(c) 0.

5 J​
PHYSICS (d) 2.5 J

Q1. The energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance Q8. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a
10 μF charged to 200 V is:​ potential V. Its plates are then separated to double
(a) 0.2 J​ the initial distance. The new energy stored in the
(b) 0.4 J​ capacitor becomes:​
(c) 2 J​ (a) V²C/4​
(d) 4 J (b) V²C/2​
(c) V²C​
Q2. Two capacitors of capacitance 6 μF and 3 μF (d) 2V²C
are connected in series and a potential difference of
90 V is applied. The potential difference across the 6 Q9. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates
μF capacitor is:​ of a capacitor. Which of the following will increase?​
(a) 30 V​ (a) Capacitance​
(b) 45 V​ (b) Energy stored​
(c) 60 V​ (c) Charge​
(d) 15 V (d) Electric field

Q3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then Q10. The SI unit of permittivity is:​
the plates are pulled apart without disconnecting the (a) F/m​
battery. The energy stored in the capacitor will:​ (b) C/V​
(a) Increase​ (c) V/m​
(b) Decrease​ (d) C/m
(c) Remain the same​
Q11. Two capacitors of 4 μF and 6 μF are connected
(d) First increase then decrease
in parallel. Their equivalent capacitance is:​
Q4. The capacitance of a capacitor does not depend (a) 10 μF​
on:​ (b) 2.4 μF​
(a) Area of the plates​ (c) 0.4 μF​
(b) Distance between plates​ (d) 24 μF
(c) Material between the plates​
Q12. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected
(d) Charge on the plates
across a battery of V volts. The work done by the
Q5. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery in charging the capacitor is:​
battery. If the separation between the plates is (a) ½ CV²​
doubled and the dielectric constant is also doubled, (b) CV²​
the capacitance will:​ (c) 2CV²​
(a) Remain the same​ (d) ¼ CV²
(b) Become half​
Q13. If the plates of a capacitor are moved farther
(c) Double​
apart, the capacitance will:​
(d) Become four times
(a) Increase​
Q6. Three capacitors 2 μF, 4 μF and 6 μF are (b) Decrease​
connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is:​ (c) Remain unchanged​
(a) 12 μF​ (d) First increase then decrease
(b) 1 μF​
Q14. What happens to the energy stored in a
(c) 4 μF​
capacitor when a dielectric slab is introduced
(d) 3 μF
between its plates (battery disconnected)?​
Q7. The potential energy stored in a 5 μF capacitor (a) Increases​
charged to 100 V is:​ (b) Decreases​
(a) 0.025 J​ (c) Remains same​
(b) 0.05 J​ (d) Becomes zero
Q15. A capacitor is connected to a battery. A (c) 8.85 × 10⁻¹¹ F​
dielectric is introduced. What remains unchanged?​ (d) 8.85 × 10⁻¹² F
(a) Capacitance​
(b) Charge​ Q23. A dielectric of dielectric constant 5 is inserted in
(c) Potential difference​ a capacitor and the capacitance becomes 100 μF.
(d) Electric field What was the original capacitance?​
(a) 20 μF​
Q16. The capacitance of a spherical conductor of (b) 500 μF​
radius R is:​ (c) 25 μF​
(a) 4πε₀R​ (d) 200 μF
(b) 2πε₀R​
(c) ε₀/R​ Q24. In a parallel combination of n capacitors of
(d) R/ε₀ equal capacitance C, the equivalent capacitance is:​
(a) C/n​
Q17. If a capacitor of 2 μF is connected across 100 (b) C​
V, the charge stored is:​ (c) nC​
(a) 0.2 C​ (d) n/C
(b) 0.0002 C​
(c) 0.02 C​ Q25. In a series combination of n capacitors of equal
(d) 0.002 C capacitance C, the equivalent capacitance is:​
(a) C/n​
Q18. Two capacitors are connected in parallel and a (b) nC​
voltage V is applied. The energy stored is:​ (c) C​
(a) ½ CV²​ (d) n/C²
(b) V²/2C​
(c) CV²​ Q26. Which of the following quantities is
(d) ½ (C₁ + C₂)V² independent of the charge on a capacitor?​
(a) Energy​
Q19. A parallel plate capacitor has an area A and (b) Capacitance​
separation d. The dielectric constant of the material (c) Voltage​
between the plates is K. The capacitance is:​ (d) Electric field
(a) ε₀A/d​
(b) Kε₀A/d​ Q27. Energy stored in a capacitor can also be
(c) ε₀Kd/A​ written as:​
(d) ε₀A/Kd (a) QV​
(b) Q²/2C​
Q20. When a charged capacitor is disconnected (c) 2QV​
from the battery and a dielectric is inserted, what (d) Q²/C
happens to charge on the plates?​
(a) Increases​ Q28. A 100 μF capacitor is charged to 400 V. Its
(b) Decreases​ stored energy is:​
(c) Remains constant​ (a) 2 J​
(d) Becomes zero (b) 4 J​
(c) 6 J​
Q21. The combination of capacitors that gives the (d) 8 J
highest capacitance is:​
(a) Series​ Q29. A capacitor is fully charged by a 12 V battery.
(b) Parallel​ Then it is connected to an uncharged capacitor of
(c) Mixed​ same capacitance. Final potential difference across
(d) Depends on potential applied both is:​
(a) 6 V​
Q22. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 0.1 (b) 0 V​
m² and separation 1 mm. Its capacitance with air (c) 12 V​
between the plates is approximately:​ (d) 24 V
(a) 8.85 × 10⁻¹³ F​
(b) 8.85 × 10⁻⁹ F​
Q30. The electric field inside a capacitor with plate Q38. Which graph correctly represents the
separation d and potential difference V is:​ relationship between energy and charge in a
(a) Vd​ capacitor?​
(b) V/d​ (a) Linear​
(c) d/V​ (b) Parabolic​
(d) 1/Vd (c) Hyperbolic​
(d) Inverse
Q31. If the area of a parallel plate capacitor is
doubled and separation halved, the new capacitance Q39. When a dielectric is inserted between plates of
becomes:​ a capacitor, the force between the plates:​
(a) 4C​ (a) Increases​
(b) 2C​ (b) Decreases​
(c) C/2​ (c) Remains same​
(d) C/4 (d) Becomes zero

