17-08-2025

7501CMD303021250024 MD

PHYSICS

1) PQRS is a square loop made of uniform conducting wire. If the current enters the loop at P and

leaves at S, then the magnetic field will be :-

(1) Maximum at the centre of the loop

(2) Zero at the centre of loop
(3) Zero at all points inside the loop
(4) Zero at all points outside of the loop

2) A proton moves along vertical line and towards observer, the pattern of concentric circular field
lines of magnetic field which are produced due to Its motion:

(1) ACW, In horizontal plane

(2) ACW, In vertical plane
(3) CW, In horizontal plane
(4) CW, In vertical plane

3) Find net magnetic field at centre of square.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4) Find net magnetic field at point O.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) At very close point on the axis of a current carrying circular coil (x <<< R) of radius 'R' the value
of magnetic field decrease by a fraction of 5% with respect to centre value. The position 'x' of the
point from the centre of the coil is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a current I in the negative z-direction. The magnetic
field vector at a point having co-ordinates (x,y) on the z = 0 plane is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b
respectively. When a current I passes through the coil, the magnetic field at its centre is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A charge particle projected in limited magnetic field according to figure, the charge particle does

not strikes to the opposite plate provided :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) An electron is moving in south direction and it is deflected in upward direction then direction of
magnetic field present at this place is :-

(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West

10) A uniform conducting wire ABC has a mass of 10 g. A current of 2A flows through it. The wire is
kept in a uniform magnetic field B = 2T. The acceleration of the wire will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) 12 ms–2 along y-axis
(3) 1.2 × 10–3 ms–2 along y-axis
(4) 0.6 × 10–3 ms–2 along y-axis

11) If the given wire is in equilibrium then the value of current in the conductor is (mass of wire is
m, length of ab is ℓ, and current in ab is I)

(1)
from a to b

(2)
b to a

(3)
from a to b

(4)
from a to b

12) A long wire AB is placed on a table. Another wire PQ of mass 1.0 g and length 50 cm is set to
slide on two rails PS and QR. A current of 50A is passed through the wires. At what distance above

AB, will the wire PQ be in equilibrium

(1) 25 mm
(2) 50 mm
(3) 75 mm
(4) 100 mm

13) A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper
and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is :-

(1)

(2) F3 – F1 + F2
(3) F3 – F1 – F2

(4)
14) Match the column :

A B

(a) – 1≤ ฀ < 0 (p) Dia-magnetic

(b) 0<฀<1 (q) Ferromagnetic

(c) ฀>>1 (r) Paramagnetic

(d) μ > μ0
(1) a → p, b → r, c → q, d → q, r
(2) a → p, b → r, c → q, d → p, q
(3) a → p, b → r, c → q, d → p
(4) a → r, b → p, c → q, d → p, r

15) The variation of the intensity of magnetisation (I) with respect to the magnetising field (H) in a

diamagnetic substance is described by the graph.

(1) OD
(2) OC
(3) OB
(4) OA

16) A solenoid has core of a material with relative permeability 500 and its windings carry a current
of 1 A. The number of turns of the solenoid is 500 per metre. The magnetization of the material is
nearly

(1) 2.5 × 103 A m–1

(2) 2.5 × 105 A m–1
(3) 2.0 × 103 A m–1
(4) 2.0 × 105 A m–1

17) Two wires of resistances R1 and R2 have temperatuere coefficient of resistance α1 and α2
respectively. These are joined in series the effective temperature coefficient of resistance is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohm, one can use m rows of n cells in each row in
mixed combination. If the total number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance of a cell is 0.5 ohm
then :-

(1) m = 12, n = 2
(2) n = 3, m = 8
(3) m = 2, n = 12
(4) m = 6, n = 4

19)

Three identical bulbs are connected in series as shown. When switch is closed :-

(1) Both bulbs A and B become dimmer

(2) Both bulbs A and B become brighter
(3) Brightness of bulbs remains unchanged
(4) A becomes brighter and B becomes dimmer

20) The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance is 48 volt as shown in the figure. The value of

potential difference across X and Y points will be:

(1) 160 volt

(2) 128 volt
(3) 80 volt
(4) 62 volt

21) Effective resistance between point A and B for following network is-(each branch has resistance
= R)

(1)

(2)

(3) R

(4)

22) In the circuit of adjoining figure the current through 12Ω resister will be :-

(1) 1 A

(2)
A

(3)
A
(4) 0A

23) n identical cells are joined in series with its two cells A and B in the loop with reversed
polarities. EMF of each cell is E and internal resistance r. Potential difference across cell A or B is:
(Here n > 4)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) The scale of a galvanometer is divided into 150 equal divisions. The galvanometer has the
current sensitivity of 10 divisions per mA and the voltage sensitivity of 2 divisions per mV. How the
galvanometer be designed to read respectively :-
(a) 6 A per division and
(b) 1 V per division ?

(1) 8.3 × 10–5 Ω in parallel, 9995 Ω in series

(2) 6.2 × 10–3 Ω in parallel, 1005 Ω in series
(3) 9995 Ω in parallel, 6.2 × 10–3 Ω in series
(4) 1005 Ω in parallel, 8.3 × 10–5 Ω in series

25) In the circuit shown the current in 4Ω, 8Ω resistances are -

(1) 2.5 A, 0A
(2) 5A, 0A

(3)
2.5A, A

(4)
5A, A

26) The diagram in Fig. shows Resistance of resistors R1 = 8 ohms, R2 = 12 ohms, R3 = 10 ohms, the
potential difference between points a and b is 60 V. The potential difference between points m and n
is:

(1) 16 V
(2) 60 V
(3) 36
(4) 24 V
27) 'Identical dielectric slabs are inserted into two identical capacitors A and B. These capacitors
and a battery are connected as shown in figure. Now the slab of capacitor B is pulled out with
battery remaining connected select correct statements :

(A) During the process positive charge flows from a to b.

(B) Finally charge on capacitor B will be less than that on capacitor A.
(C) During the process, a work is done by the external force F, which appears as heat in the circuit.
(D) During the process, internal energy of the battery increases.

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) A, B and D

28) Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel, charged to a potential V, separated and then,
connected in series, i.e., the positive plate of one is connected to the negative plate of the other.
Then :-

(1) Charges are destroyed when free plates connected together

(2) Charges on the free plates are destroyed
(3) The energy stored in the system increases
(4) The potential difference between the free plates is 0V

29) What is the time constant of the circuit shown ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) In the arrangement shown, all plates have equal area. The amount of spacing between plates

mentioned. Find the equivalent capacitance of the system between A and B if :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A capacitor is charged by a battery and the energy stored is U. The battery is now removed and
the separation distance between the plates is doubled. The energy stored now is :

(1) 2U
(2) U
(3) U/2
(4) 4U

32) In the figure below, what is the potential difference between the point A and B and between B

and C respectively in steady state

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Find the equivalent capacitance of the circuit between point A and B.

(1)

(2)
(3) C

(4)

34) In the given circuit diagram E = 5 volt r = 1 Ω, R2= 4 Ω , R1= R3= 1Ω and C = 3μF. Then the
numerical value of the charge on each plate of the capacitor is :-

(1) 24μC
(2) 12 μC
(3) 6 μC
(4) 3 μC

35) Three plates A,B,C each of area 50 cm2 have separation 3 mm between A and B and 3 mm
between B and C. The energy stored when the plates are fully charged is :-

(1) 1.6 × 10–9 J

(2) 2.1 × 10–9 J
(3) 5 × 10–9 J
(4) 7 × 10–9 J

36) A round uniform body of radius R, mass M and moment of inertia I, rolls down (without slipping)
an inclined plane making an angle θ with the horizontal. Then its acceleration is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A disc is rolling (without slipping0 on a frictionless surface. C is its center and Q and P are two
points equidistant from C. Let VP, VQ and VC be the magnitudes of velocities of points P, Q and C
respectively, then:

(1) VQ > VC > VP

(2) VQ < VC < VP

(3)
VQ = VP, VC =
(4) VQ < VC > VP

38) A cylinder of mass M and radius R starts falling under gravity at t = 0 as shown in figure. If the
mass of cord is negligible, the tension in each string will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Mg

39) One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R. This sector has mass M. It is
made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the center of the original

disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A body will be not in equilibrium if :

(i) and

(ii) and

(iii) and

(iv) and

(1) (ii, iii, iv)

(2) (i, ii)
(3) (ii, iv)
(4) (i, iv)

41) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations and
y2 = 0.1 cos100πt . The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity of
particle 2 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum are 'ω' and 'A' respectively. At a
displacement x from the mean position its kinetic energy is 'T' and potential energy is 'V'. Then the

ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) For S.H.M, equation is given by

X = 10 sin
graphical relation b/w displacement and velocity is :-

1 2
3 4

(1) 1,2
(2) 2,3
(3) 3,4
(4) 1,4

44) Three masses of 500 g, 300 g and 100 g are suspended at the end of a spring as shown and are
in equilibrium. When the 500 g mass is removed, the system oscillates with a period of 2 second.

