13-07-2025

1902CMD303021250021 MD

PHYSICS

1) A capacitor is connected to battery if distance between two plates increases then :

(1) Charge on plates remains same.

(2) Potential difference increases.
(3) Stored energy decreases.
(4) Electric field remains same.

2) The resultant capacitance between A and B in the figure is :

(1) 1µF
(2) 10 µF
(3) 50 µF
(4) 1.5

3) Dimension of capacitance is :-

(1) [M-1L-2T4A2]
(2) [M-1L-3T4A1]
(3) [ML-2T4A2]
(4) None

4) The earth has Volume 'V' and Surface Area 'A' then capacitance would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two identical capacitors A and B shown in the given circuit are joined in series with a battery. If a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is slipped between the plates of capacitor B and battery
remain connected, then the energy of capacitor A will :-

(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(3) Remain the same
(4) Be zero since circuit will not work

6) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacity C. The separation between the plates is doubled and a
dielectric medium is introduced between the plates. If the capacity now becomes 2C, the dielectric
constant of the medium is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 8

7) Find the equivalant capacitance in the given figure between A and B points ?

(1) C
(2) 2C
(3) C/2
(4) 3C

8) The equivalent capacitance of the circuit shown between A and B point :-

(1) 5 µF
(2) 4.5 µF
(3) 3.5 µF
(4) 6.5 µF

9) Four identical capacitors are connected in series with a battery of 16V between A and B as shown
in figure. If the point P is earthed, then the potential at A and B is :-

(1) 16V, 0
(2) 12V, –12V
(3) 12V, – 4V
(4) 8V, –8V

10) If all the shown capacitors in the given circuit are same with each of value 8µF. Find out

equivalent capacitance across A and B.

(1) 2µF
(2) 16µF
(3) 8µF
(4) 32µF

11) The charge on 4 µF capacitor in the given circuit is .... in µC :-

(1) 12
(2) 24
(3) 36
(4) 32

12)

In the given figure, three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are joined to a battery, with symbols having their
usual meanings, the correct conditions will be :-
(1) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V3 + V
(2) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2 + V3
(3) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2
(4) Q3 = Q2 and V2 = V3

13) Four identical capacitors are connected as shown in diagram. When a battery of 12V is
connected between A and B, the charge stored in combination of capacitros is found to be 15 μC.

The value of C1 is -

(1) 2.5 μF
(2) 0.5 μF
(3) 0.1 μF
(4) 1.5 μF

14) A capacitor of capacity 4 μF is charged to 80V and another capacitor of capacity 6 μF is charged
to 30V. They are connected such that, their unlike plates are joined together then the charge on 4 μF
capacitor will be -

(1) 200 μC
(2) 300 μC
(3) 84 μC
(4) 56 μC

15)

The capacity of the system between the points P and Q in the adjoining circuit will be -
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Each edge of the cube contains a capacitance C. The equivalent capacitance between the points

A and B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential difference V0. The charging battery is
disconnected and the capacitor is connected to a capacitor of unknown capacitance Cx. The potential
difference across the combination is V. The value of Cx should be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) If A is connected with C and B is connected with D. How much charge flows in the circuit:

(1) 10 µC
(2) 12 µC
(3) 14 µC
(4) 16 µC

19) A slab of copper of thickness is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
where d is the separation between its two plates. If the capacitance of the capacitor without the

copper slab is C and with copper slab is C' then is :-

(1)
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

20) Three capacitors are connected as shown in fig. Then the charge on capacitor C1 is :-

(1) 6 μC
(2) 12 μC
(3) 18 μC
(4) 24 μC

21) Final potential difference across 12µF after key 'K' is closed :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 24V
(4) 12V

22) Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1 < K2) are inserted between plates
of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in figure. The variation of electric field 'E' between the plates
with distance 'd' as measured from plate P is correctly shown by:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A 2µF capacitor is charged as shown in the figure. The percentage of stored energy dissipated

after the switch S is turned to position 2 is :-

(1) 0%
(2) 20%
(3) 75%
(4) 80%

24) The insulated spheres of radii R1 and R2 having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively are connected to
each other. There is :-

(1) No change in the energy of the system

(2) An increase in the energy of the system
(3) Always a decrease in the energy of the system
(4) A decrease in the energy of the system unless Q1R2 = Q2R1

25) A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged by 10 μC. Another uncharged sphere of

radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After that if the sphere are separated, then surface
density of charges, on the spheres will be in the ratio of :–

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

26) Two condenser of capacity 0.3 μF and 0.6 μF respectively are connected in series. The
combination is connected across a potential of 6 volts. The ratio of energies stored by the
condensers will be :-

(1) 1/3
(2) 2
(3) 1/4
(4) 4

27) A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The charging battery is disconnected. An identical
capacitor is now connected to the first capacitor in parallel. The energy in each of the capacitor is :

(1) U/2
(2) 3U/2
(3) U
(4) U/4

28) A number of capacitors each of capacitance 1μF and each one of which get punctured if a
potential difference just exceeding 500 volt is applied, are provided. Then an arrangement suitable
for giving a capacitor of 2 μF across which 3000 volt may be applied requires at least :

(1) 18 component capacitors

(2) 36 component capacitors
(3) 72 component capacitors
(4) 144 component capacitors

29) A parallel plate capacitor with air as medium between the plates has a capacitance of 10μF. The
area of the capacitor is divided into two equal halves and filled with two media having dielectric
constants K1 = 2 and K2 = 4. The capacitance of the system will now be :

(1) 10 μF
(2) 20 μF
(3) 30 μF
(4) 40 μF

30) In the circuit shown in the figure, C = 6μF. The charge stored in the capacitor of capacity C is :
(1) zero
(2) 90 μC
(3) 40 μC
(4) 60 μC