Q32. Work done in charging a capacitor is stored as:​ Q40. A capacitor has 3C, 2C, and C connected in
(a) Magnetic energy​ series. The net capacitance is:​
(b) Kinetic energy​ (a) 6C​
(c) Electric potential energy​ (b) C​
(d) Thermal energy (c) 11C​
(d) 1/2 C
Q33. A capacitor blocks:​
(a) AC​ Q41. Capacitance of Earth is approximately:​
(b) DC​ (a) 100 F​
(c) Both AC and DC​ (b) 1 μF​
(d) Neither AC nor DC (c) 710 μF​
(d) 710 μC
Q34. A capacitor C is connected to a cell of emf E.
Energy drawn from cell is E, energy stored in Q42. A capacitor of 10 μF is charged to 50 V and
capacitor is:​ then disconnected. A dielectric of K = 2 is inserted.
(a) E​ Final energy is:​
(b) 0​ (a) Same​
(c) E/2​ (b) Half​
(d) 2E (c) Double​
(d) Zero
Q35. Which combination of two capacitors can be
used to obtain a net capacitance between C₁ and Q43. In a combination of capacitors, which quantity
C₂?​ always adds up algebraically regardless of
(a) Only parallel​ arrangement?​
(b) Only series​ (a) Voltage​
(c) Either series or parallel​ (b) Energy​
(d) Neither (c) Capacitance in parallel​
(d) Charge in series
Q36. Capacitance of a cylindrical capacitor depends
on:​ Q44. The time constant of an RC circuit is given by:​
(a) Height only​ (a) R/C​
(b) Radius only​ (b) C/R​
(c) Both height and radii​ (c) RC​
(d) Not on dimensions (d) 1/RC