When the 300 g mass is also removed, it will oscillate with a period of

(1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 1 sec

45) The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical hollow ball filled with water. A plugged hole near
the bottom of the oscillating bob gets suddenly unplugged. During observation, till water is coming
out, the time period of oscillation would:-

(1) Remain unchanged

(2) Increase always
(3) First increase and then decrease to the original value
(4) First decrease and then increase to the original value

CHEMISTRY

1) What can be concluded about the values of ΔH and ΔS from this graph?
(1) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
(2) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
(3) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
(4) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0

2) For the reaction ;

A(l) → 2B(g)
ΔU = 2.1 kcal, ΔS = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K
Hence ΔG in kcal is equal to

(1) 2.70
(2) –2.70
(3) –4.70
(4) None of these

3) 5.0 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas is expanded adiabatically and reversibly from (5L, 127°C) to
40L. The only incorrect information related with the process is

(1) q = 0
(2) Tfinal = 100 K
(3) ΔH = –6500 Cal
(4) W = – 4500 Cal

4) A gas is allowed to expand at constant temperature from a volume of 1.0 lit to 10.0 lit against an
external pressure of 0.50 atm. If the gas absorbs 250J of heat from the surroundings, what are the
value of q, w and ΔE (Given –1 L-atm = 101 J) :

q w ΔE

(1) 250 J –454.5 J –204.5 J

(2) –250 J –454.5 J –710 J

(3) 250 J 454.5 J 710 J

(4) –250 J 454.5 J 705 J

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) If value of equilibrium constant for the following equilibria is 10+x, then find the value of 'x'.

Given :
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

6) The Eº in the given diagram is :-

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.8

7)

For the electrochemical cell, and From this data

one can deduce that:

(1) is the spontaneous reaction.

(2) is the spontaneous reaction.
(3)
(4)

8) Calculate ΔG°(kJ/mol) at 127°C for a reaction with Keq. = 104.

.

(1) –30.6
(2) +30.6
(3) –13.3
(4) +13.3

9) In a cyclic process, heat transfers are + 14.7 kJ, –25.2 kJ, –3.56 kJ and + 31.5 kJ. What is the net
work done in the net cyclic process ?

(1) 10 kJ
(2) – 10 kJ
(3) –17.44 kJ
(4) + 17.44 kJ

10) Which of the following reaction is expected never to be spontaneous :-

2O3(g) → 3O2(g), ΔH = –ve,

(1)
ΔS = +ve
Mg(s) + H2(g) → MgH2, ΔH = –ve,
(2)
ΔS = –ve
(3) Br2(l) → Br2(g) , ΔH = +ve, ΔS = +ve
2Ag(l) + 3N2(g) → 2AgN3, ΔH = +ve,
(4)
ΔS = –ve

11) ΔH = ΔE for the case :

(1) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g)

(2) C(s) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)
(3) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g)
(4) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

12) Standard reduction potentials are given :-

F2 + 2e– → 2F– ; E° = + 2.85 V
Cl2 + 2e– → 2Cl– ; E° = + 1.36 V
Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– ; E° = + 1.06 V
I2 + 2e– → 2I– ; E° = + 0.53 V
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are :-

–
(1) F2 and I
–
(2) Br2 and Cl
–
(3) Cl2 and Br
–
(4) F and I2

13) Find EMF of cell

Pt | H2 | H+ (pH = 5) || H+ (pH = 7) | H2 | Pt.

Given that

(1) 6 volt
(2) –0.06 volt
(3) –0.12 volt
(4) 0 volt

14) A cell contains two hydrogen electrodes. The anode is in contact with a solution of 10–6 M
hydrogen ions. The EMF of the cell is 0.118V at 25°C. The concentration of hydrogen ions at the
cathode is :-

(1) 10–6 M
(2) 10–3 M
(3) 10–4 M
(4) 10–5 M

15) The vapour pressure curves of the same non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in the same solvent
are shown. The curves are parallel to each other and do not intersect. The concentrations of
solutions are in order of :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I = II = III
(3) I > II > III
(4) I > III > II

16) Liquids A and B form an ideal solution. If XA and YA are the mole fractions of A in the solution and
0 0
in vapour phase in equilibrium, then (Given PA > PB )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Standard reduction potentials for the following reactions are :-

Fe3+ + 3e → Fe ; – 0.036 V
Fe2+ + 2e → Fe ; – 0.44 V
What will be standard electrode potential for
Fe3+ + e → Fe2+ ?

(1) 0.772 V
(2) – 0.404 V
(3) – 0.772 V
(4) 0.077 V

18) The reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be positive if :-

(1) = 2atm; [H+] = 1.0 M

(2) = 1atm; [H+] = 1 M
(3) = 4 atm; [H+] = 1 M
(4) = 2 atm; [H+] = 2 M

19) The molar conductivity of formic acid is 390.7 s cm2 mol–1 at infinite dilution. Calculate the molar
conductivity of 0.01M formic acid if dissociation constant is 1.8 × 10–5.

(1) 20.2 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 16.6 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 40.4 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 48.2 S cm2 mol–1

20) The standard reduction potential for Zn+2/Zn; Ni+2/Ni and Fe+2/Fe are -0.76V, -0.23V, -0.44V
respectively. The reaction X + Y+2 X+2 + Y will be non-spontaneous when :

X Y

(I) Ni Fe

(II) Ni Zn

(III) Fe Zn

(IV) Zn Ni
(1) I, II, IV
(2) I, II, III
(3) II, III, IV
(4) I, III, IV

21) Number of correct statements are-

(i) Azeotrope obey Raoult's law
(ii) Minimum boiling point azeotrope is formed if ΔHmix < O
(iii) ΔHvap for ideal aqueous solution containing non-volatile solute is same as ΔHvap for pure water
(iv) When azeotrope is vapourised, composition of vapour formed is same as solution.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Which of the following is isotonic with 15 % glucose solution (specific gravity = 1.2) :

(1) 1 M CaCl2
(2) 1 N CaCl2
(3) 0.5 M NaCl
(4) 0.5 M urea

23) Volume of 0.1 M NaOH solution required for complete neutralisation of 50 ml of 0.1 M H3PO3
solution will be:

(1) 100 ml
(2) 150 ml
(3) 200 ml
(4) 50 ml

24)
Boiling point of an ideal liquid solution containing non-volatile solute depends on :
(I) Concentration of non volatile solute in the solution
(II) Boiling point of pure solvent
(III) Enthalpy of vapourisation of pure solvent
(IV) Molar mass of solvent

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II, III, IV

25) Which of the following solution of KCl has the lowest value of specific conductance :

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.01 M
(4) 0.001 M

26) The emf of the cell,

Tl(s)|Tl+(aq) (0.0001 M)|| Cu2+(aq)(0.01M) | Cu(s) is 0.83 V
The emf of this cell will be increased by :–

(1) Increasing the concentration of Cu++ ions

(2) Decreasing the concentration of Tl+
(3) Increasing the concentration of both
(4) (1) & (2) both

