13-08-2025

2321CMD303034250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

2) The equation of a wave is given by :

where ω is angular velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimension of K is

(1) [LT]
(2) [T]
(3) [T–1]
(4) [T2]

3) The function f is given by f = Asinαx + Bcosβt, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

4) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,

are:-

(1) MT–2
(2) M2LT–3
(3) ML3T–1
(4) LT–3

5) The equation of alternating current is I = I0 where t is time, then the dimensions of 'α' is:-

(1) [M L T–1]
0
(2) [M L T]
0 0
(3) [M L T]
(4) None of these

6)

A physical quantity A is related to 4 observations a, b, c and d as follows. A = . The percentage

error of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 2% respectively. What is the percentage
error in the quantity A.

(1) 12%
(2) 7%
(3) 5%
(4) 14%

7) A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillates with a period proportional of PadbEc where
P is the static pressure, d is the density of water and E is the energy of explosion. Then a, b and c
are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1, 1, 1

8) For the pitch of a screw gauge 0.1 cm and 200 divisions on circular scale. The least count will be
:-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

9) The mass 'm' of the heaviest stone which can be displaced by flowing river water depends on the
velocity 'v' of flow of water, density 'ρ' of water and acceleration due to gravity 'g'. If mass 'm' of the
stone is directly proportional to nth power of velocity of flow, then what is the value of 'n' :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

10) The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are:-

(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5
(4) 5, 5, 2

11) Two full turns of the circular scale of screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale.
The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge
has a zero error of –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main
scale reading of 3 mm and the 35th division of circular scale coincides with the reference line of main
scale. The diameter of the wire is :

(1) 3.38 mm
(2) 3.32 mm
(3) 3.73 mm
(4) 3.67 mm

12) In each of the following expressions A,B and C represent lengths

I. A + B II. AB III. IV.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) One of them has dimensions of volume

(2) One of them has dimensions of area
(3) Two of them have dimensions of length
(4) One of them is dimensionless

13) Find out true value in above vernier callipers observation.

1 main scale division = 1mm

Least count = 0.1 mm
Zero error = 0.2 mm
(1) 6.5 mm
(2) 6.7 mm
(3) 6.3 mm
(4) 7.5 mm

14) If error in measuring diameter of a circle is 4%, the error in circumference of the circle would be
:-

(1) 2%
(2) 8%
(3) 4%
(4) 1%

15) Which of the following is incorrect statement

(1) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct
(2) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct
(4) A dimensionally incorrect equation is incorrect

16) Force F = at + bt2, where t is times what are dimensions of a & b :-

(1) [MLT–3] & [ML2T4]

(2) [MLT–3] & [MLT–4]
0
(3) [MLT–1] & [MLT ]
(4) [MLT–4] & [MLT1]

17) Two resistors of resistances R1 = (300 3) Ω and R2 = (500 4) Ω are connected in series. The
equivalent resistance of the series combination is:-

(1) (800 1) Ω
(2) (800 7) Ω
(3) (200 7) Ω
(4) (200 1) Ω

18) Suppose refractive index m is given as :-

m=A+
where A and B are constants and λ is wavelength, then dimensions of B are same as that of

(1) wavelength
(2) volume
(3) pressure
(4) area

19) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P
of the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is:-

(1) 0,1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

20) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-
(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction
(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

21) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 10 km/h. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car-

(1) 60 km/h
(2) 45 km/h
(3) 120 km/h
(4) 180 km/h

22) A person walks 80 m east, then turns right through angle 143o walks further 50 m and stops. His
position relative to the starting point is

(1) 50 m, 53o east of south

(2) 50 m, 53o south of east
(3) 30 m, 37o south of east
(4) 30 m, 53o south of east

23) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

24) If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t2) m/s, then the average acceleration of the particle
between 2s and 5s is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 14 m/s2

25) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t
(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

26) Which of the following is always correct :-

(1) Magnitude of displacment is equal to the distance covered by particle

(2) Magnitude of average velocity is equal to the average speed
(3) Magnitude of instantaneous velocity will be equal to instantaneous speed
(4) None of these

27) Which of the following options is correct for the object having a straight line motion represented

by the following graph :-

The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O to A and then it moves with
(1)
constant velocity.
(2) Velocity of the object increases uniformly
(3) Average velocity is zero
(4) The graph shown is impossible

28) The velocity time graph of a car moving along a straight road is shown in figure. The average

velocity of car in first 10 second is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

29) Starting from rest, the acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t–1). The velocity of the particle at t=5
s is:-

(1) 15 m/s
(2) 25 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) None of these
30) A particle starts from rests and travels a distance S with uniform acceleration, then it travels a
distance 2S with uniform speed, finally it travels a distance 3S with uniform retardation and comes
to rest. If the complete motion of the particle is a straight line then the ratio of its average velocity
to maximum velocity is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The displacement of the particle varies with time according to the relation x = . Then
the velocity of the particle is :

(1) k(e–bt)

(2)

(3) kbe–bt
(4) None of these

32) The distance travelled by a particle is directly proportional to t1/2, where t = time elapsed. What
is the nature of motion ?

(1) Increasing positive acceleration

(2) Decreasing positive acceleration
(3) Increasing retardation
(4) Decreasing retardation

33) The acceleration of a particle moving in a straight line varies with its displacement as a = 2S +
1. Velocity of the particle is zero at zero displacement. Find the relation between velocity and
displacement :-

(1) v = S(S + 1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

34) A car starts from rest travelling with constant acceleration. If distance covered by it in 10th
second of its journey is 19m, what will be the acceleration of car ?

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

35) A bullet moving with a velocity of 200 cm/s penetrates a wooden block and comes to rest after
traversing 4 cm inside it. What velocity is needed for travelling of 9 cm in same block ?

(1) 100 cm/s

(2) 136.2 cm/s
(3) 300 cm/s
(4) 250 cm/s

36) The engine of a train which is moving with constant acceleration passes an electric pole with a
velocity 'u' and the last compartment of the train crosses the same pole with a velocity v. Then find
the velocity with which the mid-point of the train passes the pole.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Two cars A and B at rest at same point initially. If A starts with uniform velocity of 40 m/sec and
B starts in the same direction with constant acceleration of 4m/s2, then B will catch A after how
much time :-

(1) 10 sec
(2) 20 sec
(3) 30 sec
(4) 35 sec

38) A balloon starts rising from rest with an accn of 1.5 m/s2. After 20 sec a man released a ball from
it. Calculate displacement of ball after 3 sec of releasing (t = 0 at the time of releasing) it :-

(1) 30 m downward
(2) 30 m upward
(3) 45 m downward
(4) 45 m upward

39) A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1 to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t2
when lift is moving up with constant acceleration, then :-

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t2 > t1
(4) None of these

40) A very large number of balls are thrown vertically upwards in quick succession in such a way
that the next ball is thrown when the previous one is at the maximum height. If the maximum height
is 5 m, the nubmer of ball thrown per minute is (take g = 10 ms–2) :

(1) 120
(2) 80
(3) 60
(4) 40

41) A ball released from a great height falls freely towards earth. Another body is released from the
same height exactly one second later. The separation between the two bodies after two second the
release of the second body is :-

(1) 15 m
(2) 35 m
(3) 25 m
(4) 20 m

42) Drops of a liquid are falling from the top of a building of height 20 m at a regular time interval
such that when 1st drop reaches the ground, third is about to fall, then find the time interval
between two liquid drops :-

(1)
second
(2) 1 second
(3) 2 second

(4)
second

43) A body is projected vertically upward from the ground, then the velocity time graph is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44) For the velocity-time graph shown in figure below the distance covered by the body in last two
seconds of its motion is what fraction of the total distance covered by it in seven seconds :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A particle is moving with velocity v = 4t3 + 3 t2 – 1 m/s. The displacement of particle in time t = 1
s to t = 2 s will be :-

(1) 21 m
(2) 17 m
(3) 13 m
(4) 9 m

CHEMISTRY

1) The energy of wavelength (8000 Å) equals to E1 and energy of wavelength (16000 Å) equals to E2.
Than determine the ratio of E1 & E2 ?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 8 : 1

2)

The number of radial node of 3s and 2p are respectively:-

(1) 2, 0
(2) 0, 2
(3) 1, 2
(4) 2, 1

3)

According to Bohr's theory, the angular momentum for an electron of 5th orbit is :

(1)
5

(2)
2.5

(3)
5

(4)
25

4) Which of the following statements is incorrect for cathode rays?

(1) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

Their e/m ratio does not depend on the gas in the discharge tube used to produce the anode
(2)
rays.
(3) The e/m ratio of cathode rays is not constant.
(4) They are produced from cathode plate as well as from gas in the discharge tube.

