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FACT and FACT Plus Exam 20 March 2022

Exam Name FACT and FACT Plus Exam 20 March 2022
Test Date 20/03/2022
Test Time : 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject Forensic Biological Sciences FACT Plus
Option shown in green color with a tick icon is the correct answer.

Section : Aptitude in Forensic Sciences

Q.1 Thin layer chromatography is a type of

Ans 1. Absorption Chromatography

2. Ion exchange

3. Adsorption Chromatography

4. Partition chromatography

Question ID : 310578754

Q.2 Statistic is
Ans 1. Unknown

2. Population characteristic

3. Sample characteristic

4. Normally distributed

Question ID : 310578764

Q.3 Proportion turns percentage when multiplied by

Ans 1. 1/10

2. 10

3. 1/100

4. 100

Question ID : 310578762

Q.4 Which of the following techniques is best known for studying Gunshot residue
Ans 1. ATR-FTIR

2. SEM-EDX

3. GC-MS

4. NMR

Question ID : 310578759

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Q.5 Ridge characteristics in fingerprint are called as

Ans 1. Ridge Tracing

2. Galton’s Details

3. Ridge counting

4. Forensic Details

Question ID : 310578752

Q.6 According to the Beer-lambert Law, on which of the following does absorbance not
depend
Ans 1. Colour of the solution

2. Extinction coefficient of the sample

3. Distance that the light has travelled through the sample

4. Solution concentration

Question ID : 310578755

Q.7 The Information Technology Act (also known as ITA) was enacted in
Ans 1. 2000

2. 2002

3. 2003

4. 2001

Question ID : 310578767

Q.8 CDTI stands for

Ans 1. Centre Document Training Institute

2. Centre Detective Training Institute

3. Central Detective Training Institute

4. Central Document Training Institute

Question ID : 310578735

Q.9 Who is known as father of Questioned Document Examination

Ans 1. Alec s. Osborn

2. Arthur S. Osborn

3. Albert S. Osborn

4. Allen S. Osborn

Question ID : 310578733

Q.10 Section 45 in the Indian Evidence Act 1872 defines

Ans 1. Opinions of Police Personal

2. Opinions of eye witness

3. Opinions of expert

4. Opinions of Judge

Question ID : 310578769

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Q.11 The study of Hair is known as

Ans 1. Histology

2. Pathology

3. Trichology

4. Phytology

Question ID : 310578739

Q.12 Who was the first Indian women Golfer to qualify for Tokyo Olympic 2020
Ans 1. P.V. Sindhu

2. Aditi Ashok

3. Sonam Malik

4. Pooja Rani

Question ID : 310578722

Q.13 Which of the following deals with study of insects

Ans 1. Cytogenetic

2. Anthropology

3. Entomology

4. Ornithology

Question ID : 310578748

Q.14 BIOS in computer science means

Ans 1. Binary Input Output System

2. Broad Input Output System

3. Board Input Output System

4. Basic Input Output System

Question ID : 310578757

Q.15 On which of the following does the critical value for a Chi-square statistic rely
Ans 1. The number of variables

2. The row totals

3. The degrees of freedom

4. The sum of the frequencies

Question ID : 310578761

Q.16 Ramesh while going to his drives 4 km in South, then moves to left again drives 3 km.
how far he is from his starting point
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 5

4. 6

Question ID : 310578727

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Q.17 Choose the word which is different from the rest

Ans 1. Palace

2. House

3. School

4. Cottage

Question ID : 310578726

Q.18 The person Stas in Stas-Otto methods is

Ans 1. Benzamine Servais Stas

2. Jean Servais Stas

3. Mathew Servais Stas

4. Mike Servais Stas

Question ID : 310578732

Q.19 ILAC operates in accordance with

Ans 1. ISO/IEC 17011

2. ISO/IEC 17013

3. ISO/IEC 17012

4. ISO/IEC 17014

Question ID : 310578745

Q.20 Medullary index in animal hair is

Ans 1. None of these

2. Exactly 0.3

3. More than 0.3

4. Less than 0.3

Question ID : 310578758

Q.21 The “Spiral” search pattern at scene of crime is used

Ans 1. By spinning around a bunch of times and using an “ Oblong” technique

2. By starting at the most inward point and slowly walking in increasing circles.

3. By starting at the most inward point and searching back and forth until the outer
edges are reached
4. By starting at the most outward point and circling in

Question ID : 310578749

Q.22 “A” meets “B” on high roads, shows a gun and demands “B”s bag. “B” in
consequence, surrenders his bag. Here “A” has committed
Ans 1. Robbery