Q37. A capacitor stores 1 C of charge at 1 V. Its Q45. When a capacitor is connected to an AC

capacitance is:​ source, it:​
(a) 1 F​ (a) Blocks current​
(b) 1 μF​ (b) Allows full current​
(c) 1 mF​ (c) Offers capacitive reactance​
(d) 10⁻⁶ F (d) Converts energy into heat
CHEMISTRY (c) Become four times​
(d) Become half
Q46. The unit of rate constant for a second-order
reaction is:​ Q54. For a zero-order reaction, the half-life is directly
(a) mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹​ proportional to:​
(b) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹​ (a) Initial concentration​
(c) s⁻¹​ (b) Rate constant​
(d) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹ (c) Square of concentration​
(d) Reciprocal of concentration
Q47. The rate of a reaction doubles for every 10°C
rise in temperature. If the temperature is increased Q55. The energy barrier that must be overcome for a
from 20°C to 60°C, the rate increases by:​ chemical reaction to occur is known as:​
(a) 2 times​ (a) Threshold energy​
(b) 4 times​ (b) Free energy​
(c) 8 times​ (c) Activation energy​
(d) 16 times (d) Bond energy

Q48. A first-order reaction is 50% complete in 30 Q56. Which of the following is true for a first-order
minutes. The time required for 75% completion is:​ reaction?​
(a) 15 min​ (a) Rate depends on square of concentration​
(b) 30 min​ (b) t₁/₂ increases with concentration​
(c) 60 min​ (c) Rate ∝ [A]​
(d) 90 min (d) t₁/₂ ∝ [A]₀²

Q49. The slope of a straight line in a plot of log[R] vs Q57. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2.
time gives:​ What does it mean?​
(a) Order of reaction​ (a) Rate doubles for every 2°C rise​
(b) Activation energy​ (b) Rate doubles for every 10°C rise​
(c) Rate constant​ (c) Rate halves for every 10°C rise​
(d) -k/2.303 (d) Rate becomes 4 times

