03-08-2025

2401CMD303021250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) Charge Q, 2Q and –Q are given to three concentric conducting spherical shells A, B and C
respectively. The ratio of charges on the inner and the outer surfaces of the shell ‘C’ will be :-

(1)

(2)
–

(3)

(4)
–

2) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The outer body of an air craft is made of metal which protects persons sitting inside
from lightning-strikes.
Reason (R) : The electric field inside the cavity enclosed by a conductor is zero.
In the light of the above statements, chose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

3) A point charge q is placed at a point inside a hollow conducting sphere. Which of the following
electric force pattern is correct ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Three identical dipoles are arranged as shown below. What will be the net electric field at P

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

5) The force of attraction between two co-axial electric dipoles whose centers are r meters apart
varies with distance as

(1) r–1
(2) r–2
(3) r–3
(4) r–4

6) Two point electric dipoles with dipole moments P1 and P2 are separated by a large distance ‘r’
with their dipole axes mutually perpendicular as shown. The electric force between the dipoles is

(where K = )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Common Content for Question No. 7 to 8

A non conducting semi circular ring of radius R having charge distributed over its circumference
according to the formula λ=λ0 sinθ is placed in a uniform electric field E in such a way that plane of
the semi circular ring is parallel to electric field E as shown in figure. Consider that polarizability of

the semi circular ring is equal to zero.

7) Potential difference between point A and point B in presence of electric field E

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) E.R

Common Content for Question No. 8 to 9

Figure shows three large metallic plates with charge -2Q, 3Q, 5Q respectively before closing the
switch S1. If cross section area of plates taken as A then calculate :

8)

After closing the switch S1, electric field at point P will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) E and V represent electric field magnitude and electric potential at a point respectively. Choose
incorrect statement(s).
(a) If E = 0, V must be zero
(b) If V = 0, E must be zero
(c) If E ≠ 0, V cannot be zero
(d) If V ≠ 0, E cannot be zero

(1) (A), (B)

(2) (B), (C)
(3) (C), (D)
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

10) Identical metal plates are located in air at equal distances d from one another. The area of each
plate is equal to A. If plates are interconnected as shown in figure, then the capacitance of system

between points P and Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

11) A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C (figure-1). When it is half filled with a dielectric
of dielectric constant 5 (figure-2), the percentage increase in the capacitance will be :-

(1) 400%
(2) 33.3%
(3) 66.6%
(4) 200%

12) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 2 µF. A dielectric slab of constant K = 5 is
inserted between the plates and the capacitor is charged to 100 V and isolated. If the dielectric slab
is now removed then the new potential difference will be :-

(1) 250 V
(2) 500 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 20 V

13) Change Q on a capacitor varies with voltage V as shown in the figure, where Q is taken along

the X-axis and V along the Y-axis. The area of triangle OAB represents

(1) Capacitance
(2) Capacitive reactance
(3) Magnetic field between the plates
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor

14)

A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is placed between the plates then compare electric fields E1,
E2 and E3
(1) E1 = E2 = E3
(2) E1 = E3 > E2
(3) E1 < E2 < E3
(4) E1 = E3 < E2

15) A cube of side "a" is placed between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. Find electric energy

stored inside cube.

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

16) If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved apart from each
other, then
(A) the charge stored in it, increases.
(B) the energy stored in it, decreases.
(C) its capacitance decreases.
(D) the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
(E) the product of charge and voltage decreases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) B,C and E only

(2) A,C and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only

17) In a certain region of space, the potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – y2 + z2]. The electric field at
the point (1,1,1) has magnitude = :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) The change in gravitational potential energy when a body of mass m is raised to height nR from
the earth's surface is. (If acceleration due to gravity at surface is 'g' & radius of earth is 'R') :-

(1)

(2) nmgR

(3)

(4)

19) The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from

A to B, then :

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 = 8t2
(3) t1 = 4t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

20) Two identical satellites are at the heights R and 7R from the earth's surface. Then which of the
following statement is incorrect :– (r = radius of the earth)

(1) ratio of total energy of both is 5

(2) ratio of kinetic energy of both is 4
(3) ratio of potential energy of both 4
(4) ratio of total energy of both is 4 and ratio of potential to kinetic energy is 2

21) In a regio of only gravitational field a particle of mass 'M' is shifted from A to B via three
different paths as shown in the figure. The work done in different paths are W1, W2 , W3

respectively then :-
(1) W1 > W2 > W3
(2) W1 = W2 = W3
(3) W3 > W2 > W1
(4) W2 > W3 > W1

22) The correct graph representing the variation of total energy (E) kinetic energy (K) and potential
energy (U) of a satellite with its distance from the centre of earth is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle is executing SHM with time period T starting from mean position time taken by it to

complete oscillations is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24) The acceleration of a particle moving rectilinearly varies with displacement as

a = – 4x. At x =4 m and t = 0, particle is at rest. Select the INCORRECT alternative

(1) The maximum speed of the particle is 8 m/s.

(2) The distance travelled by the particle in first second is 20 m.
(3) The velocity - acceleration graph of the particle is an ellipse.
(4) The kinetic energy-displacement graph of the particle is a parabola.

25) A block of mass m hangs from three springs having same spring constant k. If the mass is

slightly displaced downwards, the time period of oscillation will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) For a particle executing S.H.M the displacement x is given by x = A cos wt. Identify the graph
which represents the variation of potential energy (P.E.) as a function of time t and displacement x

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) I, IV

27) A particle executes simple hormonic motion between x = –A and x = +A. It starts from x = 0

moves in +x-direction. The time taken for it to move from x = 0 to x = is T1 and to move from to
 is T2, then

(1) T1 < T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T2 = 2T1
(4) T1 = 2T2

28) The liquid inside the container has density ρ. Choose the correct points :-

(1) PA – PC = ρgL
(2) PC – PB = 2ρgL
(3) PC – PD = 2ρgL
(4) PA – PD = ρgL

29) In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the lower and
upper surfaces of the wing are v and respectively. If the density of air is ρ and the surface area
of the wing is A, the dynamic lift on the wing is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains mercury in both sides of its arms. A
glycerin (density = 1.3g/cm3) column of length 10 cm is introduced in to one of its arms. Oil of
density 0.8 gm/cm3 is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and glycerine are
in the same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil column, (density of mercury = 13.6 gm/cm3) :-