31) A capacitor of capacitance value 1 μF is charged to 30 V and the battery is then disconnected. If
it is connected across a 2 μF capacitor, the energy lost by the system is :

(1) 300 μJ
(2) 450 μJ
(3) 225 μJ
(4) 150 μJ

32) A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105V/m between the plates. If the charge on the
capacitor plate is 1μC, then the force on each capacitor plate is

(1) 0.1N
(2) 0.05N
(3) 0.02N
(4) 0.01N

33) Find the equivalent capacitance across A & B

(1)
μF

(2)
μF
(3) 15 μF
(4) none

34) Figure shows two capacitors connected in series and joined to a battery. The graph shows the
variation in potential as one moves from left to right along the branch containing the capacitors.
Then:

(1) C1 > C2
(2) C1 = C2
(3) C1 < C2
(4) The information is not sufficient to decide the relation between C1 and C2

35) What is the reading of voltmeter in the following figure:

(1) 3 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 4 V

36) In the circuit shown the reading of ammeter is 2A. The ammeter has negligible resistance. The

value of R equals :-

(1) 2 Ω
(2) 4 Ω
(3) 6 Ω
(4) 8 Ω

37) Resistance in the two gaps of a meter bridge are 25Ω & 75 Ω respectively. If the resistance are
interchanges the balance point shifts by.

(1) 50 c.m
(2) 25 c.m
(3) 75 c.m
(4) 100 c.m

38) In the arrangement of resistances shown in the figure, the potential difference between the

points B and D will be zero when the unknown resistance X is :-

(1) 4 ohm
(2) 2 ohm
(3) 3 ohm
(4) e.m.f. of the cell is needed to find out X

39) In a Meter bridge, the null point is found at a distance of 40 cm from left end. If now a resistance
of 60Ω is connected in parallel with S, connected in right gap, the null point occurs at 50 cm.
Determine the value of S.

(1) 20 Ω
(2) 30 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 40 Ω

40) In the circuit given below, the reading of the ammeter and voltmeter are :-

(1) 0.6 A, 6V

(2)
A, V

(3)
A, V
(4) 6A,6V

41) Resistance of a galvanometer is 50 Ω. Its maximum allowed current is 2mA. What should be
value of shunt resistance, so it can measure upto 40 V.

(1) 19950 Ω
(2) 49950 Ω
(3) 39950 Ω
(4) 29950 Ω

42) A galvanometer has 25 Ω resistance. If a 5 Ω shunt is added to this the fraction of current that
passes through the galvanometer is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) Find reading of voltmeter?

(1) 10 volt
(2) 12 volt
(3) 16 volt
(4) 8 volt

44) If wire AB has uniform resistance and iG = 0, AC = 20 cm and CB = 80 cm, the resistance R is :-

(1) 320 Ω
(2) 8 Ω
(3) 20 Ω
(4) 40 Ω

45) An ammeter reads upto 1A. Its resistance is 0.81 Ω. To increase the range to 10 A, the value of
the required shunt is :-

(1) 0.03 Ω
(2) 0.3 Ω
(3) 0.9 Ω
(4) 0.09 Ω

CHEMISTRY
1)
Among these alkyl groups, which of the following orders is correct for the magnitude of their + I
effect ?

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > I > II

2)

+m and +I both effect are shown by :

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

3)
In phenol, π-electron-density is maximum on

(1) ortho and meta positions

(2) ortho and para positions
(3) meta and para positions
(4) none of these

4)

Sum of α-hydrogens in :
 (i) + (ii) = ?
(1) 13
(2) 14
(3) 15
(4) 16

5) Which of the following compound will not undergo tautomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which hydrogen is involve in keto enol tautomerism

(1) H1
(2) H2
(3) H3
(4) Both H1 and H3

7) Which π bond is maximum stable

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3 – CH = CH2
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(4) (CH3)2C = CH – CH3

8) Which of the following has strongest –I effect ?

(1) –NO2
(2)

(3) –OH
(4) –NH2

9) In which of the following H effect will not be observed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH=CH2

10) The correct order of stability of following alkenes will be :

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) II > III > I > IV
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) I > II > IV > III

11) Which of the following has least heat of hydrogenation (per π bond) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following shows hyperconjugation ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH2=CH2

(4)

13) Which of the following is aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

14) Which of the following statement is not correct for a nucleophile?

(1) Nucleophiles attack Low e– density sites

(2) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking
(3) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid
(4) Ammonia is a nucleophile

15) The correct statement regarding –CCl3 group is :-

(1) m-directing, deactivating due to reverse hyperconjugation

(2) m-directing, deactivating due to –M effect
(3) o, p-directing, activating due to hyperconjugation
(4) o, p-directing, activating due to +M-effect

16) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
 (a) (i) aromatic

(b) (ii) anti aromatic

(c) (iii) non aromatic

(d) (iv) heterocyclic

(1) (a)–(i); (b)–(iv); (c)–(i); (d)–(ii)

(2) (a)–(iii); (b)–(i); (c)–(ii); (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii); (b)–(ii); (c)–(i); (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(iii); (b)–(i); (c)–(ii); (d)–(iv)

17)

Most stable carbanion is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)

Most stable carbocation

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)

Decreasing −I power of given groups is

1. −CN 2. −NO2
3. −NH2 4. −F

(1) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3

(2) 2 > 3 > 4 > 1
(3) 3 > 2 > 4 > 1
(4) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4

20)

