CC-2 – Constitutional Government and Democracy in India

1. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Rajendra Prasad
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: B. B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
on 29 August 1947. He played a key role in framing the Indian Constitution.

2. When was the Constitution of India adopted?

A. 26 January 1950
B. 26 November 1949
C. 15 August 1947
D. 26 January 1949
Answer: B. 26 November 1949
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November
1949 and came into effect on 26 January 1950.

3. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution declares India as:

A. Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
B. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic
C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
D. Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic
Answer: C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted the terms “Socialist” and “Secular”
into the Preamble.
4. Which feature is not considered a basic feature of the Indian Constitution as per the
Basic Structure doctrine?
A. Supremacy of the Constitution
B. Parliamentary System
C. Judicial Review
D. Presidential Rule
Answer: D. Presidential Rule
Explanation: "Presidential Rule" is not a basic feature. The doctrine was laid down in
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).

5. The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:

A. U.S. Constitution
B. British Constitution
C. Canadian Constitution
D. Irish Constitution
Answer: A. U.S. Constitution
Explanation: Fundamental Rights in Part III are inspired by the U.S. Bill of Rights.

6. Directive Principles of State Policy are found in which part of the Constitution?
A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part V
Answer: C. Part IV
Explanation: DPSPs are covered under Articles 36 to 51 in Part IV and are non-justiciable in
nature.

7. Which Article guarantees the Right to Equality before the law?

A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
Answer: A. Article 14
Explanation: Article 14 states that “The State shall not deny to any person equality before
the law…”

8. Which of the following Directive Principles deals with Uniform Civil Code?
A. Article 44
B. Article 45
C. Article 47
D. Article 40
Answer: A. Article 44
Explanation: Article 44 directs the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens
throughout India.

9. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in:

A. 1975
B. 1976
C. 1977
D. 1979
Answer: B. 1976
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976 amended the Preamble by adding
the words “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity”.

10. “The Constitution is a living document, an instrument which makes the government
system work.” This statement is attributed to:
A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. D.D. Basu
D. M.N. Roy
Answer: A. B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation: Ambedkar emphasized the dynamic nature of the Constitution which allows
for adaptability over time.

11. Which part of the Constitution embodies the Fundamental Rights?

A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part V
Answer: B. Part III
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III (Articles 12–35) of the
Constitution.

12. The idea of the Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from the
Constitution of:
A. United States
B. Canada
C. Ireland
D. Germany
Answer: C. Ireland
Explanation: The Directive Principles are based on the Irish Constitution’s directive
principles of social policy.

13. Which Article of the Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex or place of birth?
A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 17
D. Article 14
Answer: A. Article 15
Explanation: Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination by the State on specified grounds.

14. Which Fundamental Right is also available to non-citizens?

A. Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in public employment
B. Article 19 – Freedom of speech
C. Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty
D. Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination
Answer: C. Article 21
Explanation: Article 21 applies to all “persons,” not just citizens, and includes foreigners.

15. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to protect:

A. Freedom of speech
B. Personal liberty
C. Right to property
D. Right to religion
Answer: B. Personal liberty
Explanation: Habeas Corpus means "to have the body"; it is issued to release a person
detained unlawfully.

16. Which Fundamental Right was deleted by the 44th Amendment?

A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Property
C. Right to Religion
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: B. Right to Property
Explanation: Article 31 was deleted in 1978, and the right to property was made a legal right
under Article 300A.

17. Which Article ensures the Right to Constitutional Remedies?

A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Article 19
D. Article 21
Answer: A. Article 32
Explanation: Article 32, called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar,
enables citizens to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights.

18. Article 21A was inserted by which amendment to provide Right to Education?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 86th Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 93rd Amendment
Answer: B. 86th Amendment
Explanation: In 2002, the 86th Amendment added Article 21A, making education a
Fundamental Right for children aged 6–14.