(1) 10.4 cm
(2) 8.2 cm
(3) 7.2 cm
(4) 9.6 cm
31) 27 drops of equal radius are falling through air with a steady velocity 5 cm/s. If these all drops
coalesce, then its terminal velocity will be :-

(1) 45 cm/s
(2) 15 cm/s
(3) 135 cm/s

(4)
cm/s

32) The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B of same material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their
diameter is 2 : 1. They are stretched by the same force, then the ratio of increase in length will be :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 8 : 1

33) Figure shows tha strain–stress curve for a given material. The Young's modulus of the material

is:

(1) 5 × 109 N m–2

(2) 5 × 1010 N m–2
(3) 7.5 × 109 N m–2
(4) 7.5 × 1010 N m–2

34) A uniform electric field of 100 Vm–1 is directed at 30° with the positive x-axis as shown in Fig. OA

= 2 m and OB = 4m then :- The potential difference VO – VA is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) A charge "Q" is distributed over two concentric hollow conducting shell of radius a & b (b > a),
such that their surface charge densities are equal. Find the potential at their common center :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Three concentric conducting shells of radius a, b & c are shown in the given figure. The charge

on grounded shell is :-

(1) –q
(2) +q

(3)

(4) Zero

37)

A capacitor is connected to battery. Two dielectrics of thickness 2 mm and 3 mm are inserted in

capacitor as shown in figure. Find ratio of potential difference across two dielectric slab :-

(1)

(2) 2

(3)

(4)

38)

Find charge on C1, C2 and C3 respectively :-

(1) 9µC, 9µC, 9µC
(2) 9µC, 9µC, 0
(3) 9µC, 0, 9µC
(4) 0, 9µC, 9µC

39) For section AB of a circuit shown in Fig, C1 = 1μF, C2 = 2 μF, E = 10 V, and the potential

difference VA – VB = – 10V. Charge on capacitor C1 is:-

(1) 0 μC
(2) 20/3 μC
(3) 40/3 μC
(4) none of these

40) Find the capacitance between A & B ?

(1) C/4
(2) 4C
(3) C/3
(4) 3C

41) Find the equivalent capacitance between A and B.

(1) 2 μF
(2) 6 μF
(3) 8 μF
(4) 12 μF

42) In the given figure there is a hollow sphere. Then on which points, gravitational potential due to
the sphere will be same ?

(1) O, A, B, C
(2) O, A, B
(3) O, B
(4) No where

43) Fig. shows two concentric spherical shells of masses M1 and M2 and of radii R1 and R2,
respectively. Gravitational potential at a point at a distance x from centre such that R1 < x < R2 will

be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Four charges are placed very closed to each other, as shown. The separation between the two
charges on the y-axis is a. The separation between the two charges on the x-axis is also a. The
leading order (non-vanishing) form of the electrostatic potential, at point P, at a distance r from the

origin (r >> a), is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Given below are two statements : one is labelled a Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R)
Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface
is always zero.
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

CHEMISTRY

1) 20 moles of A and 14 moles of B are mixed and allowed to react according to the equation A + 2B
→ 3C What is the maximum number of moles of C which could be prepared :-

(1) 14
(2) 13
(3) 7
(4) 21

2) A sample contains 3.01 × 1020 molecules of SFn and its mass is 54 mg. What is the value of n?
(A.w. of S = 32, Aw. of F = 19)

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

3) NH3 is produced according to the following reaction:

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
In an experiment 0.25 mol of NH3 is formed when 0.5 mol of N2 is reacted with 0.5 mol of H2. What is
% yield?

(1) 75%
(2) 50%
(3) 33%
(4) 25%
4) How many electrons are present in 2 × 10–3 mol of ?

(1) 1.2 × 1021

(2) 9.6 × 1021
(3) 1.2 × 1022
(4) 1.9 × 1022

5) Chlorophyll contains 2.68% of magnesium by mass. Calculate the number of magnesium atoms in
3.00 gms of chlorophyll.

(1) 2.01 × 1021 atoms

(2) 6.023 × 1023 atoms
(3) 1.7 × 1020 atoms
(4) 2.8 × 1022 atoms

6) Same mass of glucose (C6H12O6) and acetic acid (CH3COOH) contain :

(1) Same number of carbon atoms

(2) Same number of Hydrogen atoms
(3) Same number of oxygen atoms
(4) All of above

7) Weight of one gm molecules of C6H12O6 :

(1) 1.92 × 10–22g

(2) 180 gm
(3) 180 mg
(4) 18.6 gm

8) Which of the following contains the least number of molecules :-

(1) 4.4 g CO2

(2) 3.4 g NH3
(3) 1.6 g CH4
(4) 3.2 g SO2

9) A gas having formula CnH2n has vapour density 28, then find ‘n’ :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) 6.02 × 1023 molecules of NH3 are removed from 340g NH3, find left moles of NH3 :-
(1) 1 mol
(2) 20 mol
(3) 19 mol
(4) 9 mol

11) What is the empirical formula of a compound composed of O and Mn in almost equal weight
ratio?