Correct order of –I effect is :-

(1) b > c > a

(2) c > a > b
(3) a > b > c
(4) None of these

21)
Most stable carbanion is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Ortho-para director among following is?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Group having greatest +I effect is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Resonance occur in ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Most stable carbocation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) True statement about is

(1) It has 6 electrons in valence shell of carbon atom

(2) It is formed due to heterolytic bond fission
(3) It has lone pair of electrons
(4) It is formed due to homolytic bond fission

27) Which is maximum stable ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which is not resonating structures :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CH=O and CH2=CH–OH

(4)

29) A molecule is said to chiral, if

(1) it contains a plane of symmetry

(2) it contains centre of symmetry
(3) it can be superimposed on its mirror image
(4) it can't be superimposed on its mirror image

30) Which of the following structures has the S-configuration at the chiral centre :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

31) The S configuration of the compound is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) (2R, 3R)–2, 3 butandiol is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) Find out relation between I and II :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Homomers
(4) Structural isomers

34) Number of chiral carbon present in the following compound :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) Assertion :- Diastereomers are mirror image of each other.

Reason :- Diastereomers have different physical properties.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

36) The number of optically active isomers possible for -

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

37) Identify R configuration :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The following two compounds are

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Epimers

39)

In which of the following compound plane of symmetry is exist ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following is optically active :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) The correct configuration assigned for compounds (I) and (II) respectively are :-
(1) R, R
(2) S, S
(3) R, S
(4) S, R

42) Which of the following is optically active :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism?

(1) Lactic acid

(2) Tartaric acid
(3) Maleic acid
(4) α-amino acids

44) Which of the following can show enantiomerism?

(1)

(2) CH2=CHCH2CH2CH3

(3)

(4)

45) Which of the following compounds is not chiral?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Assume that gene a and b are linked and show 40% recombination. If ++ / ++ individual is
crossed with ab / ab, then types and proportions of gametes in F1 will be :-

(1) ++ 20% : ab 20% : +b 20% : a + 40%

(2) ++ 50% : ab 50%
(3) ++ 25% : ab 25% : + b 25% : a + 25%
(4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20%

2) When two heterozyous tall pea plants are crossed then 400 new plants are obtained in next
generation, how many tall plants are obtained out of 400 plants which have no any recessive allele :-

(1) 200
(2) 300
(3) 100
(4) 150

3) In trihybrid plant what is the probability of gamete which contain only dominant alleles :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) Mendel selected (A) true breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were (B) except for one
character with contrasting traits

A→7
(1)
B → Similar
A → 14
(2)
B → Dissimilar
A → 14
(3)
B → Similar
A→7
(4)
B → Dissimilar

5) T. H. Morgan experimented on __A__ and proposed concepts, like linkage.

(1) Drosophilla
(2) Pisum satium
(3) Human being
(4) E. Coli

6) Genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross is :-

(1)
TT : tt

(2)
TT : Tt : tt

(3)
TT : Tt : tt

(4)
TT : Tt : tt

7) In a typical monohybrid cross, plants of which generation show same phenotype and genotype -

(1) Parental generation

(2) First filial generation
(3) Second filial generation
(4) Third filial generation

8) In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination in birds :

(1) Males are heterogametic

(2) Females are heterogametic
(3) Females are homogametic
(4) Both males and females are homogametic

9) If a certain patient with blood group B requires immediate blood transfusion, the following type
can be given to him

(1) O and B
(2) O and AB
(3) A and AB
(4) B and AB

10) Identify A, B and C from the following diagram.

(1) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Glu

(2) A: GAG; B: CTC; C: Pro
(3) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Thr
(4) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Leu

11) Assertion: Genetic make up of sperm determines the sex of human child.
Reason: Males are homogametic in humans.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

12) To know the genotype of F2 organism showing dominant phenotype, it is crosed with ........... and
such cross is called ......... Correct option for blanks are:
(1) Recessive, test cross
(2) Recessive, reciprocal corss
(3) Heterozygous, test cross
(4) Heterozygous, reciprocal corss

13) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) Two organisms with the same genotype always have different phenotypes.
(2) Two organisms with the same phenotype may have different genotypes.
(3) A heterozygous organism may have the same phenotype as a homozygous organism.
A heterozygous organism has the same number of alleles for a given gene as a homozygous
(4)
organism.

14) Match the column–I (Type of offsprings) with the column-II (Their probability) in F2 generation of
a Mendelian dihybrid cross.

Column-I Column-II

Homozygous for one

(A) and Heterozygous for (i) 6/16
other character.

(B) Recombinant phenotype (ii) 2/16

(C) F1 phenotype (iii) 8/16

(D) Parental Genotypes (iv) 9/16

(1) A-iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iii
(2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(3) A–i, B–iii, C–iv, D–ii
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii

15) What is true about phenylketonuria

a. X-linked recessive trait
b. The affected person lack an enzyme responsible for conversion of phenylalanine into threonine
c. Gene for Phenylketonuria shows pleiotropism
d. One of the manifestation of this disease is mental retardation

(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) c, d
(4) only d

16) Punnett square was developed by:-

(1) German Zoologist, Reginald C. Punnett

(2) German Botanist, Reginald C. Punnett
(3) Stanford Geneticist Reginald C. Punnett
(4) British Geneticist Reginald C. Punnett

17) In which inveritance Bell shaped curve is obtained :-

(1) Cytoplasmic inheritance

(2) Multiple Alleles
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) Mendelian dihybrid cross

18) Assertion : Mendel found that the phenotype of F1 heterozygote Tt to be exactly like the TT
parent in appearance.
Reason : In a pair of dissimilar factors one dominates the other.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false Reason is true

19) Match column A with B

Column-A Column-B

I 1856-1863 a codominance

II 1902 b Dominant flower colour

III Violet c Chromosomal theory of inheritance

IV AB blood group d Mendel's exp.