Q50. In a zero-order reaction, the rate of reaction Q58. For a reaction A → B, if concentration of A is
depends upon:​ decreased by 1/3 and rate remains the same, the
(a) Concentration of reactants​ order is:​
(b) Time​ (a) 0​
(c) Temperature​ (b) 1​
(d) None of these (c) 2​
(d) Cannot be determined
Q51. The half-life of a first-order reaction is:​
(a) Inversely proportional to concentration​ Q59. For the reaction A + B → Products, rate =
(b) Constant​ k[A][B]². If B is taken in excess, the order becomes:​
(c) Directly proportional to concentration​ (a) 1​
(d) Square of concentration (b) 2​
(c) 3​
Q52. The integrated rate law for a first-order reaction (d) Pseudo-first
is:​
(a) [A] = [A]₀ - kt​ Q60. The dimension of rate constant for a third-order
(b) log[A] = log[A]₀ - kt/2.303​ reaction is:​
(c) [A] = [A]₀ e^(-kt)​ (a) L² mol⁻² s⁻¹​
(d) Both (b) and (c) (b) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹​
(c) s⁻¹​
Q53. A reaction is second-order with respect to A. If (d) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
the concentration of A is doubled, the rate will:​
(a) Remain unchanged​ Q61. The activation energy of a reaction increases
(b) Become double​ when:​
(a) Catalyst is added​
(b) Temperature increases​ Q70. The rate of a zero-order reaction does not
(c) Catalyst is removed​ depend on:​
(d) Concentration increases (a) Concentration​
(b) Time​
Q62. Arrhenius equation is:​ (c) Both (a) and (b)​
(a) k = Ae^(-Ea/RT)​ (d) Temperature
(b) k = Ae^(Ea/RT)​
(c) k = A + Ea/RT​ Q71. Which statement is incorrect about zero-order
(d) k = A - Ea/RT reactions?​
(a) Rate is constant​
Q63. The plot of ln k vs 1/T gives a straight line of (b) Half-life ∝ [A]₀​
slope:​ (c) Rate ∝ [A]​
(a) -Ea​ (d) Graph of [A] vs t is straight line
(b) Ea​
(c) -Ea/R​ Q72. Which graph is a straight line for a
(d) R/Ea second-order reaction?​
(a) log[A] vs t​
Q64. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is (b) 1/[A] vs t​
0.693 min⁻¹. Time required for 99.9% completion is:​ (c) [A] vs t​
(a) 10 min​ (d) None
(b) 7 min​
(c) 5 min​ Q73. Which of the following lowers the activation
(d) 10 t₁/₂ energy?​
(a) Pressure​
Q65. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by:​ (b) Temperature​
(a) Increasing activation energy​ (c) Catalyst​
(b) Decreasing ΔH​ (d) Reactant concentration
(c) Lowering activation energy​
(d) Changing equilibrium Q74. A reaction has Ea = 0. What is the temperature
dependence of rate constant?​
Q66. The activation energy for a reaction is zero. (a) k ∝ 1/T​
Then the rate constant is:​ (b) k ∝ T²​
(a) Dependent on temperature​ (c) k = A​
(b) Independent of temperature​ (d) k → ∞
(c) Zero​
(d) Infinite Q75. The value of rate constant at 300 K is 2 s⁻¹ and
at 310 K is 4 s⁻¹. Activation energy is approximately:​
Q67. The order of a reaction can be determined (a) 48 kJ/mol​
from:​ (b) 24 kJ/mol​
(a) Balanced equation​ (c) 12 kJ/mol​
(b) Stoichiometry​ (d) 96 kJ/mol
(c) Experimental data​
(d) Mechanism Q76. Units of rate constant for zero-order reaction
are:​
Q68. Rate law expression for 2A + B → C is rate = (a) mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹​
k[A]². The order with respect to B is:​ (b) s⁻¹​
(a) 2​ (c) L mol⁻¹ s⁻¹​
(b) 1​ (d) mol² L⁻² s⁻¹
(c) 0​
(d) Cannot be determined Q77. What is the order of reaction if doubling [A]
doubles the rate and doubling [B] quadruples the
Q69. Half-life for a second-order reaction is:​ rate?​
(a) 0.693/k​ (a) 3​
(b) 1/k[A]₀​ (b) 1​
(c) 1/k[A]₀²​ (c) 2​
(d) k[A]₀ (d) 0
Q78. A first-order reaction is 87.5% complete in 60 Q86. A plot of [A] vs t is a straight line. The reaction
minutes. Half-life is:​ is:​
(a) 20 min​ (a) Zero order​
(b) 30 min​ (b) First order​
(c) 40 min​ (c) Second order​
(d) 10 min (d) Third order