(1) MnO
(2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3
(4) Mn2O7

12) The molarity of 4% w/v NaOH solution is–

(1) 1 M
(2) 2 M
(3) 3 M
(4) 4 M

13) Find the volume of CO2 obtained at S.T.P. on heating 200 gm of 50% pure CaCO3 -

(1) 11.2 litre

(2) 22.4 litre
(3) 44.8 litre
(4) None of these

14) The volume of air required in litre to burn 8L of C2H2 is:

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 100

15) If 20g of CaCO3 is treated with 20g of HCl. How many grams of CO2 can be generated according
to the following relation?
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → CaCl2(aq) + H2O(ℓ) + CO2(g)

(1) 20 g
(2) 8.8 g
(3) 44 g
(4) 24 g

16) A mixture of 3 L of propane and butane on complete combustion at 25°C produce 10 L of CO2.
What is the composition of gaseous mixture?
(1) 2 L of propane, 1 L of butane
(2) 2 L of butane, 1 L of propane
(3) 1.5 of butane, 1.5 L of propane
(4) 1.8 of propane, 1.2 L of butane

17) 20 mL of methane is completely burnt using 50 mL of oxygen. The volume of the gas left after
cooling to room temperature is -

(1) 80 mL
(2) 40 mL
(3) 50 mL
(4) 30 mL

18) The volume of oxygen required for complete combustion of 20mL of ethane (C2H6) will be :-

(1) 35 mL
(2) 70 mL
(3) 40mL
(4) 60 mL

19) 30 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon required 90 ml of oxygen for complete combustion & produces
60 ml of CO2, then the molecular formula of Hydrocarbon :-

(1) C2H4
(2) C3H8
(3) C4H10
(4) C2H2

20) The amount of Na2CO3 present in 250 mL of 0.25 M solution is :-

(1) 6.225g
(2) 66.25g
(3) 6.0g
(4) 6.625g

21) Mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution is 0.2. The molality of the solution will be :

(1) 13.88
(2) 1.388
(3) 0.138
(4) 0.0138

22) One litre N2, litre O2 and 1 litre CO are taken in a mixture under identical conditions of P and
T. The amount of gases present in mixture is given by:- [W = gm wt of gas]
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) The IUPAC name of unknown compound ‘Q’ is:

(1) Hexanoic acid

(2) n-Heptane
(3) Heptanoic acid
(4) n-Hexane

24) Optically active 'P' has the molecular formula C6H12 and on catalytic hydrogenation converts into
achiral C6H14. The structure of 'P' is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25)
X is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26)
what is y ?

(1) (CH3)2C = CH–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) (CH3)3C–O–(CH3)3

27) Which of the given reaction can produce n-butane ?

(1)
CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3

(2)

(3) CH3CH2CH2Cl + CH3CH2MgBr →

(4)
CH3CH2CH2Cl

28) The main product of following reaction will be -

Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)
P and Q are respectively :-

(1)
(2)
P=Q=

(3)

P=Q=

(4)

30)

Match the column :-

(a) (i)
+ HBr

(b) (ii)
+
HBr/peroxide

(c) (iii)

(d) CH3–C≡CH (iv)

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

31)

Match list-I with list-II and then select the correct answer from the codes gives below the lists -

List-I List-II

(A) Butane → isobutane (a) Cracking

(B) Decane → lower hydrocarbon (b) Isomerisation

(C) n-heptane→Toluene (c) Aromatisation

 (D) Acetylene→Benzene (d) Cyclic polymerisation

A B C D

(1) b a d c

(2) b a c d

(3) a c d b

(4) a b d c
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) The incorrect method for the synthesis of Alkyne is :

(1) Heating vicinal alkyldihalide with alc. KOH followed by NaNH2

(2) Treating chloroform with Ag powder.
(3) Prepared by treating calcium carbide with water
(4) Prepared by treating ethene with Br2 in CCl4 solvent

33) Which of the following alcohol on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 at 440 K will give isobutylene.
(I) Isobutyl alcohol
(II) Tert. butyl alcohol
(III) n-butyl alcohol
(IV) Isopropyl alcohol

(1) I, III
(2) II, III
(3) III, IV
(4) I, II

34)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) CH4 + O2 Major product

(1) CH3–OH
(2) HCHO
(3) HCOOH
(4) CO

36) 1,2–Dichloroethane Ethene

Which of the following reagent used for above reaction ?

(1) Alk. KOH

(2) NaNH2
(3) Zn
(4) AgNO3

37) Assertion (A) :- 1-Butene on reaction with HBr in presence of benzoylperoxide give 1-
Bromobutane as major product.

Reason (R) :- is more stable than .

(1) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

38) 3-Phenyl-1-butene on reaction with HCl gives as a major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give a mixture of aldehydes only ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40)
Identify C ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)
Which is incorrect ?

(1) A is ethane
(2) B is CH3CH2COONa
(3) C is propane
(4) C is butane
42) Match the following :

Column I Column II

Free
radical
(a) (i)
addition
reaction

Electrophilic
(b) (ii) substitution
reaction

Free
radical
(c) (iii)
substitution
reaction

Electrophilic
(d) (iv) addition
reaction

(1) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)

(2) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv)
(3) (a) → (iii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iv), (d) → (ii)
(4) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iii)

43)
Correct statement :

(1) A is 2-Butene
(2) B is a secondary alcohol
(3) A is 1-Butene
(4) B is a tertiary alcohol

44) Order of bond dissociation energy of C – H bonds is.

(i) CH3 – H (ii) CH3 – CH2 – H
(iii) CH2 = CH – CH2 – H (iv) H2C = CH – H
(1) iii > i > ii > iv
(2) iii > ii > i > iv
(3) iv > ii > i > iii
(4) iv > i > ii > iii

45)

Which one is major product

major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY
1) Identify the correct sequence in figure a, b, c.

(1) Hibiscus, Papaver, Michelia

(2) Papaver, Hibiscus, Michelia
(3) Hibiscus, Michelia, Papaver
(4) Michelia, Hibiscus, Papaver

2) Read the following statements about the Structure of microsporangium :

(a) In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline.
(b)Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers – the epidermis, endothecium,
middle layers and the tapetum.
(c) The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to
release the pollen.
(d) The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
(e) Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) - all are correct
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) (e) only

3) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Endosperm development precedes embryo development
Statement II : Cells of Endosperm are filled with reserve food materials
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II also Explain Statement I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

4) In an embryo sac, the largest cell is/are

(1) Synergids
(2) Antipodal cells
(3) Central cell
(4) Egg cell

5) Which of the given is not true w.r.t. events included in pollen-pistil interaction?