(1) I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a
(2) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(3) I-d, II-c, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-d, II-b, III-c, IV-a

20) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason R)
Assertion (A) : Sickle - Cell anaemia occurs due to point mutation
Reason (R) : Point mutation is a change of single base pair in gene of beta globin chain that results
in the change
of amino acid residue glutamate to valine.
choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A)and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

21) Which of the following are correct ?

I. Classical Mendelian traits are qualitative in nature.
II. Qualitative traits show discontinuous variations.
III. Qualitative traits are polygenic traits.
IV. Quantitative traits follow Mendelian phenotypic ratio.

(1) I & II
(2) I & IV
(3) II & III
(4) III & IV

22) Assertion: According to Mendel, a dihybrid cross is the multiple of two monohybrid crosses.
Reason: When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True .

23) Identify the type of inheritance in the given pedigree.

(1) Autosomal Dominant

(2) Autosomal Recessive
(3) X-linked Dominant
(4) X-linked Recessive

24) Crossing over frequency is more if

(1) Genes are strongly linked.

(2) Genes are very close
(3) Genes are far apart on same chromosomes.
(4) Genes are on different chromosome.

25) What is the distance between two genes if the population has 81% individuals with parental
characters ?

(1) 81 map units

(2) 21 map units
(3) 40.5 map units
(4) 19 map units
26) Assertion: Drone bees do not have father and thus cannot have sons, but have a grandfather
and can have grandsons.
Reason: Drones directly develop from unfertilized eggs but can also produce sperms by mitosis,
which fertilize eggs to form female.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

27) ABO blood group is an example of

(1) Complete dominance

(2) Multiple allelism
(3) Codominance
(4) All of these

28) Refer the given statements and select the correct option :-
(i) Percentage of homozygous dominant individuals obtained by selfing Aa individuals is 25%
(ii) Types of genetically different gametes Produced by genotype AABbcc are 2.
(iii) Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid F2 progeny in case of Mirabilis jalapa is 3 : 1

(1) All the statements are true.

(2) Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but statement (iii) is false.
(3) Statements (i) and (iii) are true, but statement (ii) is false.
(4) Statements (ii) and (iii) are true, but statement (i) is false.

29) Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant as studied by Mendel, the number of
traits related to flower, pod and seed respectively were:-

(1) 2, 2, 2
(2) 2, 2, 1
(3) 1, 2, 2
(4) 1, 1, 2

30)

In multiple allele

(1) All alleles of a gene are situated on different chromosomes of same person
(2) All alleles of a gene are situated on same chromosome of same person
(3) Crossing over is not possible
(4) All alleles occupy different locus

31) How many types of gamets are formed by a dihybrid plant (MmRr) in which one gene is
incompletely dominant and other is completely dominant :-
(1) one type
(2) two types
(3) three types
(4) four types

32) Height in the plant is controll by three polygene. Maximum height is 150 while minimum height
is 90 then what will be height of AABBDd and aabbDd

(1) 100 and 140

(2) 140 and 100
(3) 110 and 130
(4) 130 and 110

33)

In antirrhinum majus when a pink flowered plant is crossed with red flowered plant then total 120
plants are obtained. What will be percentage of phenotype in offspring :-

(1) 100% red flowered

(2) 50% white flowered
(3) 75% pink flowered
(4) 50% pink flowered

34) The height of a plant is under control of polygenic inheritance. The plant having genotype 'aabb'
has 20 cm height and the height of plant having genotype AaBb is 50 cm. What will be the maximum
height of the plant?

(1) 45 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 15 cm

35) In Mirabilis plant tallness is dominant over dwarfness while red flowers are incompletely
dominant over white flowers. A pure tall & red flowered plant is crossed with dwarf & white
flowered plant. What will be the percentage probability of getting pink & white flowered plants in F2
generation?

(1) 25% and 50%

(2) 50% and 25%
(3) 75% and 0%
(4) 50% and 0%

36) In a family of five children what is the probability of finding all five girls.

(1) 1/2
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/32
(4) 20/64

37) With respect to human skin colour, if trihybrid mulatto male (AaBbCc) is crossed with white
female then the ratio of mulatto and white offspring will be :-

(1) 6 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

38) Given below is, the figure of Drosophila melanogaster : If was found
to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan,
because.

(1) A single mating produces two young flies

(2) Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male
(3) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
(4) It reproduces parthenogenetically

39) The map distance between A and C = 30 cM, B and C = 20 cM, A and B is 50 cM, B and D = 10
cM, C and D = 30 cM. What is the arrangement of ABCD gene on chromosome

(1) ABCD
(2) DBCA
(3) BACD
(4) CABD

40) Number of linkage groups correspond to :

(1) general structure of organism

(2) diploid number of chromosomes
(3) haploid number of chromosomes/pairs of chromosomes in a diploid
(4) tetraploid number

41) Sickle cell anaemia is

(1) Sex linked inheritance

(2) Autosomal heritable disease
(3) Infectious disease
(4) Deficiency disease.
42) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-

(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.

(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype in influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.