5) Particle of charge 10e is placed in potential of 10 volt. Calculate K.E.

(1) 10 eV
(2) 100 eV
(3) 10 Joule
(4) 100 Joule

6) Correct order of wavelengths is :-

(1) Radio waves > Microwaves > I.R. waves

(2) I.R. waves > Microwaves > Radio waves
(3) Microwaves > Radiowaves > I.R. waves
(4) Microwaves > I.R. waves > Radio waves

7) A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm. Calculate the no. of photons
emitted per second by the bulb :-

(1) 1020
(2) 1.012 × 1020
(3) 2.012 × 1020
(4) 2.012 × 1022

8) In the following transition which statement is correct ?

(1) E3 → 1 = E3 → 2 + E2 → 1

(2)

(3) ν3 = ν1 + ν2
(4) All of the these

9) Assertion (A) : Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies.
Reason (R) : The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower frequency to higher
frequency with an increase in temperature.

(1) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and B are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

10) Assertion(A): The kinetic energy of the photo electron ejected increases with increases in
intensity of incident light.
Reason(R): Increase in intensity of incident light increases the rate of emission of electron.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct But (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct (R) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong (R) is correct

11) Assertion : Half-filled and fully-filled degenerate orbitals are more stable.
Reason : Extra stability of half-filled and fully filled degenerate orbitals is due to the symmetrical
distribution of electrons and exchange energy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

12) The orbital diagram in which both the the Pauli's and Hund's rule are violated :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) The energy of the orbitals in H-atom increases by :-

(1) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d

(2) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d
(3) 1s = 2s = 2p = 3s = 3p = 3d
(4) 1s < 2s < 3s < 2p < 3d < 3p

14) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0 represents which orbital ?

(1) 3dxy
(2)
(3) 3pz
(4)

15) Which is incorrect graph :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Match the column-I and column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
 Energy can be emitted or absorbed in the form
(A) |Ψ|2 (i)
of packets.

It is impossible to determine simultaneously, the

(B) de-Broglie (ii) exact position and exact momentum (or velocity)
of an electron

The probability of finding an electron at a point

(C) Heisenberg (iii)
within an atom

(D) Plank (iv) Every object in motion has a wave character

(1) (A)-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(3) (A)-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), (D)-(ii)

17) Ernest Rutherford's scattering experiment demonstrated the existence of :

(1) alpha particle

(2) neutron
(3) electron
(4) nucleus

18) For which of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the highest
energy?

n l m s

(1) 3 2 1 +1/2

(2) 4 2 -1 +1/2

(3) 4 1 0 -1/2

(4) 5 0 0 -1/2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) If position and momentum of an electron are determined at a time then value of ΔP obtained is
3Δx. The uncertainity in velocity of electron will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

20) Assertion : It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
Reason : The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

21) For the redox reaction

match the correct coefficients of given species for the BALANCED equation :-

List-I List-II
(Species) (Its coefficient)

(A) (I) 4

(B) SO2 (II) 2

(C) H+ (III) 5

(D) H2O (IV) 1

(V) 6
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(V), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(V), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

22) What is the equivalent weight of NH3 in the given reaction ?

3CuO + 2NH3 → 3Cu + N2 + 3H2O

(1) 17

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Assertion : The decomposition of H2O2 to form water and oxygen is an example of
disproportionation reaction.
Reason : The oxygen of hydrogen peroxide is in –1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero
oxidation sate in O2 and –2 oxidation state in H2O.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

24) Statement-I : Decomposition of calcium carbonate is not a redox reaction.

Statement-II : Decomposition reactions may or may not be redox reactions.

(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

25) Which of the following element can not shows disproportionation reaction?

(1) Cl2
(2) Br2
(3) I2
(4) F2

26) Equivalent weight of I– in the given reaction is, I– → 1/2 I2.

(1) E = M

(2)

(3) E = 2M

(4)

27) Which of the following can act both as an oxidising as well as reducing agent ?

(1) HNO2
(2) KMnO4
(3) H2S
(4) H2SO4

28) Which of the following is strong reductant

(1) KMnO4
(2) K2Cr2O7
(3) H2SO4
(4) H2S

29) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R :
Assertion A : ClO4¯ does not disproportionate.
Reason R : In ClO4¯, chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state that is +7.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

30) Position of 'Hydrogen in P.T.' -

(1) s-block
(2) Separately at TOP
(3) p-block
(4) d-block

31) General outer electronic configuration of d-block elements are :

(1) (n–2)f1–14 (n–1)d0–1 ns2

(2) (n–1)d1–10 ns1–2
(3) (n–1)d1–10 ns2 np1–6
(4) ns2 np1–6

32) Which of following is incorrectly matched :

(1) Transition elements → group 3 to group 11

(2) Lanthanides → atomic number 57 to 71
(3) Actinides → atomic number 90 to 103
(4) Group 18 elements → Noble gasses

33) Which of the following cant be an atomic number of an inert gas :-

(1) 86
(2) 52
(3) 36
(4) 10

34) Electronic configuration of 90Th :-

(1) 5f26d17s1
(2) 5f16d17s2
0
(3) 5f 6d27s2
0
(4) 5f26d 7s2

35) Correct name of atomic number 104 element is/are :-

(1) Un-nil-quadium
(2) Rutherfordium
(3) Ununnilium
(4) Both 1 & 2

36) Correct electronic configuration of atomic number 115 is :-

(1) [Xe] 6s2, 4f14, 5d10, 6p3

(2) [Rn] 7s2, 5f14, 6d10, 7p3
(3) [Rn] 7s2, 5f14, 6d10, 7p1
(4) [Xe] 6s2, 4f14, 5d10, 6p2

37) Assertion : Zn is a transition element.

Reason : Zn and Zn+2 both have completely filled d-orbital in their ground state.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.

38) In which of the following compounds chromium (Cr) shows maximum Oxidation state ?

(1) CrO
(2) Cr2O3
(3) CrO3
(4) K3CrO8

39) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

40) Which of the following order of atomic radius is correct :-

(1) Sc < Y ≈ La
(2) K < Rb ≈ Cs
(3) Ge < Sn > Pb
(4) Ni < Pd ≈ Pt

41) Which of the following order of atomic radius is correct?

(1) Li < Na < K

(2)
(3)
(4) All are correct

42) Oxidation number of Ni in is

(1) +2
(2) +4
(3) 0
(4) +1

43) Which of the following have highest Ionisation energy?

(1) H
(2) He
(3) Li
(4) Na

44) Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element. Which
one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell?

(1) Valence principal quantum number (n)

(2) Nuclear charge (Z)
(3) Nuclear mass
(4) Number of core electrons. (Inner electrons

45) Boh'r Model was unable to explain?

(1) Fine spectrom of Multi electron atom

(2) Zeeman effect
(3) Stark effect
(4) All of these

BOTANY

1) "Chromosomes material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes". This statement

correct for :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

2) A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase :-

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 92
(4) 44

3) In which one of the following options two events of cell cycle are not correctly matched with their
particular phase ?

Events Phase

Centriole duplication in the cytoplasm

(i)
(1) of animal cell S
(ii) DNA replication in nucleus

(i) Splitting of centromere

(2) Movement of centriole toward opposite Anaphase
(ii)
poles of cell

(i) Activity of recombinase enzyme

(3) Crossing over between non sister Pachytene
(ii)
chromatid

(i) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(4) Diakinesis
(ii) Nucleolus disappear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) In which stage of cell division, chromosomal structure is best observed ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

5) What is the significance of mitosis ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms

(2) Cell repair
(3) Restores the nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio
(4) All of these

6) Choose the correct option with respect to cytokinesis in plant :

(1) Cell plate method, Centrifugal

(2) Cell plate method, Centripetal
(3) Cell furrow method, Centrifugal
(4) Cell furrow method, Centripetal
7) A root tip cells has 14 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will the cell have, after splitting of
centromere in mitotic anaphase ?

(1) 14
(2) 28
(3) 7
(4) 21

8) The beginning of diplotene is recognised by :-

(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(2) Pairing of chromosome
(3) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
(4) Formation of synaptonemal complex

9) Following are the events occurs during prophase-I :- (A) Appearance of chiasmata.
(B) Clear visible tetrad. (C) Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
(D) Breakdown of nuclear envelope. Choose the correct sequence of these events from the following
:-

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) C → B → A → D
(3) B → C → D → A
(4) D → C → B → A

10) Crossing over occurs in which phase of meiosis?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

11) If the n = 32 in egg cell of plant then what is possible in metaphase-I of meiosis during
gametogenesis ?

(1) 32 Bivalents, 64 centromere, 128 chromatid

(2) 16 Tetrad, 16 centromere, 128 chromatid
(3) 16 Bivalents, 32 centromere, 128 chromatid
(4) 34 Bivalents, 32 centromere, 128 chromatid

12) Which event is not related with meiosis I ?