Q79. In a first-order reaction, how much time is Q87. A catalyst changes:​

required to complete 75% of reaction?​ (a) ΔH​
(a) t₁/₂​ (b) Activation energy​
(b) 2t₁/₂​ (c) Product formed​
(c) 3t₁/₂​ (d) Reactants
(d) 4t₁/₂
Q88. Rate of reaction is defined as:​
Q80. The value of rate constant doubles when (a) Decrease of reactant per unit time​
temperature is raised from T₁ to T₂. This statement (b) Increase of product per unit time​
follows:​ (c) Either (a) or (b)​
(a) van’t Hoff equation​ (d) Constant
(b) Arrhenius equation​
(c) Henry’s law​ Q89. The reaction with highest Ea will be:​
(d) Boyle’s law (a) Fastest​
(b) Slowest​
Q81. If rate ∝ [A][B]², then doubling A and tripling B (c) Most exothermic​
increases rate by:​ (d) Most endothermic
(a) 6 times​
(b) 9 times​ Q90. Which of the following is not true for a catalyst?​
(c) 18 times​ (a) Alters activation energy​
(d) 12 times (b) Alters enthalpy change​
(c) Speeds up reaction​
Q82. Which of the following is true for a (d) Provides alternate path
pseudo-first-order reaction?​
(a) Only one reactant is present​ BOTANY
(b) Two reactants but one is in large excess​
(c) Rate = k[A][B]​ Q91. The most common type of endosperm
(d) Rate = k[A][B]² development in angiosperms is​
(a) Nuclear​
Q83. The reaction A → B follows first order. The time (b) Cellular​
taken to reduce [A] to ¼ is:​ (c) Helobial​
(a) 2t₁/₂​ (d) Free-central
(b) 4t₁/₂​
(c) t₁/₂​ Q92. In nuclear type of endosperm, cell wall
(d) 3t₁/₂ formation occurs​
(a) After each nuclear division​
Q84. Activation energy is the:​ (b) After all nuclear divisions​
(a) Minimum energy required for effective collision​ (c) Along with the first nuclear division​
(b) Average energy of products​ (d) Only in the chalazal end
(c) Enthalpy of reaction​
(d) Energy of catalyst Q93. Helobial type of endosperm is found in​
(a) Monocots​
Q85. Which of the following factors does not affect (b) Dicots​
the rate of reaction?​ (c) Gymnosperms​
(a) Catalyst​ (d) Bryophytes
(b) Pressure​
(c) Temperature​ Q94. The primary endosperm nucleus is formed by
(d) ΔG fusion of​
(a) One male gamete with egg cell​
(b) Two polar nuclei and one male gamete​ Q103. The outer protective covering of monocot root
(c) Two polar nuclei only​ is​
(d) Two male gametes (a) Root cap​
(b) Coleorhiza​
Q95. In angiosperms, the endosperm is​ (c) Calyptra​
(a) Diploid​ (d) Endosperm
(b) Haploid​
(c) Triploid​ Q104. The function of scutellum in monocots is to​
(d) Tetraploid (a) Form roots​
(b) Protect embryo​
Q96. The function of endosperm is to​ (c) Absorb nutrients from endosperm​
(a) Promote seed dispersal​ (d) Convert ovule into seed
(b) Protect embryo​
(c) Nourish the developing embryo​ Q105. Double fertilization leads to formation of​
(d) Convert ovary into fruit (a) Endosperm and zygote​
(b) Two zygotes​
Q97. In coconut, the endosperm is​ (c) Embryo and pollen tube​
(a) Cellular​ (d) Synergids
(b) Helobial​
(c) Partially nuclear and partially cellular​ Q106. The development of embryo from zygote
(d) Entirely nuclear without fertilization is called​
(a) Apomixis​
Q98. Free-nuclear endosperm in coconut is (b) Parthenogenesis​
represented by​ (c) Polyembryony​
(a) Solid white kernel​ (d) Sporogenesis
(b) Liquid endosperm​
(c) Seed coat​ Q107. The ovule after fertilization develops into​
(d) Embryo (a) Seed​
(b) Fruit​
Q99. Which of the following is not a part of (c) Zygote​
post-fertilization event?​ (d) Ovary
(a) Formation of endosperm​
(b) Development of embryo​ Q108. The ovary after fertilization develops into​
(c) Pollination​ (a) Ovule​
(d) Formation of fruit (b) Seed​
(c) Fruit​
Q100. Embryo in a dicot seed is made up of​ (d) Endosperm
(a) Only cotyledons​
(b) Only plumule and radicle​ Q109. In a non-albuminous seed​
(c) Cotyledons and embryonal axis​ (a) Endosperm is used up during embryo
(d) Endosperm and cotyledons development​
(b) Endosperm persists​
Q101. The part of embryonal axis above the (c) Cotyledons are absent​
cotyledons is known as​ (d) Endosperm is triploid and persistent
(a) Epicotyl​
(b) Hypocotyl​ Q110. Albuminous seeds include​
(c) Radicle​ (a) Pea and groundnut​
(d) Plumule (b) Maize and wheat​
(c) Bean and gram​
Q102. In monocot embryo, the structure that covers (d) Mango and mustard
the plumule is called​
(a) Scutellum​ Q111. The hard seed coat is derived from​
(b) Coleoptile​ (a) Integuments​
(c) Coleorhiza​ (b) Nucellus​
(d) Epiblast (c) Funicle​
(d) Endosperm
Q112. The seed is said to be viable when​ Q121. Apomixis is beneficial because it​
(a) It is hard and dry​ (a) Increases seed viability​
(b) It can germinate​ (b) Maintains hybrid characters​
(c) Endosperm is present​ (c) Promotes cross-pollination​
(d) It is non-functional (d) Reduces fruit size