(1) Pollen deposition on stigma

(2) Germination of pollen grain
(3) Entry of pollen tube into the ovule
(4) Double fertilisation in embryo sac

6) Endosperm persists in mature seeds of

(1) Groundnut
(2) Castor
(3) Bean
(4) Pea

7) Pollen grains of cereals, such as wheat, lose viability ________ of their release.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) After several months

(2) In 20 hours
(3) After 60 minutes
(4) Within 30 minutes

8) Integuments represent

(1) Cells having nutritive function

(2) Protective envelopes of ovule
(3) Basal part of the ovule
(4) Small opening in the ovule

9) Mark the wrong statement regarding egg apparatus

(1) It is seven celled

(2) It is found at micropylar end of embryo sac
(3) Its cells are haploid
(4) It contains single egg cell

10) Which of the following structures is present at opposite side of micropyle and represents the
base of ovule?

(1) Funicle
(2) Hilum
(3) Integument
(4) Chalaza
11) Which of the following are the characteristics of expanding population ?
(i) Pre reproductive members are more than reproductive members
(ii) An urn – shaped ages structure.
(iii) Pre-reproductive and reproductive age groups become more or less equal in size.
(iv) Rapidly growing population with high birth rate.

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

12) Mac Arthur obseved that 5 species of Warblers (birds) can coexist on same fig tree due to
behavioural difference in their foraging activities. This is an example of -

(1) Resource partitioning

(2) Competitive release
(3) Competitive exclusion
(4) Brood parasitism

13) Group of organisms of a particular species in a geographical area is termed as -

(1) Community
(2) Ecosystem
(3) Population
(4) Biome

14) In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be

(1) 100 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 200 kg
(4) 1 kg

15) Match the animals given in Column I with their location in Column II

Column-I Column-II

A. Dodo 1 Africa

B. Quagga 2 Russia

C. Thylacine 3 Mauritius

D. Stellar's sea cow 4 Australia

(1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
16) Best way to preserve the wild life is

(1) To kill the predators

(2) Vaccinize the animals.
(3) To preserve natural habitat
(4) Optimize the breeding habit

17) Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(1) National park

(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens
(4) Protected areas

18) Optional or non-obligatory relationship between two organism in which both are benefitted is
called?

(1) Proto cooperation

(2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Mutualism

19) In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected ?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Competition
(3) Predation
(4) Parasitism

20) Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when

(1) The value of 'r' approaches zero

(2) K = N
(3) K > N
(4) K < N

21) Select correct statement

(a) Orchid epiphytic on Mango is commensalism
(b) Bird laying eggs in the nest of another for incubation shows brood parasitism
(c) Most animals and plants maintain a constant internal temperature
(d) One species harmed, other unaffected in amensalism

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) All
22) Assertion : Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem leads to the destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason : Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

23) Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structure.
(2) Primary sludge is also known as activated sludge.
(3) Trichophyton is used as biocontrol agent.
(4) Streptokinase is produced by Staphylococcus bacteria.

24) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Microbes play a critical role in sewage treatment by significantly reducing the
organic matter and BOD of wastewater.
Reason (R): In sewage treatment plants, aerobic microbes in aeration tanks form flocs
and consume organic matter, while anaerobic microbes in sludge digesters produce biogas during
the digestion process.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

25) The microbes commonly used in kitchens are

(1) Lactobacillus and Yeast

(2) Penicillium and Yeast
(3) Microspora and E. coli
(4) Rhizopus and Lactobacillus

26) Read the following four statements (A–E)

A. The Ministry of Environment and Forests in India launched the Ganga Action Plan to reduce river
pollution.
B. Fermentation by yeast is used to produce beverages such as beer and wine.
C. Streptokinase is used as a 'clot buster' in medical treatments.
D. Bacillus thuringiensis is commonly used in the production of ethanol.
E. Biogas plants generate methane and carbon dioxide as by products.
How many statements are correct–

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

27) Read the following four statements (A–E) -

A. Biogas is used as a __A__ source in rural areas for cooking and lighting.
B. The bioactive molecule __B__ is derived from Monascus purpureus for reducing cholesterol.
C. ___C___ are plant pathogens that can be controlled with Trichoderma species as biocontrol agents.
D. __D__ is a biological treatment process used to remove organic matter from waste water.

A B C D

(1) Energy Statin Fungi Secondary treatment

(2) Statin Energy Secondary treatment Fungi

(3) Fungi Secondary treatment Energy Statin

(4) Secondary treatment Statin Fungi Energy

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Blood-cholesterol lowering agents are produced by

(1) Streptococcus
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Monascus purpureus
(4) Penicillium

29) All of the following are useful in biocontrol, except

(1) Lady bird

(2) Trichoderma
(3) Nostoc
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus

30) Trichoderma species are beneficial to human beings in various ways. Which among the given is
not a benefit provided by Trichoderma?

(1) Effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens

(2) Produce immunosuppressive agent
(3) Remove clots from blood vessels of patients that have undergone myocardial infarction
(4) Used to obtain cyclosporin A

31) Assertion: Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants.

Reason: Rhizobium lives symbiotically in root nodules of legumes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

32) The following diagram represents

(1) Nucleo proteinaceous particles which is capable of causing respiratory infections

(2) Proteinaceous infectious agents
(3) A prokaryote which causes respiratory disorder
(4) Fungal colony growing in a petridish

33) The interaction is detrimental to both the species, in

(1) Predation
(2) Commensalism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Competition

34) Which of the given pairs w.r.t. population attribute contribute to an increase in population
density?

(1) Mortality and Natality

(2) Mortality and Emigration
(3) Natality and Emigration
(4) Natality and Immigration

35) Match the following given population interactions.

(a) + / + (i) Predation
(b) – / – (ii) Ammensalism
(c) + / – (iii) Competition
(d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

(2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

36)

What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related
population?
(1) (i) Expanding, (ii) Stable
(2) (i) Stable, (ii) Declining
(3) (i) Expanding, (ii) Declining
(4) (i) Declining, (ii) Stable

37) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) The Mediterranean orchid Ophrey's employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination.
In mycorrhazial association, fungi helps the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from
(2)
the soil.
(3) Fig species can be pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp species
(4) Female wasp uses the developing fruit for nourishing its larvae

38) Assertion :- Introduction of alien species is responsible for extinction of indigenous species.
Reason :- Alien species have no natural predator, so they causes uncontrolled predation and do not
show prudent nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) What does a J-shaped curve in population growth indicate?