(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(2) Crossing over between non sister chromatids
(3) Separation of sister chromatids
(4) Condensation of chromatin
13) Conservation of constant chromosome number in each species is achieved across generation by
:-

(1) Meiosis only

(2) Fertilization only
(3) Meiosis and fertilization
(4) Mitosis

14) During an anaphasic movements of chromosomes, ______ of each chromosome is/are towards the
pole and ____ of the chromosome trails behind :-

(1) Centromere, arms

(2) arms, Centromere
(3) Chromatids, Centromere
(4) DNA, centriole

15) The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis select the option giving correct identification

together with the correct event ?

(1) C-Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.

(2) B-Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
(3) A-Prophase-Chromosomes get fully condensed.
(4) C-Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to from chromosome

16) During prophase each centrosome radiates out microtubules called :

(1) Mitotic apparatus

(2) Spindle apparatus
(3) Asters
(4) Spindle fibres

17) Consider the following statements (a-d) :-

(a) Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes in zygotene
stage of prophase-I
(b) Chiasmata are the X-shaped structures, where crossing over has been occurred, visible in
diplotene stage
(c) In pachytene stage of meiosis-I, homologous chromosomes start pairing together. Such process is
termed as synapsis
(d) In anaphase-II, homologus chromosomes separate while sister chromatids remain associated at
their centromere
How many of the above statements is/are right ?
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three

18) In which stage the chromosomes lose their individuality ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

19) The site where crossing over take place in pachytene :-

(1) Chiasmata
(2) Synaptonemal complex
(3) Recombination nodule
(4) Kinetochore

20) Chemosynthetic bacteria helps in recycling

(1) Only Nitrogen

(2) Nitrogen and phosphorous
(3) Nitrogen, phosphorous and iron
(4) Only sulphur

21) Main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification was not the :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

22) In the five kingdom classification, the kingdom that includes the blue-green algae, bacteria and
archaebacteria is :-

(1) Protista
(2) Animalia
(3) Fungi
(4) Monera

23)
Identify the given diagram.

(1) Cocciform
(2) Rod shape bacteria
(3) Comma Shape Bacteria
(4) Spirillum

24) Majority of bacteria are :-

(1) Autotrophic
(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Holozoic
(4) Chemoheterotrophic

25) Observe the gradation of taxonomic categories and identify the missing categories according to

the statements given below :- (i) x is a group of related species.

(ii) y is a group of related classes.
(iii) x is a group of related families.
(iv) y is a group of related divisions.
(v) y is a group of related families.
The correct options are :-

(1) i and iii

(2) iii and ii
(3) ii, iv and v
(4) i and v

26) Two animals which are the members of the same order must also be the members of the same :

(1) Class
(2) Family
(3) Genus
(4) Species

27) Which of the following set of taxa cover greater number of organisms?

(1) Phylum and family

(2) Family and Order
(3) Class and Phylum
(4) Super Family and Class

28) How many species are known and described?

(1) Between 1.0-1.5 million

(2) Between 1.5-1.6 million
(3) Over 2 million
(4) Between 1.7-1.8 million

29) Systematics differs from taxonomy as the former includes

(1) Identification of organisms

(2) Characterisation of organisms
(3) Nomenclature of organisms
(4) Evolutionary relationship among organisms

30)

Which of the following is a correct name?

(1) Solanum tuberosum Linn

(2) Solanum Tuberosum Linn
(3) Solanum tuberosum Linn
(4) All the above

31) Who of the following is called "The Darwin of the 20th century".

(1) Ernest Mayer

(2) Eichler
(3) Oswald Tippo
(4) Alexander

32) This diagram represents-

(1) Prophase–II
(2) Telophase–I
(3) Prophase–I
(4) Telophase–II

33) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct order & select the correct option from options
given below
(A) Crossing over
(B) Bivalent formation
(C) Centromere division
(D) Condensation of chromatin material initiates
(E) Chromosome condensation completes

(1) A, B, C, D, E
(2) B, A, D, E, C
(3) D, B, A, E, C
(4) D, B, A, C, E

34) Water bloom is generally caused by :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Blue-green algae
(3) Bacteria
(4) Hydrilla

35) Archaebacteria differ from other eubacteria in having :-

(1) Both do not have true nucleus

(2) Composition of cell wall
(3) Composition of cytoplasm
(4) Composition of genetic material

36) Life style in extreme habitats exhibited by :-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae

37) Which of the following have capacity of N2 fixation?

(1) Anabaena
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Nostoc
(4) All of these

38) Find the incorrect statements from the following:- (A) Bacterial structure is very simple but very
complex in behaviour (B) Bacteria show the most extensive metabolic diversity
(C) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs and a few are heterotrophs
(D) Bacterial cell wall is made up of lipoprotein

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only C & D
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only B & C

39) Which of the following is true for Mycoplasma :-

(1) They have cell wall made up of peptidoglycan

(2) They can survive without oxygen
(3) They have nuclear membrane
(4) They are autotrophic

40)
Identify the correct option for above figure

Organism A B Function

Food
(1) Oscillatoria Harmogonia Heterocyst
storage

Mucilagenous
(2) Anabaena Harmogonia N2 fixation
sheath

Mucilagenous
(3) Nostoc Heterocyst N2 fixation
sheath

Mucilagenous
(4) Anabaena Akinete Respiration
sheath
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Statement I : Methanogen are present in gut of several ruminants.

Statement II: Methanogen help in production of methane from dung of ruminants.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
42) Read the following table carefully and select the correct option for a, b, c and d.

Characters Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia

Cell type a Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic

Present
Cell wall b in some
Present Present Absent

Nuclear
membrane
Absent Present Present Present c
Tissue/
Body Tissue/ organ/
organisation
Cellular Cellular d Organ organ
system

a b c d

(1) Prokaryotic Absent Absent Unicellular

(2) Prokaryotic Present Present Loose tissue

(3) Eukaryotic Present Present Multicellular

(4) Eukaryotic Absent Absent Unicellular

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) A germinal cell has 8 chromosomes and 40 pg of DNA content in G1 phase. What will be the
number of tetrad, number of chromatids in metaphase-I.
Also tell the DNA content in Anaphase-II at each cell.

(1) 8 tetrads; 32 chromatids; 20 pg DNA.

(2) 4 tetrads; 16 chromatids; 40 pg DNA.
(3) 8 tetrads; 16 chromatids; 40 pg DNA.
(4) 4 tetrads; 32 chromatids; 20 pg DNA.

44) As we go higher from Species to Kingdom in taxonomic hierarchy the number of common
characters :

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Neither increases nor decreases
(4) Increases in the members of Kingdom Plantae only

45) Which of the following is false for universal rules of nomenclature ?

(1) Biological names are generally in latin

 The first word in a biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes
(2)
the specific epithet.
Both the words in a biological name when handwritten are separately underlined or printed in
(3)
italics.
The first word denoting the genus starts with a small letter and the specific epithet starts with
(4)
capital letter.

ZOOLOGY

1) With regard to enzyme action, this statement is incorrect

(1) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

(2) The substrate binds with the enzyme at its active site
(3) The non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that binding the substrate
Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(4)
malonate.

2) Which of the following compound have heterocyclic ring :

(1) Serine
(2) Palmitic acid
(3) Adenine
(4) Alanine

3) A nucleotide has three chemically distinct components. One is a ......‘A’........ the second is a
......‘B’....... and the third a phosphoric acid or phosphate.

(1) A = nitrogen base, B = hexose sugar

(2) A = heterocyclic compound, B = monosaccharide
(3) A = nucleic acid, B = pentose sugar
(4) A = nitrogen base, B = glucose

4) Primary structure of a protein relates to

(1) α-helical folding of a polypeptide

(2) Association of two polypeptides
(3) The sequence of amino acids
(4) β-pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide

5) Most of the biological activities of proteins are due to :-

(1) Primary configuration

(2) Secondary configuration
(3) Tertiary configuration
(4) Quaternary configuration
6) Which one is an amino acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

How many amino acid in the list given below are sulphur containing?

Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Cystine, Proline, Methionine, Valine, Serine.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

8) In the above
diagram (B) is zwitterionic form of an amino acid (A) and (C) form of amino acid develop respectively
in :-

(1) Acidic and basic medium

(2) Basic and basic medium
(3) Basic and acidic medium
(4) Acidic and neutral medium

9) (i) Transient association with the protein part of conjugated enzyme

(ii) Non protein organic substance
(iii) Usually made up of vitamins
All the above characters are applicable to :-

(1) Apoenzyme
(2) Holoenzyme
(3) Coenzyme
(4) Isoenzyme

10) Represented below is the effect of change in pH on enzyme activity. Which one of the following
conclusions can be made by this diagram ?