Q113. A true fruit is one which develops from​ Q122. Apomictic seeds are formed without​
(a) Ovary only​ (a) Meiosis and fertilization​
(b) Ovary and other floral parts​ (b) Pollination​
(c) Thalamus​ (c) Double fertilization​
(d) Ovule (d) Seed dispersal

Q114. A parthenocarpic fruit is formed​ Q123. An obligate apomictic plant reproduces

(a) After double fertilization​ through​
(b) Without fertilization​ (a) Sexual reproduction only​
(c) Without pollination​ (b) Only vegetative propagation​
(d) From integuments (c) Only apomixis​
(d) Parthenocarpy
Q115. Which plant hormone is used to produce
parthenocarpic fruits?​ Q124. In some cases, diploid embryo arises from​
(a) ABA​ (a) Antipodals​
(b) Cytokinin​ (b) Synergids​
(c) Auxin​ (c) Nucellar or integumentary cells​
(d) Ethylene (d) Endosperm

Q116. A false fruit is formed from​ Q125. Polyembryony is common in​

(a) Ovary only​ (a) Legumes​
(b) Ovary and other floral parts​ (b) Grasses​
(c) Ovule only​ (c) Gymnosperms​
(d) Style (d) Fungi

Q117. Polyembryony was first reported in​ Q126. Which among the following shows both
(a) Citrus​ apomixis and polyembryony?​
(b) Ginkgo​ (a) Onion​
(c) Mango​ (b) Mango​
(d) Onion (c) Citrus​
(d) Banana
Q118. Polyembryony is​
(a) Formation of more than one embryo in a seed​ Q127. Somatic embryogenesis is a type of​
(b) Fusion of multiple gametes​ (a) Sexual reproduction​
(c) Occurrence of multiple ovules​ (b) Apomixis​
(d) Formation of multiple cotyledons (c) Grafting​
(d) Hybridization
Q119. In Citrus, polyembryony occurs due to​
(a) Cleavage of zygote​ Q128. Adventive embryony is an example of​
(b) Synergid development​ (a) Sexual reproduction​
(c) Nucellar embryo formation​ (b) Vegetative propagation​
(d) Fertilization of antipodal cells (c) Apomixis​
(d) Cleavage polyembryony
Q120. Which of the following is an example of
apomixis?​ Q129. Embryo sac with more than one egg
(a) Onion​ apparatus can lead to​
(b) Pea​ (a) Apomixis​
(c) Citrus​ (b) Polyembryony​
(d) Hibiscus (c) Parthenocarpy​
(d) Gynoecium
Q130. In angiosperms, the outer integument Q138. The acrosome reaction occurs​
contributes to​ (a) In the epididymis​
(a) Endosperm​ (b) During capacitation​
(b) Testa​ (c) On contact with zona pellucida​
(c) Fruit wall​ (d) After fusion with secondary oocyte
(d) Aleurone layer
Q139. Acrosome contains enzymes which help
Q131. A seedless fruit from a diploid plant can arise sperm in​
by​ (a) Penetrating cervix​
(a) Apomixis​ (b) Movement inside uterus​
(b) Hybridization​ (c) Dissolving zona pellucida​
(c) Mutation​ (d) Activating ovum
(d) Vegetative reproduction
Q140. The enzyme hyaluronidase is involved in​
Q132. Which of the following statements about (a) Zona binding​
endosperm is correct?​ (b) Dissolution of follicular cells​
(a) It is diploid and formed before fertilization​ (c) Acrosome cap shedding​