43) Assertion : Dominant character present in both homozygous and heterozygous form.
Reason : Recessive character present only in homozygous form.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

44) Person affected with phenylketonuria lack an enzyme that converts amino acid phenylalanine
into:-

(1) Valine
(2) Proline
(3) Histidine
(4) Tyrosine

45) Man of blood group 'A' marries with a woman of blood group 'B', and have sufficiently large
number of children, these children could be classified as A, B, AB and O blood group in ratio 1 : 1 : 1
: 1. The presence of AB blood group individual is due to :-

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Codominance
(3) Complete dominance
(4) Partial dominance

46) What is the main essence of Darwinian theory of evolution :-

(1) Genetic variation

(2) Isolation
(3) Struggle for existence
(4) Natural selection

47) Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates

(1) Microevolution
(2) Macroevolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Divergent evolution
48) Fossils are generally found in

(1) Soil
(2) Water
(3) Rocks
(4) Ice

49) Fore limb of cheetah, wings of bats, flipper of whale share similarities in pattern of bones of fore
limbs this may be due to :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Homology
(3) Common ancestory
(4) All of these

50) Darwinian variations are

(1) Small and directional

(2) Large & Non directional
(3) Single step & Non directional
(4) Large and discontinuous

51) Which of the following is an example of homologous structures?

(1) Carrot and potato

(2) Forelegs of horse and flippers of whale
(3) Wings of insects and wings of birds
(4) Eye of cockroach and eye of mammals

52) Which is not a point of Darwinian Theory of evolution ?

(1) Overproduction
(2) Natural selection
(3) Survival of fittest
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters

53) Homologous organ show which type of evolution?

(1) Divergent
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Convergent

54) Which of the following is not an example of homologous structures?

(1) Wings of bat and hands of man

(2) Flippers of whale and forelimbs of horse
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
(4) Trachea of cockroach and lungs of man

55) According to Hugo de vries, single step large mutation is called

(1) sport
(2) saltation
(3) variation
(4) mutation

56) In galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common
ancestor. The original variety of these finches was:-

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Vegetarian
(3) Seed-eating
(4) Cactus eating

57) Alfred wallace a naturalist worked on which island.

(1) Sri lanka

(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archepelago

58)

Biogenetic law is given by :-

(1) Ernst haeckel

(2) Von baer
(3) Darwin
(4) Charles lyell

59) Who worked on a plant enothera lamarckiana:-

(1) Lamarck
(2) Darwin
(3) Hugo devries
(4) Oparin

60) Which of the following organs show analogy?

(1) Wings of bird and bat

(2) Flipper of whale and wing of bat
(3) Wings of mosquito and bat
(4) Hearts of vertebrates

61) The different varieties of beaks in finches were observed by Darwin in:

(1) South America

(2) Australia
(3) Galapagos island
(4) South Africa

62) Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor
shortened showing that ?

(1) Darwin was correct

(2) Mutation theory is wrong
(3) Tail is an essential organ
(4) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters

63) Analogy belongs to the organs which have:

(1) Same origin and different functions

(2) No functions in the body
(3) Different origin and different functions
(4) Different origin and same functions

64)

Read the following examples :-

(a) wings of butterfly and birds
(b) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(c) Potato and sweet potato
(d) Thorn of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbits
(e) Fore limbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human
(f) Vertebrate heart

How many of the above examples are of homologous structures in animals ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

65) What are two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution :

(1) Branching descent and natural selection

(2) Inheritance of acquired characters and selection
(3) Struggle of existance and natural selection
(4) Branching descent and struggle for existance
66) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called ________

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Parallel evolution

67) The given figure shows an example of :-

(1) Homologous organs

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Both (1) and (3)

68)

According to the Theory of Special Creation:

(1) All living organisms as we see today were created as such

(2) Earth is about 4000 years old
(3) Diversity was always same since creation and will be the same in future
(4) All of the above three options are true

69) The idea of 'Survival of fittest' was given by:-

(1) Darwin
(2) Herbert spencer
(3) Malthus
(4) Lyell

70) Some Australian marsupial animal show resembleness with placental mammals that live in
similar habitats of other continents, this statement show :–

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive divergence
(4) Both (2) and (3)
71) What is the correct arrangement of periods of Palaeozoic era in ascending order in
geological time scale ?

(1) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferus → Permian

(2) Cambrian → Silurian → Ordovician → Devonian → Carboniferus → Permian
(3) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferus → Permian
(4) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Permian → Carboniferus

72) Who proposed that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by use and disuse of organs :-

(1) Darwin
(2) Muller
(3) Lamarck
(4) Weismann

73) T.R. Malthus is famous for his book on :

(1) Population
(2) Geology
(3) Geography
(4) Palaeontology

74) In the given figure which one of the following represent the correct example of convergent
evolution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

75) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of fore limbs of
mammals, which one of the these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct

function and adaptation :-

 Fore limb Function Adaptation

(1) (A) Man Running Carnivore

(2) (B) Whale Swimming Aquatic

(3) (C) Cheetah Running Carnivore

(4) (D) Bat Flying Aerial

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Which of the following type of evolution is depicted in the diagram ?

(1) Parallel evolution

(2) Co-evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Convergent evolution

77)

Which of the following is correct sequence of events in origin of life ?

(i) Formation of eukaryotes
(ii) Formation of multicellualr organisms
(iii) Formation of protobiont.
(iv) Formation of prokaryotes

(1) i, iii, iv, ii

(2) ii, iii, iv, i
(3) iii, i, iv, ii
(4) iii, iv, i, ii

78) First living beings evolved on earth...........:-

(1) Chemoautotrophs, Anaerobes

(2) Chemoheterotrophs, Anaerobes
(3) Photoheterotrophs, Aerobes
(4) Photoautotrophs, Aerobes

79) If vas deferens is cut & tied then what will happen?

(1) Inhibits spermatogenesis.

(2) Motility of sperms will be reduced.
(3) Inhibits release of semen.
(4) Seminal plasma without sperms is released.

80) Which of the following sexually transmitted disease (STD) is not caused by a bacteria ?