Enzyme show its highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH, activity
(1)
declines
(2) With increasing pH, activity increases upto a limit then it become constant
(3) At a particular pH, activity is minimum, both below and above this pH activity increases
(4) Enzyme activity is affected by temperature not by pH so it is completely a hypothetical graph

11) Value of Km–constant (Michaelis–Menten constant) for an enzyme will be :–

(1)
Vmax.

(2)
Vmax.

(3)
Vmax.

(4)
Vmax.

12) Refer the given reaction -

C12H22O11 + H2O 2C6H12O6
Maltose Glucose
Enzyme A used in the reaction belong to which class :-

(1) Dehydrogenase
(2) Transferase
(3) Hydrolases
(4) lyases

13) A polypeptide made up of 5 amino acids. If molecular weight of one amino acid is 120 then what
will be the molecular weight of that polypeptide ?

(1) 480
(2) 426
(3) 462
(4) 528

14)

In following graphical representation A, B and C is:-

(1) A = Potential energy (B) Product (C) Substrate
(2) A = Product (B) substrate (C) Potential energy
(3) A = Potential energy (B) Substrate (C) Product
(4) All of these

15) Given below are the example of few amino acids :

Glutamic acid, Lysine, Valine, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
How many of the above are neutral amino acids ?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

16) How many of compounds given below represent nucleosides (X) and nucleotides (Y).
Adenylic acid, cytidine, AMP, dCTP, Guanosine, dAMP :-

(1) X = 4, Y = 2
(2) X = 3, Y = 3
(3) X = 2, Y = 4
(4) X = 1, Y = 5

17) In animal world, the most abundant protein is____ while in the whole biosphere the most
abundant protein is_____ :-

(1) Antibody, collagen

(2) Collagen, RuBisCo
(3) RuBisCo, collagen
(4) Collagen, oxidase

18) In a double stranded DNA sample, 30 molecules of pentose sugar are present. In this sample
what will be the number of purine N-bases ?

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 6
(4) 20

19) How many of the following are primary metabolites ?

Glucose, Alanine, Morphine, Adenine, Abrin

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

20) Pick out lectin from those given below :-

(1) Gum
(2) Diterpenes
(3) Concanavalin A
(4) Curcumin

21) Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II

(I) Pigments (a) Vinblastin, Curcumin

(II) Alkaloids (b) Abrin, Ricin

(III) Toxins (c) Carotenoids, Anthocyanins

(IV) Drugs (d) Morphine, Codeine

(1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(2) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
(3) I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

22) Which of the following statement regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?

Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an
(1)
inhibitor protein
Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the same active
(2)
site on the enzyme
(3) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can overcome by adding large amount of substrate
(4) Non-competitive inhibitors always bind to the enzyme irreversibly

23) Backbone of DNA is formed by :-

(1) Sugar – N base

(2) Sugar – Phosphate
(3) N base
(4) N base – Sugar

24) Two statements A & B are given. Choose the correct answer related to the statements.
Statement A :- Amino acids are amphoteric in nature
Statement B :- Except glycine all amino acids have two enantiomeric isomers.

(1) Statement A is wrong, statement B is correct.

(2) Both the statements A & B are wrong
(3) Both the statements A & B are correct
(4) Statement A is correct, Statement B is wrong

25) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a–Primary structure
(1)
b–Secondary structure
a–Secondary structure
(2)
b–Primary structure
a–Secondary structure
(3)
b–Tertiary structure
a–Tertiary structure
(4)
b–Quaternary structure

26) The two strands of DNA are held together by :-

(1) Peptide bonds

(2) S–S bonds
(3) Hydrogen bonds
(4) Phosphodiester bonds
27)
The correct names of above amino acids are :-

AA1 AA2 AA3

(1) Glycine Serine Alanine
(2) Alanine Glycine Serine
(3) Serine Glycine Alanine
(4) Serine Alanine Glycine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28)

Match the protein given in Column I with its function given in Column II and choose the right option.

Column - I (Proteins) Column - II (Functions)

A. Collagen I. Glucose transport
B. Trypsin II. Hormone
C. Insulin III. Intercellular ground substance
D. GLUT - 4 IV. Enzyme
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(2) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(3) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

29)

In DNA, uracil is replaced by (compared to RNA)

(1) Thymine
(2) Thiamine
(3) Cytosine
(4) Adenine

30) Alpha helices and beta sheets are example of protein organisation

(1) Quaternary structure

(2) Secondary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Primary structure

31) Two strands of DNA double helix are

(1) Parallel & complementary

(2) Antiparallel & complementary
(3) Parallel & Non-complementary
(4) Antiparallel & Non-complementary

32) The given biomolecules is referred to as :-

(1) Adenosine
(2) Phospholipid
(3) Adenylic acid
(4) Neutral fat

33) D.N.A and R.N.A differ from each other with respect to :-

(1) Nitrogen base only

(2) Sugar only
(3) Nitrogen bases and phosphate
(4) Nitrogen bases and sugars
34) Following amino acid is

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) None

35) A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide is not having :-

(1) Phosphate
(2) Sugar
(3) Nitrogen base
(4) Amino acid

36)

Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the
category mentioned against it ?

(1) Guanine, Adenine — Purines

(2) Adenine, Cytosine — Purines
(3) Thyminc, Uracil — Pyrimidines
(4) Uracil. Cytosine — Pyrimidines

37)

Identify the structural formulae and select correct option.

(A)
(B)

(C)

A B C
Adenylic
(1) Adenine Adenosine
acid
Adenylic
(2) Cytosine Adenosine
acid
(3) Adenosine Adenylic acid Adenine
Adenylic
(4) Uracil Adenosine
acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is :

(1) Permanent and stable

(2) Transient but stable
(3) Permanent but unstable
(4) Transient and unstable

39) Statement I : Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme which
testifies that they play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of the enzyme.
Statement II : The activity of an enzyme is also sensitive to the presence of specific chemicals that
bind to the enzyme.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

40) Statements-A: A protein is a heteropolymer.

Statements-B: It is made up of different types of amino acids.
(1) If both statements A and B are true and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
If both statements A and B are true but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement
(2)
A.
(3) If statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) If both statements A and B are false statements.

41) Read the given statements carefully.

Statement A : All amino acids are essential for the human body as all of them have to be
consumed through our diet / food.
Statement B : Proteins which are obtained through diet are a source of essential amino acids.
Choose the correct option regarding the above given statements.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) only B is false
(4) only A is false

42) Assertion :- Protein is present in true macro-molecular fraction.

Reason :- Molecular weight of protein is more than 800 dalton.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) The hexokinase in the following reaction is kept under which class ?

Glucose + ATP Glucose 6 – Phosphate + ADP

(1) Lyase
(2) Ligase
(3) Isomerase
(4) Transferase

44) In competitive inhibition Vmax & Km are

(1) Constant & increased respectively

(2) Decreased & unchanged respectively
(3) Decreased & increased respectively
(4) Increased & decreased respectively

45) A: Hydrolases are the enzymes which catalyse the hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide and
glycosidic bonds.
B: Lyases functions as ligases.

(1) Both statements A and B are true and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
(2) Both statements A and B are true but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement A.
(3) Statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) Both statements A and B are false statements.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 1 3 4 1 3 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 4 2 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 3 2 3 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 3 3 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 2 4 1 3 4 4 3 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 2 1 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 1 3 2 2 4 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Question Explanation:
We are asked to determine which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same
dimensions. We need to check the dimensional formulas of each pair and compare them.

2. Concept-Based:
The subtopic is Dimensional Analysis. Dimensional analysis helps us understand the
relationship between physical quantities by comparing their dimensions. The dimensions of
physical quantities are expressed in terms of fundamental quantities like mass (M), length (L),
and time (T)

3. Formulas for Dimensional Analysis:

A. Force (F): The dimension of force is given by

B. Power (P): Power is the rate of doing work and its dimension is
C. Torque( ): Torque is the product of force and distance, so its dimension is
D. Energy (E): Energy is the work done, and its dimension is

4. Calculation:
Let's check the dimensions of each pain

A. Option 1 (Force and Power):

B. Force:
C. Power:
D. Not the same dimensions.
E. Option 2 (Torque and Energy):
F. Torque:
G. Energy:
H. Same dimensions.
I. Option 3 (Torque and Power):
J. Torque:
K. Power:
L. Not the same dimensions.
M. Option 4 (Force and Torque):
N. Force:
O. Torque:
P. Not the same dimensions.

Answer:
Option 2: Torque and Energy have the same dimensions .

2) What is asked :
An equation is given & we have to determine the dimension of 'K'
Concept :
Based on Dimensional analysis : Argument of trigonometry function must be dimensionless.