(b) It is triploid and formed after double fertilization​ (d) Sperm motility
(c) It is haploid and nourishes the ovule​
(d) It is formed by fusion of egg and polar nuclei Q141. Which of the following prevents entry of
additional sperms into the egg?​
Q133. Apomixis in crops is useful because it​ (a) Capacitation​
(a) Reduces cost of hybrid seed production​ (b) Fertilizin​
(b) Increases variation​ (c) Cortical reaction​
(c) Helps in producing triploid seeds​ (d) Hyaluronidase
(d) Encourages vegetative propagation
Q142. The fast block to polyspermy occurs by​
Q134. In castor and coconut, endosperm is​ (a) Cortical granule release​
(a) Cellular​ (b) Rapid depolarisation of egg membrane​
(b) Helobial​ (c) Slow release of lysosomal enzymes​
(c) Nuclear​ (d) Hardening of zona
(d) Absent
Q143. The slow block to polyspermy involves​
Q135. Which of the following is a post-fertilization (a) Acrosome activation​
change in a flower?​ (b) Depolarisation of egg​
(a) Microsporogenesis​ (c) Zona hardening and cortical reaction​
(b) Megaspore development​ (d) Binding of more sperms
(c) Endosperm formation​
(d) Pollen germination Q144. Fertilisation in humans usually occurs in the​
(a) Uterus​
(b) Vagina​
ZOOLOGY
(c) Fallopian tube​
Q136. The functional maturation of sperm in the (d) Cervix
female reproductive tract is called​
Q145. The fusion of sperm and egg pronuclei forms​
(a) Acrosome reaction​
(a) Secondary oocyte​
(b) Capacitation​
(b) Embryo​
(c) Spermiogenesis​
(c) Zygote​
(d) Fertilisation
(d) Blastomere
Q137. The purpose of capacitation is to​
Q146. Cleavage refers to​
(a) Trigger meiosis​
(a) Cell differentiation​
(b) Increase motility and prepare sperm for
(b) Series of mitotic divisions in zygote​
acrosome reaction​
(c) Meiotic division in ovary​
(c) Activate ovum​
(d) Ovum activation
(d) Form the blastocyst
Q147. The product of first cleavage of the zygote is​ Q156. The ectoderm develops into​
(a) Morula​ (a) Muscles and bones​
(b) Blastula​ (b) Liver and lungs​
(c) Two blastomeres​ (c) Nervous system and skin​
(d) Gastrula (d) Digestive organs

Q148. Morula consists of​ Q157. The mesoderm gives rise to​
(a) A single large cell​ (a) Skin and hair​
(b) Fluid-filled cavity​ (b) Nervous tissue​
(c) 8–16 blastomeres​ (c) Heart, kidneys, muscles​
(d) Three germ layers (d) Lungs and liver

Q149. The blastocyst implants into​ Q158. Endoderm forms​

(a) Vagina​ (a) Epidermis​
(b) Ovary​ (b) Lining of digestive and respiratory tract​
(c) Endometrium of uterus​ (c) Bones​
(d) Oviduct (d) Brain and spinal cord

Q150. Which part of the blastocyst attaches to the Q159. The organ that connects embryo to the
uterine wall?​ placenta is​
(a) Inner cell mass​ (a) Amnion​
(b) Trophoblast​ (b) Chorion​
(c) Zona pellucida​ (c) Umbilical cord​
(d) Embryoblast (d) Allantois