2. Dacoity

3. Extortion

4. Theft

Question ID : 310578768

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Q.23 SARS-CoV-2 stands for

Ans 1. Severe amount respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2

2. Severe ailment respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2

3. Severe aquatic respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2

4. Severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2

Question ID : 310578721

Q.24 Find the missing term: 6, 23, 40, ??, 74

Ans 1. 17

2. 47

3. 67

4. 57

Question ID : 310578728

Q.25 The square of the standard deviation is called

Ans 1. 2nd quartile

2. Harmonic mean

3. Mode

4. Variance

Question ID : 310578766

Q.26 The most repeated value in a data set is called

Ans 1. Mode

2. Median

3. Mean

4. Range

Question ID : 310578763

Q.27 We were not alone in the room. He sat _____ me. There were others there ___________
us.
Ans 1. Be, besides

2. Next, between

3. Besides, beside

4. With, besides

Question ID : 310578724

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Q.28 Which of the followings is not associated with the formal recognition of competence of
a conformity assessment body by NABL
Ans 1. International recognition

2. Time and money efficient

3. Robust Quality Management System

4. Timely promotion of the employees

Question ID : 310578746

Q.29 The headquarter of International Organization for Standardization is situated in

Ans 1. Washington

2. Sydney

3. England

4. Geneva

Question ID : 310578743

Q.30 Identification system based on Anthropometry is known as

Ans 1. Edgeoscopy

2. Diatomology

3. Bertillonage

4. Criminalistics

Question ID : 310578740

Q.31 Pick the odd one out

Ans 1. L

2. K

3. I

4. J

Question ID : 310578730

Q.32 If 20% of an electricity bill is deducted, then Rs. 100 is still to be paid. How much was
the original bill
Ans 1. 150

2. 25

3. 125

4. 75

Question ID : 310578729

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Q.33 4R rule of glass fracture relates to

Ans 1. Rib mark

2. Hackle Mark

3. Concentric fracture

4. Radial fracture

Question ID : 310578738

Q.34 What is the full form of PDF file

Ans 1. Public Document Format

2. Portable Document Format

3. Published Document Format

4. Printed document Format

Question ID : 310578756

Q.35 Which of the followings doesn’t include fire triangle

Ans 1. Smoke

2. Heat

3. Fuel

4. Oxygen

Question ID : 310578751

Q.36 Which of the following CFSLs was established in year 1967

Ans 1. Guwahati

2. Pune

3. Hyderabad

4. Bhopal

Question ID : 310578731

Q.37 What is the position of earth in our solar system

Ans 1. Fourth

2. First

3. Third

4. Second

Question ID : 310578737

Q.38 NCRB stands for

Ans 1. National Criminal Records Bureau

2. News Crime Records Bureau

3. National Crime Records Bureau

4. New Criminal Records Bureau

Question ID : 310578747

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Q.39 What is the “ Fear of Darkness” called

Ans 1. Arachnop

2. Ophidiophobia

3. Nyctophobia

4. Ablutophobia

Question ID : 310578744

Q.40 ABFO stands for

Ans 1. American Bureau of Forensic Odontologists

2. American Bureau of Forensic Orthopedics

3. American Bureau of Forensic Odontology

4. American Board of Forensic Odontology

Question ID : 310578736

Q.41 AFIS stands for

Ans 1. Actual Fingerprint Identification System

2. Automated Fingerprint Identification System

3. Automatic Fingerprint Identification System

4. Algorithm Fingerprint Identification System

Question ID : 310578753

Q.42 Select correct word

Ans 1. Dessiccator

2. Dessicator

3. Desicator

4. Desiccator

Question ID : 310578725

Q.43 Forensic photography of bite marks should be done using

Ans 1. FSL scale

2. ABFO scale

3. FBI scale

4. CBI scale

Question ID : 310578760

Q.44 Who are the beneficiaries of OROP scheme

Ans 1. Sportspersons

2. Armed forces Veterans

3. Bureaucrats

4. Teachers

Question ID : 310578723

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Q.45 The number of times each value appears is called the value’s
Ans 1. Range

2. Frequency

3. Standard Deviation

4. Mode

Question ID : 310578765

Q.46 When in UN day celebrated

Ans 1. June 21

2. October 24

3. June 24

4. October 21

Question ID : 310578741

Q.47 Which scope of accreditation of NABL is not applicable in the Forensic Science
Laboratories
Ans 1. Medicine