19. The Preamble is considered:

A. Justiciable
B. Non-binding
C. Enforceable by courts
D. A source of limitations only
Answer: B. Non-binding
Explanation: The Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law but guides interpretation of
statutes and the Constitution.
20. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Article 40 – Right to Education
B. Article 39A – Equal justice and free legal aid
C. Article 47 – Uniform Civil Code
D. Article 44 – Organisation of village panchayats
Answer: B. Article 39A – Equal justice and free legal aid
Explanation: Article 39A directs the State to provide free legal aid to ensure equal justice.

21. Which Fundamental Right prohibits "untouchability"?

A. Article 19
B. Article 17
C. Article 21
D. Article 18
Answer: B. Article 17
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form.

22. Which Article provides for the promotion of international peace and security?
A. Article 49
B. Article 50
C. Article 51
D. Article 38
Answer: C. Article 51
Explanation: Article 51 encourages the State to promote international peace and respect for
international law.

23. What is the significance of the “Right to Constitutional Remedies”?

A. It enables Parliament to amend the Constitution
B. It allows citizens to approach the judiciary to enforce Fundamental Rights
C. It gives the executive emergency powers
D. It limits the jurisdiction of the courts
Answer: B. It allows citizens to approach the judiciary to enforce Fundamental Rights
Explanation: Article 32 empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court for enforcement
of Fundamental Rights.

24. Directive Principles are:

A. Justiciable
B. Enforceable by courts
C. Non-justiciable
D. Constitutional duties
Answer: C. Non-justiciable
Explanation: DPSPs are moral obligations for the State and not enforceable by any court.

25. The principle of Separation of Powers in India is:

A. Strictly followed
B. Totally absent
C. Partially followed with checks and balances
D. Mentioned explicitly in the Constitution
Answer: C. Partially followed with checks and balances
Explanation: India follows the principle in spirit but not in strict separation; there is
functional overlap between organs.

26. The Preamble is part of the Constitution, as declared by the Supreme Court in:
A. A.K. Gopalan case
B. Kesavananda Bharati case
C. Golaknath case
D. Berubari Union case
Answer: B. Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: The SC ruled in this 1973 case that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution
and reflects its basic structure.

27. Which Article provides for the separation of judiciary from the executive in the
State?
A. Article 50
B. Article 51
C. Article 40
D. Article 32
Answer: A. Article 50
Explanation: It is a Directive Principle for separation of judiciary from the executive in
public services of the State.

28. The philosophy of the Indian Constitution is contained in the:

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Preamble
C. Directive Principles
D. Fundamental Duties
Answer: B. Preamble
Explanation: The Preamble outlines the philosophy, goals, and guiding values of the
Constitution.

29. The idea of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble is borrowed
from:
A. American Constitution
B. French Constitution
C. British Constitution
D. Irish Constitution
Answer: B. French Constitution
Explanation: The ideals of the French Revolution influenced the framing of the Preamble.

30. Who called the Constitution a “lawyer’s paradise”?

A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Nani Palkhivala
C. Granville Austin
D. H.M. Seervai
Answer: B. Nani Palkhivala
Explanation: Jurist Nani Palkhivala famously remarked that the Indian Constitution is a
“lawyer’s paradise” due to its complexity and legal language.

31. The Indian Parliament is composed of:

A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. President and Prime Minister
C. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and President
D. Rajya Sabha and President only
Answer: C. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and President
Explanation: According to Article 79, Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and
Rajya Sabha.

32. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as per the Constitution is:
A. 500
B. 525
C. 545
D. 552
Answer: D. 552
Explanation: Article 81 provides that Lok Sabha can have up to 552 members – 530 from
states, 20 from Union Territories, and 2 nominated (Anglo-Indians; nomination provision
removed by 104th Amendment).

33. Who elects the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. President
B. Council of Ministers
C. Members of Lok Sabha
D. Rajya Sabha
Answer: C. Members of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker is elected by members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves
(Article 93).

34. What is the minimum age to become a member of the Rajya Sabha?
A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 21 years
D. 35 years
Answer: B. 30 years
Explanation: Article 84 sets the minimum age at 30 for Rajya Sabha and 25 for Lok Sabha.

35. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B. 12
Explanation: Article 80 allows the President to nominate 12 members with expertise in art,
literature, science, and social service.
36. The term of office for a member of the Rajya Sabha is:
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
Answer: C. 6 years
Explanation: Rajya Sabha is a permanent body with 1/3rd of its members retiring every two
years.

37. Which of the following bills can only originate in the Lok Sabha?
A. Constitutional Amendment Bill
B. Ordinary Bill
C. Money Bill
D. Judicial Review Bill
Answer: C. Money Bill
Explanation: Article 110 states that a Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, not
Rajya Sabha.

38. The Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill for a maximum of:
A. 14 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 6 months
Answer: A. 14 days
Explanation: As per Article 110(4), Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a
Money Bill and must return it within 14 days.

39. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is:

A. 1/2 of total members
B. 1/3 of total members
C. 1/5 of total members
D. 1/10 of total members
Answer: D. 1/10 of total members
Explanation: Under Article 100, at least 1/10th of the total members must be present to
conduct business.

40. A Joint Sitting of Parliament is presided over by:

A. President of India
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Vice-President
D. Prime Minister
Answer: B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: Article 108 provides that in a Joint Sitting, the Speaker presides, not the Vice-
President (who is Chairman of Rajya Sabha).

41. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio:

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Leader of Opposition
Answer: B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Explanation: Article 64 designates the Vice-President as the ex-officio Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha.

42. Which Article empowers the Parliament to make laws on matters in the State List
during emergency?
A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 253
D. Article 254
Answer: B. Article 250
Explanation: During national emergency, Parliament can legislate on State List matters
under Article 250.

43. The maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C. 6 months
Explanation: As per Article 85, the President must summon each House at least once every
six months.

44. Which Committee scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG)?
A. Ethics Committee
B. Estimates Committee
C. Public Accounts Committee
D. Rules Committee
Answer: C. Public Accounts Committee
Explanation: The PAC examines the audit reports of the CAG.

45. How many sessions of Parliament are usually held in a year?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C. Three
Explanation: The usual sessions are: Budget Session (Feb–May), Monsoon Session (July–
August), and Winter Session (Nov–Dec).

46. Which of the following motions requires support of at least 50 members before
introduction in Lok Sabha?
A. No-confidence motion
B. Adjournment motion
C. Cut motion
D. Impeachment motion
Answer: B. Adjournment motion
Explanation: An adjournment motion requires support of 50 members to be admitted.

47. The concept of parliamentary privileges is based on:

A. American Constitution
B. Indian Tradition
C. British Constitution
D. Canadian Constitution
Answer: C. British Constitution
Explanation: Parliamentary privileges in India are derived from British parliamentary
conventions.

48. The power to dissolve Lok Sabha is vested in:

A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C. President
Explanation: Article 85 empowers the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha.
49. Which one of the following is not a Standing Committee of Parliament?
A. Estimates Committee
B. Public Accounts Committee
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Advisory Committee on Environment
Answer: D. Advisory Committee on Environment
Explanation: The first three are Standing Committees; the fourth is not a regular
parliamentary committee.

50. A bill is considered a Money Bill if it contains provisions dealing with:

A. Salaries of Judges
B. Citizenship
C. Foreign affairs
D. Interstate trade
Answer: A. Salaries of Judges
Explanation: Under Article 110, Money Bills can include provisions about the appropriation
of money, including salaries paid from the Consolidated Fund.

51. Who is the constitutional head of the Indian Union?

A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: B. President
Explanation: Under Article 52, the President is the nominal head of the Union and the
highest constitutional authority.
52. The President of India is elected by:
A. Direct election by citizens
B. Members of both Houses of Parliament only
C. Members of an electoral college
D. Lok Sabha alone
Answer: C. Members of an electoral college
Explanation: As per Article 54, the President is elected by an electoral college comprising
elected MPs and MLAs of states and UTs.

53. What is the term of office of the President of India?

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. Until dismissed
Answer: B. 5 years
Explanation: The President holds office for five years from the date of assuming office
(Article 56).