Formula used :
w = T–1 (Angular velocity)
n = L (distance)
v = LT–1 (velocity)

Calculation :

y = A sin

T–1 k = M°L°T°
k = M°L°T
k = [T]

3)

sin(αx) :
0 0 0
[αx] = M L T

Similarly cos(βt) :
0 0 0
[βt] = M L T

⇒ [T–1]

4) and =
⇒

So

5) dimensionless

6)

= 2(1%) + 3(3%) + 1(2%) +

= 14%
7) Time period T = PadbEc
Taking dimensions of each physical quantity,
[T] = [ML–1T–2]a [ML–3]b [ML2T–2|]c
Equating the exponents of M, L and T on both the sides,
Ma+b+cL–a–3b+2cT–2a–2c = T
a+b+c=0
–a –3b + 2c = 0
–2a – 2c = 1
Solving these equations for a, b and c, we get

a=– and

8)

L.C. =

L.C. =

L.C = 0.005 mm

9)

m ∝ vx ρy gz
[m] = [LT–1]x [ML–3]y [LT–2]z
On solving x = 6, y = 1, z = –3

10)

5, 1, 2

11)

L.C. = = mm
Diameter = 3mm + 35 (.01 mm) + 0.03 mm = 3.38 mm

12) [A+B] = [L], [AB] =[L2], =[L]

0

and = [L ]

13) Reading = (6) (1mm) + 5(0.1 mm)

= 6.5 mm
True value = 6.5 mm – zero error
= 6.5 – 0.2
= 6.3 mm

14) Given
for circumference (2pr)
2p → constant

So

15)

Question Asking About:

Identifying the incorrect statement regarding dimension corrections of equations.

Key Concept:
• Dimensional consistency ensures correctness in terms of units but not necessarily
mathematically
• A dimensionally correct equation may still be mathematically wrong.
• A dimensionally incorrect equation is always wrong.

Formula
• If LHS RHS in dimensions → Equation is definitely incorrect.
• If LHS = RHS in dimensions → Equation may or may not be correct.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

• Option 1 (correct) → A dimensionally correct equation may be correct (e.g. s = ).

• Option 2 (correct) → A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect (wrong constants or
missing terms).
• Option 3 (incorrect) → A dimensionally incorrect equation can never be correct.
• Option 4 (correct) → A dimensionally incorrect equation is always incorrect .

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

16) F = at + bt2
Dimension of F = Dimension of at = Dimension of bt2
[MLT–2] = a[T]
& [MLT–2] = b [T2]
∴ a = MLT–3
b = MLT–4

17) The equivalent resistance of series combination is

Rs = R1 + R2 = 300 Ω + 500 Ω = 800 Ω
The error is equivalent resistance is given by
ΔR = (ΔR1 + ΔR2) = (3 + 4)Ω = 7 Ω
Hence, the equivalent resistance along with error is (800 7)Ω.
 18) As m = , hence, m is dimensionless. Thus, each term on the

R.H.S. of given equation should be dimensionless, i.e., is dimensionless, i.e., B should have
dimension of λ2, i.e., cm2, i.e., area.

19) Net displacement of the cyclist is zero, since the initial position coincides with the final
position.
Average speed of the cyclist

= km/min

= km/min

= × 60 km/hr = 21.4 km/hr.

20) Concept: & Explanation

• The displacement-time graph represents how the position of a particle changes with time.
• The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the particle.

A. A positive slope indicates motion in the positive x-direction.

B. A horizontal segment (zero slope) means the particle is at rest.
C. A constant slope corresponds to uniform velocity.
D. A changing slope indicates varying velocity.

Analysis of the Given Graph:

A. From t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin with a positive slope.
B. This indicates that the particle is moving with a constant velocity in the positive x-direction.

B. From t = t0 onwards:

A. The graph becomes a horizontal line (zero slope).

B. This means the particle has stopped moving and is at rest.

Formula used:
The velocity v is the slope of the displacement-time graph:

Where:

A. is the change in displacement.

B. is the change in time.

Calculation:
[Link] t = 0 to t = t0:
 A. The slope of the line is constant.
B. Let the displacement at t = 0 be [Link],

A. The particle moves with this constant velocity until t = t0.

2. For t > t0:

A. The graph is horizontal, so the velocity v = 0 The particle is at rest.

Final Answer:
The correct option is:
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.

21)

Vavg =

=
= 45 km/h

22) AC = 40 m
CB = 30 m
OC = OA – AC = 40 m

= 50 m

, 53° east of south

23)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

24)

vi = 10 + 2(2)2 = 18 m/s
vf = 10 + 2(5)2 = 60 m/s

aav = = 14 m/s2
25) Concept: Velocity is the time derivative of displacement:
Formula :

ν=
Calculation/Explanation :
Given:

Squaring both sides:

Differentiating w.r.t. t:

Since ν = 2t + 6, velocity is a linear function of t.

Final Answer: Option (2): Velocity of the particle varies linearly with t.

26)

For a very short time interval, magnitude of instantaneous velocity will be equal to
instantaneous speed.

27) Slope of s-t graph ⇒ velocity

* Slope is constant from O to A
* Net displacement = 0, therefore average velocity = 0

28)

29)

30)

B. Given Data:

A. Distance traveled with uniform acceleration: S

B. Distance traveled with uniform speed: 2S

C. Distance traveled with uniform retardation: 3S

D. Initial velocity (u) = 0

 E. Final velocity (v) = 0 (comes to rest)

C. Concept:

A. Average Velocity: Total displacement divided by total time.

B. Equations of Motion:

A. v² = u² + 2as (for uniformly accelerated motion)

B. s = ut + (1/2)at² (for uniformly accelerated motion)

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Find the maximum velocity (v_max):

This occurs during the uniform speed phase.

A. Let's denote the time taken for each phase as t1, t2, and t3 respectively.

B. Find the time taken for each phase:

Phase 1 (acceleration):

A. Using s = ut + (1/2)at²:

A. S = 0 * t1 + (1/2) * a * (v_max / a)²

B. S = (1/2) * (v_max)² / a

C. v_max² = 2aS

D. v_max = √(2aS)

B. t1 = v_max / a

C. v_max = 0 + at1

D. v_max = u + at1

E. Phase 2 (uniform speed):

 Distance = Speed * Time

A. 2S = v_max * t2

B. t2 = 2S / v_max

C. Substitute v_max: t2 = 2S / √(2aS) = √(2S/a)

Phase 3 (retardation):

A. Similar to the acceleration phase, but with deceleration

B. t3 = 3√(2S/a)

3. Find the total time (T):

A. T = t1 + t2 + t3

B. T = √(2S/a) + √(2S/a) + 3√(2S/a) = 5√(2S/a)

4. Find the average velocity:

A. Average velocity = Total distance / Total time

B. Total distance = S + 2S + 3S = 6S

C. Average velocity = 6S / (5√(2S/a))

5. Find the ratio of average velocity to maximum velocity:

A. Ratio = (Average velocity) / (Maximum velocity)

B. Ratio = 6S / (5√(2S/a)) / √(2aS)

Ratio = 3/5

6. Final Answer:
The ratio of the average velocity to the maximum velocity is 3/5

31)

u=
 32)

s = kt1/2

As t increases, the retardation decreases.

33) a = 2s + 1

34)

38 = 19a a = 12 m/s2

35)

As v2 = u2 – 2as ⇒ u2 = 2as ( v = 0)

⇒ u2 ∝ s ⇒

⇒ u2 =

36) Question is Asking About:

In this question we have to find the velocity with which the midpoint of the train passes the
pole.

Given Data:
Acceleration of train = constant (say a)
Velocity of engine of train = u
Velocity of last compartment of train = v

Concept:
Equations of motion

Formula:
v2 = u2 + 2as

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Let the length of the train be 'S'

When the train completely passes the pole, the acceleration can be given by
v2 = u2 + 2as

or ..... (1)
Here u → velocity of engine of train (initial velocity)
v → velocity of last compartment of train (final velocity)
s → long in of train
Let the velocity of the midpoint of the train be v'
when passing in rough the pole.
Again applying equation of motion for midpoint
(v')2 = u2 + 2a s'

⇒ (v')2 = (here s' = for midpoint)

⇒ (v')2 =

⇒ (v')2 =

⇒ v' =
​Hence, option (3) is correct.

37)

∵ SA = SB ∴ 40t = 0 + × 4t2
∴ t2 – 20t = 0 ∴ t = 20 sec.

38)

v = u + at
v = 0 + 1.5 (20)
v = 30 m/s

S = 30 (3) – (10) (32)

S = 45 m upward

39)
 Time taken by coin to reach the floor is given by:
h = 1/2gt2

or

In stationary lift, In upward moving lift with constant acceleration a,

g' = g + a

∴
Clearly, g' > g
Thus, t2 < t1 .