(1) Gonorrhoea
(2) Syphilis
(3) Chlamydiasis
(4) Trichomoniasis

81) Match the following and give the answer for correct match :

More than 8 blastomere stage is

A ZIFT i
transferred into the uterus

Zygote or early embryo with upto

B AI ii 8 blastomere could be transferred
in to fallopian tube

Semen collected from husband or

C IUT iii healthy donor is introduced in to
the vagina

Transfer of an ovum collected

D GIFT iv from a donor into the fallopian
tube of another female
(1) A-ii, B - iv, C-i, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B - i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B - iii, C-i, D-iv
(4) A-i, B - iii, C-iv, D-ii

82) AIDS is a venereal disease which can transmit through :

(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (c) only
83) Identify the following contraceptive devices and choose the correct option

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Prevent the physical meeting of

(A) Condom for male
ovum & sperm
1.
Prevent the physical meeting of
(B) Diaphragm
ovum & sperm
Prevent the physical meeting of
(A) Condom for male
ovum & sperm
2.
Suppress sperm motility and the
(D) Implants
fertilising capacity
(B) Condom for Prevent the physical meeting of
female ovum & sperm
3.
Make the cervix hostile to the
(C) LNG 20
sperms
Suppress sperm motility and the
(C) Copper T
fertilising capacity
4.
Inhibit ovulation and
(D) Implants
implantation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) In the test tube baby program, what method is used for implantation of a blastocyst with more
than 8 cells?

(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer

(2) Intra uterine transfer
(3) Zygote inter fallopian transfer
(4) Inter uterine transfer

85) A contraceptive pill contains ______.

(1) Progesterone and estrogen

(2) Oxytocin
(3) Relaxin
(4) None of these
86) Medical termination of the pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of
pregnancy _____.

(1) Six weeks

(2) Eight weeks
(3) Twelve weeks
(4) Eighteen weeks

87) Which is the physical barrier method for family planning in females?

(1) Condom for male

(2) Condom for female
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Both (2) and (3)

88) According to 2011 census, the population growth rate was :

(1) less than 2%

(2) less than 1%
(3) less than 0.2 %
(4) more than 3%

89) In may 2011, the Indian population crossed:

(1) 2.2 billion

(2) 1.2 billion
(3) 7.2 billion
(4) 6 billion

90)

Below a diagram of contraceptive method is given.

Choose the incorrect one for this method :-

(1) A barrier method which prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum
(2) It can prevent conception
(3) It provides benefit of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS.
This method is generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent
(4)
any more pregnancies.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 4 4 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 3 4 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 4 3 1 2 1 4 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 1 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 2 1 1 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 2 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explain
When a body is connected to earth (earthed), electrons flow from earth to body. We need to
identify the nature of the body based on this.

Concept Based
Charging and earthing in electrostatics; direction of electron flow depends on charge.

Formula Used
Electrons flow from lower to higher potential, i.e., from earth to positively charged body.

Calculation
If electrons flow from earth to body, it means the body is deficient in electrons, i.e., it is
positively charged and pulls electrons from the earth.
Final Answer: Option 2

2)

Concept :
Combine capacitors using series and parallel rules, and simplify the circuit systematically to
find net capacitance between two terminals.
Formula

• Series:
• Parallel:
Calculation:
The given circuit can be redraws as follows

On further solving the network in similar manner equivalent capacitance obtained between A
and B will be 1μF.
Answer Option -1

3)

Question Explanation: We need to find dimension of capacitance.

Concept : Dimension of physical quantity and capacitance.
Solution :

Energy stoned in capacitor (U) =

⇒
[Q] = [AT]
[U] = [ML2T–2]

⇒ [C] =

Final Answer : option (1). [M-1L-2T4A2]

4)

Here,

5)

Correct Answer is B

6)

Concept
Capacitance with Dielectric-Electrostatics
Formula

• Original:

• New:
Calculation :
From formula:
Answer-3 (4)

7)
Potential of Point x & y is same
So, About A & B

Ceq =
⇒

8)
= (2μ + 3μ)F = 5μF

9)

Correct Answer is C

10) Concept :
Combination of capacitor.

Formula Used:

• Series:

• Parallel: Ceq. = C1 + C2 + ....

Visual Aid :
Rearranging the circuit capacitors

Calculation:

All the four capacitors are in parallel across A & B.

then Ceq. = 4C = (4) (8 μF)

Ceq. = 32 μF

Final Answer : (4) 32µF

11)

12) C2 and C3 are in parallel and their parallel combination is in series with C1 so, charge of
C1 (Q1) is divide among C2 & C3 ⇒ Q1 = Q2 + Q3
and V2 = V3 (∵ parallel)
Applied V = V1 + V2

13)

Ans. 0.5 μF

14)

Correct Answer is D

15)

Correct Answer is A

16) Question Explain

The question asks to find the equivalent capacitance between point A and B in a cube where
each edge has a capacitor of capacitance C.
Concept:
This problem involves simplifying a complex network of capacitors using symmetry and the
concepts of series and parallel combinations.

Solution:
Formula:

Capacitors in Series
Capacitors in Parallel
Calculation

Final Answer:

17)

Correct Answer is A
18)
Let potential of B and D is zero and common potential on capacitors is V, then at A and C it
will be V.
By charge conservation, 3V + 2V = 40 + 30
5V = 70
V = 14 volt
Charge flow = 40 – 28 = 12 µC
Now final charges on each plate is shown in the figure.

