viscous liquid
41. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require gears, couplings,
flywheels, and all rotating machinery capable of injuring
personnel to be __________.
A. protected with adequate covers or guards
B. identified by yellow and black warning signs
C. conspicuously identified as to their particular hazard
D. located where they may not be easily contacted
42. The area that is considered an enclosed space is_
A. Cofferdam space
B. Machinery space
C. Battery space
D. Generator space
43. Where can you find the location of your abandon ship of your
abandon ship place of duty?
A. Certificate of inspection
B. Station bill
C. Vessel's logbook
D. None of the stated options
44. The best information on the nature and extent of damage on
vessel is obtained from _____________.
A. alarms and monitoring devises
B. person-in-charge of the affected spaces
C. personnel at the scene of the damage
D. the tool pusher
45. When is the time to get familiarized with the emergency exits
on board the vessel?
A. Immediately after boarding
B. Before boarding
C. When you have some extra time
D. None of the stated options
46. The minimum concentration of hydrogen sulfide that can result
in death if a person is exposed for even an instant is _________.
A. 200 ppm
B. 400 ppm
C. 600 ppm
D. 1000 ppm
47. The plugging of all scuppers on deck is the job of the boatswain.
Who is the responsible officer in doing the final check if it is was
done properly?
A. Ship's master
B. Chief officer
C. Third engineer
D. Chief engineer
48. Where is the most convenient location inside the engine room
to post the ship's muster's list ?
A. Purifier room
B. Boiler room
C. Control room
D. Store room
49. If fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a grounding,
you should suspect _________
A. A damaged pneumercator line
B. A puncture, crack, or hole in the skin of the vessel
C. Improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities
D. Contamination of the contaminated steam supply