27) What will occur if a block of copper metal is dropped into a beaker containing a solution of 1M
ZnSO4

(1) The copper metal will dissolve and zinc metal will be deposited
(2) No reaction will occur
(3) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of oxygen gas
(4) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of hydrogen gas

28) The of the reaction

is 0.59 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant for the
reaction is

(1) 50
(2) 10
(3) 1050
(4) 105

29) In salt bridge normally KCl is used because :-

(1) it is good conductor of electricity
(2) it is a strong electrolyte
(3) K+ and Cl– ions have nearly same ionic mobility
(4) it is an ionic compound

30) The standard electrode potential (reduction) of Pt|Fe3+, Fe2+ and Pt|Sn4+, Sn2+ are +0.77 V and
0.15 V respectively at 25°C. The standard EMF of the reaction Sn4+ + 2Fe2+ → Sn2+ + 2Fe3+ is :

(1) –0.62 V
(2) –0.92 V
(3) +0.31V
(4) +0.85 V

31) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) On increasing the dilution, conductance (G) increases

(2) On increasing the dilution, specific conductance decreases
(3) On increasing the dilution, equivalent and molar conductance increases
(4) All of the above

32) Given :

Calcuate for NH4OH :

(1) 225 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 235 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 190 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 200 S cm2 mol–1

33) Out of the following which is not the set of intensive properties?

(1) boiling point, pH, molarity

(2) volume, area, length
(3) freezing point, temperature, emf
(4) refractive index, molality, density

34) In diagrams (a to d), variation of volume with changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken along
the path ABCD. The change in internal energy of the gas will be :

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

(1) Positive in all the cases (a) to (d)

(2) Positive in cases (a), (b), (c) but zero in case (d)
(3) Negative in cases (a), (b), (c) but zero in case (d)
(4) Zero in all the cases

35) One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L) to (2.0 atm, 7.0 L) with a
change in internal energy (ΔU) = 30 L-atm. The change in enthalpy (ΔH) of the process in L-atm:

(1) 22
(2) 38
(3) 25
(4) None of these

36)
Product (B) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A B C D, 'D' is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) The synthesis of cannot be achieved by:

(1)
PhMgBr +

(2)
C2H5MgBr +

(3)
CH3MgBr +

(4)
PhMgBr +

39)
Find out the structure of 'X':

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

40) Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous acid yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results in
(Q). When (Q) is heated with dil. NaOH we get (R) The final product (R) is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

41) What is 'X' in the following reaction :

CH2=CH–CH=CH2 X

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH2COOH
(2) CH2=CH–CH=CH–COOH

(3)

(4) CH2=CH–CH=CH–CHO

42) Which reaction show correct product :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, II, III
(3) I, III, IV
(4) III, IV

43) Which of the following is/are non-reducing sugar:- (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a,b,d
(2) b,c,d
(3) b,c
(4) c,d

44) The correct set of stereochemical relationship amongst the following monosaccharides is :-

(1) (I) and (II) are anomers ; (III) and (IV) are epimers
(2) (I) and (II) are epimers ; (III) and (IV) are anomers
(3) (I) and (III) are anomers ; (I) and (II) are epimers
(4) (I) and (III) are epimers ; (II) and (IV) are anomers

45) Number of compound which can be oxidised by Tollen's reagent

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v) (vi)

(vii)

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

BIOLOGY

1) Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived from

(1) Root Apical Meristem

(2) Shoot apical meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
(4) Intra fascicular cambium

2) What is the ploidy level of meristem cell of a monocot plant?

(1) Haploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Polyploid

3) Which of the following is a feature of meristematic cell?

(1) Presence of large central vacuole

(2) Presence of stored food
(3) Presence of large conspicuous nucleus
(4) Presence of thick lignified cell wall

4)
Given diagram represents L.S. of shoot. Labelled structure 'x' is:-

(1) Axillary bud

(2) Vascular tissue
(3) Leaf primordium
(4) Meristematic zone

5) The quiescent centre in the root meristem serves as a :–

(1) Site for storage of food, which is utilized during maturation

(2) Reservoir for growth hormones
(3) Reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem
(4) Region for absorption of water

6) Observe the figure and select correct combination of labelled 'A' structure :-

(1) Phloem parenchyma: Site of food storage

(2) Xylem fibre: have thickened wall and narrow lumen
(3) Companion cell: help in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tubes
(4) Sieve tube element: conduct water & nutrients

7)
These three types of vascular bundles (A,B & C) are present in :-

(1) Root, stem, leaf

(2) Stem, root, leaf
(3) Monocot stem & leaf, dicot root, monocot leaf
(4) Root, monocot stem & leaf, dicot stem.

8) Given below is the diagram of transverse section of dorsiventral leaf. Identify the parts labelled A,

B, C and D and select the right option about them:-

A B C D

(1) Abaxial epidermis Xylem Spongy tissue Adaxial epidermis

(2) Adaxial epidermis Xylem Mesophyll Abaxial epidermis

(3) Adaxial epidermis Phloem Mesophyll Abaxial epidermis

(4) Abaxial epidermis Xylem Palisade tissue Phloem

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Bulliform cells present on :-

(1) Both sides of dicot leaf

(2) Upper epidermis of monocot leaf
(3) Upper and lower epidermis of leaf
(4) Lower epidermis of dicot leaf

10) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

11) In flowering plants male gametes are formed by:-

(1) Generative cell

(2) Body cell
(3) Synergid cell
(4) Tube cell
12) The provided figure represents cross section of an
unripened anther, correctly identify the labelled structure?

A B C D
(1) Connective Endothecium Tapetum Epidermis
Sporogenous
(2) Vascular tissue Exodermis Epidermis
tissue
Sporogenous
(3) Connective Endothecium Epidermis
tissue
(4) Sporogenous tissue Endothecium Connective Exodermis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Statement 1 : Anemophilous flowers ovaries having only one or few Ovules.
Statement 2 : To minimize loss by randomness of pollination.

(1) Both statements are correct and statement-2 is the correct explanation
(2) Both statements are incorrect and statement-2 is the correct explanation
(3) Both statements are correct and statement-2 is not the correct explanation
(4) Both statement are incorrect

14) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:

(1) Rose
(2) Lotus
(3) Papaver
(4) Michelia

15)

The figure given below represents the various steps of microgametogenesis. Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents?
(1) (C) represents mature male gametophyte
(2) (A) Represents mature pollen grain
(3) (E) Represents mature male gametophyte
(4) (B) Represents mature male gametophyte

16) A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule is shown in the following [Link]

labelled structures [A], [B] and [C] of given figure :-

[A] Micropyle
(1) [B] Filiform apparatus
[C] Nucellus
[A] Micropyle
(2) [B] Embryo
[C] Nucellus
[A] Stigma
(3) [B] Embryo
[C] Nucellus
[A] Micropyle
(4) [B] Nucellus
[C] Embryo-sac
17) Identify the A and B in given figure & choose right option regarding them :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18)

How many examples are of Anemophily:

Maize, Pinus, Bamboo, Wheat, Date palm, Papaya, Sugarcane, Rice

(1) Eight
(2) Seven
(3) Six
(4) Five

19) Arrange the following terms in the correct development sequence :-

A. Microspore tetrad
B. Pollen mother cell
C. Pollen grain
D. Sporogenous tissue
E. Male gametes

(1) B, D, C, A,E
(2) D, B, A, C, E
(3) D, B, C, A, E
(4) B, D, A, E, C

20) Identify the correct match from column-I, II and III.

 Column-I Column-II Column-III
Wind
1 Chiropterophily a i Amorphophallus
pollination
Insect
2 Ophiophily b ii Maize, grasses
pollination
Bat Santalum album
3 Entomophily c iii
pollination (Sandal)
Snake
4 Anemophily d iv Adansonia
pollination
(1) 1-c-iv, 2-a-iii, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
(3) 1-d-iii, 2-b-iv, 3-c-i, 4-a-ii
(4) 1-c-iv, 2-a-iii, 3-b-ii, 4-d-i

21) In geitonogamy pollen grains are transferred to:-

(1) Genetically different flower

(2) Genetically similar flower
(3) Stigma of another flower of a different plant
(4) Stigma of the same flower

22) External appearance of organism is generally called :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Phenocopy
(4) Factor

23) Which of the following cytogenetical event is not defined here :-

(1) Segregation of factors
(2) Pairing of factor
(3) Independent assortment of factors
(4) Descrete nature of factors

24) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio obtained as a result of :

(1) Selfing of hetrozygous for two polygene.

(2) Selfing of double hetrozygous in which one show dominance and another codominence.
Selfing of double hetrozygous in which one show incomplete dominance and other show co-
(3)
dominance.
Selfing of triple hetrozygous in which one show incomplete dominance 2nd show dominance and
(4)
other show co-dominance.
25) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

26) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
(4) It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of organisms.

27) Given below is the karyotype of Drosophila :-

The sex of such Drosophila should be-

(1) Male
(2) Female
(3) Intersex
(4) Super female

28) In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group
of the individual would be :-

(1) B
(2) O
(3) AB
(4) A

29) How many types and in what ratio the gametes are produced by a dihybrid heterozygous :-

(1) 4 Types, 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 4 Types, 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 2 Types, 1 : 1
(4) 2 Types, 3 : 1

30) An allele is said to be stable when :-

(1) Its frequence is less than 0.01

(2) Its frequency is more than 0.1
(3) Its frequency become 0.01 or more
(4) Its frequency is 1 or more

31) If the female parent bears bisexual flowers then in case of artificial hybridisation the steps
involved are -
(I) Bagging (II) Emasculation
(III) Rebagging (IV) Dusting
The correct sequence is →

(1) I,II,IV,III
(2) II,I,IV,III
(3) III,IV,II,I
(4) II,I,III,IV

32) Match the following columns.

Column - I Column - II

Autosomal linked
A. 1. Down's syndrome
recessive trait

Sex-linked recessive
B. 2. Phenylketonuria
disease

Metabolic error
C. linked to autosomal 3. Color blindness
recessive trait

Additional 21st
D. 4. Sickle-cell anaemia
chromosome
Codes:
A B C D

(1) 4 1 2 3

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33)
Study the given pedigree carefully, the trait indicated is :-

: Normal male : Affected male

: Normal female : Affected female

(1) Autosomal recessive

(2) X–linked recessive
(3) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(4) X Linked Dominant

34) Match the columns

Column – I Column - II
a. Down’s syndrome p. Presence an extra sex chromosome
b. Cri-du-chat q. Loss of short arm of chromosome 5
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome r. Absence of a sex chromosome
d. Turner’s syndrome s. Presence of an extra somatic chromosome
(1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r
(2) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q
(3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(4) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-p

35) One thing which is common in both DNA and RNA is :-

(1) Hexose
(2) Uridine
(3) Thymine
(4) Phosphate

36) Removal of RNA polymerase-III from nucleoplasm will primarily affect the synthesis of :-

(1) mRNA
(2) 23S rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) hnRNA

37) Reminiscent of antinquity is related to :-

(1) Splicing in RNA

(2) Splicing in DNA
(3) Deciphering of genetic code
(4) Wobbling at 3' position of codon
38) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) [Link]
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

39) Find out the incorrect statement :

(1) The process of replication requires a set of catalysts [enzymes]

(2) The main enzyme is DNA-dependent DNA polymerase which initiates the process on its own.
[Link] DNA completes the process of replication within 18 minutes as the average rate of
(3) polymerisation is approximately 2000bp/second. Energetically replication is a very expensive
process.
Replication occurs continuous on template 3'–5' polarity and dis-continuous on template 5'–3'
(4)
polarity.

40) Discontinuously synthesized strands of DNA adjacent to ________ DNA template are joined
together by ________.

(1) 5 → 3, DNA endonucleace

(2) 3′ → 5′, DNAase
(3) 5′ → 3′, DNA ligase
(4) 5 → 3, DNA ligase

41)

RNA can acts as

(a) Genetic material (b) Messenger
(c) Adapter molecule (d) Structural molecule
(e) Catalytic molecule

(1) b,c and e only

(2) a, d and e only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c, d and e

42) In 2-D, t-RNA molecules look like the leaves of:-

(1) Mangifera
(2) Saraca
(3) Azadirachta
(4) Trifolium

43) Find out the correct match from the following table.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 (i) UAA Tyrosine Stop codon
(ii) UUU Phenyl alanine Start codon
(iii) AUG Methionine Start codon
(iv) UGA Valine Stop codon
Options :-
(1) i and iv
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii only
(4) ii only

44) Select correct match :

H K C A

Synthesise in
Work
1 constitutive Inducer Allosteric
constitutively
manner

Synthesis in
Binding site Attachment of
2 nonconstitutive Inducer
of RNA pol. inducer
manner

Hydrolysing
3 disaccharide producer Aporepressor
enzyme

product of Allosteric
4 b-gal Promoter
operon protein
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Which of the following enzymes are template independent.

(1) Poly A polymerase

(2) Severo ochoa enzyme
(3) Reverse transcriptase.
(4) Both 1 and 2

46) During nerve impulse conduction, current flows.

(1) From site A to site B on the inner surface

(2) From site B to site A on the outer surface
(3) Anticlockwise manner
(4) All of the above

47) Statement-I :- When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e. resting, the axoplasm inside
the axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and low concentration of
Na+
Statement-II :- In resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and
nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.

(1) Statement-I & statement-II correct

(2) Statement-I incorrect & statement-II incorrect
(3) Statement-I correct & statement-II incorrect
(4) Statement-I incorrect & statement-II correct

48) Which of the following structures is absent in myelinated neurons of CNS ?

(a) Schwann cell (b) Myelin sheath (c) Neurilemma

(1) b and c
(2) a and c
(3) Only b
(4) a and b

49) In a myelinated neuron, two adjacent myelin sheaths are separated by gaps called :

(1) Nodes of Ranvier

(2) Synaptic cleft
(3) Synaptic knob
(4) Neural plate
50) Choose the wrong statement from following option ?

(1) Human brain in covered by three layer of meninges

(2) Limbic system regulates emotion like motivation, fear, anger etc.
Both cerebral hemispheres are coordinated by white fibrous connective tissue band called
(3)
corpus callosum
(4) All the information in human are analysed in central nervous system

51) Assertion :- Medulla has very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for
many more neutrons.
Reason :- The medulla oblongata generate heart rate.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

52) A neuron that carries information from the periphery to the CNS is _______ .

(1) Afferent neuron

(2) Efferent neuron
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

53) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Crura cerebrai – Limb-muscle control

(2) Hypothalamus – Body temprature
(3) Cerebrum – vomiting centre
(4) Medulla oblongata – Respiratory centre

54) Which of the following character is not represented by neurons ?

(1) Excitability
(2) Conductivity
(3) Contractibility
(4) Depolarity

55) Select the incorrect statement regarding the two types (A and B) of synapses shown below
(1) A is frequently found in higher vertebrates
(2) Impulse transmission across A is faster than across B
In B neurotransmitters are released from a post synaptic neuron that interact with specific
(3)
receptors on presynaptic neuron
(4) Both 1 and 3

56) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Homoplastic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

57) 'Marsupial mole' and kangaroo are the examples of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) & (3)

58) Biologists defi ne evolution as

(1) Heritable change in a line of descent over generations

(2) Inheritance of characteristics acquired by the individual
(3) The origin of species
(4) None of the above

59) Which of the following statements is true regarding the evolutionary history of humans?

(1) The Neanderthal man had a smaller brain size than Homo erectus
(2) Homo sapiens did not arise in Africa
The skull of a baby chimpanzee resembles the adult human skull more than that of an adult
(3)
chimpanzee
(4) Homo erectus were known to be vegetarians

60) In a random mating population frequency of disease-causing recessive allele is 80%. What would
be the frequency of carrier individuals in population:
(1) 64%
(2) 32%
(3) 16%
(4) 100%

61) When allelic frequencies are measured in a population and they differ from expected values, the
difference indicates

(1) That random mating occurred in population

(2) That no evolution has occurred in population
(3) The extent of evolutionary change in population
(4) That no mutation has occurred in population

62) In which one of the following options Column I is incorrectly matched with Column II?

Column I Column II
(1) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus 15 mya
(2) Australopithecines 2 mya
(3) Homo erectus 1.5 mya
(4) Pre-historic cave art 10000 years ago
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Darwin and De vries are separated by view points respectively in

(1) Supporting use and disuse and mutations

(2) Being Directionless and large mutations
(3) Being Gradual and small mutations
(4) Being gradual and directional ; saltation and randomness

64) Choose the correct option to complete the analogy.

Flying squirrel : Flying phalanger : : _____ : Numbat

(1) Mouse
(2) Lemur
(3) Anteater
(4) Bobcat

65) Read the following statement and choose the correct option?
Statement-I:- When we describe the story of this world we describe evolution as a process.
Statement-II:- When we describe the story of life on earth we treat evolution as a consequence of a
process called natural selection.

(1) Both Statements are incorrect

(2) Both Statements are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct

66)
Identify (A) and (B)

A - Banded anteater
(1)
B - Wombat
A - Bob cat
(2)
B - Wombat
A - Flying squirrel
(3)
B - Banded out eater
A - Ant eater
(4)
B - Lemur

67) The novelty and brilliant insight of Darwin was

(a) Nature selects those individuals which have variations, that are heritable and make resource
utilization better for few and enable only those to reproduce and leave more progeny
(b) Saltation leads to speciation
(c) Evolution is due to large, directionless variations
(d) New species arise due to inheritance of acquired characters
How many of the above statements are true?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

68) Find the total number of organisms evolved from Psilophyton in the following.
Bryophytes, Herbaceous lycopods, Sphenopsids, Ferns, Ginkgos, Conifers, Gnetales, Arborescent
lycopods, Zosterophyllum.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

69) Virus -infected cells secrete proteins called-

(1) Interferon
(2) Interneuron
(3) Interleukin
(4) Lymphokines

70) The complication of the STDs includes :

(a) PID
(b) Abortions
(c) Still birth
(d) Ectopic pregnancies
(e) Infertility
(f) Cancer of reproductive tract

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) b, c, d, e and f
(4) All of the above

71) Early symptoms of the most of the STDs are :

(a) Itching in pelvic region
(b) Fluid discharge in pelvic region
(c) Slight pain in pelvic region
(d) Swelling in pelvic region
(e) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
(f) Still births

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) All of the above

72) Which of the following statements about the immune system are correct?
1. B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
2. T-lymphocytes help in the destruction of infected cells.
3. Antibodies are produced by plasma cells derived from B-cells.
4. Vaccines provide active immunity.

(1) 1, 2 and 3 only

(2) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) 1, 3 and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
73) In IUT embryo is transferred in:

(1) Uterus
(2) VAGINA
(3) Cervis
(4) FALLOPIAN TUBE

74) Which among the following is least likely to face graft rejection upon transplantation ?

(1) Heart
(2) Kidney
(3) Liver
(4) Cornea

75) J chain can be found in which of the following

(1) IgG
(2) IgE
(3) IgD
(4) IgA

76) Choose the correct option.

I) Vaccines produced using RDT allow large scale production and hence greater availability for
immunisation.
II) Modern-day life style has resulted in lowering of immunity and less sensitivity to allergens.
III) Lymph nodes serve to trap the micro-organisms or other antigens, which happen to get into the
lymph and tissue fluid.
IV) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes–all prevent microbial growth.

(1) T,T,T,T
(2) T,F,T,T
(3) T,F,T,F
(4) T,T,F,T

77) Statement -I: Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunisation or infectious organisms
gaining access into body during natural infection induce active immunity. Statement -II: If a person
is infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in tetanus, we
need to directly inject the preformed antibodies, or antitoxin.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

78) Drugs used to reduce symptoms of allergy are :

(1) Anti-histamines
(2) Steroids
(3) Adrenaline
(4) All of the above

79) Antibodies secreted by B plasma cells are mainly:-

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Amino acid
(3) Protein
(4) Insoluble aggregates

80) How many of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?

lymph nodes, MALT, Peyer’s patches, thymus, tonsils, appendix, Bone marrow, spleen.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 5

81) Graft from an individual of the same species is called as

(1) Autograft
(2) Allograft
(3) Isograft
(4) Xenograft

82) Choose the statement which is not correct.

Vaccines generate memory – B and T-cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent
(1)
exposure and overwhelm the invaders with a massive production of antibodies.
Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogen
(2)
in bacteria or yeast.
For determining the cause of allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with large doses of
(3)
possible allergens, and the reactions studied.
Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates based on the ability to
(4)
differentiate foreign organisms from self-cells.

83) Identify the correct match.

Natural active
i. A. Colostrum
acquired immunity

Natural passive
ii. B. vaccines
acquired immunity

Artificial passive
iii. C. infections
acquired immunity
 Artificial active
iv. D. Antivenom
acquired immunity
(1) i- A,ii- C , iii- B , iv- D
(2) i- C,ii- D, iii- B , iv-A
(3) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
(4) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B

84) Match the correct function with the type of antibodies.

(i) IgA A. Activation of B-lymphocytes

(ii) IgD B. stimulation of mast cells

(iii) IgE C. Immunity to developing embryo

(iv) IgM D. first to be generated at the time of defence

(v) IgG E. protection of mucous membranes

(1) i- A,ii- C , iii- B , iv- D, v-E
(2) i-E, ii-A , iii-B ,iv-D ,v-C
(3) i- E, ii-B , iii-A ,iv- D,v-C
(4) i- D, ii- E, iii- C,iv-B ,v-A

85) Secondary response of immune system can also be called as

(1) Anaphylactic shock

(2) Agglutination
(3) Anamnestic response
(4) Both 2 and 3

86) Assertion- Milk secreted in the initial days is very essential for the new born infant.
Reason – colostrum secreted by mother during initial days of lactation has abundant IgA to protect
the infant.

(1) Assertion is true and reason is true. Reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is true and reason is true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

87) Number of paratopes in IgM is ?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10

88)
In given diagram identify (A), (B) and (C)

(A) – Blood vessels,

(1)
(B) – Tonsils (C) – Lymph nodes
(A) – Lymphatic vessels
(2)
(B) – Bone marrow (C) – Thymus
(A) – Lymph nodes
(3) (B) – Thymus
(C) – Lymphatic vessels
(A) – Payer's patches
(4)
(B) – Spleen (C) – Blood vessels

89) Assertion:- In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen

or inactivated/weakened pathogen are introduced into the body.
Reason:- The vaccines generate memory B and T cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure and overwhelms the invader with massive production of antibodies.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Assertion :- Secondary immune response is highly intensified.

Reason :- Body appears to have memory of the first encounter.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 2 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 4 1 1 4 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 3 2 1 1 1 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 1 4 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 3 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
As potential difference is same between A & B due to length of two paths current distribution

at A is such that i1 = , i2 = so magnetic field at centre is zero.

2)

Theoretical

3)

4)

∵ BAB = BPQ = BRS = 0

5)

6)

Apply

7)
Number of turns in elemental width of dr

8)

For the charge particle not to strike on the opposite plate r < d
 ⇒

9)

Apply right hand palm rule for the direction of magnetic force.

10)

= 12 ms–2
here effective length = AC = 3 cm

11)

12) Suppose in equilibrium wire PQ lies at a distance r above the wire AB

Hence in equilibrium mg = Bil

⇒
⇒ r = 25 mm

13)
F4 sin θ = F2
F4 cos θ = (F3 – F1)

∴
For a closed lop there is no translation

14) Theoritical

15)

For diamagnetic substance

x is -ve and small
∴ slope = -ve and |slope| = small
16) Here, n = 500 turns/m, I = 1 A, = 500
Magnetic intensity
H = nI = 500 m–1 × 1 A = 500 A m–1
As or
Magnetisation,

= 2.495 × 105 A m–1 2.5 × 105 A m–1

17) ΔReq = ΔR1 + dR2

Req αeq ΔT = R1 α1 ΔT + R2 α2 ΔT

aeq =

18)

19) After switch is closed, C will be short-circuited so it will not glow & A & B will be more
bright as effective. Resistance decreases so ‘P’ will increase.
20) The given circuit can be redrawn as follows Resistance

between A and B

Current between A and B = Current between X and Y

Resistance between X and Y

⇒ Potential difference between X and Y

= 8 × 20 = 160 V

21)

22) here
VA = VC
∴ no current flows between A and C
(i.e. through resistance of 12 Ω)

23) ⇒
I= =
Potential across any one reversed Polarity cell V = e + Ir

=e+ = 2e
Hence option (4)

24) Maximum galvanometer current Ig = =15 mA

Maximum applied voltage Vg =

Resistance of galvanometer Rg =
To increase the current, effective resistance must be decreased so used a shunt resistance
with Rg
Is = 900 – 15 × 10-3
= 899.985 A

so

⇒ Rs = 8.3 × 10-5 Ω
For voltage increment, effective resistance must be increased so, we used a series resistance
with Rg

so Ig (Rg + Rs) = 150

⇒ Rs =

=
Rs = 9995 Ω
Hence option (1)
25)
no potential difference across 8Ω ⇒ i = 0
ΔV across 4Ω is 10V

26)

27) Charge on capacitor B decreases as dielectric slab is taken out. Charge from positive plate
of B flows towards battery.
Charge on A and B can not be different, as being connected in series.
During the process, battery is being charged.

28)

Final charge on all plates zero after their series connection.

29) Time constant of a given circuit is T = Req.C

Where Req is effective resistance between the plates of capacitor (between AB). To get the Req
short circuit the battery and open circuit the capacitor and then. compute equvalent resistance
across the capacitor.

and
30) Equivalent circuit diagram can be drawn as

31) Energy stored, U = 1/2 qV As the distance d is increased between the two plates.
Now, stored energy,

Hence, U' = 2U

32) In steady state

V1 = VAB = 25V
V2 = VBC = 75V

33)

Cbranch =

34) Current will flow only through the branch containing resistance R2.

∴ I= = 1 amp.
Potential difference across R2 = 1 × 4 = 4 volt.
if q be the charge on each plate of the capacitor,

then or

or or q = 6μC

35) There are two capacitors parallel to each other.

∴ Total capacitance =

∴ Energy stored =

36)

[I = MK2 ∴ K2 = ]

37) For rolling without slipping =

and distance OP < OC < OQ.
Hence, VQ > Vc > VP

38)
Equation of motion of cylinder
39)

I=

I1 = =

40) For equilibrium = 0 and =0

41)

V2 = – 10 π sin (100 πt) = 10 π cos (100 πt + )

=–

42) V = Kx2
 T= K(A2 – x2)

43)

44)

T100 = T400 =
T100 = 1sec.

45)
As initially centre of mass goes down and then comes to its original position, therefore,
effective length of pendulum first increases and then decreases to the original value.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Slope = – ΔS = –ve ⇒ ΔS > 0

Intercept = ΔH = +ve

47) ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT = 2.1 Kcal + 2 × × 300 = 3.3 Kcal

ΔG = 3.3 – 300 × = –2.70 Kcal

48)
q = 0 (For adiabatic)

49) q = heat absorbed = + 250 J

w = – PΔV = –0.5 atm × (9) = – 4.5 L–atm
= – 4.5 × 101 J = –454.5J
ΔE = q + w = 250 – 454.5 = –204.5J.

50) For the given reaction : n = 2.

Hence,

Keq = 108
Hence, x = 8

51) (1) ClO3– → ClO– , ΔGº1 = –4F (0.54)

(1) ClO– → Cl– , ΔGº2 = –2F (0.71)
, ΔGº3 = –6F (Eº)
– –
(1) ClO3 → Cl

–6Eº = –4 × 0.54 – 2 × 0.71

Eº = 0.6

52) is positive spontaneous

53) Explanation :-
At a given temperature , for a reaction Keq is given and ΔG° is to be found ,
Given data :-
Keq = 10
4

Temperature = 127° C
Concept :-
ΔG°=− 2.303 RT log10 Keq
Calculation :-

, T = 127° C + 273 = 400 K

ΔG°
 54)

Question Explanation:
Calculate net work done in a cyclic process
Concept:
First law of thermodynamics during cycle process (ΔU = 0)
ΔU = q + W
qnet = –wnet (The net work done in the net cyclic process)
qnet = 14.7 – 25.2 – 3.56 + 31.5 = 17.44 KJ
Wnet = –17.44 kJ
Answer: (4) –17.44 kJ

55) Explanation:
To determine which reaction is never spontaneous, we use Gibbs free energy equation:
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Concept:
For a reaction to be always non-spontaneous, ΔG must always be positive. This happens when:

A. ΔH is positive (endothermic reaction)

B. ΔS is negative (decrease in entropy, more order)

Explanation:
Now, let's analyze the given reactions:
1. 2O3(g) → 3O2(g)
• ΔH = negative (exothermic, favors spontaneity)
• ΔS = positive (entropy increases, favors spontaneity)
• ΔG = always negative → Spontaneous at all temperatures

2. Mg(s) + H2(g) → MgH2(s)

• ΔH = negative (exothermic, favors spontaneity)
• ΔS = negative (gas to solid, entropy decrease)
• Spontaneous at low temperatures (not never spontaneous)

3. Br2(l) → Br2(g)
• ΔH = positive (endothermic, requires heat)
• ΔS = positive (liquid to gas, entropy increases)
• Spontaneous at high temperatures (not never spontaneous)

4. 2Ag(s) + 3N2(g) → 2AgN3(s)

• ΔH = positive (endothermic, unfavorable)
• ΔS = negative (gas to solid, entropy decrease, unfavorable)
• ΔG = always positive → Never spontaneous

Hence, option (4) is correct.

56) Question explanation:- On the basis of given options, find out in which reaction ΔH =
ΔE.
Concept:- For a given chemical reaction-
ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
if Δng = 0, ΔH = ΔE
Calculation:- = 1 - 2 = -1
In option (4)
Final Answer:-
Correct option:- (4)

57) Oxidising agent ∝ SRP

Reducing agent ∝

58)

59) (A)

(C)

⇒ [H+]C = 10–4M

60)

Question Explanation:
To determine order of concentration of solution in given graph.
Concept:

V.P. ∝ ; Tb ∝ Ci

In given graph solution-1 is less concentrated and solution-III is more concentrated because
V.P. of solution-I is less decreases as compared to solution-III. So order to concentrated
solution is I < II < III.

Final Answer : (1) I < II < III

61)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question is asking about the relationship between the mole fraction
of component A in an ideal liquid solution and the mole fraction of A in the vapor phase when
the liquids are in equilibrium. Given that component A is more volatile than component B (i.e.,
has a higher vapor pressure), we need to determine how the ratio compares to 1.
Underlying Concept: This problem involves Raoult's law which applies to ideal solutions.
Raoult's law relates the partial vapor pressure of each component in a solution to its mole
fraction in the liquid phase and its vapor pressure as a pure component. The mole fraction of a
component in the vapor phase depends on its partial pressure relative to the total pressure.
Because A has higher vapor pressure than B, it tends to be enriched in the vapor phase
compared to the liquid phase.
Relevant Formulas: 1. Raoult's law: , where is mole fraction in
liquid phase and is vapor pressure of pure component. 2. Total pressure:

. 3. Mole fraction in vapor phase: . 4.

Ratio to analyze: .

Step-by-Step Calculation: Starting from the ratio: Since , and

mole fractions , the denominator . Therefore,

This indicates component A is more concentrated in the vapor phase than in the liquid
phase at equilibrium.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that a component with a higher pure vapor pressure tends to
have higher mole fraction in vapor phase relative to its liquid mole fraction.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the mole fraction in vapor equals mole fraction in liquid (i.e.,
ratio equals 1) without considering volatility differences. Ignoring that total pressure is a
weighted average of partial pressures and how it affects the ratio.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Option 1 (ratio equals 1) ignores volatility differences
that cause selective enrichment in vapor. Option 3 (ratio less than 1) contradicts the fact that
more volatile component A concentrates more in vapor. Option 4 (sum equals 1) is incorrect
since mole fractions in vapor and liquid phases are independent and do not sum to 1.

62)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks to find the standard electrode potential for the half-
reaction converting Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺ by gaining one electron, given the standard reduction
potentials for the reactions converting Fe³⁺ to Fe and Fe²⁺ to Fe.
Underlying Concept: This problem is based on electrochemistry, specifically on standard
electrode potentials and their relationship to Gibbs free energy. The key concept is that the
standard electrode potential for a reaction can be linked to the Gibbs free energy change, and
that combining or subtracting half-reactions affects their potentials according to
thermodynamic principles.
Relevant Formulas: The main formula used is the relation between Gibbs free energy change
and electrode potential:

where: - is the standard Gibbs free energy change, - is the number of electrons
transferred, - is Faraday's constant, - is the standard electrode potential.
Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Calculate Gibbs free energy changes for the known reactions:

2. The target half-reaction is obtained by subtracting reaction 1 from reaction 2:

3. Convert this Gibbs free energy change back to electrode potential:

Hence, the standard electrode potential for is +0.772 V.

Tips and Tricks: Use Gibbs free energy changes to combine half-reactions rather than trying
to combine potentials directly, as potentials depend on the number of electrons transferred.
Common Mistakes: Incorrectly adding or subtracting electrode potentials directly without
converting to Gibbs free energy, ignoring the number of electrons involved in each half-
reaction, and neglecting the sign conventions for free energy and potential.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers like -0.404 V or -0.772 V represent errors in
sign or calculation steps. The positive 0.772 V result comes from correct subtraction of Gibbs
free energies, reflecting the standard potential for the Fe³⁺ / Fe²⁺ couple.

63) ERP =

64)
C O O
C–Cα Cα Cα

65)

= -0.23 - (-0.76)=+0.53V
Positive value shows that the process is spontaneous.
Rest of all (I) (II) (III) combination have negative value.
(I) = -0.44 - (-0.23) = -0.21 V
(II) = -0.76 - (-0.23) = -0.53 V
(III) = -0.76 - (-0.44) = -0.32 V

66) (i) Incorrect : → Azeotropes are non-ideal solutions so do not obey Rault’s law.
(ii) Incorrect : → for minimum boiling azeotropes ΔHmix > 0.
(iii) Correct : → addition of non-volatile solute decreases vapour pressure However ΔHvap
remains unaffected.
(iv) Correct : → In case of azeotropes, composition of vapours formed is same as solution after
vapourisation.
Correct statement =

67) Explain Question :

Which is isotonic with 15% glucose solution.

Concept :
Isotonic solution
Solution :
for glucose i = 1
π = iCRT

πglucose =

isotonic solution i.e same osmotic pressure

0.5M ⇒ πNaCl = iCRT = 2 × 0.5 RT = RT

1N ⇒ = iCRT =
1M ⇒ = iCRT = 3 × 1 × RT = 3RT
0.5 ⇒ πurea = iCRT = 1 × 0.5 RT = 0.5RT
Final Answer option (3)

68) Number of equivalents of NaOH = Number of equivalents of H3PO3

0.1 × V × 1 = 50 × 0.1 × 2
nfactor of NaOH = 1

V = 100 ml

69) Explain Question :

Boiling of non volatile solute depends on
Concept: Elevation in boiling point ΔTb
Solution:
When a non-volatile solute A is dissolved in a pure solvent B , its vapour pressure decreases
and hence the boiling point increases. The difference

ΔTb of boiling points of the solution and pure solvent is called elevation in boiling point.
If is the boiling point of pure solvent and Tb is the boiling point of the solution then, Tb >
 and the elevation in boiling point
Experiments have shown that for dilute solutions, the elevation of boiling point (ΔTb) is directly
proportional to the molal concentration of the solute in a solution. Thus
ΔTb ∝ m
or ΔTb = Kb.m
where Kb = boiling point elevation constant or molal elevation constant or ebulioscopic
constant.
Molal elevation constant is characteristic of a particular solvent and can be calculated from
the thermodynamical relationship.

Where, R is molar gas constant =2cal/mol-K,M= molar mass of solvent

Final Answer = Option (4)

Boiling point of an ideal liquid solution containing non-volatile solute depends on all the given
factors. hence all options are correct.

70) Conc. (M)↑ Specific ↑

conductance

71) Tl + Cu+2 → Tl+ + Cu

s 10–2M 10–4M s

E = E° +

72) Copper cannot displace Zn2⊕ as Zn is present above in electrochemical series with respect
to copper.

73)

The of the reaction

is 0.59 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant for the
50
reaction is 10

74) Fact

75)

76)

Conductance α V

[Link]
 In increasing dilution, Molar conductance increases becuase molrity of ions increases, while
secific conductance decrease.
∴ Number of ion is per ml of solution decreases

77)
= 130 + 225 – 120
= 10 + 225 = 235

78)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify the set of properties that are not intensive.

Concept:

A. Intensive Properties: Properties that do not depend on the amount of substance (e.g.,
temperature, pressure, density, boiling point, refractive index).

Analysis:

A. Option 1: boiling point, pH, molarity - All are intensive.

B. Option 2: volume, area, length - All are extensive.
C. Option 3: freezing point, temperature, emf - All are intensive.
D. Option 4: refractive index, molality, density - All are intensive.

Final Answer:
The set of properties that are not intensive is volume, area, and length.
Therefore the correct answer is option (2).

79) Zero

80) At constant pressure, ΔH = ΔU + P.ΔV

= 30 + 2 × 4 = 38 atm-L

81)

Ozonolysis & dry distillation of calcium salt of carboxylic acid.

Dicarboxylic acid is formed by oxidation ozonolysis of cyclohexene.

82)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Product D of Reaction

Key Concept:

Oxidation by KMnO4/H+; Reaction of acid with Ca(OH)2 & is treated; Clemmensen reduction.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

(i) KMnO4/H+ Oxidises = CH to – COOH

Conclusion:

Hence, option (2) is correct.

83)

Explaining the Question :-

Question ask how synthesis of given molecule be achieved
Concept:- Addition of grignard reagent to carbonyl
group
Solution :-
To synthesize a tertiary alcohol using Grignard reagents, we typically react a ketone or ester
with a Grignard reagent (RMgX), such that the three groups on the resulting carbon come
from: The carbonyl compound (provides two groups), The Grignard reagent (provides one
group)
PhMgBr + CH3COC2H5 will form Ph–C(OH)(CH3)(C2H5)
C2H5MgBr + PhCOCH3 will form C2H5–C(OH)(Ph)(CH3)
CH3MgBr + PhCOCH2CH3 will form CH3–C(OH)(Ph)(C2H5)
Whereas PhMgBr + CH3COCl will form CH3–C(OH)(Ph)(Ph)
Final Answer :- (4)

84)

85)

86)
 87)

I → Cannizzaro Reaction
II → Hinsberg's Reagent
III → Aldol Reaction

IV → Hoffmann Reaction

88)

Reducing sugar contain hemiacetal group. No reducing group is available in b,c

89) (I) and (III) differ in configuration at C1 and hence are anomers while (I) and (II) differ in
configuration at C4 and hence are epimers.

90)

Aldehyde, formic acid, Hemiacetal give tollens test option (1, 2, 3, 5 and 7).

BIOLOGY

91)

Shoot apical meristem

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 44

93)

Presence of large conspicuous nucleus

94) NCERT (XI) Pg # 85

95)

Reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem

96)

NCERT Pg. # 87

97)
Root, monocot stem & leaf, dicot stem.

98) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 94

99)

Upper epidermis of monocot leaf

100)

In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is 7 celled 8 nucleated structure

101) Question Explanation : The question asks about the cellular origin of male gametes
(sperm cells) in flowering plants.

Concept :
This question is based on structure of the male gametophyte (pollen grain).
Explanation:
"In a mature pollen grain, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to two male
gametes."

Final answer : 1

102) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 22, Fig. 2.3 (a)

103) Both statements are correct and statement-2 is the correct explanation

104) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify a plant from the given options that possesses a specific type of
gynoecium, which is the female reproductive part of the flower.

Concept:
This question is based on type of gynoecium.

Explanation:
Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium (pistils) in Papaver.

Final Answer : (3)

105)

(E) Represents mature male gametophyte

106)
NCERT XII pg.# 25(E), 26(H)

107) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28, fig.2.9(c)

108)

Maize, Pinus, Bamboo, Wheat, Date palm, Sugarcane, Rice

109)

The correct answer is D, B, A, C, E

110)

The correct answer is 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii

111) NCERT pg.# 28

112)

The correct answer is 2: Phenotype

Explanation: The phenotype refers to the external appearance or characteristics of an

organism, which result from the interaction of its genotype with the environment.

113)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 57, 59

114)

Selfing of double hetrozygous in which one show dominance and another codominence.

115) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 54

116)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 75

117)

The correct answer is Male

118)
The correct answer is AB

119)

The correct answer is 4 Types, 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

120)

Its frequency become 0.01 or more

121)

The correct answer is II,I,IV,III

122) NCERT-XII, Pg. 82

123)

The correct answer is X Linked Dominant

124)

NCERT Page No. 76

125)

The correct answer is Phosphate

126)

The correct answer is tRNA

127)

The correct answer is Splicing in RNA

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

129) NCERT Page No. # 106

130)
 The correct answer is 5′ → 3′, DNA ligase

131) Solution:
The correct answer is Option 4: a, b, c, d and e.
Explanation: RNA can perform multiple functions, and it plays a vital role in various
biological processes:

A. (a) Genetic material: RNA can act as genetic material in some viruses (e.g., retroviruses like
HIV), where RNA carries genetic information instead of DNA.
B. (b) Messenger: mRNA (messenger RNA) is the template for protein synthesis and carries
genetic information from DNA to ribosomes.
C. (c) Adapter molecule: tRNA (transfer RNA) acts as an adapter molecule that helps in
translating the genetic code into proteins by bringing the appropriate amino acids to the
ribosome.
D. (d) Structural molecule: rRNA (ribosomal RNA) is a structural component of ribosomes, which
are essential for protein synthesis.
E. (e) Catalytic molecule: Some RNA molecules, known as ribozymes, have catalytic properties
and can catalyze specific biochemical reactions, similar to enzymes.

Thus, RNA can act as all of the mentioned options, making Option 4 the correct answer.

132)

The correct answer is Trifolium

133)

The correct answer is iii only

134) NCERT Pg. # 111

135)

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2

136)

NCERT PAGE 233

137)

NCERT PAGE 233

138)

NCERT PAGE 232

 139) Problem statement : Asking About :
In a myelinated neuron, two adjacent myelin sheaths are separated by gaps called-
Concept :
Structure of neuron
Solution / Explanation :
In a myelinated neuron, myelin sheaths is not continuous but interrupted by some gaps where
myelin is absent. These gaps are called as node of Ranvier.

140)

NCERT PAGE 236

141)

NCERT PAGE 236

142) The correct answer is Option 1: Afferent neuron. Explanation:

A. Afferent neurons are sensory neurons that carry information from the peripheral nervous
system (PNS) to the central nervous system (CNS). They transmit sensory signals like
touch, temperature, pain, and sight from various parts of the body to the brain and spinal cord
for processing.
B. Efferent neurons, on the other hand, are motor neurons that carry information from the
CNS to the PNS. They transmit signals to muscles, glands, and organs to produce a
response.

143) Explanation:

Cerebrum – Primarily responsible for higher cognitive functions, voluntary movements, and
sensory processing. The vomiting center is actually located in the medulla oblongata, not the
cerebrum (Incorrect).

144)

NCERT PAGE 232

145) NCERT, Pg # 319

146)

NCERT XII, Page # 115

147) Explaining the Question: Marsupial mole and kangaroo are the examples of-
Concept: Evolution
Solution: Marsupial mole and kangaroo are examples of adaptive radiation and divergent
evolution.
 Adaptive Radiation : The process to evolution of different species in a given sea graphical
area starting from a point and literally recharting to other areas of habitat.
Convergent Evolution : When same structure developed along different directions due to
Adaptation to different needs.

148)

NCERT PAGE NO. 110

149) The skull of a baby chimpanzee is more like that of an adult human than an adult
chimpanzee, indicating a closer resemblance in skull structure between young chimpanzees
and adult humans. This statement is true and reflects the evolutionary similarities observed in
the developmental stages of chimpanzees and humans. The Neanderthal man, with a brain size
of 1400cc, lived much later than Homo erectus and is known to have used hides and buried
their dead. Homo sapiens are believed to have originated in Africa and spread across
continents, developing into distinct races. Homo erectus is not documented as being strictly
vegetarian; they probably ate meat.

150) p + q = 1
Thus, the frequency of dominant
allele = P = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2
The frequency of the carrier individual = 2 pq = 2 × 0.8 × 0.2 ⇒ 0.32 or 32%

To solve this, let's use the Hardy-Weinberg principle:

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Here:

A. p is the frequency of the dominant allele,

B. q is the frequency of the recessive allele,
C. 2pq represents the frequency of heterozygous (carrier) individuals.

Step 1: Extract the given information

The frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.80.
Step 2: Calculate p
Since p + q = 1:
p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.80 = 0.20
Step 3: Calculate the frequency of carriers (2pq)
2pq = 2(0.20)(0.80) = 0.32
Step 4: Convert to percentage
0.32 × 100 = 32%
Correct Answer: 2.32%

151) NCERT Pg. # 121

152) NCERT Pg. # 124,125

153)
 NCERT PAGE NO. 119

154)

NCERT Page No. 117

155)

NCERT Page No. 110

156) Ncert Pg No: 117, 118.

157) [NCERT Pg. 135]

158) Ncert Pg No: 122

159)

NCERT Page No. 135

160)

NCERT Page No. 138

161)

NCERT Page No. 138

162)

A. Statement 1 is incorrect: B-cells are involved in humoral immunity, not cell-mediated.

B. Statement 2 is correct: T-cells attack infected cells directly.
C. Statement 3 is correct: Plasma cells (from B-cells) secrete antibodies.
D. Statement 4 is correct: Vaccines stimulate the immune system → active immunity.

163)

Uterus

164)

Solution-NCERT, Page No. 136, Para-7.2.2.

165) Solution- NCERT, page no -135, para-7.2.2

166) Solution- NCERT, page no -137, para-7.2.5

167) Solution- NCERT, page no -136, para-7.2.3

168) Solution- NCERT, page no -137, para-7.2.5

169) The correct answer is protein

170) Solution- NCERT, page no -138, para-7.2.7

171) Solution- isograft: graft from identical twin; xenograft: graft from different species;
autograft: graft from own body.

172) Solution- NCERT, page no -137, para-7.2.5

173) Solution- NCERT, page no -136, para-7.2.3

174)

Solution- NCERT, page no -135, para-7.2.2

175) Solution- NCERT, page no -135, para-7.2.2

176) Solution- NCERT, page no -136, para-7.2.3

177) Solution- NCERT, page no -135, para-7.2.2 , Fig-7.4

178) NCERT XII Pg. # 154 (E), 166(H), figure 8.5

179)

NCERT Page No. 136

180)

NCERT Page No. 135