19) C =

20) Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 0
2(x – 6) + (x – 0)4 + 2(x – 6) = 0
8x = 24 ⇒ x = 3
Q1 = (3 – 6)(2)= 6μC

21)

q = 32 μC

22)

Correct Answer is A

23)
Correct Answer is D

24) When current will flow in connecting wire so that energy decreases in the form
of heat through the connecting wire.

25)

After redistribution new charges on spheres are

Ratio of charge densities

26) In series combination Q is constant, hence according to

27)

Correct Answer is D

28)

Correct Answer is C

29)

Correct Answer is C

30)
3x = 10
31)

32) F = QE, E shall be of one plate only.

33) WSB circuit.

34)

Correct Answer is C

35)

Correct Answer is D

36)

Correct Answer is C

37) case (1)

100 – ℓ = 3ℓ ⇒ 4ℓ = 100
ℓ = 25
case II

3 (100 – ℓ1) = 3ℓ1 ⇒ 300 4ℓ1

⇒ ℓ1 ⇒ 300/ 4ℓ1 ⇒ ℓ1 = 75 c.m
Shift in balance point ⇒ 75 – 25
⇒ 50 c.m

38)

Correct Answer is B

39) From the first balance point, we get R/S = After S is connected in parallel with a
resistance of 6Ω, the resistance across the gap changes from S to Seq, where

40) 1. Question Explanation

The given circuit consists of resistors in series and parallel. We need to determine the current
flowing through the ammeter and the voltage across the voltmeter using Ohm's law.

2. Concept-Based explanation
Ohm's law.

3. Formula Used
Using Ohm/s Law:
The ammeter reading is:

And for the reading of voltmeter which is connected in parallel with 6 + 4 = 10 Ω Resistance.

4. Calculation

(1) ⇒
Will be the reading of (A) as the main current in cpt.
(2) To find the voltmeter reading which is in parallel with (6 +4) ⇒ 10 Ω Resistance
V = (i) (Req)

= (6 + 4) ⇒

Answer: option (2) is correct.

41)

Correct Answer is A

42)

Correct Answer is C

43)
So, potential difference across voltmeter = 10V

44)
 45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

correct answer is B

47)

correct option is C

48)

correct option is B

49)

correct option is C

50) do not show tautomerism due to absence of α-H.

51)

Fact

52)

Correct Answer is D

53) Fact

54) Due to complete octet, delocalisation of C–H σ bond electrons is not possible.

55) Stability of alkenes ∝ Number of alpha H

56) Benzene is aromatic and highly stable. So it will release less heat on hydrogenation.
 57) At least 1 α-H must be present.

58) All are planar, conjugated and have (4n+2)π electrons.

59)

A. A lewis acid is an electron pair acceptor

B. So, Nucleophile is a lewis base, and not lewis acid.
C. So, 3rd statement is incorrect
D. A nucleophile is a electron rich species which donates its electron pair to electron deficient
carbon.

60)

–CCl3 shows reverse hyperconjugation due to vacant of orbital available is Cl.

61)

Correct Answer is B

62)

Correct Answer is A

63)

Correct Answer is D

64)

correct option is A

65)

Correct Answer is C

66)

Correct Answer is A

67) → +M → O, P - directing

68)
+I - effect → — H2 > — >— > —CH3

69)

Conjugation is required for Reso.

70)

71)
⇒ formed due to “homolytic bond fission”.

72)

Correct Answer is C

73)

Correct Answer is C

74)

Mirror images optically active is active and non superimposable.

75)
lower priomity group is just adjacent to dash so, just change the configuration (that you are
getting)

76)
2. S → (S)

77) . it is (2R,3R)-2,3 butandiol.

78)

Diasteromers → Not mirror images of each other.

79)

⇒ It sp3 atom is attached to four different valency then it is called as CHIRAL Center If sp3
atom is carbon then it is called as CHIRAL Carbon.

has 3 chiral carbon.

80)

Correct option is D
Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

81)

Correct Answer is D

82)
CIP rule → or sequence rule.
(1) Higher atomic number higher priority
(2) If atomic number is same then priority is decided by atomic mass.
(3) If atomic number or atomic mass both are same then priority is decided by next atom.
According to option

83)

Solution

A. Question Explanation: The question asks

B. Given Data: Options are

C. Concept

Optical Isomers:-

R-S configuration in Fischer Projection :-

Rule I – Priority between the different groups attached on chiral carbon is determined by CIP
rules.
 Rule II – When 4th priority group is present at vertical line of fischer projection, then we look
1→2→3

If the direction of arrow is clockwise the configuration is R and if anticlockwise it is S.

Rule III – When 4th priority group is present at horizontal line of fischer projection, then we
look, 1 → 2 → 3.

If the direction of arrow is clockwise the configuration is S and if anticlockwise it is R.

Homomers / Identical have same R-S configuration.

Enantiomer’s have exactly opposite R-S configuration.

Diastereomers have not exactly opposite R-S configuration.

D. Explanation

∴ These are enantiomer.

E. Final Answer 1

F. Question Level: - Easy

84)

Meso compounds
(1) Required min.2 chiral carbon/atom
(2) Symmetry must be present (POS/COS)
(3) Optically inactive due to internal compensation or molecular symmetry

(1) option = 1 ⇒ No POS/COS

(2) option = 2 ⇒ No Symmetry
(3) option = 3 ⇒ No Symmetry
(4) option = 4 ⇒ P.O.S./C.O.S. present

85) Question Explanation - The question asks which of the given compounds is optically
active.

Concept -

A. Optical activity : The ability of a chiral substance to rotate the plane of polarized light.
 B. Chirality : A molecule is chiral if it is non-superimposable on its mirror image. This typically
occurs when a carbon atom is bonded to four different groups. Such a carbon is called a chiral
center or stereocenter. OR
C. Asymmetric molecules
are known as chiral molecules. If plane of symmetry and center of symmetry both are absent
then the molecule is called chiral. So to find whether the molecule is chiral or not, check the
plane of symmetry and center of symmetry.
D. Molecules containing only chiral carbon are always optically active.