(1) Logistic growth

(2) Exponential growth
(3) Declining population
(4) Stable population

40) If a population of 50 Paramecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be
the growth rate of the population?

(1) 50 per hour

(2) 200 per hour
(3) 5 per hour
(4) 100 per hour

41) Assertion: Healthy ecosystems are the base for the wide range of economic, environmental and
asthetic goods and services.
Reason: Ecosystem provide many goods and services like forest purify air & water, mitigate
droughts, floods, cycle nutrients, generate fertili soil, provide wild life habitate, maintain biodiversity
pollinate eropes.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Identify the correct explanation for ecological pyramid:

(1) Pyramid of energy - always upright

(2) Pyramid of biomass - forest - inverted
(3) Pyramid of number - grassland - upright
(4) Pyramid of biomass - aquatic - upright

43) Which of the followings are functional feature of an ecosystem?

Stratification, Dominance, Species diversity, Decomposition, Nutrient cycling, Energy flow,
Productivity.

(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Four
(4) Three

44) Of the incident solar radiation ____(A)____ of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).
Which is correct for above blank 'A':

(1) More than 50%

(2) Less than 50%
(3) 1–5%
(4) 2–10%

45) The functional aspect of ecosystem can be explained in terms of

(1) Productivity
(2) Decomposition and energy flow
(3) Nutrient cycle
(4) All of these

46) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

47) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its
implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

49) Which may be a complication problem of STD, when it is not timely detected–

(1) PID
(2) Still Birth
(3) Infertility
(4) All of these

50) Which of the following method of birth control can cause excessive menstrual bleedings pain and
inflammation of uterine wall ?

(1) Condom
(2) Cervical cap
(3) Oral contraceptive
(4) Intra uterine device (IUDs)

51) Cu ions released from copper–releasing intra uterine devices (IUDs) helps in :-

(1) Prevent ovulation

(2) Block the uterus
(3) Increase phagocytosis of ovum
(4) Suppress sperm motility

52)

Match the following :

(A) Non-medicated IUDs (a) CuT

(B) Copper releasing IUDs (b) Saheli

(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (c) Lippes loop

(D) Non-steroidal pill (d) LNG-20

(1) A – b, B – c, C – d, D – a
(2) A – c, B – a, C – b, D – d
(3) A – c, B – a, C – d, D – b
(4) A – a, B – c, C – d, D – b

53) Which of the following method of contraception is effective only upto a maximum period of six
months following parturition ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Lactational Amenorrhoea
(3) Cu T
(4) Condoms

54) Match the following and give the answer for correct match:

More than 8 blastomere

A ZIFT i
stage transfer into the uterus

Sperm is directly injected

B IUT ii
into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote upto 8 blastomere

C GIFT iii
could be tranfer into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected

D ICSI iv
from ovary into the fallopian tube
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

55) Amniocentesis is most often used to–

(1) Facilitate artificial insemination

(2) Measure immune response capability in transplant recepient
(3) Determine the presence of certain genetic disorder in the foetus
(4) Estimate the mother's potential for maintaining a pregnancy.

56) Read the following four statements (A - D):

(A) Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option.
(B) Intense lactation could help as a natural method of contraception.
(C) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(D) Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised in our country.
How many statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

57) Which of the following sets involves only invitro fertilization methods ?

(1) ZIFT, IUT

(2) GIFT, IUT, ICSI
(3) GIFT, ZIFT, IUT
(4) GIFT, ICSI

58) A disposable method of birth control, which can be used by females and provides protection
against STDs and AIDS is

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Femidom (female condom
(3) Vault
(4) Spermicidal jelly

59) How many of following are associated with natural method of contraception ? Periodic
abstinence, Lactational amenorrhea, Implant, LNG-20, Diaphragm, saheli, coitus interruptus

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

60)
GIFT mixes egg and sperm in the _______.

(1) Fallopian tube

(2) Uterus
(3) Vagina
(4) Culture medium

61)

How many of the contraceptive methods in the list given below have almost no side effects ?

Condoms, Diaphragm, Lactational amenorrhea, Cervical Cap, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus
interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.
(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

62) Following STDs are completely curable except :

(1) Gonorrhea
(2) Syphilis
(3) Genital herpes, chlamydiasis
(4) Hepatitis-B, HIV, Genital herpes

63) Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed there
after:-
(A) Medical termination of pregnency (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe.
(B) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast feeds the infant upto two years.
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper–T are effective contraceptives.
(D) Contraception pill administration of progestogens or progestogen–estrogen combinations.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, C, D

64) If male is impotent and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive technology is
used for treating the infertility in particular couple?

(1) GIFT
(2) Intrauterine insemination
(3) ZIFT
(4) Embryo transfer

65) Different types of assisted reproductive techniques are given below ?

(a) ZIFT (b) IUT
(c) ICSI (d) GIFT (e) AI
Select correct type of fertilisation in the above techniques :–

(1) In vitro → d,b,c In vivo → a,e

(2) In vitro → a,b,c In vivo → d,e
(3) In vitro → d,e In vivo → a,b,c
(4) In vitro → a,c,e In vivo → b,d

66) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Mutation are random and directionless

(2) Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution
(3) Multiples step small mutation is saltation
(4) Evolution for Darwin was gradual

67) The swan neck flask experiment of Louis Pasteur proves that:

(1) Life can be originated from decaying and rotting matter

(2) Life cannot be originated from decaying and rotting matter
(3) RNA was the first genetic material
(4) Life originated from pre existed non living organic molecules

68) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Homoplastic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

69) 'Marsupial mole' and kangaroo are the examples of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) & (3)

70) Select the incorrect statements :-

(A) The essence of Darwinian theory of evolution is natural selection.
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
(C) The geological history of earth is not related with the biological history of earth.
(D) During evolution the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life span.

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and D

71) A process in which heritable variation enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and
leave greater number of progeny is called :-

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Natural selection
(3) Founder effect
(4) Both (1) and (3)

72) Following are the two statements regarding fossils :

(a) Fossils are the impression or remains of the hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.
(b) Fossils are found only in rocks.
Which of the following option is correct regarding the above two statements ?