2. Chemistry

3. Biology

4. Toxicology

Question ID : 310578742

Q.48 Forensic expert during crime scene visit should not be

Ans 1. Confidential

2. Skilled

3. Babbling

4. Ethical

Question ID : 310578770

Q.49 CFSL Delhi comes under which of the followings

Ans 1. CBI

2. DST

3. DFSS

4. DRDO

Question ID : 310578734

Q.50 When a dead body is found at the scene, the most immediate concern is
Ans 1. Preserving and securing the crime scene

2. Interviewing family members

3. Collection of evidences

4. Identifying the victim

Question ID : 310578750

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Section : Forensic Biological Sciences

Q.51 Which is not a DNA extraction method

Ans 1. Solid phase

2. Organic method

3. ABA Card method

4. Chelax based

Question ID : 310578828

Q.52 Name the scientist(s) who derived reconstruction formulae for stature from dry bones
Ans 1. Rollet (1888)

2. Trotter and Gleser (1952)

3. Karl Pearson (1899)

4. Telkka (1950)

Question ID : 310578783

Q.53 Female pelvis is

Ans 1. Thick

2. Wider and thin

3. V Shaped

4. Heavier

Question ID : 310578836

Q.54 Which is not found in Diatoms

Ans 1. Colpus

2. Chlorophyll

3. Xantophylls

4. Fucoxanthin

Question ID : 310578820

Q.55 The word Anthropolite is related to

Ans 1. Putrefied human body

2. Anatomy of human body

3. Petrified human body

4. Anthroposcopy of human body

Question ID : 310578809

Q.56 Odontoblasts produce

Ans 1. Enamel

2. Dentine

3. Cement

4. Peridental membrane

Question ID : 310578779

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Q.57 What is the shape of nucleus in monocytes?

Ans 1. Kidney shaped

2. Round shape

3. Apple shaped

4. Triangular shape

Question ID : 310578811

Q.58 Multilocus probes are

Ans 1. Short DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at a single point

2. Long DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at a single point

3. Long DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at several points

4. Short DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at several points

Question ID : 310578788

Q.59 Which statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best:

Ans 1. In large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent

2. It is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically

3. Mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency

4. Allele frequency changes over a period of time in a large population

Question ID : 310578808

Q.60 In Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium P represents

Ans 1. Frequency of dominant allele in a population

2. Frequency of Null allele in a population

3. Frequency of recessive allele in a population

4. Frequency of heterozygous genotype in a population

Question ID : 310578777

Q.61 Which of the following subunits of RNA polymerase is solely required for initiation of
transcription?
Ans 1. σ (sigma)

2. α (alpha)

3. β (beta)

4. ω (omega)

Question ID : 310578823

Q.62 Which is related to skull

Ans 1. Arytenoids

2. Pterygoid

3. Scaphoid

4. Coracoids

Question ID : 310578795

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Q.63 Which of them is a part of mt-DNA?

Ans 1. T-loop

2. S-loop

3. Y-loop

4. D-loop

Question ID : 310578807

Q.64 Which is not useful in identification of individual from skeletalized remains

Ans 1. Dentition

2. Tattoos

3. Bone abnormalities

4. Surgical implants

Question ID : 310578785

Q.65 Which is not a component of xylem:

Ans 1. Companion cells

2. Parenchyma

3. Tracheids

4. Vessels

Question ID : 310578787

Q.66 D13S137 and TPOX are

Ans 1. STR markers

2. Type of virus

3. Regions of mitochondria

4. Restriction enzyme

Question ID : 310578774

Q.67 Who discovered radiographic atlas of skeletal development method of hand and wrist
Ans 1. Greulich and Pyle