40)

H=5=
⇒

time to reach at maximum height =

No of ball thrown per minute = 60

41)

S = S1 – S2 =

S=

42)

3rd drop will start falling at t = 2 sec

hence 2 drops in air in 2 seconds so time interval between two drops will be 1 sec.

43) Question is Asking About:

In this question we have a raw velocity time graph for an object projected vertically upward
from ground.

Concept:
Velocity-time graph for an object under free fall.

Formula:
(1) v = u – gt (for free fall a = –g (acting downwards))
(2) y = Mx + c (straight line equation)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Given:
A body is projected vertically upward, under freefall
Let the initial velocity = μ
final velocity = v
Acceleration due to gravity = –g (– sign is showing the direction)
time = t
∴ v = μ – gt or v = –gt + μ
comparing with y = Mx + c (straight line equation)
We can see that lope M = –g (negative)
Intercept, C = μ
So the correct graph for this condition is-

​Hence, option (2) is correct.

44) distance travelled in last two second

=
Distance in total 7 second

=
= 40 m

45)

= {(2)4 + (2)3 – (2)} – {(1)4 + (1)3 – (1)}

 = 22 – 1 = 21 m

CHEMISTRY

46) =2:1

47)

For 3s radial nodes = n - l - 1

=3-0-1
=2
For 2p radial nodes = n - l - 1
=2-1-1
=0

48) Asking About : Angular momentum

Concept : Bohr's model of atom

Solution/Explanation : We know the angular momentum =

where n = 5

so angular momentum = =
Answer option (2)

49)

e/m ratio of cathode rays is constant because it consist of electron

50) K.E. = Q × V = 10 e × 10 V = 100 eV

51) Question Explanation:

We are to arrange the wavelength of radio waves microwaves and infrared (I.R) waves in the
correct order, from longest to shortest wavelength.

Concept:
electromagnetic spectrum
Analysis → Radio waves (longest wavelength)
• microwaves
• Infrared (I.R) waves (shorter than microwaves)
• Radio waves have the longest wavelengths (ranging from millimeters to kilometers).
• Microwaves are shorter than radio waves but still have relatively long wavelength (ranging
from 1 millimeter to 1 meter).
• Infrared waves have shorter wavelength than microwaves typically ranging from 700
nanometers to 1 millimeter.
Correct option: (1)

52) NCERT Problem 2.7, Pg. # 44

53)

54) Correct explanation. Black body is a perfect absorber and perfect radiator of energy.

55) Conceptual

56)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

57)

Explaining Question:
Find the orbital diagram that breaks both Pauli's Exclusion Principle and Hund's Rule.
Concept:
Pauli's Principle: An orbital can have only two electrons with opposite spins; Hund's Rule:
Electrons fill empty orbitals first with the same spin before pairing.
Solution:
Option 1: Correct
[ ↑↓ ] [ ↑ ] [ ↑] [ ↑]
Spins opposite in pairs, electrons fill singly first.
Option 2: Correct
[ ↑↓ ][ ↑↓ ][ ↑↓ ][ ↑ ]
All orbitals filled properly with opposite spins.
Option 3: Correct
[ ↑↓ ] [ ↑↓ ] [ ↑↓ ] [ ]
All orbitals fully paired with opposite spins.
Option 4: Wrong
[ ↑↑ ] [ ↑↑ ] [ ↑↓ ] [ ]
Two electrons with the same spin in one orbital (Pauli violated) and electrons paired before
filling all orbitals singly (Hund violated).

58) NCERT Pg. # 61

59) 1. Question Explanation

The question asks us to identify the orbital corresponding to the given set of quantum
numbers.
2. Given Data
We are given the following quantum numbers:
 A. n = 3 principal quantum number)
B. ℓ = 1 (azimuthal quantum number)
C. m = 0 magnetic quantum number)

3. Concept

A. Quantum Numbers: These numbers describe the energy and spatial orientation of an
electron in an atom.

n: Represents the principal energy level.

ℓ: Represents the subshell within the energy level (s, p, d, f for ℓ = 0, 1, 2, 3 respectively).
m: Represents the specific orbital within the subshell.
4. Mathematical Calculation

A. n = 3: This indicates that the electron is in the third energy level.

B. ℓ = 1: This indicates that the electron is in the p subshell.
C. m = 0: This indicates that the electron is in the pz orbital.

5. Final Answer
The correct answer is 3. The set of quantum numbers n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0 represents the 3pz orbital.

60) NCERT Theory

61)

A: Question Explanation

Match terms with their quantum mechanical descriptions.

B: Given Data

Column I lists concepts/names, Column II lists descriptions.

C: Concept

A. ∣ψ∣2: Probability density of finding an electron.

B. de-Broglie: Wave nature of matter.

C. Heisenberg: Uncertainty in position and momentum.

D. Planck: Quantization of energy.

D: Calculation

Matching: (A) → (iii) (B) → (iv) (C) → (ii) (D) → (i)

E: Final Answer
 (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i). Correct option: (3)

62)

As per theory

63) Energy of an electron depends upon (n + /) value

More the (n + /) value more will be the energy

64) and

OR

(m.ΔV)2 =

ΔV = =

65)

A: Question Explanation
We are to evaluate the validity of the assertion and the reason, and determine if the reason explains
the assertion.

B: Concept
Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle

C: Reasoning

● Assertion is true: Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle states that it is impossible to

know both the exact position and exact momentum of an electron simultaneously.

● Reason is false: In quantum mechanics, the path of an electron is not clearly

defined—we only describe probability regions (orbitals), not definite paths.

D: Final Answer
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Correct Option: 3
66) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 272, Part-II
Ex. Q. 8.18 (b)

67)

68) H2O2 → H2O + O2

–1 –2 0

69)

Given Data:
Statement I: Decomposition of calcium carbonate is not a redox reaction. Statement II: All
decomposition reactions are non-redox reactions.
Concept:

A. Decomposition Reaction: A reaction where a compound breaks down into two or more
simpler substances.

B. Redox Reaction: A reaction involving changes in oxidation states.

Mathematical Calculation:
Consider the decomposition of calcium carbonate: CaCO3​⟶CaO+CO2​ Oxidation states: Ca
(+2), C (+4), O (-2) remain the same on both sides. Hence, it is not a redox reaction.
Statement II is incorrect because some decomposition reactions are redox reactions. For
example: 2H2​O2​⟶2H2​O+O2​
Final Answer:
Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect.
Correct option is (2).

70)

Oxidation state of fluorine in all its compound is –1

71) NCERT, Pg. # 279

72) Central atom nitrogen (O.N. = +3) present in intermediate oxidation state so it can act as
oxidant as well as reductant.

73)
Kp1 = (2a + 2α')2 × α ×

Kp2 = (2a + 2α')2 × α' ×

74) Question Explanation:

We are given an assertion and a Reason about the behaviour of the perchlorate ion (ClO4) and
need to determine if both are true and whether the reason explains the assertion.

Concept:
Disproportional involves an element undergoing simultaneous oxidation and reduction. An
element canot be oxidized further if its is already in its highest oxidation state, so it cannot
disproportionate.

Solution:
• Assertion (A): does not disproportionate → This is true because Cl in is already in
the +7 oxidation state, which is the maximum for chloride.
• Reason (R): In chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state +7 → This is also true.
• Since Cl cannot be further oxidized from +7 and reduction alone doesn't qualify as
disproportional cannot disproportionate:
The reason directly explains the assertion:
Hence,
Correct option: (1)
Hence,
Correct option: ()

75)

Separately at TOP

76) NCERT Pg#81

77)

Lanthanides ⇒ (At. no. = 58 to 71)

78)

Z of inert gases 2, 10, 18, 36, 54, 86, 118

79)

NCERT XII Pg. # 237

80) NCERT-XI Pg. # 77

81) z = 115 [Group 15]

GEC = ns2 np3

82) Asking for:

Correctness of assetrion (Cd is a transition element) and reason (Cd and cd2+ have filled d-
orbitals).
Concept:
Transition element.
Solution:
Transition elements have incompletely filled d-orbitals in their ground state or common
oxidation states.
Cd is a d- block element and not a trasition element. The assertion is false.
Cd has a filled d-orbital in its ground state and also in its ionic form Cd2+. The reason is also
true.
Cd([Kr] 4d10 5s2) and Cd2+ ([Kr]4d10) have completely filled d-orbitals.
Answer:
Option:2

83)

84) Question Explanation :

question is asking about correct atomic radii of isoelectronic species
Concept : Atomic radii of isoelectronic compounds.
Explanation & Solution :
For isoelectronic species, atomic radius decreases as the nuclear charge (number of protons)
increases, because a stronger positive charge attracts electrons more tightly, pulling them
closer to the nucleus. In the isoelectronic series Na⁺, Mg²⁺, and F⁻, the ionic radii increase in
the order Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F⁻, with Mg²⁺ having the smallest radius due to its higher nuclear
charge and F⁻ having the largest radius due to its lower nuclear charge.