(1) Statement (a) is incorrect and statement (b) is correct

(2) Statement (b) is incorrect and statement (a) is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

73) Which of the following structure is homologous to the wings of bat ?

(1) Dorsal fin of shark

(2) Wings of a butterfly
(3) Trunk of an elephant
(4) Flippers of a whale

74) Development of resistance towards antibiotics in bacteria is an example of :

(1) Neolamarckism
(2) Natural selection
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Convergent evolution

75) According to Hugo deVries, mutations which cause evolution are

(1) Large and random

(2) Small and random
(3) Large and directional
(4) Small and directional

76) The golden age of reptiles :

(1) Archaeozoic era

(2) Proterozoic era
(3) Coenozoic era
(4) Mesozoic era

77) S.L. Miller an American scientist, in his experiment, created electric discharge at 800°C in a
closed flask containing some gases with water vapour. These gases were :

(1) Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

(2) Methane, Ammonia, Nitrogen
(3) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen
(4) Oxygen, Methane, Ammonia

78) Which of the following are analogous structures ?

(1) Skin of frog and lungs of human

(2) Hands of man and wings of bat
(3) Potato and ginger
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita

79) Consider the four statements (a-d) about the phenomenon of industrial melanism in England and
select the option which includes incorrect statements only :
(a) Before industrialization white winged moths were more than dark winged moths
(b) After industrialization dark winged moths were more than white winged moths
(c) Predators can’t spot a moth against a contrasting background
(d) Dark winged moths survived due to thick growth of white coloured lichen on trees
Options:

(1) Statements (a) and (b)

(2) Statements (a) and (c)
(3) Statements (b) and (c)
(4) Statements (c) and (d)

80) The natural selection which always operates in a changing environment :

(1) Disruptive selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Stabilizing selection
(4) All of the above

81) Darwin’s finches are a good example of :

(1) Adaptive convergence

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Convergent evolution

82) According to Darwin, the founder of theory of natural selection, fitness refers to :-

(1) Built in variation

(2) Reproductive fitness
(3) Struggle
(4) Physical fitness

83) What is the main key concept of Darwinian theory of evolution :-

(A) Natural selection (B) Branching descent
(C) Mutation (D) Genetic variation

(1) A,C,D
(2) A, B
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) B, D

84) The first cellular form of life appeared on earth before how many years :-

(1) 2000 million

(2) 3000 million
(3) 4000 million
(4) 100 million

85) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Australian marsupial Sugar glider Koala

(ii) Adaptive radiation Darwin's finches Australian marsupial

(iii) Fertile hybrid Mule Horse

(1) i and iii
(2) ii and iii
(3) i only
(4) i and ii

86) Find out the correct match from the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(1) Jawless fish 350 mya

(2) See weeds 700 mya

(3) First mammal Monkey

(4) Coelacanth First reptile

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
87) Now the basis of origin of life is :-

(1) Spontaneous generation

(2) God's desire
(3) Sunlight on mud
(4) chemogeny & biogeny

88) Near about the carboniferous period all the present day continents formed a single large land
mass called :-

(1) Alligators
(2) Reams
(3) Pangaea
(4) Country

89) A connecting link between reptiles and birds is

(1) Archaeopteryx
(2) Platypus
(3) Java ape man
(4) Whale

90) The finches of Galapagos islands come in different size and have different beak shapes. What is
the most likely reason for the specialisation of these finches?

(1) Have very large beaks

(2) Beaks formed to eat different food
(3) Ancestors have different shapes of beaks
(4) Had small beaks
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 2 4 1 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 4 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 1 3 1 4 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 4 2 1 4 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 3 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 3 4 1 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 4 2 4 3 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 2 1 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 2 1 4 1 4 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Electric field of outside charge is zero inside conductor

3) Field is perpendicular to equipotential surface field inside conductor is zero.

4) Point P lies at equatorial positions of dipole 1 and 2 and axial position of dipole 3.

Hence field at P
due to dipole 1

(towards left)
due to dipole 2

(towards left)

due to dipole 3 (towards right)

So net field at P will be zero.

5) F = F∝

6)
7)

Total charge in an element = Rdθ × λ0 sinθ

On revolving this ring we get a sphere of charge density = which is a constant.

Basic concept of potential VA – VB = E.R

8)

9) V has no absolute value. We can take V = 0 anywhere which will determine value of V at
other points.
→ All options are incorrect.

10)
C(y – V) + C(y – x) + Cy = 0
3y – x = V
C(x – 0) + C(x – y) + C(x – V) = 0
3x – y = V

⇒ 8x = 4V ⇒ x = ,y=

⇒ ΔQ =

11) Now
if C =
Ceq = 3C
ΔC = 3C – C
% ΔC = 200%

12) C1V1 = C2V2

(KC)100 = CV2
V2 = 100 K = 100 × 5 = 500 V.

13) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer

14)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

15) Energy density =

Energy = Energy density × volume

= ε E2 × a3
0

Put E =

16) Battery connected so V = constant

Now
A:

B:

C:

D:
E: (Q) (V)

17)

18)
h = mR
19) From Kepler's law : Areal velocity = constant so

20)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

21)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

22) U = ,K= and E =

For a satellite U,K and E varies with r and also U and E remains negative whereas K remain
always positive.

23)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

24) The equation shows a SHM :

From the given condition, A =4 & ;

25) Keq =

26) Potential energy is minimum (in this case zero) at mean position (x = 0) and maximum at
extreme position (x = ±A).
At time t = 0, x = A, hence potential should be maximum.
Therefore graph I is correct. Further in graph III. Potential energy is minimum at x =0, hence
this is also correct.
27)

28)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

29) Let p1 and p2 be the air pressures on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing. From
Bernoulli's theorem, we have

where and

Force or the dynamic lift = Pressure difference × surface area of the wing = .