2. Krogmann and Iscan

3. Tanner and Arheson

4. Thorsan and Hagg

Question ID : 310578778

Q.68 In human beings, growth stops completely at around

Ans 1. 33 years

2. 16 years

3. 23 years

4. 10 years

Question ID : 310578800

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Q.69 Hesitation wound are

Ans 1. Mostly seen on back

2. Deep wound

3. Superficial and parallel

4. Abrasion

Question ID : 310578830

Q.70 One gene one-enzyme theory proposed by

Ans 1. Watson and Crick

2. Carry B Mullis

3. Beadle and Tatum

4. Gregor John Mendel

Question ID : 310578822

Q.71 Hardest tissue in the human body is

Ans 1. Plaque

2. Enamel

3. Dentine

4. Cementum

Question ID : 310578784

Q.72 Which is a fruit fiber

Ans 1. Sisal

2. Mesta

3. Coir

4. Rosella

Question ID : 310578796

Q.73 The DNA fingerprint pattern of a child is

Ans 1. 100% similar to the mother’s DNA profile

2. 50% similar to father’s DNA profile and rest similar to mother’s DNA profile

3. 100% similar to the father’s DNA profile

4. Exactly similar to that of both of the parents

Question ID : 310578798

Q.74 Determination of age for the widest range is possible from

Ans 1. Skeleton

2. Secondary sex characters

3. Morphological characters

4. Tissue examination

Question ID : 310578804

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Q.75 Which of the following codons is the mRNA start codon that initiates translation?
Ans 1. AUG

2. UAG

3. UAA

4. UGA

Question ID : 310578824

Q.76 Which is related to single gene mutation on chromosome 12

Ans 1. Blindness

2. Cataract

3. Phenylketonuria

4. Leprosy

Question ID : 310578832

Q.77 Skin color in human being is an example of

Ans 1. Monogenic inheritance

2. Complementary genes

3. Mendelian inheritance

4. Polygenic inheritance

Question ID : 310578838

Q.78 Which is not the product of Cannabis

Ans 1. Ganja

2. Hasish

3. Charas

4. Cocain

Question ID : 310578825

Q.79 Demirjian method of estimation of age is based on

Ans 1. Fusion of epiphysis with shaft

2. Cranial sutures

3. Developmental stages of teeth

4. All of the these

Question ID : 310578782

Q.80 Number of bone in each limb of a man

Ans 1. 20

2. 22

3. 16

4. 30

Question ID : 310578781

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Q.81 The variation in the restriction DNA fragment lengths between individuals of a species
is called:
Ans 1. RAPD

2. SSR

3. AFLP

4. RFLP

Question ID : 310578803

Q.82 A temporary loss of consciousness is called

Ans 1. Asphyxia

2. Comma

3. Syncope

4. Suffocation

Question ID : 310578772

Q.83 Polydactyly in man is due to

Ans 1. Autosomal dominant allele

2. Autosomal recessive allele

3. Sex linked recessive allele

4. Sex linked dominant allele

Question ID : 310578789

Q.84 Seed plants are of two groups

Ans 1. Fern and Mosses

2. Liverworts and Horse tails

3. Algae and Fungi

4. Angiosperms and Gymnosperms

Question ID : 310578776

Q.85 How many teeth does a human adult normally have?

Ans 1. 28

2. 32

3. 20

4. 24

Question ID : 310578839

Q.86 Voluntary muscles are

Ans 1. Hamstrings

2. Diaphragm

3. Locomotory muscles

4. Heart Muscles

Question ID : 310578812

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Q.87 Component not required for PCR

Ans 1. Taq Polymerase

2. DNA template

3. Alcohol

4. PCR primer

Question ID : 310578829

Q.88 Skeletal maturity in children and young adult is best measured by:
Ans 1. Radiological assessment of leg and pelvis region bone

2. Radiological assessment of hand and wrist bone development

3. Radiological assessment of Lumber vertebrae

4. Radiological assessment of skull

Question ID : 310578793

Q.89 Joint between the Carpal and Metacarpal of thumb is

Ans 1. Hinge joints

2. Pivot joints

3. Saddle joints

4. Gliding joints

Question ID : 310578821

Q.90 A false positive result is best described as one that is given

Ans 1. When substance being tested for is absent

2. When the substance being tested for is present in large amounts

3. When substance being tested for is present in minute quantities

4. By a substance other than that being tested for

Question ID : 310578816

Q.91 Hansen’s disease caused by

Ans 1. Virus

2. Bacteria

3. Protozoa

4. Fungi

Question ID : 310578833

Q.92 Number of bones in human axial skeleton system are

Ans 1. 80

2. 100

3. 120

4. 95

Question ID : 310578814

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Q.93 Which is not a side of a tooth