54. Which Article deals with the impeachment of the President?

A. Article 61
B. Article 53
C. Article 60
D. Article 52
Answer: A. Article 61
Explanation: Article 61 lays down the procedure for the impeachment of the President on
the ground of violation of the Constitution.

55. The real executive power in India is exercised by:

A. President
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
Answer: D. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
Explanation: Article 74 provides that the President shall act according to the aid and advice
of the Council of Ministers.

56. Who administers the oath of office to the President?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice-President
Answer: B. Chief Justice of India
Explanation: As per Article 60, the Chief Justice administers the oath of office to the
President.

57. What is the minimum age for election as President?

A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 35 years
D. 40 years
Answer: C. 35 years
Explanation: Article 58 requires the President to be at least 35 years of age.

58. Who acts as President in case of a vacancy due to death, resignation or removal?
A. Chief Justice
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice-President
Answer: D. Vice-President
Explanation: Article 65 provides that the Vice-President shall act as President until a new
President is elected.

59. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?

A. President
B. Speaker
C. Rajya Sabha
D. Lok Sabha
Answer: A. President
Explanation: Article 75(1) states that the President appoints the Prime Minister.

60. The Prime Minister must be a member of:

A. Lok Sabha only
B. Rajya Sabha only
C. Either House of Parliament
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C. Either House of Parliament
Explanation: The PM can be from either House, but must become a member within 6
months if not already one (Article 75).

61. The President is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers as per:
A. Article 72
B. Article 74
C. Article 76
D. Article 80
Answer: B. Article 74
Explanation: Article 74(1) mandates that the President shall act according to the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers.
62. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed what
percent of Lok Sabha strength?
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer: C. 15%
Explanation: As per the 91st Constitutional Amendment (2003), the size of the Council of
Ministers is limited to 15% of Lok Sabha strength.

63. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:

A. President
B. Lok Sabha
C. Rajya Sabha
D. Judiciary
Answer: B. Lok Sabha
Explanation: Article 75(3) states that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
the Lok Sabha.

64. The resignation of the Prime Minister results in the:

A. Dismissal of President
B. Automatic dissolution of Rajya Sabha
C. Dissolution of Lok Sabha
D. Resignation of the entire Council of Ministers
Answer: D. Resignation of the entire Council of Ministers
Explanation: Since the Council of Ministers exists to aid and advise the Prime Minister,
their resignation follows his.
65. The President can return a non-money bill for reconsideration:
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. As many times as desired
Answer: A. Once
Explanation: Article 111 allows the President to return a bill (other than a Money Bill) once
for reconsideration.

66. The President’s power to grant pardon is found in:

A. Article 72
B. Article 74
C. Article 76
D. Article 110
Answer: A. Article 72
Explanation: The President has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, or remission of
punishment under Article 72.

67. The Attorney General of India is appointed by:

A. Chief Justice
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. President of India
Answer: D. President of India
Explanation: Article 76 provides that the President shall appoint a person qualified to be a
judge of the Supreme Court as Attorney General.

68. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of:
A. Supreme Court
B. Speaker
C. Council of Ministers
D. Election Commission
Answer: C. Council of Ministers
Explanation: The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha based on the aid and advice of the
Council of Ministers.

69. Which Article deals with the Council of Ministers?

A. Article 73
B. Article 74
C. Article 75
D. Article 76
Answer: C. Article 75
Explanation: Article 75 outlines the appointment, tenure, responsibility, and salaries of
ministers.

70. Who decides the portfolios among ministers?

A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Parliament
Answer: B. Prime Minister
Explanation: The Prime Minister allocates and reshuffles portfolios among the ministers.

71. The Supreme Court of India was established in the year:

A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1952
D. 1951
Answer: B. 1950
Explanation: The Supreme Court came into existence on January 28, 1950, two days after
the Constitution came into force.

72. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?

A. Prime Minister
B. Chief Justice of India
C. President of India
D. Council of Ministers
Answer: C. President of India
Explanation: Under Article 124, the President appoints Supreme Court judges in
consultation with the CJI and other senior judges.