Answer Explanation :

Final Answer - option 3

Question Level - Easy

86)

Concept:- R/s-configuration
Follow CIP Rule.
Ans. Explanation:-

Final Answer: (1)

87)

Correct Answer is B

88)

(1) Lactic acid

(2) Tartaric acid

(3) Maleic acid

geometrical isomer, Not optical isomer

(4) α-amino acid

89)

To show enantiomerism compound should be chiral so-

show enantiomerism.

90)

DCH2CH2CH2Cl

BIOLOGY
91) Explain Question –Types and proportions of gametes produced by an F1 individual.
Genes a and b are linked with 40% recombination

Concept – This question based on linkage and recombination.

Solution –
If gene show x% recombination then
→ Parental types = (100 – x )
→ Recombination types = x

→ Each parental type =

each recombination type =

Recombination = 40%
so, Recombination + b = 20%
a+ = 20%
Parentals (100 – 40) = 60 %
each ++ = 30%
ab = 30%

Final Answer – Option (4) ++ 30% : ab 30% : + b 20% : a + 20%

92)

Correct Answer is C

93)

Correct Answer is B

94)

Correct Answer is C

95)

Correct Answer is A

96)

Correct Answer is D

97)

Correct Answer is B
98)

Correct Answer is B

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61

100)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71

102) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 74

103) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 72-73

104) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 79

105)

Correct Answer is C

106)

Correct Answer is D

107)

Correct Answer is C

108) NCERT Pg # 72

109) NCERT-XII Pg # 70, 77, 81

110)

Correct Answer is A

111) NCERT Application

112) NCERT Page No. 80-82

113) NCERT Page No. 88

114) NCERT Page No. 83

115) NCERT Page No. 83,84

116) NCERT Page No. 87

117) NCERT Page No. 77,78

118)

Correct Answer is B

119)

Correct Answer is A

120)

Correct Answer is C

121)

Correct Answer is D

122)

Correct Answer is B

123)

Correct Answer is D

124)

Explain Question – determine maximum height of plant (AABB).

aabb = 20 cm
AaBb = 50 cm

Concept – This question based on polygenic inheritance - a form of quantitative inheritanc.

Solution –
Contribution per dominant allele (AaBb)
= 50 – 10 = 40 cm

= = 20 cmm

→ Recessive allele (aabb) = = 5 cm

⇒ Maximum number of dominant alleles in genotype AABB (4 dominant allele).
= AABB
= 20 + 20 + 20 + 20
= 80 cm

Final Answer – Option (3) 80 cm

125) NCERT(XII) Pg # 76

126)

Explanation: The probability of having a girl or a boy is 1/2 for each child. For five children,
the probability of all being girls is (1/2)5 = 1/32.

The correct answer is 3 : 1/32

127)

Correct Answer is C

128)

Correct Answer is C

129)

Correct Answer is B

130)

Correct Answer is C

131)

Correct Answer is B

132)

Correct Answer is B
133)

Correct Answer is B

134)

Correct Answer is D

135)

The correct answer is 2: Codominance

Explanation: The presence of AB blood group in offspring is due to codominance. In

codominance, both alleles (A and B) are equally expressed, resulting in an individual with both
A and B antigens on their red blood cells, leading to the AB blood group.

136)

Correct Answer is D

137)

Correct Answer is C

138)

Correct Answer is C

139)

Correct Answer is D

140) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 135

141)

Correct Answer is B

142)

Correct Answer is D

143)

Correct Answer is C
144)

Correct Answer is D

145)

Correct Answer is B

146)

Correct Answer is C

147)

Correct Answer is D

148)

Correct Answer is A

149)

Correct Answer is C

150)

Correct Answer is C

151) NCERT (XII) Pg#133 Para:7.4

152)

Correct Answer is D

153) NCERT (XII) Pg # 131 Para:7.3

154)

Correct Answer is B

155) NCERT (XII) Bio Pg # 134

156) NCERT (XII) Bio Pg # 133

 157)

Correct Answer is D

158)

Correct Answer is D

159)

Correct Answer is B

160)

Correct Answer is B

161)

Correct Answer is C

162)

Correct Answer is C

163) NCERT XII, Page # 135

164) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 118

165)

Correct Answer is D

166) The image you sent is a diagram depicting adaptive radiation.

A. Adaptive radiation is a process where a single ancestral species diversifies into multiple
species, each adapted to a different ecological niche. This is evident in the diagram
where multiple species (e.g., marsupial mole, marsupial cat, marsupial wolf) have evolved from
a common marsupial ancestor in Australia.

167)

Correct Answer is D

168) The correct answer is 2. Chemoheterotrophs, Anaerobes.

 Here's why:

A. Early Earth Conditions: The early Earth had an oxygen-poor (reducing) atmosphere. This
means that the first organisms would have been anaerobic, meaning they did not require
oxygen for survival.
B. Energy Source: Given the lack of oxygen and the presence of abundant inorganic molecules,
the first organisms likely obtained energy by breaking down organic molecules in their
environment. This mode of nutrition is called chemoheterotrophy.

169)

Correct Answer is D

171)

NCERT Pg # 64

172)

Correct Answer is C

173) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 60,61

174)

Correct Answer is B

175)

Correct Answer is A

176)

Correct Answer is C

177)

Correct Answer is D

178)

Correct Answer is A

179)

Correct Answer is B
180) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60, Para-3