Answer : Option 2

85)

Due to lanthanoid contraction size of 4d 5d series elements

 86) 1. Down the group shell number increases
2. Zeff = Screening
3. Lanthenide contraction

87) CO is nutral

88) He have stable configuration.

89) Mass Does not affect out of shell

90) Fact

BOTANY

91) NCERT (XI) Pg # 164

92) Explanation -
A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase
:-

Solution:

A. During Metaphase in mitosis, the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell. The
number of chromosomes remains the same as in the original cell.

Given that the cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes, during Metaphase, it will still have 42
chromosomes.

Hence,
Correct Answer: (2) 42

93)

Explain Question : This question is asking to find the incorrect match where one or both
events do not occur in the stated phase.

Concept : This question is based on Cell cycle phases: G1, S, G2, M phase

Explanation : Anaphase

(i) Splitting of centromere – Correct

Happens during anaphase of mitosis/meiosis II.

(ii) Movement of centrioles toward opposite poles – Incorrect

This occurs during prophase, not anaphase. During prophase, centrioles move to opposite
poles to set up the spindle apparatus.

Final answer : 2

94) Question Explanation:

In which stage of cell division, chromosomal structure is best observed ?

Solution:
Metaphase is the stage where chromosomes are most condensed and aligned at the metaphase
plate, making them easily visible under a microscope.

Hence,
Correct option: (3) Metaphase

95) NCERT XI Pg. # 167

96)

Module-1, XI pg.# 215

97)

NCERT Pg. No. # 123

98)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 168

99) NCERT Pg. # 168

100) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

101)

NCERT, Pg. # 126

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, 169

103) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 170, Para - 10.5

104)

SOLUTION —
 During the anaphase movement of chromosomes, the centromere of each chromosome faces
towards the pole, while the arms of the chromosome trail behind.

The correct answer is: OPTION(1) Centromere, arms

105) NCERT XI, Page # 166

106) Solution –
Each centrosome during prophase radiates out microtubules called aster.

107) One is right

Only (b) statement is correct

108) NCERT XI, Eng. Pg. # 166, [Topic # 10.2.5]

NCERT XI, िहदी पे ज # 166, [टाॅ िपक # 10.2.5]

109) NCERT XI, Eng. Pg. # 168 [Topic # 10.4.1]

NCERT XI, िहदी पे ज # 168 [टाॅ िपक # 10.4.1]

110)

Solution:

Answer: 3. Nitrogen, phosphorus and iron.

Reason: Chemosynthetic bacteria recycle many minerals, not just one — mainly N, P, Fe.

111)

Whittaker classified organisms based on the following criteria:

A. Cell structure (i)

B. Body organization (ii)
C. Mode of nutrition (iii)
D. Mode of reproduction (iv)
E. Physiological characters (vii)

112)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. Monera

In the Five Kingdom Classification, Monera includes organisms like blue-green algae, bacteria,
and archae bacteria. These are all prokaryotic organisms.

113) NCERT Pg. # 18

114) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 19

115) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 10, fig. 1.1

116) Animals in the same order must belong to the same class because the order is a lower
rank in the hierarchy, nested within the class.

117) The Class and Phylum categories cover a larger number of organisms compared to the
other combinations because they represent broader taxonomic ranks. Class is higher than
Order and Family. Phylum is higher than Class and covers a larger diversity of organisms.

118)

The correct answer is: 4. Between 1.7 - 1.8 million

Explanation: About 1.7 to 1.8 million species of living organisms have been described and
classified so far. This includes species of plants and animals.

119) Ncert Pg No: 6

120)

Allen Module

121)

NCERT Page No. 2

122) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 127

123)

NCERT - XI, Pg. # 126,127

124)

SOLUTION—

Water bloom is generally caused by blue-green algae, also known as cyanobacteria. These
bacteria can rapidly increase in population in aquatic environments, leading to a noticeable
change in water color.

The correct answer is: OPTION(2) blue-green algae

125) NCERT (XI) Pg # 19

126) NCERT XI Page # 18

127)

SOLUTION—

Anabaena, Rhizobium, and Nostoc all have the capacity for nitrogen fixation.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) All of these

128)

NCERT (XI)(E) Page. # 18,19; Para. - 2.1

129)

Explain Question : The question asks you to identify the correct statement about
Mycoplasma.

Concept : This question is based on Mycoplasma.

Solution : The correct answer is 2 – They can survive without oxygen

Explanation: Mycoplasma are the smallest known living cells.
They lack a cell wall, so: Option 1 is wrong – No peptidoglycan wall.
They are anaerobic facultative –
– Can survive without oxygen → Option 2 is correct
They are prokaryotic –
Option 3 is wrong – No nuclear membrane.
They are heterotrophic –
Option 4 is wrong – Not autotrophic.

Final Answer : option (2)

130) NCERT Pg. # 19

131) Explanation :- The question presents two statements about methanogens in ruminants
and asks to determine their correctness.
Concept :- This question is based on This question pertains to the role of methanogens
Solution :- Statement I:
"Methanogens are present in the gut of several ruminants."
Correct.. Methanogens are present in the rumen and are involved in the fermentation process.
 Statement II:
"Methanogens help in the production of methane from the dung of ruminants."
Correct. Methane is produced in the rumen as a product of normal fermentation of feedstuffs.
Answer :- 1

132) NCERT Page No. 11

133) Two chromosomes forms one tetrad or bivalent.

134) NCERT XI Page No. # 8

135)

NCERT XI Page # 4,5

ZOOLOGY

136)

The correct answer is 4: Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition
of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate.
Option 4 is incorrect because malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.
Competitive inhibition can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the substrate
(succinate). Therefore, adding a lot of succinate will reverse the inhibition by malonate.

137)

Question Explanation :
Heterocyclic ring.

Concept :
This question is based on Nucleic acid.

Solution :
Adenine: Adenine is a nitrogenous base that is a component of DNA and RNA.

It contains a purine ring system, which is a type of heterocyclic ring

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Adenine

138)

Question Explanation :
A, B, C - nucleotid.
Concept :
This question is based on Nucleic acid.

Solution :
A = heterocyclic compound
B = monosaccharide (pentose sugar)
Phosphoric acid

Hence,
Option (2) is correct

139) Correct Answer option 3. The sequence of amino acids Explanation/Solution : The
primary structure is simply the linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain,
held together by peptide bonds. It does not involve any folding or interactions.

140)

Correct Answer option 3. Tertiary configuration

Explanation/Solution : The tertiary structure gives the protein its three-dimensional
shape, which is essential for its biological activity, including enzyme function, binding, and
interaction with other molecules.

141)

Question Explanation :
Amino acid

Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

142) Solution/Explanation:

A. Tyrosine: Does not contain sulfur.

B. Phenylalanine: Does not contain sulfur.

C. Cystine: Contains a disulfide bond (S-S) between two cysteine residues, so it contains
 sulfur.

D. Proline: Does not contain sulfur.

E. Methionine: Contains sulfur in its side chain.

F. Valine: Does not contain sulfur.

G. Serine: Does not contain sulfur.

Therefore, the sulfur-containing amino acids in the list are Cystine and Methionine.

The correct answer is option 3 (Two).

143)

Question Explanation :
Diagram - A and C - identify.

Concept :
This question is based on Amino acid.

Solution :
A → Acidic medium
B → Basic medium

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

144)

Question Explanation :
Statement correct for.

Concept :
This question is based on Co-enzyme

Solution :
→ Co-enzyme → non protein organic substances.

→ Made up of vitamins
→ Conjugated enzyme

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Coenzyme

145)

Question Explanation :
Diagram → Representation

Concept :
This question is based on Enzyme

Solution :
→ Enzyme shows it's highest activity at a particular pH, both below and above this pH activity
declines.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

146) Explanation:

Km constant: This was coined by Michaelis and Menten. It is the concentration of substrate

at which rate of reaction attains half of its maximum velocity.

(1/2Vmax ).

The correct answer option 3

147)

Question Explanation :
Reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on Enzyme.

Solution :
Hydrolases enzyme.
↓
Reaction is using water.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Hydrolases

148)

Explaining the Question: One amino acid = 120 molecular weight of polypeptide chain
Concept: Polypeptide chain → Protein

Solution:

→ 1 Amino acid = 120

5 Amino acid = 120 × 5 = 600

approx. → 528
Final Answer: Option_4

149)

Explanation

A. In a reaction coordinate diagram, the vertical axis represents potential energy.

B. The starting point of the reaction represents the reactants (substrate), and the ending
point represents the products.