73. What is the minimum age to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court?
A. 30 years
B. 35 years
C. 40 years
D. No minimum age specified
Answer: D. No minimum age specified
Explanation: Article 124 only requires that the person be a citizen of India and have
experience as a judge or an advocate, but it does not specify a minimum age.

74. The retirement age of a Supreme Court judge is:

A. 60 years
B. 62 years
C. 65 years
D. 68 years
Answer: C. 65 years
Explanation: Article 124(2) states that a Supreme Court judge shall hold office until the age
of 65.

75. The power of judicial review in India is derived from:

A. Article 13 and Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Article 143
D. Article 21
Answer: A. Article 13 and Article 32
Explanation: Article 13 declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights as void, while
Article 32 enables enforcement of these rights.

76. The concept of 'Basic Structure Doctrine' was laid down in:
A. Golaknath Case
B. Minerva Mills Case
C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
D. A.K. Gopalan Case
Answer: C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
Explanation: In 1973, the SC held that Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the
Constitution (e.g., secularism, federalism, rule of law).

77. Who has the final authority to interpret the Constitution?

A. Parliament
B. President
C. Supreme Court
D. Law Commission
Answer: C. Supreme Court
Explanation: The SC is the final interpreter of the Constitution (Article 141).
78. Which Article empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs?
A. Article 32
B. Article 226
C. Article 14
D. Article 245
Answer: A. Article 32
Explanation: Article 32 gives the SC power to issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights.

79. Which of the following writs means "to be informed of what is going on"?
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Certiorari
C. Quo Warranto
D. Mandamus
Answer: B. Certiorari
Explanation: Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court to transfer a case or to
quash an order.

80. The first Chief Justice of India was:

A. H.J. Kania
B. B.K. Mukherjea
C. M. Patanjali Sastri
D. Mehr Chand Mahajan
Answer: A. H.J. Kania
Explanation: Justice Harilal J. Kania was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(1950–1951).

81. What is the maximum number of judges (including the CJI) in the Supreme Court
as of 2024?
A. 25
B. 31
C. 34
D. 40
Answer: C. 34
Explanation: The strength was increased to 34 by the Supreme Court (Number of Judges)
Amendment Act, 2019.

82. Which Article provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
A. Article 136
B. Article 131
C. Article 132
D. Article 133
Answer: B. Article 131
Explanation: Article 131 gives SC exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the
Centre and states.

83. Who can remove a judge of the Supreme Court?

A. President after parliamentary procedure
B. Chief Justice
C. Prime Minister
D. Council of Ministers
Answer: A. President after parliamentary procedure
Explanation: Judges are removed by the President after impeachment by both Houses of
Parliament on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity (Article 124).

84. The Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was first introduced in India by:
A. Justice Bhagwati
B. Justice Chandrachud
C. Justice Kania
D. Justice Hidayatullah
Answer: A. Justice Bhagwati
Explanation: Justice P.N. Bhagwati is known for expanding the scope of Article 32 and
introducing PILs for social justice.

85. In which case did the SC reaffirm that the Basic Structure cannot be altered?
A. A.K. Gopalan case
B. Shankari Prasad case
C. Minerva Mills case
D. Golaknath case
Answer: C. Minerva Mills case
Explanation: In 1980, the SC reaffirmed that Parliament’s power to amend is limited by the
Basic Structure doctrine.

86. The writ of Quo Warranto is issued when:

A. A person is detained unlawfully
B. A public official is acting without legal authority
C. A court wants to examine a lower court decision
D. The government is overstepping its budget
Answer: B. A public official is acting without legal authority
Explanation: Quo Warranto means “by what authority” and is issued against illegal
appointments.

87. Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be:
A. Binding only on lower courts
B. Binding only on the High Courts
C. Binding on all courts in India
D. Advisory in nature
Answer: C. Binding on all courts in India
Explanation: Article 141 ensures uniform interpretation of law across all Indian courts.

88. The principle of judicial review is applicable in India because of the ruling in which
case?
A. Maneka Gandhi case
B. Golaknath case
C. Marbury v. Madison
D. Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer: D. Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation: In this 1973 landmark case, the SC upheld judicial review as part of the basic
structure.