30)

1.3 g (10) = 0.8g (x) + 13.6g (10 – x)

⇒ x = 9.6 cm

31)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

32) ⇒ ⇒

33) From the given graph for a stress of

150 × 106 N m–2 the strain is 0.002.
∴ Young's modulus
N m–2 = 7.5 × 1010 N m–2
34) d1 = AO cos30° =

d2 = BO sin30° =

35)
Q1 + Q2 = Q
σ4πa2 + σ4πb2 = Q

36)

q' =

37)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

38)

Question Asking About:

Find charge on given capacitor's

Key Concept:
Charge on capacitor

Formula
Q = VC

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
net charge on the system = 0
Qnet = q1 + q2 + q3
(x –3) × 1 × 10–6 + 3 × 10–6 (x –3) + 2 × 10–6 (x –12) = 0
x – 3 + 3x – 45 + 2x – 24 = 0
6x = 72

=12V
=

= = 9μC

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

Estimated Time : 1-2 minutes

Level : Easy

39)

By KVL

40)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

41)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

42)
 Gravitational potential is same inside and surface of hollow sphere.

43)

44) Qmono = q + q – q – q = 0

45) Electric line of force are always perpendicular to equipotential surface so angle between
farce and displacement will always be 90°. So work done equal to 0.

CHEMISTRY

46) A. Question Explanation:

The question involves a stoichiometry problem where we need to determine the limiting
reactant to calculate the maximum amount of product C that can be formed.

B. Given Data:

A. 20 moles of A
B. 14 moles of B
C. Reaction: A + 2B → 3C

C. Concept: Limiting Reagent (L.R.)

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of B needed to react with 20 moles of A: From the balanced equation, 1 mole of A
reacts with 2 moles of B. So, 20 moles of A would require 20 moles A × (2 moles B / 1 mole A)
= 40 moles of B.
B. Moles of A needed to react with 14 moles of B: From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B
react with 1 mole of A. So, 14 moles of B would require 14 moles B × (1 mole A / 2 moles B) =
7 moles of A.
C. Identifying the Limiting Reactant: We have 20 moles of A, and we only need 7 to react
completely with all the available B. We have 14 moles of B, but we need 40 to react completely
with all the available A. Therefore, B is the limiting reactant
D. Calculating Moles of C: Since B is the limiting reactant, we use its moles to determine the
moles of C formed. From the balanced equation, 2 moles of B produce 3 moles of C. Therefore,
14 moles of B will produce 14 moles B × (3 moles C / 2 moles B) = 21 moles of C.

E. Final Answer:
The maximum number of moles of C that can be prepared is 21. So, the correct option is 4

47)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

48) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

0.5 mol 0.5 mol
LR
3 mol H2 → 2 mol NH3

0.5 mol H2 → =

% yield =

49)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

50)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

51)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

52)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

53)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

54)
Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

55)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

56)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

57)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

58)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

59) C2H2 + O2 → 2CO2 + H2O

8L of C2H2 reacts with 8 × = 20 L of O2

Volume of air = volume of O2 × 5 = 100

60)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

61)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

62)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer
63) ;

64)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

65)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

66)

A. Question Explanation:
We're given the mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution and need to calculate the
molality of the solution. Molality is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of
solvent. 1

B. Given Data:

A. Mole fraction of solute (xsolute) = 0.2

B. Solvent is water (aqueous solution)

C. Concept:

A. Mole fraction

B. Molality

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of solute: Assume we have 1 mole of solution. Then, moles of solute = xsolute ×
total moles = 0.2 × 1 = 0.2 moles.

B. Moles of solvent: Moles of solvent = 1 - xsolute = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 moles.

C. Mass of solvent: The solvent is water. The molar mass of water is approximately 18
g/mol. Mass of water = moles of water × molar mass of water = 0.8 moles × 18 g/mol =
14.4 g = 0.0144 kg.
 D. Molality: Molality (m) = moles of solute / mass of solvent (in kg) = 0.2 moles / 0.0144 kg
≈ 13.88 mol/kg

E. Final Answer:
The molality of the solution is approximately 13.88 m. So, option 1 is correct.

67)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

68)

69)

70)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

71)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

72)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

73) Syn hydroxylation of alkene by Baeyer's reagent

74)

75)

76) NCERT Pg. # 396

77) NCERT Pg. # 394

78)

79)

80)

CH4 + O2 HCHO + HOH

 81)

82)

83)

84)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

85)

86)

87)

(a) F.R.S.R

(b)

F.R.A.R
(c) E.A.R

(d) E.S.R

88)

89)

Bond dissociation energy

90)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

BIOLOGY

91) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer
NCERT-12TH-SRFP

92) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-2) Page No. 21

93) NCERT 12th Class : 2.4.1 Endosperm

94)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

95)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

96)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

97)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

98)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

99)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

100)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

101) Correct option (2)

102) Explaining :
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

103) Explaining : Organisms of a species in a geographical area forms a population.

Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

104)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

105) Ans. (4)

4 is the correct answer
 106)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

107) NCERT-XII Pg # 224

108)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

109) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

110) Ans. (2)

2 is the correct answer

111) Correct option (1)

112)

The correct answer is 4. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion. Explanation:

A. Assertion: "Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem leads to the destruction of the
entire ecosystem" is true. Keystone species play a crucial role in maintaining the structure,
diversity, and functioning of an ecosystem. Their removal can cause dramatic changes and
often lead to ecosystem collapse.
B. Reason: "Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions" is also true. These species,
though not necessarily abundant, have a large effect on their ecosystem by influencing the
populations of other species or the availability of resources.

Since both the assertion and reason are true and the reason directly explains why the assertion is
correct, the answer is 4.

113)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

114) NCERT-12- MHW

115)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer
116) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 152,154,155,157,158

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151,153,154

118)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

119)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

120)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 158

122)

NCERT Pg # 180

123) NCERT 12th class – [Link]. 197

124)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

125)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

126) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer
(Most Appropriate Answer) NCERT 12th Class

127)
 Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

128)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

129)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

130)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

131) NCERT Pg. # 255

132) NCERT Page No.: 246

133) Explaining : Question ask about distinguishing structural features from functional
features.
Concept : Features of an ecosystem
Solution : Decomposition, Nutrient cycling, Energy flow, Productivity (Four) are functional
features whereas rest are structural features.
Final Answer : (4)

134)

NCERT XII, Page # 209

135)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

136)

Explanation:

A. (1) Menstruation cycle: Menstruation will continue after tubectomy because the ovaries still
function and release eggs, but they cannot travel to the uterus.
B. (2) Ovulation: Ovulation still occurs after tubectomy, as the ovaries continue to release eggs.
C. (4) Formation of Graafian follicle: The formation of Graafian follicles still occurs in the ovaries
 as part of the regular menstrual cycle.