Ans 1. Distal

2. Ventral

3. Mesial

4. Buccal

Question ID : 310578799

Q.94 Amelogenin gene on X chromosomes is

Ans 1. 6 base pair longer as compare to that of Y chromosomes

2. 8 base pair longer as compare to that of Y chromosomes

3. 6 base pair shorter as compare to that of Y chromosomes

4. 8 base pair shorter as compare to that of Y chromosomes

Question ID : 310578826

Q.95 Type of joint which allow no movement under normal conditions

Ans 1. Synarthrosis

2. Diarthrosis

3. Amphiarthrosis

4. Knee joints

Question ID : 310578817

Q.96 The gravitational settling of blood after death is

Ans 1. Livor mortis

2. Algor mortis

3. Rigor mortis

4. Pallor mortis

Question ID : 310578773

Q.97 Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool

Ans 1. PROSITE

2. PIR

3. PRINT

4. BLAST

Question ID : 310578801

Q.98 Brush burn refers to

Ans 1. Electric burn

2. Lightening burn

3. Pressure abrasion

4. Sliding abrasion

Question ID : 310578786

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Q.99 Cartilage is formed by

Ans 1. Chondrocytes

2. Osteoblasts

3. Chondroblasts

4. Osteocytes

Question ID : 310578792

Q.100 Which of the following white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis?

Ans 1. Neutrophils

2. Lymphocytes

3. Eosinophils

4. Basophils

Question ID : 310578819

Q.101 What is a plasmid DNA?

Ans 1. Small circular in size

2. All of these

3. DNA that replicate in bacteria independently

4. Found in cytoplasm of bacteria

Question ID : 310578827

Q.102 Confirmation of menstrual blood stain is done by the following method:

Ans 1. Restriction enzyme

2. Protein marker

3. Fibrin Degradation Product (FDP)

4. Isoenzyme marker

Question ID : 310578805

Q.103 What does “0” means at the dentist?

Ans 1. Gums are perfect

2. None of these

3. Gums are bleeding

4. Gums are recessed

Question ID : 310578815

Q.104 Which amino acid is present in hair medullar protein that is usually not a component
of proteins?
Ans 1. Glycine

2. Proline

3. Cystine

4. Citrulline

Question ID : 310578806

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Q.105 Specialized sebaceous gland in the eyelids is called

Ans 1. Holocrine gland.

2. Exocrine gland

3. Meibomian gland

4. Pileous gland

Question ID : 310578780

Q.106 The length of Amelogenin Locus in X-Chromosome is:

Ans 1. 110bp

2. 112bp

3. 114bp

4. 106bp

Question ID : 310578810

Q.107 DNA denaturation can be monitored by

Ans 1. UV absorbance

2. PCR

3. Sequencing

4. PAGE

Question ID : 310578797

Q.108 How are the primer dimers are determined in a PCR reaction
Ans 1. Adding high amount of sample in the reaction

2. Adding high amount of primer in the reaction

3. Compare reaction with negative control

4. Increasing number of PCR cycle

Question ID : 310578775

Q.109 Fossa refers to

Ans 1. A narrow ridge

2. Depression on bony surface

3. Broader ridge

4. Pointed process

Question ID : 310578771

Q.110 Colchicine arrests mitosis at

Ans 1. Prophase

2. Telophase

3. Metaphase

4. Anaphase

Question ID : 310578802

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Q.111 Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for

Ans 1. Leprosy

2. Influenza

3. Cancer

4. Stroke

Question ID : 310578835

Q.112 How many STR loci were included by FBI in 1997 to constitute CODIS
Ans 1. 13

2. 16

3. 23

4. 26

Question ID : 310578791

Q.113 The most famous criminal case of bite mark conviction is of

Ans 1. Jeff Thomson

2. Ted Bundy

3. Mohd Ali

4. Wilkinson

Question ID : 310578840

Q.114 Animal fibre Mohair is obtained from

Ans 1. Camel

2. Pig

3. Sheep

4. Goat

Question ID : 310578834

Q.115 Rh factor found on the surface of RBCs is a

Ans 1. Protein

2. Amino acid

3. RNA

4. Glucose

Question ID : 310578794

Q.116 Which is not a potential source of DNA for forensic analysis

Ans 1. Red blood cells

2. Muscle tissue

3. Hair root

4. Epithelial cells in urine

Question ID : 310578790

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Q.117 Primary transmission line of the nervous system are

Ans 1. Axons

2. Neurons

3. Dendrite

4. Node of Ranvier

Question ID : 310578813

Q.118 Name the cell that receives antigen presented by MHC molecule.
Ans 1. B-cells

2. T-cells

3. Nk cells

4. Macrophages

Question ID : 310578818

Q.119 Genotope and phenotype were created by

Ans 1. Sutton and Boveri

2. Bateson

3. Jhonnson

4. Puneet

Question ID : 310578831

Q.120 Desiccation dead body leads to

Ans 1. Myiasis

2. Putrification

3. Mummification

4. Skeletization

Question ID : 310578837

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