89. The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is mentioned in:

A. Article 132
B. Article 143
C. Article 142
D. Article 144
Answer: B. Article 143
Explanation: Article 143 allows the President to refer any question of law to the Supreme
Court for its opinion.

90. Judicial activism in India refers to:

A. Judges rewriting the Constitution
B. Judges influencing elections
C. Judges actively interpreting the Constitution to ensure justice
D. Judges overruling Parliament
Answer: C. Judges actively interpreting the Constitution to ensure justice
Explanation: Judicial activism is a proactive approach by the judiciary to expand the scope
of rights and ensure social justice.

91. India is described as a “Union of States” in:

A. Preamble
B. Article 1
C. Article 3
D. Article 370
Answer: B. Article 1
Explanation: Article 1 of the Indian Constitution declares that “India, that is Bharat, shall be
a Union of States.”

92. The division of powers between Centre and States is detailed in:
A. Schedule IV
B. Schedule VI
C. Schedule VII
D. Schedule V
Answer: C. Schedule VII
Explanation: Schedule VII contains three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List
(Articles 245–254).

93. Which of the following features indicates that India has a federal system?
A. Single citizenship
B. Written Constitution
C. Single judiciary
D. Unitary emergency provisions
Answer: B. Written Constitution
Explanation: A written and rigid Constitution is a feature of federalism. However, India has
unitary features as well.
94. Which Article allows the Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List in
national interest?
A. Article 249
B. Article 250
C. Article 252
D. Article 254
Answer: A. Article 249
Explanation: Article 249 allows Parliament to make laws on a State List item if the Rajya
Sabha passes a resolution supported by two-thirds members.

95. Which Article empowers the President to impose President’s Rule in a state?
A. Article 352
B. Article 355
C. Article 356
D. Article 360
Answer: C. Article 356
Explanation: Article 356 allows the President to impose President’s Rule if there is a
breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.

96. Which Article deals with Financial Emergency?

A. Article 360
B. Article 356
C. Article 352
D. Article 365
Answer: A. Article 360
Explanation: Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a financial emergency if
financial stability is threatened.
97. During National Emergency, the term of Lok Sabha can be extended by:
A. 1 year at a time
B. 6 months at a time
C. 5 years at a time
D. Cannot be extended
Answer: A. 1 year at a time
Explanation: As per Article 83(2), the term of Lok Sabha can be extended by one year at a
time during a National Emergency.

98. The proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 must be approved by Parliament
within:
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Answer: A. 1 month
Explanation: The proclamation under Article 352 must be approved by both Houses within
one month.

99. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of
Scheduled Areas and Tribes?
A. Fifth Schedule
B. Sixth Schedule
C. Seventh Schedule
D. Eighth Schedule
Answer: A. Fifth Schedule
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas and Tribes in states other than
the Northeast.
100. The Sixth Schedule relates to:
A. Panchayati Raj in rural areas
B. Language policy
C. Administration of tribal areas in Northeast
D. Financial relations between Centre and States
Answer: C. Administration of tribal areas in Northeast
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule deals with autonomous district councils in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

101. Who decides whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill?

A. President
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister
Answer: B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: Article 110(3) states that the decision of the Speaker on whether a Bill is a
Money Bill is final.

102. Under which emergency can Fundamental Rights be suspended?

A. Financial Emergency
B. President’s Rule
C. National Emergency
D. None
Answer: C. National Emergency
Explanation: Article 359 allows suspension of enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a
National Emergency.

103. President’s Rule in a state can initially be imposed for:

A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: A. 6 months
Explanation: Article 356 provides for the imposition of President’s Rule for 6 months,
extendable up to 3 years with conditions.

104. The Sarkaria Commission was related to:

A. Electoral reforms
B. Centre–State relations
C. Panchayati Raj
D. Judicial reforms
Answer: B. Centre–State relations
Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission (1983) was set up to examine and review Centre–
State relations in India.

105. The Governor can reserve a bill for the President’s consideration under which
Article?
A. Article 200
B. Article 201
C. Article 213
D. Article 214
Answer: A. Article 200
Explanation: Article 200 empowers the Governor to reserve certain state bills for the
President’s assent.