Q151. Implantation refers to​ Q160. Placenta performs all the following functions
(a) Cleavage of zygote​ except​
(b) Entry of sperm into ovum​ (a) Exchange of gases and nutrients​
(c) Attachment of blastocyst to uterine wall​ (b) Secretion of hCG and estrogens​
(d) Development of placenta (c) Immunity​
(d) Formation of gametes
Q152. Inner cell mass of blastocyst gives rise to​
(a) Trophoblast​ Q161. Which hormone is secreted by placenta to
(b) Placenta​ maintain pregnancy?​
(c) Embryo​ (a) Progesterone​
(d) Uterine wall (b) Oxytocin​
(c) LH​
Q153. Which is the first germ layer to form during (d) GnRH
gastrulation?​
(a) Endoderm​ Q162. hCG maintains the corpus luteum and is
(b) Mesoderm​ detected in​
(c) Ectoderm​ (a) Saliva​
(d) Blastoderm (b) Amniotic fluid​
(c) Blood and urine​
Q154. Gastrulation leads to formation of​ (d) Milk
(a) Two germ layers​
(b) Four germ layers​ Q163. Which hormone peaks just before parturition?​
(c) Three germ layers​ (a) LH​
(d) One germ layer (b) FSH​
(c) Estrogen​
Q155. Which structure forms during gastrulation?​ (d) Oxytocin
(a) Morula​
(b) Blastopore​ Q164. The hormone that stimulates uterine
(c) Zygote​ contractions during parturition is​
(d) Blastomere (a) Oxytocin​
(b) Prolactin​
(c) Relaxin​ (a) Amnion​
(d) Estrogen (b) Chorion​
(c) Embryo​
Q165. Parturition is initiated by​ (d) Inner cell mass
(a) Increased progesterone​
(b) Fetal ejection reflex​ Q174. Amniotic fluid is responsible for​
(c) Oxytocin from embryo​ (a) Nutrition​
(d) Growth of placenta (b) Oxygen supply​
(c) Waste removal​
Q166. Which hormone causes milk ejection?​ (d) Shock absorption and protection
(a) Estrogen​
(b) Prolactin​ Q175. Human pregnancy lasts approximately​
(c) Progesterone​ (a) 180 days​
(d) Oxytocin (b) 210 days​
(c) 280 days​
Q167. Prolactin’s primary role is​ (d) 300 days
(a) Milk ejection​
(b) Milk production​ Q176. Organogenesis starts after​
(c) Ovulation​ (a) Cleavage​
(d) Parturition (b) Blastulation​
(c) Gastrulation​
Q168. The hormone relaxin is produced during (d) Fertilisation
pregnancy to​
(a) Relax uterine muscles​ Q177. The placenta is derived from​
(b) Facilitate implantation​ (a) Maternal uterine tissue​
(c) Soften ligaments of pelvis​ (b) Trophoblast and uterine tissue​
(d) Increase uterine contractions (c) Corpus luteum​
(d) Inner cell mass only
Q169. Colostrum is rich in​
(a) Carbohydrates only​ Q178. Which part of the blastocyst helps in forming
(b) Immunoglobulins and nutrients​ placenta?​
(c) Water only​ (a) Inner cell mass​
(d) Hormones only (b) Trophoblast​
(c) Zona pellucida​
Q170. Which immunoglobulin is present in (d) Epiblast
colostrum?​
(a) IgM​ Q179. The connection between fetus and placenta is
(b) IgG​ established by​
(c) IgA​ (a) Ureter​
(d) IgE (b) Fallopian tube​
(c) Umbilical cord​
Q171. The signal for parturition originates from​ (d) Cervix
(a) Maternal pituitary​
(b) Maternal ovary​ Q180. The final stage of gestation is marked by​
(c) Fully developed fetus and placenta​ (a) Gastrulation​
(d) Uterine wall (b) Implantation​
(c) Lactation​
Q172. Which of the following does not support fetal (d) Parturition
development?​
(a) Placenta​
(b) Amniotic fluid​
(c) Corpus luteum​
(d) Cervix

Q173. Which of the following is formed from

trophoblast?​