C. Therefore, the beginning of the reaction will have the substrate, and the end will have
the product.

D. The Y axis is potential energy.

E. Thus, the correct sequence is:

A. A = Potential energy

B. B = Substrate

C. C = Product

Final AnswerThe correct answer is (3) : A = Potential energy (B) Substrate (C)
Product.

150)

Explanation:
The neutral amino acids in the list are Valine, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, and Tryptophan. These
amino acids do not have acidic or basic side chains, so they remain neutral at physiological pH.

Answer: 1 (four neutral amino acids).

151)

Concept

A. Nucleoside: A compound consisting of a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine,

thymine, or uracil) linked to a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose).

B. Nucleotide: A compound consisting of a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and one or more

phosphate groups.

Explanation

A. Nucleosides:

A. Cytidine (cytosine + ribose)

B. Guanosine (guanine + ribose)

B. Nucleotides:

A. Adenylic acid (adenine + ribose + phosphate)

B. AMP (adenosine monophosphate) (adenine + ribose + phosphate)

C. dCTP (deoxycytidine triphosphate) (cytosine + deoxyribose + 3 phosphates)

D. dAMP (deoxyadenosine monophosphate) (adenine + deoxyribose + phosphate)

Therefore, there are 2 nucleosides and 4 nucleotides.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 3. X = 2, Y = 4.

152)

Concept

A. Collagen: The most abundant structural protein in animals.

 B. RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase): The most abundant protein
in the biosphere due to its crucial role in photosynthesis.

Explanation

A. Within the animal world, collagen is the most abundant protein, providing structural
support to tissues.

B. In the entire biosphere, RuBisCO is the most abundant protein, as it is essential for
carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is 2. Collagen, RuBisCo.

153) NCERT Pg. # 151, last para

154)

NCERT Page no. 146

155) NCERT Pg.#146

156)

Concept

A. Pigments: Substances that impart color.

B. Alkaloids: Nitrogen-containing organic compounds with physiological effects.
C. Toxins: Poisonous substances produced by living organisms.
D. Drugs: Substances used to treat or prevent disease.

Explanation

A. (I) Pigments: Carotenoids and anthocyanins are well-known plant pigments. So, I matches
with (c).
B. (II) Alkaloids: Morphine and codeine are alkaloids derived from the opium poppy. So, II
matches with (d).
C. (III) Toxins: Abrin and ricin are potent toxins produced by plants. So, III matches with (b).
D. (IV) Drugs: Vinblastin and curcumin are used as drugs, vinblastin for cancer treatment and
curcumin for its anti-inflammatory properties. So, IV matches with (a).

Final Answer
Therefore, the correct option is 3. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a.

157)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 158

 158)

Concept

A. Nucleotide: Consists of a sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base.

B. DNA backbone: The structural support of the DNA molecule.

Explanation

A. The DNA backbone is formed by alternating sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups linked
together by phosphodiester bonds.
B. The nitrogenous bases project inward from this sugar-phosphate backbone and are not part of
the backbone itself.

Final Answer
The correct answer is 2. Sugar – Phosphate.

159)

Concept:

A. Amphoteric nature of amino acids

B. Chirality and enantiomers

C. Glycine structure

Explanation:

A. Statement A: Amino acids are amphoteric in nature.

A. This statement is correct. Amphoteric substances can act as both acids and bases.
Amino acids have both an amino group (–NH2) and a carboxyl group (–COOH),
allowing them to donate or accept protons depending on the pH of the
environment.

B. Statement B: Except glycine, all amino acids have two enantiomeric isomers.

A. This statement is also correct. Enantiomers are stereoisomers that are non-
superimposable mirror images of each other. This occurs when a carbon atom is
chiral, meaning it is bonded to four different groups.
 B. In amino acids, the alpha carbon is chiral, except in glycine. Glycine has two
hydrogen atoms attached to the alpha carbon, making it achiral. Therefore, it does
not have enantiomers.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Final Answer: 3 Both the statements A & B are correct

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 112

161)

The correct answer is 3: Hydrogen bonds.

Hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases (A-T and G-C) hold the two DNA strands
together.

162) NCERT Pg # 145, Fig.-9.1

163) Question Explanation:

Proteins have diverse functions, including structural suppor, enzymatic activity, hormone
regulation, and transport.

Solution:
III (Intercellular ground substance) (Structural protein in connective tissues)

A. Typsin - IV (Enzyme) (Digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins)

B. Insulin - II (Hormone) (Regulates blood glucose levels)
C. Glut - 2 - I (Glucose transport) (Facilitates glucose uptake into cells)

Hecne,
Correct Option:1

164)

The correct answer is option (1) Thymine.

Solution/Explanation:

A. RNA: Uses uracil (U) as one of its nitrogenous bases.

B. DNA: Uses thymine (T) instead of uracil.

Therefore, uracil in RNA is replaced by thymine in DNA.

Hence, option (1) is correct.

165)

Explaining the Question: Alpha helix and beta sheets

Concept: Protein-Structure and types

Solution:

→ a -helix and b- sheets are example of secondary structure

Final Answer: Option_2

166) Concept :
• Antiparallel : Strands running in opposite directions (one 5' to 3', the other 3' to 5').
• Complementary : Bases on opposite strands pair specifically )A with T, and G with C)

Explanation :
• The two strands of DNA run in opposite direction, meaning they are antiparallel.
• The nitrogenous bases on opposite strands pair in a specific manner (A with T, G with C),
making them complementary.

167)

Explaining the Question: Structure – Identification

Concept: Nucleic Acid

Solution: Aelenylic Acid = Adenine + pentose sugar

↓ + Phosphate group

Nucleiotide
Final Answer: Option_3

168)

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) and RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) differ in two main components:

1 Sugar Difference:

A. DNA contains deoxyribose (lacks an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

B. RNA contains ribose (has an -OH group at the 2' carbon).

2 Nitrogen Base Difference:

A. DNA has Thymine (T).

B. RNA has Uracil (U) instead of Thymine.

The correct answer is:

 1. A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

169)

Solution :
Basic Amino Acids:

A. These amino acids have side chains that contain amino groups (–NH2).
B. These extra amino groups give them a positive charge at neutral pH.
C. Examples: Lysine, Arginine, Histidine.

Final answer (2) : Basic

170)

The correct answer is 1: Phosphate.

A. Nucleoside: Consists of a nitrogenous base linked to a sugar.

B. Nucleotide: Consists of a nitrogenous base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.

171)

Explanation :
Adenine is a purine, but cytosine is a pyrimidine. Remember:

Purines: Adenine (A) and Guanine (G)

Pyrimidines: Cytosine (C), Thymine (T), and Uracil (U)

The wrongly matched pair is 2. Adenine, Cytosine - Purines.

172)

Adenine: Adenine is a purine base. It has a double-ring structure.

A. It is a component of DNA and RNA.

Adenosine: Adenosine is a nucleoside.

A. It consists of adenine linked to a ribose sugar.

Adenylic acid (or Adenosine monophosphate, AMP):

Adenylic acid is a nucleotide.

A. It consists of adenine, ribose sugar, and a phosphate group.

 B. (A) is Adenine, (B) is Adenosine, and (C) is Adenylic acid,
then option (1) is correct.

173)

NCERT Page # 114

174)

Explaining the question :- The question is asking about correct statement for enzyme

Concept :- Enzyme

Solution :- Many enzymes require co-factors (like metal ions or coenzymes) for their activity.
Removing the co-factor often leads to loss of catalytic activity, demonstrating the co-factor's
essential role.

Enzyme activity can be affected by specific chemicals (inhibitors or activators) that bind to the
enzyme, either enhancing or inhibiting its function.

Final Answer :- 3

175) Explanation :- The question is asking about statement and explanation

Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- A protein is a heteropolymer because it is made up of different kinds of monomeric
amino acids. The heteropolymeric nature of proteins is due to the variety of amino acids in
their structure.
Answer :- 1

176)

Concept:

A. Essential amino acids cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained
through diet.

B. Non-essential amino acids can be synthesized by the body.

C. Proteins obtained through diet do provide essential amino acids.

Explanation:

A. Statement A is false — not all amino acids are essential, only 9 out of 20 must come from
food.
 B. Statement B is true — dietary proteins are a source of essential amino acids.

Final Answer: Option 4: Only A is false

177) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- Proteins are macromolecules because they are large, complex polymers made of
amino acids with high molecular weight, typically >10,000 daltons. Even small proteins have
molecular weights much greater than 800 Da. So this statement is correct. Being above 800
Daltons classifies proteins as macromolecules, hence justifying their presence in the acid-
insoluble fraction during biochemical analysis.
Answer :- 1

178)

NCERT Page No.158

179) Module

180)