Next Topic (Questions 106–120): Local Self-Government – Panchayati Raj and

Municipalities (73rd & 74th Amendments)
Would you like me to continue with that final section now? Or should I prepare a compiled
PDF or DOC with all 105 MCQs so far?

106. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 relates to:

A. Urban local bodies
B. Panchayati Raj institutions
C. Cooperative societies
D. Administrative tribunals
Answer: B. Panchayati Raj institutions
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment gave constitutional status to rural local bodies
(Panchayats).

107. The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 deals with:

A. State legislatures
B. Urban local bodies
C. Forest governance
D. Emergency powers
Answer: B. Urban local bodies
Explanation: The 74th Amendment provides for constitutionally backed municipalities and
municipal corporations.

108. Which Article was inserted by the 73rd Amendment to provide for Panchayati
Raj?
A. Article 240
B. Article 243
C. Article 250
D. Article 275
Answer: B. Article 243
Explanation: Articles 243 to 243-O were inserted to establish the Panchayati Raj system.
109. Which schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act?
A. Ninth Schedule
B. Eleventh Schedule
C. Tenth Schedule
D. Twelfth Schedule
Answer: B. Eleventh Schedule
Explanation: The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects that Panchayats may manage, e.g.,
education, agriculture, health.

110. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution is related to:

A. State services
B. Emergency provisions
C. Municipalities
D. Governor's powers
Answer: C. Municipalities
Explanation: The 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule, listing 18 functions of
urban local bodies.

111. How many tiers are there in the Panchayati Raj system?
A. Two
B. Four
C. One
D. Three
Answer: D. Three
Explanation: The system is structured in three levels: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti,
and Zila Parishad.
112. The Panchayati Raj system was first recommended by:
A. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
B. Ashok Mehta Committee
C. L.M. Singhvi Committee
D. Sarkaria Commission
Answer: A. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Explanation: In 1957, the Balwantrai Mehta Committee recommended the three-tier
Panchayati Raj model.

113. The minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats is:

A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years
Answer: B. 21 years
Explanation: Article 243F prescribes 21 years as the minimum age for contesting Panchayat
elections.

114. The duration of Panchayats is:

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. Depends on the state
Answer: B. 5 years
Explanation: Article 243E fixes the term of Panchayats at 5 years.

115. Who conducts elections to Panchayati Raj institutions?

A. Election Commission of India
B. State Election Commission
C. President
D. Governor
Answer: B. State Election Commission
Explanation: Article 243K empowers the State Election Commission to conduct local body
elections.

116. Which Constitutional Amendment Act made provisions for reservation of women
in Panchayati Raj?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 73rd Amendment
D. 86th Amendment
Answer: C. 73rd Amendment
Explanation: Article 243D provides for one-third reservation for women in Panchayat seats
and leadership positions.

117. Which Article provides for the establishment of District Planning Committees?
A. Article 243ZD
B. Article 243E
C. Article 244
D. Article 280
Answer: A. Article 243ZD
Explanation: Article 243ZD of the 74th Amendment mandates the formation of District
Planning Committees for integrating rural and urban planning.

118. Which committee focused specifically on strengthening urban governance?

A. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
B. Ashok Mehta Committee
C. H.S. Brahma Committee
D. None of these
Answer: D. None of these
Explanation: While many committees focused on rural governance, the 74th Amendment
addressed urban governance directly.

119. Which level of Panchayati Raj acts as the executive authority at the district level?
A. Gram Panchayat
B. Nyaya Panchayat
C. Zila Parishad
D. Panchayat Samiti
Answer: C. Zila Parishad
Explanation: Zila Parishad is the top-tier body and executes development programs at the
district level.

120. Which part of the Constitution deals with Municipalities?

A. Part IX
B. Part IXA
C. Part X
D. Part XI
Answer: B. Part IXA
Explanation: Part IXA (Articles 243P–243ZG), added by the 74th Amendment, deals with
the structure, powers, and functioning of municipalities.