However, (3) Fusion of sperm and ovum will not occur because the fallopian tubes are blocked
or cut during tubectomy, preventing the sperm from reaching the egg.

So, the correct answer is (3) . Fusion of sperm and ovum.

137)

Question Asking About:

Identify the device:

Identify the implantation site:

Solution Explanation:

Correct Implantation Site: Copper-T IUDs are inserted into the uterine cavity.

Correct Answer: Option (3)

138)

Final Answer: (3) A, B, C

Periodic abstinence, coitus interruptus, and lactational amenorrhoea are all natural
contraceptive methods, while MTP is not.

139)

NCERT XII PAGE NO.63

140)

NCERT Pg No # 60

141) Question Asking About:

The question asks you to identify the mechanism by which copper ions released from copper-
releasing IUDs contribute to contraception.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

4. Suppress sperm motility:

This is the primary mechanism. Copper ions are toxic to sperm and suppress their motility, making it
difficult for them to reach and fertilize the egg.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4. Suppress sperm motility.

142)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer
 ​The correct answer is Option 3: A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b

143)

Solution:
Lactational Amenorrhoea:
This method is based on the natural infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding. It is
effective only for up to six months following childbirth, as long as the mother is exclusively
breastfeeding and has not resumed menstruation. After six months or when breastfeeding
frequency decreases, the effectiveness significantly decreases.

Final Answer: (2) Lactational Amenorrhoea

144)

NCERT Pg. No. 48

145)

The correct answer is 3. Determine the presence of certain genetic disorders in the
fetus.
• Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure in which a small amount of amniotic fluid
is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the fetus. This fluid contains fetal cells that can
be analyzed to detect genetic abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and other
chromosomal or DNA-based disorders.

146)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

147)

A. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) involves fertilization occurring outside the body in a laboratory
setting.
B. Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (GIFT) is not an IVF method because fertilization occurs
inside the body (in vivo).

Analysis of Given Options

1. ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) - IVF method (fertilization outside)
2. IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) - IVF method (embryo transferred directly)
3. GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) - Not an IVF method (fertilization occurs inside the
body)
4. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) - IVF method (sperm injected directly into egg in
lab)
Option 1: ZIFT, IUT (Both are IVF methods)

148)
 Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

149)

Question Asking About:

The question asks you to count the number of methods listed that are considered natural
methods of contraception.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

Periodic abstinence: This is a natural method.
Lactational amenorrhea: This is a natural method.
Coitus interruptus: This is a natural method.
Therefore, there are three natural methods: periodic abstinence, lactational amenorrhea, and
coitus interruptus.
The correct answer is 3. three.

150)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

151) Question Is Asking:

A. To identify and count the contraceptive methods that are characterized by minimal to no
adverse side effects on the user's health.

Solution Explanation:

A. Lactational amenorrhea: Natural method; generally few side effects, but dependent on
consistent breastfeeding.
B. Periodic abstinence: Natural method; no direct physical side effects.
C. Coitus interruptus: Natural method; no direct physical side effects.
B. Methods with "almost no side effects":
A. Lactational amenorrhea
B. Periodic abstinence
C. Coitus interruptus

Answer:
The correct answer is option 2: THREE.

152) NCERT Page no 47

153) Question Explanation: Identify the correct statement regerding contraception.

Concept : Reproductive Health.

Solution :
(A) → MTP is considered sefe during Ist trimester, it is correct.
(B) it is incorrect,
(C) IUD like Cu-T are effective confreceptive. it is correct.
(D) Combinations pill administration of progestogens estrogen combinations. it is correct.

Final Answer : option (2). A, C, D

154) Intrauterine insemination (IUI) Correct. IUI is a procedure where sperm (obtained
through a donor or sperm bank) is directly placed into the uterus, bypassing the male's
impotence. Since the female partner is fertile, IUI is a viable option. Correct Answer:

Option 2: Intrauterine insemination (IUI)

IUI is the most appropriate option when the male is impotent, and the female is fertile. It can
be performed with sperm from a donor.

155) NCERT Pg No. # 64

156)

NCERT-XII Pg#135

157)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

158)

NCERT XII, Page # 115

159) Explaining the Question:

Marsupial mole and kangaroo are the examples of-

Concept:
Evolution

Solution:
Marsupial mole and kangaroo are examples of adaptive radiation and divergent evolution.

Adaptive Radiation : The process to evolution of different species in a given sea graphical
area starting from a point and literally recharting to other areas of habitat.

Convergent Evolution : When same structure developed along different directions due to
Adaptation to different needs.

Final Answer:
Option (4)

160)
Question Asking About :
The question asks to identify the incorrect statements among the given options regarding the
theory of evolution.

Solution :
Let's analyze each statement :
(B) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
• Truthfulness : This statement is incorrect, Evolution by natural selection is not a directed
process in the sense of being predetermined towards a specific goal or outcome.
(C) The geological history of earth is not related with the biological history of earth.
• Truthfulness : This statement is incorrect. Changes in Earth's geology profoundly influenced
the evolution of life, and conversely, biological processes have also shaped the geological
environment.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

161)

NCERT-XII Pg#135

162) NCERT(XII) Pg# 129 Para: 7.3

163) NCERT(XII) Pg# 129 Para: 7.3

164) NCERT(XII) Pg# 132 Para: 7.3

165) NCERT Pg # 119

166) Mesozoic era = golden age of reptiles .

167) NCERT(XII) Pg# 127 Para: 7.1

168)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

169) NCERT(XII) Pg# 132 Para: 7.3

170)

old NCERT XII page. no.121+module page no.192

171)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

172)

The correct answer is 2. Reproductive fitness.

In the context of Darwin's theory of natural selection, fitness refers to an organism's ability to
survive and reproduce in its environment.

173)

NCERT : PAGE 134

174)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

175)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 117

176)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

177)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

178)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

179)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

180)
Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer