Diversity in the Living World

Exercise - I The Living World

1. Match column-I with column-II and select the 7. Growth cannot be taken as a defining
correct option :- property of living organisms because
Column-I Column-II (1) All living organism do not show growth.
(a) Family (i) tuberosum (2) Non-iving things also grow from inside.
(b) Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales (3) Non-living things also grow from outside.
(c) Order (iii) Solanum
(4) Some living organism does not exhibit the
(d) Specific epithet (iv) Plantae
process of reproduction.
(e) Genus (v) Solanaceae
(1) (a)–v, (b)–iv, (c)–ii, (d)–i, (e)–iii BLW175
(2) (a)–v, (b)–iv, (c)–i, (d)–iii, (e)–ii 8. The isolated metabolic reaction outside the
(3) (a)–i, (b)–ii, (c)–iii, (d)–v, (e)–iv body of an organism, performed in a test tube
(4) (a)–ii, (b)–i, (c)–iii, (d)–iv, (e)–v (in-vitro) is :-
BLW169 (1) Living
2. System of classification of angiosperms or (2) Non-living
plants which is based on maximum number of (3) Neither living nor non-living
existing phenotypic characters is :-
(4) Either living or non-living
(1) Artificial system BLW176
(2) Natural nonphylogenetic system
9. Which of the following is a defining property
(3) nonphylogenetic system
of all living organisms :-
(4) Natural sexual system
BLW170 (1) Reproduction (2) Growth
3. Choose the correct option from following :- (3) Consciousness (4) Self consciousness
(1) Mangifera, is a name of species BLW177
(2) Polymoniales, is a name of family 10. From the given below list, how many are taxa.
(3) Dicotyledonae, is a name of division Dog, Mammals, Cat, Wheat, Rice, Wood, Rock,
(4) Triticum, is a name of genus Branches, Human, Insect
BLW171 (1) Six (2) Three (3) Ten (4) Seven
4. If in a taxonomic hierarchy, if Triticum
BLW178
aestivum is placed in Poales then what would
be the correct taxonomic category for 11. Read the following statements carefully about
Panthera tigris at the same level of poales : binomial nomenclature and identify the
(1) Mammalia (2) Chordata incorrect statement: -
(3) Carnivora (4) Felidae (1) Biological names are generally in Latin
BLW172 and printed in italics.
5. Intrinsic growth is not a characteristic feature
(2) The first component in a biological name
of :
(1) Plants (2) Animals represents the species while second
(3) Coral reef (4) Bryophytes component denotes the genus.
BLW173 (3) Both the words in a biological name, when
6. Which set of organisms multiply by hand written, are separately underlined
fragmentation? or printed in italics to indicate their Latin
(1) Fungi, all algae, protonema of mosses origin
(2) Fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of
(4) The first word denoting genus starts with
mosses
(3) Prothallus, fungi, Planaria a capital letter while specific epithet starts
(4) All algae, fungi, bacteria with a small letter
BLW174 BLW179
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12. Which of the following statements are correct? 16. Mark the correct statement with respect to
(A) Genera are aggregates of closely related living organisms
species. (1) Growth and cellular organisation are
(B) Families are characterised on the basis of considered as defining properties of living
vegetative characters only. organisms
(C) Order and other higher categories are (2) Reproduction can be an all inclusive
identified on the basis of aggregates of defining characteristic of living organisms
characters. (3) Living organisms are self replicating, self
(1) A and B (2) B and C regulating and evolving interacting
(3) A, B, C (4) A and C systems
BLW180 (4) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are
13. According to hierarchical system of living things
classification which of the following is correct BLW184
(A) Similarities decrease from species to 17. What is incorrect for taxonomic hierarchy?
kingdom (1) There are 7 obligate categories
(B) Similarities increase from kingdom to (2) Higher the category, fewer the number of
species organism
(C) Dissimilarities decrease from division to (3) Lower the category, more the number of
species common features
(D) Similarities decrease from species to class (4) Greatest similarity in structure is found in
(1) Only A, B, C (2) Only B, C, D between members of a species
(3) Only B, C (4) A, B, C, D all BLW185
BLW181 18. Select incorrect statement
14. In taxonomic hierarchy, given below (1) Growth occurs by synthesis of
organisms are representatives of how many protoplasmic and apoplasmic substances
families (2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth
Wheat, Potato, Brinjal, Mango in unicellular organisms
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are
(3) Four (4) One surely living things
BLW182 (4) Consciousness is the most obvious and
15. Which of the following statement is not true technically complicated feature of all
with respect to binomial nomenclature? living organisms
(1) No names are recognised prior to those BLW186
used by Linnaeus in 1785 in the 9th edition 19. Select correct statement with respect to
of Systema Naturae binomial nomenclature -
(2) Generic name, species name and author (1) Biological names are generally in italics
citation collectively form binomial epithet (2) ltalics printing of scientific names
(3) Principle of priority is the most important indicate their Latin origin
of all the rules of ICBN (3) This system was given by father of
(4) If a species name has two or more words taxonomy in Historia Plantarum
in its name, a hyphen is put between these (4) Binomial epithet consists of three Latin
BLW183 words
BLW187

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 1 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 4 2 1
Question 16 17 18 19
Answer 3 2 3 2

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Diversity in the Living World

Exercise - II w The Living World

1. Nomenclature is must in taxonomy, which of 4. Read the following statements :-
the following is not correct about scientific (i) Ernst Mayr, has been called "The Mendel
nomenclature ? of the 20th century.
(1) They ensure that each organism has only
(ii) All living organisms grow
one name with two component
(iii) Unicellular organisms multiply by cell
(2) They also ensure that such a name has not
been used for any other known organism division.
(3) Scientific nomenclature is a standardised (iv) Non–living object also exhibits
naming system metabolism
(4) Different countries of the world use How many statements is/are correct ?
different kinds of scientific nomenclature Option :-
system
BLW188 (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
2. Find the correct statements from the BLW191
followings:- 5. Assertion : Growth can not be taken as
(A) Each rank or taxon, in fact represents a defining property of living organisms.
unit of classification Reason : Non living objects also grow by
(B) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy accumulation of materials on surface.
represents a rank or category In the light of the above statements, choose
(C) A taxonomic category is a part of overall
the most appropriate answer from the
taxonomic hierarchy
options given below:
(D) Taxonomic categories are not distinct
biological entities, they are only (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
morphological aggregates (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Options :- the correct explanation of (A).
(1) A, B & D are correct (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(2) A, C & D are correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) A, B & C are correct correct explanation of (A).
(4) Only A and B are correct
BLW192
BLW189
6. Assertion : There are seven obligate
3. Read the following statements.
categories in hierarchy of taxonomy.
(A) Each genus may have one or more than
one specific epithet. Reason : Other categories of similar type can
(B) Genera are aggregates of closely related be called as sub-categories.
species. (1) If both statements A and B arc true and
(C) Family has a group of related genera with statement B is the correct explanation of
still more number of similarities as statement A.
compared to genus and species. (2) If both statements A and B are true but
How many statements are correct and statement B is not the correct explanation
incorrect among these? of statement A.
(1) 3 correct, 0 incorrect
(3) If statement A is true but statement B is
(2) 2 correct, 1 incorrect
false.
(3) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
(4) If both statements A and B are false.
(4) 0 correct, 3 incorrect
BLW193
BLW190
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7. Statement A : Metabolism is the sum total of (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
anabolism and catabolism inside the (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
cell/body. BLW197
Statement B : Diverse types of metabolic 11. Identify the correct option having correct
reactions occur simultaneously in a living match of the column-I, II and III.
organism. Column-I Column-II Column-III
(A) Wheat (a) Homo (i) Monocoty
(1) If both statements A and B are true and
ledonae
statement B is the correct explanation of
(B) Man (b) Musca (ii) Dicotyled
statement A . onae
(2) If both statements A and B are true but (C) Mango (c) Mangifera (iii) Insecta
statement B is not the correct explanation (D) Housefly (d) Triticum (iv) Mammalia
of statement A.
(1) A-d-i, B-a-iv, C-c-ii, D-b-iii
(3) If statement A is true but statement B is
(2) A-d-i, B-c-ii, C-a-iv, D-b-iii
false.
(3) A-d-ii, B-c-i, C-a-iv, D-b-iii
(4) If both statements A and B are false. (4) A-a-iv, B-d-i, C-b-iii, D-c-ii
BLW194 BLW198
8. Match the columns :
12. Assertion : Numerical taxonomy which is
Column-I Column-II
carried out using computers is based on all
(A) Yeast (i) Asexual spore and
observable characters.
fragmentation
Reason : Number and codes are assigned to
(B) Amoeba (ii) Binary fission
all the characters and data are then processed.
(C) Fungi (iii) Budding
(D) (iv)
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Planaria True regeneration
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) Assertion.
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
Assertion.
BLW195
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
9. For taxonomic hierarchy given; select the
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
correct match :
BLW199
Taxonomic Examples
Category
13. Assertion : Panthera leo is the scientific name
(1) Class Sapindales, Insecta of lion.
(2) Order Primata, Diptera Reason : In this name Panthera indicates
(3) Genus Musca, Poales generic name while leo indicates specific epithet.
(4) Family Triticum, Muscidae (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
BLW196 Reason is a correct explanation of the
10. Match column-I with column-II and select the Assertion.
correct option :- (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Column-I Column-II Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(A) Cell wall absent (i) A species
Assertion.
(B) Dorsal hollow (ii) Animalia
neural system (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(C) Mango (iii) Chordata (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
BLW200
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Diversity in the Living World
14. Which of the following option is correct? 17. Read the following statements and select the
(A) Genus comprises a group of related correct ones:
species which has more characters in (i) Genera such as Petunia and Datura are
common in comparison to species of placed in the family Brassicaceae.
other genera. (ii) Solanum includes species like potato and
(B) Classes with a few similar characters are
brinjal.
assigned to a higher category called order.
(iii) The similar characters are less in number
(C) As we go higher from species to kingdom,
in families as compared to different
the number of common characters goes
on decreasing. genera included in a family.
(D) Animals, mammals and dogs are different (1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
taxa at the same level (3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(1) A and B (2) B and C BLW204
(3) A and C (4) A and D 18. In the following statements how many are
BLW201 incorrect?
15. I can perform :- (i) Protonema of mosses multiply by
Growth Metabolism fragmentation.
(ii) In unicellular organisms’ reproduction is
Question Identify
who am synonymous with growth.
I? (iii) Metabolic reactions cannot be
Cellular Consciousness
organisation demonstrated outside the body in cell free
But can not systems.
reproduce (iv) Isolated metabolic reactions are living
(1) A virus things but not living reactions.
(2) A living bacterium only (1) Only (i) & (ii)
(3) A living animal only (2) Only (ii) & (iii)
(4) May be any living entity (3) Only (iii) & (iv)
BLW202 (4) Only (i) & (iv)
16. Assertion : Characterisation, identification, BLW205
classification & nomenclature are the 19. Statement I : All living organisms present,
processes that are basic to taxonomy. past & future are linked to one other by the
Reason : Systematics takes into account sharing of the common genetic material, but
evolutionary relationships between organisms. to varying degrees.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Statement II : All plants, animals, fungi and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the microbes exhibit metabolism.
Assertion. (1) Statements-I and statement-II, both are
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but correct.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (2) Statements-I and statement-II, both are
Assertion. incorrect.
(3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is incorrect. (3) Only statements-I is correct.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.
(4) Only statements-II is correct.
BLW203
BLW206

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20. Which one of the following combination of 25. Fundamental elements of taxonomy are :
taxa represent same category of hierarchy? (1) Characterisation and classification only
(1) Lion, leopard, tiger (2) Characterisation, identification and
(2) Potato, brinjal, grasses classification only
(3) Petunia, Datura, Solanaceae (3) Characterisation, classification and
(4) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae, Polymoniales
nomenclature only
BLW207
(4) Characterisation, identification,
21. Which of the given scientific name is written,
classification and nomenclature
as mentioned in the rules of binomial
nomenclature? BLW212
26. Which of the following statement is
(1) Rosa indica Linn.
(2) Rosa Indica Linnaeus incorrect?
(3) Rosa Indica L. (1) Family is a group of related genera with
(4) Rosa indica Linn. still less number of similarities as
BLW208 compared to genus and species
22. Find the odd one with respect to taxonomic (2) Families are characterised on the basis of
hierarchy of mango vegetative characters only
(1) Sapindaceae (2) Sapindales (3) Each genus may have one or more than
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae one specific epithets representing different
BLW209 organisms, but having morphological
23. The scientific nomenclature representing the
similarities
species of wheat is -
(4) Genera Solanum, Datura and Petunia are
(1) Triticum (2) Aestivum
placed in the family Solanaceae
(3) aestivum (4) Triticum aestivum
BLW210 BLW213
24. Consider the following statements and find 27. Select the correct combination of the
the correct one - statements (a-d) regarding taxonomic
a. Living organisms are self replicating, hierarchy.
evolving and self regulating interactive a. As we go higher from species to kingdom,
systems capable of responding to external the number of common characters goes
stimuli on decreasing
b. Wheat, monocots and plants represent
b. Lower the taxa, more are the
taxa of the same level
characteristics that the members within
c. Higher the category, greater is the
the taxon share
difficulty of determining the relation to
other taxa of same level c. Higher the category, greater is the
d. Lower the taxa, more are the difficulty of determining the relationship
characteristics that the members within to other taxa at the same level
the taxon share d. Kingdom plantae comprises all plants
(1) All are correct, except ‘b’ from various phyla
(2) All are correct The correct statements are :
(3) All are correct, except ‘c’ (1) Only c & d (2) a, b, c
(4) All are correct, except ‘d’ (3) b, c d (4) only a
BLW211 BLW214
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Diversity in the Living World
28. Select the incorrect statement. 29. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are (1) A multicellular organism grows by cell
living reactions division
(2) Human being is the only organism who (2) In plants growth by cell division occurs
has self-consciousness only up to a certain age
(3) Reproduction is an defining property of (3) In animals growth is definite
living beings (4) Cell division occurs in certain tissues of
(4) Unicellular organisms also grow by cell- animals to replace lost cells
division BLW216
BLW215

Hint :
Q.3 A, B are correct, C is incorrect.
Q.4 Statement ii & iii are correct.

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Answer 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 2

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Exercise - I Biological Classification

1. Which group of protists is responsible for Options :-
producing neurotoxin that become A B C D
concentrated in the aquatic food chain ? (1) Sheath Collar Head Tail
(1) Chlorophyta (2) Chrysophyta fibres
(2) Head Sheath Collar Tail
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Slime moulds
fibres
BBC566 (3) Collar Tail Head Sheath
2. Choose the incorrect match : fibres
(1) Ascomycetes - Used in genetic work (4) Tail Head Sheath Collar
(2) Deuteromycetes - Rust and smut fungi fibres
(3) Basidiomycetes-Sex organs are generally BBC571
not formed 7. Which of the following statements is wrong
(4) Phycomycetes - Aquatic habitat also about lichen ?
BBC567 (1) Lichens are sensitive to air pollution
3. Rust, smut and mushroom, all the three have (2) Algal and fungal partner live mutually
common characters, that they :- (3) Algae prepare food and fungi provide
(1) are pathogen shelter, absorb water and minerals for
(2) are saprobes algal partner
(3) produce basidiospore (4) Alage live as master & fungi live as slave
(4) bear basidiocarp BBC572
8. Select the correct pair :-
BBC568
4. Which of following microbes serve as an (I) Methanogen → occurs in swampy ares
important biofertiliser in paddy fields ? (II) Halophiles → some have pigments but
they are not photosynthetic
(1) Glomus (2) Azotobacter
(III) Thermoacidophiles → Mostly parasitic
(3) Anabaena (4) Rhizobium
Options :-
BBC569
5. Which lichen is used for making litmus (1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) I and III (4) All of the above
paper?
BBC573
(1) Roccella (2) Cetraria
9. (A) It causes potato spindle tuber disease.
(3) Cladonia (4) Usnea
(B) It is free RNA.
BBC570 (C) Molecular weight of RNA is low.
6. Given below in the digaram of bacteriophage.
(D) Infectious agent, smaller than viruses.
In which one of the options all the four parts The above statements are assigned to :-
A, B C and D are correct ? (1) Viruses (2) Viroids
(3) Virulent virus (4) Mycoplasma
A BBC574
10. Pili do not play a role in motility because :-
C
B (1) They are small bristle like fibres.
(2) They help bacteria to attach rocks and
host tissues.
(3) They are made up of non-contractile
protein.
D
(4) They are found inside the surface of bacteria.
BBC575
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Biological Classification
11. Which one of the following pairs is 15. How many of the organisms present below
mismatched :- are the members of the kingdom plantae
(1) Penicillium - Source of antibiotics according to two kingdom system of
(2) Albugo - Parasitic fungi on legume classification?
(3) Neurospora - Used in biochemical and Chara, Ficus, Triticum, Mangifera, Homo
sapiens, E. Coli, Salmonella
genetic work
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 3 (4) 6
(4) Agaricus - Edible fungus
BBC580
BBC576
16. Which of the following is not a feature of
12. Given below are two statements: one is Bentham and Hookers classification ?
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (1) It was based on actual observations
labelled as Reason (R). (2) It was a natural classification
Assertion (A) : Cyanobacteria that are (3) It was based on floral features
referred to as blue green algae are not "algae" (4) It was a phylogenetic classification
anymore. BBC581
Reason (R) : All unicellular prokaryotes are 17. Earlier classification system include bacteria,
placed in kingdom Monera and algae are blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns,
gymnosperms and angiosperms together in
placed in kingdom Plantae
'Plant' because they all have :-
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Eukaryotic cells
the most appropriate answer from the
(2) Nucleus
options given below : (3) Cell wall
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (4) Photosynthetic ability
the correct explanation of (A). BBC582
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. 18. In five kingdom system bacteria are included
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. in Monera but acellular organism like viruses
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the and viroid's, and lichens are included in :-
correct explanation of (A). (1) Kingdom - Fungi
BBC577 (2) Kingdom - Animalia
13. List some of the fungi is given below: - (3) Kingdom - Protista
(4) In no any kingdom
Mucor, Rhizopus, Albugo, Aspergillus,
BBC583
Penicillium, Puccinia, Ustilago.
19. Plant groups under sub kingdom embryophyta
In how many fungi, plasmogamy is followed
can be :
by karyogamy, immediately: - (1) Bryophyta & pteridophyta
(1) Two (2) Three (2) Pteridophyta & gymnosperm
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Gymnosperm & angiosperm
BBC578 (4) Bryophyta & tracheophyta
14. How many of the following spores are BBC584
exogenous? 20. In which book Linnaeus gave the codes of
Zoospores, Aplanospore, Conidia, Ascospore, nomenclature?
Basidiospore. (1) Species plantarum
(2) Philosophia botanica
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Genera plantarum
(3) Two (4) One
(4) Hortus uplandicus
BBC579
BBC585
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
21. The demerit of Bentham & Hooker's 28. Animal like feature of slime moulds is–
classification is :- (1) Formation of fruiting bodies
(1) Position of gymnospermae (2) Cellulosic cell wall around spores
(2) Position of dicotyledonae (3) Absence of cell wall in plasmodium
(3) Position of monocotyledonae (4) Formation of spores
(4) Both (1) & (2) BBC593
BBC586 29. An archaeon that lives in extremely salty
22. Which of the following statement is correct condition is referred to as a -
for both blue-green algae and bacteria? (1) Thermophiles
(1) Both show anaerobic respiration. (2) Halophiles
(2) Both have chlorophyll pigment. (3) Thermo acidophiles
(3) Both are devoid of true nucleus. (4) Methanogen
(4) None of the above BBC594
BBC587 30. Eubacteria include -
23. Which group of fungi is commonly known as (1) Bacteria and Archaebacteria.
imperfect fungi? (2) Cyano bacteria + Archaebacteria.
(1) Phycomycetes (3) Bacteria and Blue green algae.
(2) Ascomycetes (4) Bacteria + Eukaryote.
(3) Basidiomycetes BBC595
(4) Deuteromycetes 31. All of the following diseases are caused by
BBC588 bacteria except :-
24. The subunit of capsid is called (1) Flu (2) Cholera
(1) Core (2) Nucleotide (3) Tetanus (4) Typhoid
(3) Amino acid (4) Capsomere BBC596
BBC589 32. Citrus canker is a _____ disease.
25. Which of the following is not a viral disease? (1) Bacterial (2) Viral
(1) AIDS and mumps (3) Fungal (4) Mycoplasmal
(2) Small pox and herpes BBC597
(3) Influenza 33. Cyanobacteria have :-
(4) Cholera (1) Chl a similar to plant including green algae.
BBC590 (2) Distinct from chlorophyll of plants.
26. Which of the following processes are involved (3) Bacteriochlorophyll.
in the reproduction of protists? (4) Bacteriorhodopsin.
(1) Binary fission and budding BBC598
(2) Cell fusion and zygote formation 34. In which of the following the cell wall has stiff
(3) Spore formation and cyst formation outer surface :-
(4) All of the above (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Desmids
BBC591 (3) Diatoms (4) Euglenoids
27. Prions are/have- BBC599
(1) DNA as genetic material 35. Which of the following releases toxins that
(2) RNA as genetic material may even kill other marine animal like fishes:
(3) Non-infectious (1) Gonyaulax (2) Paramecium
(4) Abnormal folded protein (3) Euglenoids (4) Sporozoans
BBC592 BBC600

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Biological Classification
36. The slimy mass of protoplasm with nuclei 39. Which of the following statement is false?
forms the body of slime moulds is called as :- (1) Euglena shows mixotrophic nutrition.
(1) Plasmodium (2) Spores of slime moulds have true cell
(2) Myxamoeba walls.
(3) Sporocytes (3) Prions cause Potato spindle tuber disease.
(4) Periplasmodium (4) Mad cow disease is caused by Prions.
BBC601 BBC604
37. The body of a multicellular fungus are 40. Assertion (A) : Viruses can have either DNA
organized into a rapidly growing individual or RNA.
filaments called :- Reason (R) : Viriods have low molecule
(1) Mycelium (2) Hyphae weight RNA.
(3) Rhizoids (4) Dikaryon (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
BBC602 correct explanation of (A).
38. Which of the following statement is correct? (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(1) Albugo belongs to group Basideomycetes. correct explanation of (A).
(2) Aspergillus belongs to group Ascomycetes. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Mushroom belongs to group Plantae. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) Trichoderma belongs to group Euglenoids. BBC605
BBC603

Hint :
Q.13 Mucor, Rhizopus & Albugo (In members of phycomycetes)
Q.14 Conidia & Basidiospores
Q.15 Only Homo sapiens do not have cell wall, rest others have the cell wall.

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 3 4 4 1 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 3
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 2

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Biological Classification

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 5. Find out the incorrect statement from the
(1) Fungi prefer to grow in cold and humid followings: -
places. (1) Heterotrophic bacteria are most
(2) Karyogamy in fungi occurs after abundant in nature.
plasmogamy. (2) Bacterial structure is very complex and
(3) Yeasts are used to make bread and beer. they have very simple behaviour.
(4) Body of fungi consists of long, slender (3) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
thread like structures called mycelium. (4) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria
BBC606 in having different cell wall structure.
2. Column-I Column-II BBC610
I. Streptomyces A. Nitrogen fixation 6. Consider the following statements: -
II. Rhizobium B. Source of antibiotics (i) Bacteria have rigid cell wall made up of
III. Nitrosomonas C. Vinegar synthesis cellulose
IV. Acetobacter D. Nitrification (ii) Bacteria reproduce by sexual reproduction.
Which of the following combination is (iii) Ammonia is oxidised to nitrite by the
correct? bacteria Nitrosomonas.
I II III IV (iv) Viruses are obligate parasites, cannot be
(1) B A D C living without host cell.
(2) C D A B Which of the above statements are correct
(3) A B C D and incorrect?
(4) D B A C (1) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect
BBC607 (2) ii, iii correct and i, iv incorrect
3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly (3) iii, iv correct and i, ii incorrect
matched? (4) iv correct and i, ii, iii, incorrect
(A) Rhizobium (i) Parasite in the root BBC611
of legume plants. 7. Which of the following statements are
(B) Mycorrhizae (ii) Symbiotic correct?
association between
(A) Mycoplasma has no cell wall
roots of higher
(B) Viruses can multiply only when they are
plants and fungi
present inside the living cell.
(C) Yeast (iii) Production of biogas
(C) True sexuality is not found in bacteria.
(D) Slime moulds (iv) are mostly parasitic
(D) Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2.
BBC608 Options: -
4. Select the incorrect statement among the
(1) A, B, C & D (2) A, B & D
following
(3) A, B & C (4) C & D
(1) Chrysophytes are found in fresh water as BBC612
well as in marine environment. 8. How many organisms in the list given below
(2) Dinoflagellates are mostly fresh water are of ascomycetes?
organisms and are photosynthetic. Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Yeast, Claviceps, Morels,
(3) Majority of euglenoids are fresh water Agaricus, Trichoderma, Puccinia
organisms. (1) Six (2) Three
(4) Slime moulds are saprophytic protist (3) Four (4) Five
BBC609 BBC613
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Biological Classification
9. Study the five statements (A–D) given below (b) Diatoms are the chief producers of ocean.
and select the correct statements: - (c) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(A) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, (d) Spores of moulds are devoid of cell wall.
colonial or filamentous algae. Options:-
(B) Euglenoids are photosynthetic in the (1) b, c and d (2) a, b
presence of sunlight when deprived of (3) b, c (4) a, b and c
sunlight they behave like heterotrophs. BBC617
(C) In phycomycetes mycelium is aseptate 13. Given below are two statements:
and coenocytic. Statement-I : Fungi and members of the
(D) Protista are primarily aquatic organisms Monera and Protista having cell walls have
which make link with plants, animals and now been excluded from Plantae, although
fungi. according to earlier classifications they were
(1) A, B & C placed in the same kingdom.
(2) C, D & A Statement-II : The earliest systems of
(3) A & B only classification used only gross superficial
(4) All statements are correct morphological characters such as habit,
BBC614 colour, number and shape of leaves etc.
10. Match of the following columns correctly: -
In the light of the above statements, choose
Column-I Column-II the most appropriate answer from the
(i) Smut fungi (a) Sphagnum
options given below:
(ii) White rust (b) Ustilago (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(iii) Rust fungi (c) Albugo candida (2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(iv) Peat moss (d) Puccinia (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Options :- incorrect.
(1) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(2) i–b, ii–c, iii–d, iv–a
is correct.
(3) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
BBC618
(4) i–d, ii–b, iii–c, iv–a
14. Given below are two statements:
BBC615
Statement-I : Mosses along with lichens are
11. Choose the incorrect statement from the
the first organisms to colonise rocks and
following:
(1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulosic plates hence are of great ecological importance.
on the outer surface. Statement-II: Gammae are unicellular,
(2) Euglenoids have two flagella one lies asexual buds which develop in small
longitudinally and the other transversely. receptacles called gemma cups located on the
(3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air thalli.
current. In the light of the above statements, choose
(4) In diatoms the cell wall forms two thin the most appropriate answer from the
overlapping shells. options given below:
BBC616 (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
12. Consider the following four statements (a-d) (2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
and select the option which includes all the (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
correct ones :- incorrect.
(a) Unicellular member Spirulina can (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
produce large quantities of food rich in is correct.
proteins, minerals and vitamins. BBC619
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
15. Identify A, B, C & D from the given diagram:- Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(A) (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(B)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
Spirilla
BBC621
17. Which one of the following matches is correct?
(C) Nostoc (1) Alternaria Sexual Deuteromycetes
reproduction
(D) absent
(2) Mucor Reproduction Ascomycetes
by Conjugation
(3) Agaricus Parasitic Basidiomycetes
fungus
A dividing bacterial cell
(4) Phytophthora Aseptate Basidiomycetes
A B C D mycelium
(1) Pili Cell wall Cell wall Cell
membrane BBC622
(2) Flagellum Mucilagenous Cell DNA 18. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
sheath membrane having a different ....(a).... structure.
(3) Flagellum Slime layer DNA RNA
Methanogens are present in ....(b)..... of
(4) Pili Cell RNA Nuclear
membrane membrane serveral ruminant animals and are
responsible for the production of ....C..... from
BBC620
the dung of these animals. Archaebacteria are
16. Match the Description in Column A with
special since they live in some of the .....d....
Diagrams in Column B ?
Description Diagrams habitats.
(a) Tobacco (i) What are the most suitable words in place of
Mosaic Virus a, b, c and d respectively from the following
(TMV)
option: -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
RNA Capsid
(1) Cell Head Biogas Most harsh
(b) Bacteriophage (ii) Head membrane
Collar (2) Cell wall Tongue DDT Most
Shearth
favourable
(3) Cell Heart Biogas Most
Tail fibres membrane common
(4) Cell wall Gut Methane Most harsh
(c) Dinoflagellates (iii)
BBC623
19. Match column I (Kingdom) with column II
(Class) and select the correct options
Column-I Column-II
(Kingdom) (Class)
(d) Nostoc (iv) (A) Plantae (I) Archaebacteria
(B) Fungi (II) Euglenoids
(C) Protista (III) Phycomycetes
(D) Monera (IV) Algae

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Biological Classification
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I (1) They will develop into a zoospore
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV (2) They will develop into a prothallus
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I (3) They will develop into a Parthenos pore.
(4) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I (4) They will develop into a zygospore
BBC624
BBC627
20. Statement I : Characterisation, identification,
23. Read the following statement, how many are
classification and nomenclature are the
not incorrect for Euglenoids?
processes that are basic to taxonomy.
(A) Are usually found in running fresh water
Statement II : External and internal structure,
along with the structure of cell, development (B) Have pellicle which makes their flagella
process and ecological information of flexible
organisms are essential and form the basis of (C) Have pigments identical to higher plants
modern taxonomic studies. (D) Cannot behave like predator
(1) Both statements are correct (E) Do not have nuclear membrane
(2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect (F) Well defined nucleus
(3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct (1) Two (2) Three
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) All are correct (4) Four
BBC625 BBC628
21. In Phycomycetes sexual reproduction occurs by: 24. Read the following statements.
(1) Isogamy or anisogamy only (A) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(2) Isogamy or oogamy only (B) Prions are made of proteins only
(3) Isogamy, anisogamy or oogamy (C) Viruses are inert outside their specific
(4) Anisogamy or oogamy only host cell.
BBC626 (D) Mumps, small pox and influenza disease
22. The figures represent stages in the sexual are caused by bacteria.
reproduction in Rhizopus. If gametangia are
Which statements are correct.
fused, then what is the fate of cells ?
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D
BBC629
25. How many organisms in the list given below
are photosynthetic: -
Chlorobium, Clostridium, Mycobacterium,
Nitrobacter, Nitrococcus, Euglena, Albugo, E.
coli, Nostoc, Anabaena.
(1) Six (2) Eight
(3) Four (4) Five
BBC630
26. Identify the structure of following:

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
A B C D (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
(1) Dinoflagellates Euglenoids Rhizopus T.M.V Reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) Chrysophytes Slime Mucor T.M.V
moulds
Assertion.
(3) Dinoflagellates Slime Agaricus Bacteriophage (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
moulds Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) T.M.V Euglenodis Agaricus Mucor Assertion.
BBC631 (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
27. Match the column A and column B and select (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
the correct option: BBC634
Column-I Column-II 30. How many of the following are examples of
(A) Red tide (i)
class Ascomycetes of fungi?
Diatom
Albugo, Alternaria, Neurospora, Agaricus,
(B) Diatomaceous (ii) Slime mould
Penicillium.
earth (1) Two only (2) Three only
(C) Plasmodium (iii) Prions (3) Four only (4) One only
(D) Unicellular (iv) Dinoflagellates BBC635
fungi 31. Among the following which statement is correct:
(E) Infectious (v) Yeast (1) Red sea is due to Dinoflagellates.
proteins (2) Aspergillus reproduce asexually by
conidia formation.
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-v, E-ii (3) Deuteromycetes do not produce conidia.
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii, E-v (4) Trichoderma belongs to Basideomycetes
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-v, E-iii group.
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-v, E-iii BBC636
32. How many statements are correct among the
BBC632
following :-
28. Assertion: Boundaries of kingdom protista
(i) Plasmodium is formed in life cycle of
are not well defined.
Slime moulds.
Reason: Kingdom protista includes all single (ii) Large number of Deuteromycetes are
celled eukaryotes. decomposers of litter.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (iii) Dikaryon stage is found in life cycle of
Reason is a correct explanation of the Rhizopus.
Assertion. (iv) Bacteriophage have ss-RNA.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (1) Two only (2) Three only
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) All four (4) One only
BBC637
Assertion.
33. Red sea is due to :-
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) Diatoms (2) Gonyaulax
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Trichodesmium (4) Alternaria
BBC633 BBC638
29. Assertion: The cell wall of diatoms are 34. Which among the following causes disease
indestructible. mumps.
(1) Viroids (2) Viruses
Reason: The cell walls of diatoms are
(3) Fungi (4) Prions
embedded with silica.
BBC639
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Biological Classification
35. Among the following which is false statement. (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(1) Diatoms are the chief producers of the correct explanation of (A).
ocean. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) Euglena have chlorophylls a and b like BBC642
that of higher plants. 38. TMV have genetic material :-
(3) Colletotrichum causes disease Mad cow (1) ss-RNA (2) ds-RNA
disease. (3) ss-DNA (4) ds-DNA
(4) Deuteromycetes help in mineral recycling. BBC643
BBC640 39. Which are edible fungi :-
36. Bracket fungi belong to class :- (1) Morels, truffles only
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Morels, truffles, Agaricus only
(2) Basideomycetes (3) Puff balls, morels, truffles only
(3) Phycomycetes (4) Agaricus, truffles, bracket fungi only
(4) Deuteromycetes BBC644
BBC641 40. Which among the following statement is
37. Assertion : Spores of slime moulds are correct?
dispersed by air currents. (1) Puccinia causes Smut disease in plants.
Reason : Spores of slime moulds are formed (2) Citrus canker in plants is caused by
during unfavourable conditions. bacteria.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (3) Colletotrichum causes black rust in wheat.
correct explanation of (A). (4) Late blight in potato is caused by Albugo.
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false. BBC645

Hint :
Q.8 Aspergillus, Yeast, Claviceps, morels are Ascomycetes
Q.28 Chlorobium, Euglena, Nostoc, Anabaena.

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 1 1 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 1 3 3 3 3 2 1 1
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 2

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Plant Kingdom

1. Stored food of red algae is similar to :- 5. Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is
(1) Chitin by zoospores, these zoospores are :-
(2) Mannitol (1) Biflagellate : Pear-shaped : Unequal flagella
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen (2) Triflagellate : Pear-shaped : Equal flagella
(4) Glycogen and chitin (3) Biflagellate : Spiral-shaped : Unequal flagella
BPK518 (4) Biflagellate : Oval-shaped : Equal flagella
2. Complex post fertilization development is BPK522
seen in which algae ? 6. In the members of green algae the cell wall is
(1) Green algae double layered and outer cell wall is made up
(2) Brown algae of pectose while inner cell wall composed of :
(3) Yellow green algae (1) Cutin (2) Pectose
(4) Red algae (3) Cellulose (4) Lignin
BPK519 BPK523
3. Pyrenoids are made up of – 7. The needle like leaves, reduced surface area,
(1) Core of starch surrounded by sheath of thick cuticle and sunken stomata are the
protein characteristic features of the which of the
(2) Core of protein surrounded by fatty sheath. following groups of plants :
(3) Proteinaceous centre and starchy sheath (1) Pteridophyte
(4) Core of nucleic acid surrounded by protein (2) All bryophytes
BPK520 (3) Gymnosperm (conifers)
4. Study the given diagram and give answer of (4) Angiosperm
questions a, b and c :- BPK524
8. In pteridophyte, gametophyte (prothallus)
prefers to grow in moist shady places because:
(1) In these conditions, it survive very well
(2) It represents the ancestory of bryophyte
(3) It need water for fertilization
(4) It is a aquatic structure
BPK525
9. Cytotaxonomy is based on :
(1) Cytological information
(2) Chromosome number
(3) Chromosome structure and behaviour
(a) Name of plant ? (4) All of the above
(b) Class of plant ? BPK526
(c) Ploidy of rhizoids ? 10. Agar, used to grow microbes and in
(a) (b) (c) preparations of ice creams and jellies,
(1) Sphagnum Lycopsida Haploid obtained from :-
(2) Funaria Bryopsida Haploid (1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Funaria Hepaticopsida Diploid (2) Spirulina and Oscillatoria
(4) Marchantia Bryopsida Haploid (3) Fucus and Polysiphonia
BPK521 (4) Vaucheria and Brown algae
BPK527
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Diversity in the Living World
11. Identify the given figure :- 16. Both thallophyta and bryophyta are most
correctly termed as :-
Strobilus (1) Phanerogames
(2) Cryptogames
Node (3) Non-vascular cryptogames
Internode
(4) Vascular cryptogames
BPK533
Branch
17. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : The form and size of algae is
highly variable, ranging from colonial forms
Rhizome
like Ulothrix and Spirogyra and to the
filamentous forms like Volvox.
(1) Selaginella (2) Equisetum Statement-II: Aniosogamous type of
(3) Marsilea (4) Lycopodium reproduction is found in Eudorina.
BPK528 In the light of the above statements, choose
12. Stored food in brown algae is/are :- the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Glycogen and oil options given below:
(2) Laminarin and mannitol (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(3) Floridean starch (2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Cellulose (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
BPK529 incorrect.
13. Which of the following show association with (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
sloth bear? is correct.
(1) Algae/B.G.A BPK534
(2) Bryophyta 18. Given below are two statements:
(3) Pteridophyta Statement-I : Agar is one of the commercial
(4) Gymnosperm products obtained from members of
BPK530
phaeophyceae.
14. Unbranched stem is characteristic of which
Statement-II : Major pigments chlorophyll a,
gymnosperm?
d and phycoerythrin is found in the members
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas
(3) Cedrus (4) Lycopodium of phaeophyceae.
BPK531 In the light of the above statements, choose
15. Match the content of column-I with those of the most appropriate answer from the
column-II :- options given below:
Column-I Column-II (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(A) Fungi (i) Chitinase correct.
(B) Bacteria (ii) Cellulase (2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
(C) Plant cell (iii) Lysozymes incorrect.
(1) (a)-(i) , (b)-(ii) , (c)-(iii) (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(2) (a)-(iii) , (b)-(ii) , (c)-(i) incorrect.
(3) (a)-(ii) , (b)-(iii) , (c)-(i) (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(4) (a)-(i) , (b)-(iii) , (c)-(ii) is correct.
BPK532 BPK535
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
19. Given below are two statements: Statement-II: The leaves in pteridophyta are
Statement-I : Most of the members of small (microphylls) as in ferns or large
Chlorophyceae have one or more storage (macrophylls) as in Selaginella.
bodies called pyrenoids located in the In the light of the above statements, choose
chloroplasts. the most appropriate answer from the
Statement-II : Cell wall of members of options given below:
rhodophyceae is made up of cellulose, pectin (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
and polysulphate esters. correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
the most appropriate answer from the incorrect.
options given below: (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
correct. (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are is correct.
incorrect. BPK538
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 22. Given below are two statements:
incorrect. Statement-I : Bryophytes are atracheophyte,
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II embryophytes and non-spermatophyte
is correct. cryptogams.
BPK536 Statement-II : Protonema is creeping, green,
20. Given below are two statements: branched and frequently filamentous stage.
Statement-I: The red thalli of most of the red In the light of the above statements, choose
algae are unicellular. the most appropriate answer from the
Statement-II: Sexual reproduction in red options given below:
algae is isogamous and accompanied by (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
complex post fertilisation. correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
the most appropriate answer from the incorrect.
options given below: (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
correct. (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are is correct.
incorrect. BPK539
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 23. Given below are two statements:
incorrect. Statement-I: Unlike bryophytes and
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II pteridophytes, in gymnosperms the male and
is correct. female gametophytes do not have an
BPK537 independent free-living existence.
21. Given below are two statements: Statement-II: Pinus is monoecious and Cycas
Statement-I: Bryophytes are also called is dioecious.
amphibians of plant kingdom because these In the light of the above statements, choose
plants can live in soil but are dependent on the most appropriate answer from the
water for sexual reproduction. options given below:

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Diversity in the Living World
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
correct. (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct explanation of (A).
incorrect. BPK542
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 26. Given below are two statements: one is
incorrect. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II labelled as Reason (R).
is correct. Assertion (A) : Mosses are of great ecological
BPK540 importance.
24. Given below are two statements: one is
Reason (R) : Mosses along with lichens are
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
the first organisms to colonise rocks. They
labelled as Reason (R).
decompose rocks making the substrate
Assertion (A): Artificial system of
suitable for the growth of higher plants.
classification separated closely related
In the light of the above statements, choose
species.
the most appropriate answer from the
Reason (R): Artificial system of classification
options given below:
was based on a few characters.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the the correct explanation of (A).
options given below: (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
the correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. BPK543
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the 27. Given below are two statements: one is
correct explanation of (A). labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
BPK541 labelled as Reason (R).
25. Given below are two statements: one is Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is amphibians of plant kingdom.
labelled as Reason (R). Reason (R): Bryophytes can live in soil but
Assertion (A): Most algal genera are are dependent on water for sexual
haplontic. reproduction.
Reason (R): In algae, mitosis in zygote In the light of the above statements, choose
results in the formation of diploid spores, the the most appropriate answer from the
diploid spores divide meiotically to form options given below:
gametophyte.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct explanation of (A).
the most appropriate answer from the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
options given below:
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
the correct explanation of (A).
correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
BPK544
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
28. Identify the correct set of statements: 30. Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) The main plant body of the bryophytes is (a) In spirogyra sporophytic generation is
haploid. represented only by one called zygote.
(b) Fucus is a brown alga shows diplontic life
(b) In bryophytes, zygotes do not undergo
cycle.
reduction division immediately and they
(c) Bryophytes and pteridophytes show
produce a multicellular body called diplontic life cycle.
sporophyte. (d) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, kelps are
(c) In Selaginella and Equisetum, sporophylls haplodiplontic.
may form distinct compact structures (e) Gymnosperms and angiosperms show
called strobili or cones. haplontic life cycle.
Choose the correct answer from options
(d) Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum are
given below:
liverworts. (1) (a), (b) and (e) only
(e) In mosses rhizoids are unbranched and (2) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only
unicellular. (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
Choose the correct answer from options (4) (b) and (d) only
given below: BPK547
31. Which of the following is correct for algae ?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(1) Possess vascular bundles.
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) Lack chlorophyll.
(3) (d) and (e) only (3) They are mainly aquatic.
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) They cannot grow on moist stones, soil
BPK545 and wood.
29. Identify the correct set of statements: BPK548
(a) One of the gymnosperms, the Giant red 32. Formation of asexual spores, autotrophic
nutrition, no vascular tissue, thallus body are
wood tree sequoia is one of the tallest tree
characters of :-
species.
(1) Gymnosperm (2) Pteridophyta
(b) Gymnosperms are heterosporous (3) Fungi (4) Algae
cryptogams. BPK549
(c) Gymnosperms are evolutionarily last 33. Which one of the following statement is
archegoniate plant group. wrong?
(d) Pteridophytes are evolutionarily last (1) Algin and Carrageenan are products of
algae.
plant group having antheridia.
(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and
(e) The stems are unbranched in Cycas and
Gracilaria.
branched in Pinus and Cedrus. (3) Chlorella used as space food.
Choose the correct answer from options (4) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae.
given below: BPK550
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only 34. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(2) (c), (d) and (e) only (1) Microscopic angiosperm – Wolfia.
(2) Tallest gymnosperm – Sequoia.
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) Persist pinnate leaves – Pinus.
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only (4) Coralloid roots – Cycas.
BPK546 BPK551
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35. Algae have cell wall made up of : (1) If both the assertion and the reason are
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins. true and the reason is a correct
(2) Cellulose, galactans and mannans. explanation of the assertion.
(3) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins. (2) If both the assertion and reason are true
(4) Pectins, cellulose and proteins. but the reason is not a correct explanation
BPK552 of the assertion.
36. Bryophyta are divided into :- (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is
(1) Pteropsida and Gnetum. false.
(2) Sphenopsida and Liverworts. (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(3) Liverworts and Mosses. BPK556
(4) Mosses and Cycadophyta. 40. Read Assertion and Reason carefully to mark
BPK553 the correct option out of the options given
37. Nearly how many species of marine algae are below.
used as food? Assertion : Artificial systems of classification
(1) 60 (2) 70 (3) 50 (4) 80 separate closely related species.
BPK554 Reason : Artificial systems of classification
38. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence are based on a few superficial morphological
of : characteristics.
(1) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
on the same plant. Reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on Assertion.
the same plant. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) Stamen and carpel on the same plant. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium Assertion.
on the same plant. (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
BPK555 (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
39. Assertion: Phaeophyceae are brown algae. BPK557
Reason: Phaeophyceae contain large amount
of xanthophyll pigment called fucoxanthin
which gives brown colour.

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 2 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 3 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 4 4 1 4 3
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer 3 4 4 3 2 3 2 1 1 1

[Link] [ 107 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Plant Kingdom

1. Some characters/structures are given below. 4. Read the following paragraph and fill in the
How many of them are found in both blanks with appropriate words: -
bryophyta and pteridophyta? In pteridophytes the main plant body is
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema ___(A)___ which bears sporangia that are
(C) Embryo (D) Ovule subtended by leaf-like appendages called
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Antheridium ___(B)___. The sporangia produce spores by
Option :- ___(C)___ and after germination of spores, they
(1) Two (2) Three give rise to photosynthetic gametophytes
(3) Four (4) Five called ___(D)___.
BPK558 Choose the correct option: -
2. Read the following statements regarding A B C D
bryophytes and do as asked next to them: - (1) Sporophyte Sporangia Meiosis Protonema
(A) All cells of sporophyte undergo reduction (2) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Sporophyte
division to produce haploid spores. (3) Sporophyte Sporophylls Meiosis Prothallus
(B) They play an important role in plant (4) Gametophyte Sporophylls Mitosis Protonema
succession on barren rocks. BPK561
(C) Plant body is thallus like and prostate or 5. Read the following statements regarding
errect and attached to the substratum by Gymnosperm: -
unicellular or multicellular rhizoids. (A) The main plant body is sporophyte and
(D) They prevent soil erosion. heterosporous in nature.
(E) Sex organs are multicellular. Male and (B) Roots of some gymnosperm have
female sex organs are called archegonium symbiotic association (blue green algae).
and antheridium respectively. (C) The multicellular female gametophyte
How many of the above statements is/are not bears two or more archegonia.
correct? (D) The male and female cones may be borne
(1) 2 (2) 3 on the same tree or on different trees.
(3) 1 (4) 4 (1) Statement A, C and D are correct and
BPK559 statement B is incorrect.
3. Which of the following statements is not (2) Statement A, B and D are correct and
correct? statement C is incorrect.
(1) In gymnosperms the sporophyte and the (3) Statement A and D are correct and
gametophyte do not have an independent statement B and C are incorrect.
free-living existence. (4) All statement are correct.
(2) The leaves of gymnosperms are well- BPK562
adapted to withstand extremes of 6. Study the given algae and answer the following
temperature, humidity and wind. questions: -
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is mainly
carried by air current.
(4) The multicellular female gametophyte of
gymnosperm is retained within mega-
sporangium.
BPK560

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(a) Name of algae ? 9. Assertion: Mosses reduce the impact of
(b) Type of sexual reproduction? falling rain and prevent soil erosion.
(c) Name of division? Reason: Mosses form dense mats on soil.
(d) Stored food? In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Laminaria: Isogamous: Chlorophyta: the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
Starch.
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(2) Volvox: Oogamous: Chlorophyta: Starch.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) Focus: Isogamous: Rhodophyta: Floridian
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
starch. the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Chara : Oogamous : Rhodophyta : Glycogen. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
BPK563 correct explanation of (A).
7. Which of the following statement is correct? BPK566
(1) In all bryophytes asexual reproduction 10. Statement-I : Gracilaria and Porphyra are
takes place by green, multicellular buds members of Rhodophyceae.
called gemmae. Statement-II : Floridean starch is similar to
(2) The sporophyte of bryophytes is amylopectin and glycogen in structure.
differentiated into foot, seta and capsule In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
and it is a free-living generation.
options given below:
(3) Protonema is a green, creeping, branched
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
and filamentous stage in mosses, which
are correct.
develops directly from a spore. (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(4) The liverworts have an elaborate incorrect.
mechanism of seed dispersal. (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
BPK564 incorrect.
8. Assertion : In Gymnosperm, the male and (4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
female gametophytes do not have an correct.
independent free living existence. BPK567
Reason : The microspores develop in to a 11. Statement-I : In bryophytes, the dominant
male gametophytic generation which is phase in the life cycle is the gametophyte.
Statement-II : In pteridophytes the main
highly reduced.
plant body is sporophytic.
In the light of the above statements, choose
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the correct explanation of (A). incorrect.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the are correct.
correct explanation of (A). (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. incorrect.
BPK565 (4) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
BPK568
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
12. Statement-I : Bladderwort is an insectivorous (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
plants. incorrect.
Statement-II : Venus fly trap and Cuscuta (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
both are parasite plants. is correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose BPK571
the most appropriate answer from the 15. Given below are two statements:
options given below: Statement-I : Most of the Pteridophytes are
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. tracheophytes, embryophytes, heterosporous,
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is spermatophytes cryptogams.
incorrect.
Statement-II : Prothallus is inconspicuous,
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
small but multicellular, free living, mostly
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
photosynthetic thalloid gametophyte.
are correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose
BPK569
the most appropriate answer from the
13. Given below are two statements:
options given below:
Statement-I: Natural phylogenetic classification
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
systems are also based on evolutionary
relationships between the various organisms. correct.
Statement-II : In numerical taxonomy each (2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
character is given equal importance and at the incorrect.
same time hundreds of characters can be (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
considered. incorrect.
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
the most appropriate answer from the is correct.
options given below: BPK572
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. 16. Given below are two statements:
(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. Statement-I: Selaginella and Salvinia are
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is homosporous pteridophytes.
incorrect. Statement-II: Gymnosperms are
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II tracheophytes, embryophytes, heterosporous,
is correct. spermatophytes phanerogams.
BPK570 In the light of the above statements, choose
14. Given below are two statements: the most appropriate answer from the
Statement-I : Algae are non-embryophytes, options given below:
atracheophytes, spermatophytes and
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
homosporous.
correct.
Statement-II : Sex organs of algae are
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
multicellular and jacketed.
incorrect.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
the most appropriate answer from the
incorrect.
options given below:
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are is correct.
incorrect. BPK573

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Diversity in the Living World
17. Given below are two statements: one is (b) In Volvox, Fucus sexual reproduction is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is oogamous.
labelled as Reason (R). (c) In numerical taxonomy, each character is
Assertion (A) : Majority of pteriodophytes given equal importance and at the same
are heterosporous. time hundreds of characters can be
Reason (R) : Genera like Selaginella and considered.
Salvinia produce two kinds of spores, macro (d) In algae, asexual reproduction is by
(large) and micro (small). production of different types of spores,
In the light of the above statements, choose the most common being the conidia.
the most appropriate answer from the
(e) Atleast half of the total carbon di-oxide
options given below :
fixation on earth is carried out by algae
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
through photosynthesis.
the correct explanation of (A).
Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
given below :
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(1) (a) and (b) only
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only
BPK574
18. Given below are two statements: one is (4) (b), (c) and (e) only
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is BPK576
labelled as Reason (R). 20. Identify the correct set of statements:
Assertion (A) : Sexual reproduction in (a) Red colour of red algae is due to
Ulothrix and Spirogyra is oogamous. predominance of the red pigment
Reason (R) : Male and female gametes are fucoxanthin.
flagellated and similar in size (as in Ulothrix) (b) Chlorella is a multicellular alga rich in
or non-flagellated (non motile) but similar in proteins is used as food supplement even
size (as in Spirogyra). by space travallers.
In the light of the above statements, choose (c) Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall
the most appropriate answer from the made of an outer layer of cellulose and an
options given below: inner layer of pectose.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (d) In red algae food is stored as floridean
the correct explanation of (A). starch which is very similar to
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. amylopectin and glycogen in structure.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (e) Fucus is a brown alga shows haplo-
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the diplontic life cycle.
correct explanation of (A).
Choose the correct answer from options
BPK575
given below :
19. Identify the correct set of statements:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(a) Natural classification systems were not
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
based on natural affinities among the
(3) only (d)
organisms and evolutionary relationship
(4) (c) and (d) only
between various organisms.
BPK577
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
21. Identify the correct set of statements: 23. Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) Polysiphonia, Porphyra are red algae, and (a) Roots in some genera have fungal
Laminaria, Sargassum are brown algae. association in the form of mycorrhiza
(b) Asexual reproduction in most brown (like Cycas), while in some others (like
algae is by biflagellated zoospores that Pinus) small specialised roots called
are pear shaped and have two equal coralloid roots are associated with N2–
laterally attached flagella. fixing cyanobacteria.
(c) The plant body of bryophytes is less (b) In gymnosperms the multicellular female
differentiated than pteriodophytes. gametophytes is also retained within
(d) Species of Gelidium, a moss provide peat megasporangium.
that have long been used as fuel. (c) In gymnosperms endoseprm represents
(e) Marchantia, is the leafy member of female gametophyte.
liverworts has tiny leaf like appendages in (d) Gymnosperms show anemophilous
two rows on stem like structure. pollination.
Choose the correct answer from options (e) In Cycas the pinnate leaves persist for few
given below: year.
(1) (a) and (c) only Choose the correct answer from options
(2) (b), (d) and (e) only given below:
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
(4) (c) only (2) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
BPK578 (3) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
22. Identify the correct set of statements: (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(a) Pteridophytes are first spermatophytes BPK580
evolutionarily. 24. Given below are two statements: one is
(b) In homosporous pteridophytes, spores labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, labelled as Reason (R).
small but multicellular, free living mostly Assertion (A): In heterosporous
photosynthetic thalloid gameteophytes pteridophytes, gametophyte is dioecious.
called prothallus. Reason (R): The female gametophytes in
(c) Majority of pteridophytes are heterosporous pteridophytes, are retained on
homosporous. parent sporophyte for variable periods.
(d) Homosporous pteridophyes show event In the light of the above statements, choose
precursor to the seed habit. the most appropriate answer from the
(e) Equisetum belongs to class lycopsida. options given below:
Choose the correct answer from options (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
given below : the correct explanation of (A).
(1) (a), (d) and (e) only (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(2) (b) and (c) only (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only correct explanation of (A).
BPK579 BPK581
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Diversity in the Living World
25. Given below are two statements: one is (1) i-c-z, ii-b-x, iii-a-y
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (2) i-b-z, ii-c-x, iii-a-y
labelled as Reason (R). (3) i-b-y, ii-c-x, iii-a-z
Assertion (A) : In gymnosperms endosperm (4) i-a-x, ii-b-y, iii-c-z
is haploid. BPK584
Reason (R) : In gymnosperms within the 28. Match the following:
megasporangium, megaspore mother cell List-I List-II
divides meiotically to form four haploid (A) Pteropsida (i) Equisetum
megaspores, one of the megaspore develops
(B) Sphenopsida (ii) Selaginella
into a multicellular female gametophyte.
(C) Psilopsida (iii) Dryopteris
In the light of the above statements, choose
(D) Lycopsida (iv) Psilotum
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : (1) A–i; B–ii; C–iii; D–iv
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (2) A–iii; B–iv; C–ii; D–i
the correct explanation of (A). (3) A–iv; B–iii; C–ii; D–i
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) A–iii; B–i; C–iv; D–ii
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. BPK585
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the 29. Match the following:
correct explanation of (A). List-I List-II
BPK582 (A) Haplontic life cycle (i) Ectocarpus
26. Match the column-I with column-II and (B) Haplo-diplontic (ii) Spirogyra
choose the correct option. lifecycle
Column-I Column-II (C) Diplontic life cycle (iii) Cycas
(A) Smallest I. Eucalyptus (D) Haplo-diplontic (iv) Marchantia
flowering plant lifecycle
(B) Male sex organ in II. Wolffia
(1) A-(ii); B-(iv), C-(iii); D-(i)
flowering plant
(2) A-(i); B-(ii), C-(iii); D-(iv)
(C) Female sex organ III. Stamen
(3) A-(iv); B-(iii), C-(ii); D-(i)
in flowering plant
(4) A-(ii); B-(iii), C-(iv); D-(i)
(D) Tallest tree IV. Pistil BPK586
(1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV 30. Match the column [A] with column [B] :-
(2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I Column-A Column-B
(3) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I (a) Gemmae (i) Protonema
(4) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I (b) Mosses (ii) Male
BPK583 gametophyte
27. Match the following columns correctly :- (c) Megaspore (iii) Female
Column-I Column-II Column-III gametophyte
(i) Volvox & (a) Floridean (x) Chlorophyll-a, c (d) Microspore (iv) Liver wort
Spirogyra starch
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii; d-iv
(ii) Fucus & (b) Starch (y) Chlorophyll-a, d
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i; d-iii
Laminaria
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i; d-iii
(iii) Porphyra & (c) Mannitol & (z) Chlorophyll-a, b
Polysiphonia laminarin (4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii; d-ii
BPK587

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
31. Read the following statements about C-Floridean
(1) A-Cellulose B-chl-a,c
pteridophytes :- starch
(i) The main plant body is sporophyte. (2) A-Starch B-chl-a,e C-Laminarin
(ii) The sporophyte is differentiated into C-Floridean
(3) A-Starch B-chl-a,c
true roots, stem and leaves. starch
(iii) Their gametophyte lack vascular bundle. (4) A-Cellulose B-chl-a,e C-Starch
(iv) Microphylls are found in Selaginella and
BPK591
macrophylls in the ferns like Dryopteris.
35. Some structures are given below they are
(v) Strobili or cones are found in Selaginella produced during life cycle of different plant
and Equisetum. groups :-
How many of the above statements are (i) Gemmae (ii) Protonema
correct ? (iii) Prothallus (iv) Haploid endosperm
(1) Four (2) Five (v) Archegonium (vi) Pollen grains
(3) Two (4) Three (vii) Double fertilization
BPK588 (viii) Fruit formation
32. Bryophyte → Pteridophyte → Gymnosperm (ix) Ovule formation
(A) (B) (C) (x) Vascular tissues
Choose the ploidy of gametophytic What structures can be observed in the life
generation of A, B and C :- cycle of Gymnosperm :-
(1) Gemmae, Prothallus, Archegonium.
(1) A-2n, B-2n, C-2n
(2) Vascular tissue, Prothallus, Ovule
(2) A-n, B-2n, C-n
formation.
(3) A-2n, B-n, C-2n
(3) Archagonium, Haploid endosperm,
(4) A-n, B-n, C-n
Vascular tissue.
BPK589
(4) Prothallus, Archegonium, Vascular tissue.
33. The spread of living bryophytes and BPK592
pteridophytes are restricted to moist, damp 36. Arrange the following events of life cycle of
and shady places because:- Bryophyte in correct sequence :-
(1) They lack roots and vascular tissues I. Germination of spore.
(2) Not able to tolerate high light intensity II. Gametes formation.
(3) They require water for fertilization III. Formation of Gametophyte.
(4) One generation dependent upon another IV. Fertilization.
for water. V. Embryo formation.
BPK590 (1) I, III, IV, V, II (2) II, IV, I, V, III
34. (3) III, II, IV, V, I (4) V, I, II, III, IV
BPK593
Major Stored
Classes 37. Arrange the following plant groups in
Pigments food
ascending order with respect to the gradual
Chlorophyceae chl-a,b A reduction of gametophytic stage.
Phaeophyceae B Mannitol (a) Bryophyta (b) Pteridophyta
Rhodophyceae chl-a,d C (c) Angiosperm (d) Gymnosperm
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d, a
Choose the correct options for A, B and C : (3) a, b, d, c (4) b, d, c, a
BPK594
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Diversity in the Living World
38. List some of the plants are given below :- 40. Chemotaxonomy is connected with
Cedrus, Funaria, Pinus, Cycas, Ginkgo, (1) Classification of chemicals found in
Pteridium, Adiantum plants.
How many are 'naked seed' bearing plants - (2) Use of phytochemical data in systematic
(1) Three (2) Four botany.
(3) Two (4) Five (3) Application of chemicals on herbarium
BPK595 sheets.
39. Place the following groups of plants in order, (4) Use of statistical methods in chemical
beginning with those that first appeared on yielding plants.
the earth and progressing toward those that BPK597
appeared most recently in time.
(1) Gymnosperms, angiosperms, ferns, moss,
algae
(2) Algae, moss, ferns, gymnosperms,
angiosperms
(3) Moss, algae, ferns, angiosperms,
gymnosperms
(4) Algae, ferns, angiosperms, gymnosperms,
moss
BPK596

Exercise – II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 1 1 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 4 2 1 2 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 1 4
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer 2 4 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals

Exercise – I Morphology of Flowering Plant

1. Primary root originates from :- 8. Identify the components labelled A, B, C in the
(1) Radicle of embryo given diagrams :-
(2) Plumule of embryo
(3) Coleorhiza of embryo
(4) Scutellum of embryo A
BMP464 B
C
2. Fibrous root system is present in :-
(1) Wheat (2) Mustard (1) A - mesocarp, B - seed, C - endocarp
(3) Monstera (4) Banyan tree (2) A - mesocarp, B - endocarp, C - seed
BMP465 (3) A - Seed, B - endocarp, C - mesocarp
3. Stem originates from which part at the time (4) A - Seed, B - mesocarp, C - endocarp
of seed germination :- BMP471
(1) Plumule (2) Radicle 9. Mango and coconut lie in which category of
(3) Scutellum (4) Coleorhiza fruit:-
BMP466 (1) Drupe fruit (2) Pepo fruit
4. Rachis is absent in :- (3) Pome fruit (4) Berry fruit
(1) Simple leaf BMP472
10. If any fruit is produced from ovary without
(2) Palmately compound leaf
fertilization then it is called .......................... :-
(3) Pinnately compound leaf
(1) Parthenogenesis
(4) Both (1) and (2)
BMP467 (2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Apospory
5. Which of the following possess simple leaves:
(4) Diplospory
(1) Peepal, Mango, Radish
BMP473
(2) Silk cotton 11. Given below are two statements:
(3) Bombax Statement-I : In some plants, like grass,
(4) Azadirachta (Neem) monstera and banyan roots arise from
BMP468 radicle.
6. ................ type of inflorescence the main axis Statement-II : Epidermal cells of region of
terminates in a flower, hence is limited in elongation in root form very fine and delicate,
growth and the flowers are borne in a thread like structures called root hairs.
basipetal order :- In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Racemose (2) Cymose the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Venation (4) Placentation options given below:
BMP469 (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
7. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
in floral bud with respect to the other
incorrect.
members of the same whorl is known as
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
...................... :- incorrect.
(1) Aestivation (2) Placentation (4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Phyllotaxy (4) Allogamy is correct.
BMP470 BMP474
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
12. Given below are two statements: Reason (R) : The cells of elongation zone
Statement-I : Superior ovary is found in gradually differentiate and mature and form
mustard, china rose, brinjal and inferior region of maturation.
ovary is found in guava, ray florets of In the light of the above statements, choose
sunflower. the most appropriate answer from the
Statement-II : Mustard, Datura, chilli have options given below :
actinomorphic flowers and canna has (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
asymmetric flower. the correct explanation of (A).
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
options given below: (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct explanation of (A).
correct. BMP477
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 15. Given below are two statements: one is
incorrect. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is labelled as Reason (R).
incorrect. Assertion (A) : In Cymose type of inflorescence
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II peduncle shows limited growth.
is correct. Reason (R) : In cymose type of inflorescence
BMP475 the main axis terminates into a flower.
13. Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose
Statement-I : Epipetalous androecium is the most appropriate answer from the
found in Belladonna, Ashwagandha. options given below :
Statement-II : Epitepalous androcium is (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
found in Pea, Trifolium. the correct explanation of (A).
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
options given below: (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are BMP478
incorrect. 16. Given below are two statements: one is
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
incorrect. labelled as Reason (R).
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II Assertion (A) : In mustard, chinarose and
is correct. brinjal ovary is said to be superior.
BMP476 Reason (R) : Gynoecium is situated in the
14. Given below are two statements: one is centre and other parts of flowers are located
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is on the rim of thalamus almost at the same
labelled as Reason (R). level.
Assertion (A) : The zone, proximal to region In the light of the above statements, choose
of elongation in root, is called the region of the most appropriate answer from the
maturation. options given below :

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not 19. In Cymose, flower are borne in which manner
the correct explanation of (A). (1) Acropetal
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (2) Basipetal
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) Both acropetal & basipetal
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) They do not follow any pattern
correct explanation of (A).
BMP482
BMP479
20. Tricarpellary, syncarpous ovary with axile
17. Identify the correct set of statements :
placentation is seen in :-
(a) In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the
endosperm is present in mature seeds (1) Solanaceae
and such seeds are called endospermous. (2) Fabaceae
(b) Embryo in monocot seed consists of one (3) Liliaceae
large and shield shaped cotyledon known (4) Brassicaceae
as epiblast and a short axis with plumule BMP483
and a radicle. 21. A monocot can be distinguished from a dicot
(c) The fruit in muliathi is legume and seed is by:-
endospermic. (1) Aestivation
(d) Diadelphous androecium is the feature of (2) Venation
brassicaceae family.
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(e) After fertilization ovules develop into
(4) Placentation
fruit and ovary matures into seeds. BMP484
Choose the correct answer from options
22. Select the correct option in which examples
given below :
are correctly matched with figures of
(1) All are correct
placentation respectively :-
(2) All are incorrect
(3) (a), (c), (d) are correct
(4) only (c) is incorrect
BMP480
18. Find out the correct one from the following.
Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous (1) Mustard, Tomato, Sunflower, Dianthus
flower flower flower (2) Tomato, Sunflower, Mustard, Dianthus
Guava, (3) Sunflower, Dianthus, Argemone, Tomato
Cucumber, Plum, Rose, Mustard, Brinjal,
(1)
Sunflower - Peach China rose
(4) Tomato, Argemone, Dianthus, Sunflower
ray floret BMP485
Guava, 23. Find the incorrect statement :-
Plum, Rose, Cucumber,
(2) Sunflower - ray (1) In pinnately compound leaf, rachis is
Brinjal Peach
floret
present
Mustard, Brinjal, Cucumber,
(3) Sunflower - ray (2) Rachis, actually represents the midrib of
Guava Sunflower
floret the leaf in a pinnately compound leaf
Guava, (3) In palmately compound leaf, rachis is
Mustard,
Plum, Rose, Cucumber,
(4) Brinjal, China present
Peach Sunflower - ray
rose
floret (4) Silk cotton has palmately compound leaf
BMP481 BMP486

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
24. Answer the following questions (A & B) by 26. In coconut and mango, the fruit is known as :-
using the given below diagram :- (1) Berry (2) Pod
(3) Drupe (4) Samara
BMP489
27. In ___A___ type of inflorescence the main axis
terminates in a flower, hence is ___B___ in
growth. The flowers are borne in a ___C___
(A) Type of placentation ?
order. A, B & C are respectively.
(B) Example of this type of placentation ?
(1) Racemose, unlimited, acropetal
(1) A = Free Central, B = china rose
(2) Cymose, limited, basipetal
(2) A = Parietal, B = Mustard
(3) Cymose, unlimited, basipetal
(3) A = Basal, B = Marigold
(4) Racemose, limited, acropetal
(4) A= Axile, B = Lemon
BMP490
BMP487
25. Developing seeds are attached to the fruit
with a scar like structure, which can also be
seen on seed coat is called as :-
(1) Testa (2) Tegmen
(3) Hilum (4) Micropyle
BMP488

Exercise – I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 1 1 1 4 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 4 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Answer 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 2

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals

Exercise – II Morphology of Flowering Plant

1. The function of stem is :- (B) Valvate (ii) Chinarose,
(1) Spreading out branches, bearing leaves, ladyfinger, cotton
flowers and fruits (C) Vexillary (iii) Cassia, gulmohur
(2) Conduct water, minerals and (D) Imbricate (iv) Pea, bean
photosynthates (1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(3) Storage of food, support, protection and (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
vegetative propagation (3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(4) All of the above (4) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
BMP491 BMP494
2. Find out the correct match from given table :- 5. Find out the correct match :-
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) Alternate (i) Sunflower, (A) Twisted (i)
phyllotaxy china rose, aestivation
mustard
(B) Opposite (ii) Calotropis,
phyllotaxy guava
(B) Valvate (ii)
(C) Whorled (iii) Monocot plants aestivation
phyllotaxy
(D) Parallel (iv) Alstonia (Devils (C) Vexillary (iii)
venation tree) aestivation
(1) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii (D) Imbricate (iv)
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i aestivation
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
BMP492
(1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
3. Find out the correct match :-
Column-I Column-II (2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(A) Actinomorphic (i) Canna (3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
flower (4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(B) Zygomorphic (ii) Pea Gulmohar, BMP495
flower Bean, Cassia 6. Find out the correct match from the table :-
(C) Asymmetric (iii) Datura, Column-I Column-II
flower Mustard, Chilli (A) Basal (i) Pea
(D) Underground (iv) Potato, Ginger placentation
stems (B) Free central (ii) Chinarose,
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv placentation tomato,
(2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv lemon
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i (C) Parietal (iii) Argemone,
(4) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii placentation mustard
BMP493 (D) Axile (iv) Dianthus,
4. Find out the correct match :- placentation primrose
Column-I Column-II
(E) Marginal (v) Sunflower,
(A) Twisted (i) Calotropis
placentation marigold

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v 9. % K(5) C1+1+(2) A(9)+1 G1
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - v, E - i Select the correct option in respect of given
(3) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii, E - i floral formula :-
(4) A - v, B - iv, C - i, D - ii, E - iii (1) Posterior petals are fused
BMP496 (2) Found in flower of tulip plant
7. Find out the correct match :- (3) Diadelphous condition
Column-I Column-II (4) Monoadelphous condition
BMP499
(A) Free cental (i) 10. Identify the correct floral formula on the
basis of given diagram ?

(B) Basal (ii)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(C) Parietal (iii) (1) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A(9) + 1 G1

(2) K2 + 2 C4 A2 + 4 G(2)

(D) Axile (iv)

(3) Br P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3)

(4) K(5) C(5) A5 G(2)

(E) Marginal (v)
BMP500
11. Statement-I : The floral features are
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v represented in the summarised form as floral
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - iv, E - iii diagrams and floral formula.
(3) A - iv, B - v, C - iii, D - ii, E - i Statement-II : Flowering plants exhibit
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - iv, E - i enormous variation in shape, size, structure,
BMP497 mode of nutrition, life span, habit and habitat.
8. Choose the correct floral formula with the In the light of the above statements, choose
help of given floral diagram :- the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
are correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct
BMP501
(1)  + K2+2 C4 A2+4G(2) 12. Statement-I : Generally, Monocotyledonous
seeds are Non-endospermic but some as in
(2)  + K(2+2) C1+2+2 A2+4G(2)
orchids are endospermic.
(3)  + K2+2 C4 A(2+4)G(2) Statement-II : In some seeds such as castor
the endosperm formed as a result of double
(4)  + K2+2 C4 A2+4G2 fertilization, is food storing tissue and called
BMP498 endospermic seeds.
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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
In the light of the above statements, choose 15. Read the following statements and choose the
the most appropriate answer from the set of correct statements :-
options given below: (a) A few centimetres above the root cap is
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. the region of meristematic activity.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (b) In some plants like monstera, grass, and
incorrect. the mustard plant, root aries from parts of
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II the plant other than the radicle and are
is correct called adventitious roots.
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are (c) Root hairs are generally multicellular and
they absorb water and minerals from the
correct
soil.
BMP502
(d) Underground stems of Potato, Ginger,
13. Statement-I : When stamens are attached to
Turmeric, Zaminkand, Colocassia are
the petals they are epiphyllous as in brinjal,
modified store food in them.
or epipetalous when attached to the perianth
(e) The region of the stem where leaves are
as in the flowers of lily.
born are called nodes while internode are
Statement-II : When the ovules are borne on the portions between two nodes.
central axis and septa are absent, as in Choose the correct answer from the options
Dianthus and primrose the placentation is given below.
called free central. (1) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) (a), (d) and (e) only
the most appropriate answer from the (3) (d) and (e) only
options given below: (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. BMP505
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 16. Read the following statement and choose the
incorrect. set of correct statements :-
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (a) The flower is the reproductive unit in the
is correct angiosperm.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct (b) A flower may be trimerous, tetramerous
BMP503 or pentamerous when the floral
14. Given below are two statements : one is appendages are in multiple of 3, 4 or 5
labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is respectively.
labelled as Reason (R). (c) The calyx is the innermost whorl of the
flower and the members are called sepals.
Assertion : The stamens of china rose are
(d) Each stamen which represents the male
Monadelphous.
reproductive organ consists of stigma,
Reason : Filaments of stamens are united
style and ovary.
into one bunch or one bundle and anthers are
(e) the arrangement of ovules with in the
free.
ovary is known as placentation.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Choose the correct answer from the options
the correct explanation of (A). given below.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (2) (a), (b) and (e) only
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
correct explanation of (A). (4) (a) and (b) only
BMP504 BMP506
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
17. Given below are two statements: 19. Identify the correct set of statements :
Statement-I : Underground stems of some (a) Ovary is half inferior in plum, rose, peach.
plants such as grass and strawberry etc., (b) If the margins of sepals and petals overlap
spread to new niches and when older parts one another but not in a particular
die new plants are formed. direction as in Cassia and gulmohar, the
Statement-II : In Pistia and Eichhornia the aestivation is called imbricate.
lateral branches originate from the basal and (c) A sterile stamen is called staminate.
underground portion of the main stem, grows (d) In Dianthus and Primrose the placentation
horizontally beneath the soil and the come is parietal.
(e) In mango and coconut fruit is known as
out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy
legume.
shoots.
Choose the correct answer from options
In the light of the above statements, choose
given below :
the most appropriate answer from the
(1) (a) and (b) only
options given below:
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) (b), (c), (d) only
correct.
(4) (a) and (e) only
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are BMP509
incorrect. 20. Axile placentation is found in
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) Malvaceae (2) Liliaceae
incorrect. (3) Solanaceae (4) All of the above
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II BMP510
is correct. 21. Perianth is reduced and represent as lodicule
BMP507
in the family -
18. Given below are two statements:
(1) Lilliaceae (2) Graminae
Statement-I : Micropyle is a scar on the seed
(3) Compositae (4) Malvaceae
coat through which the developing seeds are
BMP511
attached to the fruit, above the micropyle is a 22. Androecium in Solanaceae is _________
small pore called the hilum. (1) Epipetalous (2) Epiphyllous
Statement-II : Opposite phyllotaxy is found (3) Monoadelphous (4) Polyadelphous
in Calotropis and whorled phyllotaxy is found BMP512
in Alstonia. 23. Assertion : Syngenesious condition is a
In the light of the above statements, choose characteristic feature of compositae.
the most appropriate answer from the Reason : Stamens are united by their anthers
options given below: only while, filaments remains free.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
correct. Reason is correct explanation of
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Assertion.
incorrect. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is but Reason is not the correct explanation
incorrect. of Assertion.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
is correct. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
BMP508 BMP513
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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
24. Floral formula of a plant is (1) Gram – Monocot seed
% K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1. (2) Pea – Dicot seed
(3) Maize – Dicot seed
Which of the following feature is correct w.r.t.
(4) Maize – Monocot seed
this plant?
BMP517
(1) Leaves have parallel venation
28. Study carefully the given floral diagram and
(2) Roots are adventitious and fibrous
select the option, which correctly represents
(3) Seeds are endospermous
the related Floral Formula (FF).
(4) Roots may have root nodules
BMP514
25. Plant which to neither belongs solanaceae
nor to cruciferae family :
(1) Mustard
(2) Withania somnifera
(3) Aloe vera
(4) Potato
BMP515
26. Find the incorrect match, w.r.t. the floral (1) Br⊕⚥Epi3-7K(5)C5 A(∞) G(5-∞)
formula and its family :
(2)
(1) Poaceae – Br⊕⚥P2A3G1 or G(3)
(3)
(2) Asteraceae – Br% KpC(5)A0G
̅(2)

(3) Malvaceae – Br⊕⚥Epi3-7K(5)C5 A(∞) G(5-∞) (4)

(4) Fabaceae – BMP518

BMP516 29. is the floral formula of :-
27. (I) Aleurone layer
(1) Sesbania
(II) Scutellum
(2) Petunia
(III) Coleoptile
(3) Brassica
(IV) Coleorhiza
(4) Allium
Find the correct option with respect to above BMP519
information.

Exercise – II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 3 4 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Answer 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 1 4 3 1 4 1 2

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Exercise – I Anatomy of Flowering Plants

1. In which part of dicot root, casparian stripes 8. The endodermis of dicot stem is also called:
are present? (1) Stele (2) Starch sheath
(1) Hypodermis (2) Endodermis (3) Cortical layers (4) Periderm
(3) Pericycle (4) Cortex BAP383
BAP376 9. The wood is actually a _______
2. The vascular bundles are surrounded by a (1) Secondary phloem
layer of thick walled _______ cells in (2) Primary phloem
dorsiventral leaf: - (3) Primary xylem
(1) Mesophyll (2) Epidermal
(4) Secondary xylem
(3) Bundle sheath (4) Hypodermis
BAP384
BAP377 10. The companion cells are specialised
3. Bulliform cells are present in :
parenchymatous cells, which are closely
(1) Grass leaf
associated with: -
(2) Mango leaf
(1) Sieve tube elements
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Xylem
(4) Monocot stem
(3) Phloem
BAP378
4. The tissues involved in secondary growth (4) Subsidiary cells
can be: BAP385
11. The number of xylem bundle in monocot root
(1) Lateral meristem
is:
(2) Vascular cambium
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) Cork cambium
(3) more than 6 (4) less than 6
(4) All of the above
BAP379 BAP386
5. The meristem, which occurs between mature 12. In dicot stem, pericycle is present on the inner
tissues and are responsible for primary side of the endodermis and above the phloem
growth is called: in the form of semi lunar patches, it is made of:
(1) Intercalary (2) Secondary (1) Parenchyma
(3) Lateral (4) Apical (2) Collenchyma
BAP380 (3) Sclerenchyma
6. Which cambium is primary in origin: (4) Prosenchyma
(1) Intrafascicular cambium
BAP387
(2) Interfascicular cambium 13. During the formation of leaves and elongation
(3) Cork cambium of stem, some cells left behind from shoot
(4) Vascular cambium apical meristem, constitute the ______
BAP381 (1) Axillary bud
7. In the _______, the vascular cambium is
(2) Secondary meristem
completely secondary in origin:
(3) Lateral meristem
(1) Monocot root (2) Monocot stem
(4) Cambium
(3) Dicot root (4) Dicot stem
BAP382 BAP388

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
14. Identify the tissue in which cells are much 21. Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of
thickened at the corners due to a deposition ______ cells:
of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin: - (1) Parenchymatous
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (2) Sclerenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Xylem (3) Secretory
BAP389 (4) Collenchymatous
15. ______ provides mechanical support to the BAP396
growing parts of the plant such as young stem 22. The stomatal aperture, guard cells and the
and petiole of a leaf: surrounding subsidiary cells are together
(1) Parenchyma called as –
(2) Collenchyma (1) Trichome
(3) Sclerenchyma (2) Stomata
(4) Xylem (3) Stomatal apparatus
BAP390 (4) Ground tissue
16. The main mechanical tissue of plant is : BAP397
(1) Parenchyma 23. On stem the epidermal hairs are called:
(2) Collenchyma (1) Trichome
(3) Sclerenchyma (2) Root hair
(4) Xylem (3) Both (1) and (2)
BAP391 (4) Bundle sheath
17. ________ constitute the complex tissues in plants. BAP398
(1) Xylem, phloem 24. All tissues except epidermis and vascular
(2) Phloem, metaxylem
bundles constitute –
(3) Parenchyma, xylem
(1) Ground tissue system
(4) Xylem, metaxylem
(2) Epidermal tissue system
BAP392
(3) Vascular tissue system
18. The cells which are devoid of protoplasm are:
(4) Stele
(1) Tracheids (2) Vessels
BAP399
(3) Xylem fibres (4) All of the above
25. The ground tissue system consists of simple
BAP393
tissues such as :
19. Which one of the following is not a part of
(1) Parenchyma and Collenchyma
phloem?
(2) Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma
(1) Sieve tubes
(3) Parenchyma and Sclerenchyma
(2) Companion cells
(4) All of the above
(3) Phloem parenchyma
BAP400
(4) Vessels
26. In leaves, the ground tissue constitute of thin
BAP394
walled parenchymatous chloroplast containing
20. ______ is absent in most of the
cells and is called ______
monocotyledonous, stem:
(1) Sieve tube elements (1) Mesophyll
(2) Phloem parenchyma (2) Epidermis
(3) Xylem parenchyma (3) Stomatal apparatus
(4) Companion cells (4) Bundle sheath extension
BAP395 BAP401

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27. The innermost layer of the cortex is called: 29. The following figure represent the stomatal
(1) Endodermis (2) Hypodermis apparatus which shows :-
(3) Pericycle (4) Casparian strips
BAP402
28. Given below is the diagram of a T.S. of
dorsiventral leaf. In which one of the options
(1) Dumb-bell shaped guard cell and found in
all the four parts A, B, C and D are correct?
grasses
(2) Bean shaped guard cell and found in
grasses
(3) Dumb-bell shaped guard cell and found in
dicots
(4) Bean shaped guard cell and found in
dicots
BAP404
A B C D 30. Arrange the following cell layers in outer to
Adaxial Palisade Spongy Abaxial inner side:
(1)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis (a) Hypodermis (b) Pericycle
Adaxial Spongy Palisade Abaxial (c) Endodermis (d) Epidermis
(2)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
(e) Pith
Abaxial Palisade Spongy Adaxial
(3) (1) (e), (b), (c), (a), (d)
epidermis mesophyll mesophyll epidermis
(2) (e), (c), (b), (a), (d)
Adaxial Bundle Spongy Abaxial
(4) (3) (d), (a), (b), (c), (e)
epidermis sheath mesophyll epidermis
(4) (d), (a), (c), (b), (e)
BAP403
BAP405

Exercise – I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 1 3 4 4

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals

Exercise – II Anatomy of Flowering Plants

1. The meristem that occurs in the mature (d) All tissues except epidermis and vascular
regions of roots and shoots of many plants, bundles constitute the ground tissue.
particularly those that produce woody axis (e) Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and
and appear later than primary meristem is sieve tubes.
called the _____ meristem: Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) Apical given below.
(2) Secondary (1) (a) and (c) only
(3) Intercalary (2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) Primary (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
BAP406 (4) (c), (d) and (e) only
2. Select the wrong statement about BAP409
parenchyma : 5. Read the following statement and choose the
(1) It forms the major component within organs set of correct statements :-
(2) The cells of the parenchyma are generally (a) Monocotyledonous roots do not undergo
non-isodiametric any secondary growth.
(3) Its cell wall is thin and made up of cellulose (b) In dicot root innermost layer of cortex is
(4) The parenchyma performs various called pericycle.
functions like photosynthesis, storage (c) In monocot stem cells of endodermis are
and secretion rich in starch grains and the layer is also
BAP407 referred to as starch sheath.
3. Select the wrong statement about the (d) In grasses certain abaxial epidermal cells
collenchyma: along the vein modify themselves into
(1) The collenchyma occurs in layers below large, empty colourless cells. These are
the epidermis in dicotyledonous stem called bulliform cells.
(2) They are always found as continuous (e) In dorsiventral leaf mesophyll tissue
homogenous layers differentiate into palisade and spongy
(3) These can assimilate food when they parenchyma.
contain chloroplasts Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Intercellular spaces are generally absent given below.
BAP408 (1) (a), (d) and (e) only
4. Read the following statements and choose the (2) (a), (b) and (d) only
set of correct statements :- (3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
(a) Internal structures also show adaptations (4) (a) and (e) only
to diverse environments. BAP410
(b) During the formation of primary plant 6. Given below are two statements : one is
body, specific regions of the apical labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is
meristem produce dermal tissues, ground labbelled as Reason (R).
tissue and vascular tissues. Assertion : Collenchyma, sclerenchyma and
(c) The first formed primary xylem element xylem provides mechanical support to the
is called metaxylem and the later formed plant parts.
primary xylem is called protoxylem. Reason : Their cell wall is thick and lignified.

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(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 9. Given below are two statements: one is
the correct explanation of (A). labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. labelled as Reason (R).
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. Assertion (A) : In dicot stems, vascular
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the bundles are said to be open.
correct explanation of (A). Reason (R) : In dicot stems cambium is
BAP411 present between phloem and xylem.
7. Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose
Statement-I : In grasses, certain adaxial the most appropriate answer from the
epidermal cells along with the veins modify
options given below :
themselves into large empty, colourless cells.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
These are called bulliform cells.
the correct explanation of (A).
Statement-II : All tissues on the outerside of
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
endodermis such as pericycle, vascular
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
bundles and pith constitute the stele.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
In the light of the above statements, choose
correct explanation of (A).
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: BAP414
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. 10. Identify the correct set of statements :
(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. (a) Both apical meristems and intercalary
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is meristems are primary meristems
incorrect. because they appear early in life of a plant
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II and contribute to the formation of the
is correct. primary plant body.
BAP412 (b) Parenchyma consists of cells which are
8. Given below are two statements: one is much thickened at the corners due to a
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and
labelled as Reason (R). pectin.
Assertion (A) : The companion cells help in (c) The sclerenchyma performs various
maintaining pressure gradient in sieve tubes. functions like photosynthesis, storage,
Reason (R) : The sieve tube elements and secretion.
companion cells are connected by pit fields (d) The sclerenchymatous fibres are thick
present between their common longitudinal walled, elongated and pointed cells,
walls. generally occurring in group, in various
In the light of the above statements, choose parts of the plant.
the most appropriate answer from the (e) Tracheids are living cells with
options given below : protoplasm.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not Choose the correct answer from options
the correct explanation of (A). given below :
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (2) (a) and (d) only
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) (b), (c) and (e) only
correct explanation of (A). (4) (b), (c) and (d) only
BAP413 BAP415

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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
11. Identify the correct set of statements : (1) (a) only
(a) Phloem in angiosperms is composed of (2) (b) and (e) only
sieve tube elements, companion cells, (3) (a), (b) and (e) only
phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres. (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
(b) Phloem parenchyma is made up of BAP417
elongated, tapering cylindrical cells which 13. In dicot roots, initiation of lateral roots and
have dense cytoplasm and nucleus. cambium during the secondary growth takes
(c) Phloem fibres are generally absent in place by _____ cells.
secondary phloem but present in primary (1) Parenchyma (2) Pericycle
phloem. (3) Endodermis (4) Epidermis
(d) Xylem fibres of jute, flax and hemp are BAP418
used commercially. 14. The parenchymatous cells which lie between
(e) The stomatal pore, guard cells and the the xylem and the phloem in root are called :
surrounding subsidiary cells are together (1) Conjuctive tissue (2) Stele
called stomatal aperture. (3) Pith (4) Medullary rays
Choose the correct answer from options BAP419
given below : 15. Which one of the following is not a part of
(1) (a) and (b) only stele ?
(2) (c), (d) and (e) only (1) Pith
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only (2) Vascular bundle
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only (3) Endodermis
BAP416 (4) Pericycle
BAP420
12. Identify the correct set of statements :
16. Given below are two statements:
(a) The tangential as well as radial walls of
Statement-I : During the formation of leaves
the endodermal cells have a deposition of
and elongation of stems, some cells left
water impermeable, waxy material lignin
behind from shoot apical meristem,
in the form of casparian strip.
constitute the axillary bud.
(b) In dicotyledonous roots there are usually
Statement-II : Fascicular vascular cambium,
two to four xylem and phloem patches.
inter fascicular cambium and cork cambium
(c) In monocot stem the cells of the
are examples of lateral meristems.
endodermis are rich in starch grains and
In the light of the above statements, choose
the layer is also referred to as the starch
the most appropriate answer from the
sheath.
options given below:
(d) In dicot leaves, certain adaxial epidermal
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
cells along the veins modify themselves
correct.
into large, empty, colourless cells. These
(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
are called bulliform cells.
incorrect.
(e) The activity of cambium is under control
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
of many physiological and environmental
incorrect.
factors.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Choose the correct answer from options
is correct.
given below : BAP421

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
17. Given below are two statements: Reason (R) : In roots, the protoxylem lies
Statement-I : Collenchyma occurs in layers towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem
below the epidermis in most of the lies towards the primary of the organ.
monocotyledonous plants. In the light of the above statements, choose
Statement-II : Sclereids are found in the fruit the most appropriate answer from the
walls of nuts, pulp of fruits like guava, pear options given below :
and sapota, seed coats of legumes and leaves (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
of tea. the correct explanation of (A).
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
options given below: (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct explanation of (A).
correct. BAP424
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 20. Figures X and Y represent the transverse
incorrect. section of _____ and _____ respectively.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct.
BAP422 X Y
18. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : In roots the arrangement of A B
primary xylem is endarch and in stem it is (1) Dicot root Dicot stem
exarch.
(2) Monocot root Monocot stem
Statement-II : A mature sieve element
possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large (3) Dicot stem Monocot stem
vacuole and a nucleus. (4) Monocot stem Dicot stem
In the light of the above statements, choose
BAP425
the most appropriate answer from the
21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
options given below:
true?
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Ground tissue system is fundamental tissue
correct.
system.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) Root hairs are unicellular.
incorrect.
(c) The trichomes help in preventing water
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
loss.
incorrect.
(1) Only a (2) Only a & b
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Only b & c (4) All a, b & c
is correct.
BAP426
BAP423
22. Statement-I : The root hairs are unicellular
19. Given below are two statements: one is
elongation of the epidermal cells.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Statement-II : The epidermal hairs of stem
labelled as Reason (R).
are called trichomes, which are usually
Assertion (A) : In roots the arrangement of
multicellular.
primary xylem is exarch.
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Structural Organisation in Plants and Animals
(1) Both Statement-I & II are correct. 25. Consider the following statements:
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is A. In a dicot root, the vascular bundles are
incorrect. collateral and end arch.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is B. The inner most layer of cortex is
correct. endodermis in a dicot root.
(4) Both Statement-I & II is incorrect. C. In a dicot root, the phloem masses are
BAP427 separated from the xylem by
23. Assertion: Tracheid and vessel elements are parenchymatous cells that are known as
found in xylem tissue. the conjunctive tissue.
Of these statements given above
Reason: Tracheids are responsible for only
(1) (A) is true but (B) and (C) are false
lateral conduction of water, while vessel
(2) (B) is true but (A) and (C) are false
elements primarily conduct water
(3) (B) and (C) are true but (A) is false
longitudinally.
(4) (A) and (C) are true but (B) is false
Options:
BAP430
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
26. Assertion: Ground tissue system is the
the Reason is the correct explanation of
fundamental tissue system of plant body.
the Assertion. Reason: Majority of the plant body consists
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but of ground tissue system.
the Reason is not the correct explanation Options:
of the Assertion. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
(3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false. the Reason is the correct explanation of
(4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true. the Assertion.
BAP428 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
24. Statement I: The pith in dicot stems is a the Reason is not the correct explanation
region of parenchyma cells located in the of the Assertion.
center of the stem, primarily involved in (3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
storage. (4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
Statement II: Pith cells in dicot stems are BAP431
lignified and provide structural support to 27. Assertion: The primary function of root hairs
the stem, especially during secondary is to increase the surface area for absorption
growth. of water and minerals.
Options: Reason: Root hairs are extensions of
(1) Both statements I & II are correct, and
epidermal cells and lack a cuticle layer.
statement II is the correct explanation of
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
statement I.
the Reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Both statements I & II are correct, but
statement II is NOT the correct the Assertion.
explanation of statement I. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
(3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is the Reason is not the correct explanation
incorrect. of the Assertion.
(4) Statement II is correct, but statement I is (3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
incorrect. (4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
BAP429 BAP432
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
28. Statement-I: Collenchymatous cells provide 30. Assertion: Xylem is conducting as well as
mechanical support to young plant organs mechanical tissue.
due to their thickened primary cell wall. Reason: Xylem helps in transportation of
Statement-II: Sclerenchyma cells are living water, minerals and show deposition of lignin
cells that undergo secondary thickening and on wall of their constituents.
provide additional structural support to the Options:
mature plant. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
Options: the Reason is the correct explanation of
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. the Assertion.
(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
incorrect. the Reason is not the correct explanation
(3) Statement-II is correct, but Statement-I is of the Assertion.
incorrect. (3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. (4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
BAP433 BAP435
29. Statement-I: The casparian strip, composed 31. Assertion: Parenchyma cells are versatile
of suberin, is present in the endodermis of and perform various functions in plant
plant roots and acts as a barrier to the passive tissues.
flow of water and solutes into the vascular Reason: Parenchyma cells have thin cell
system. walls and large central vacuoles, making
Statement-II: The pericycle is a layer of cells them suitable for storage, photosynthesis,
located between the endodermis and the and secretion.
vascular tissue, responsible for the initiation Options:
of lateral root formation. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and
Options: the Reason is the correct explanation of
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. the Assertion.
(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
incorrect. the Reason is not the correct explanation
(3) Statement-II is correct, but Statement-I is of the Assertion.
incorrect. (3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. (4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.
BAP434 BAP436

Exercise – II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 1 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 1 4 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 1 1 4 1 1
Question 31
Answer 1

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Cell : The unit of life

1. The chromosome "B" in this diagram is :- 8. Lysosome arises from which cell organelle?
(1) Nucleus
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi Apparatus
(4) Both (2) & (3)
BCL354
9. Detoxification of harmful drugs is the
function of :-
(1) RER (2) SER
(1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondria
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric
BCL355
BCL347
10. The suicidal bag of an animal cell is :-
2. Normally one cell contains _________ nucleus.
(1) Sphaerosome (2) Dictyosome
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondria
(3) Three (4) Ten
BCL348 BCL356
3. The term Chromatin was given by :- 11. Mitochondria and chloroplast divides by :-
(1) W. Flemming (2) Robert Brown (1) Meiosis-I (2) Mitosis
(3) George Palade (4) Camillo Golgi (3) Fission (4) Meiosis
BCL349 BCL357
4. Ribosomal subunits and rRNA are 12. Which of the following cell organelles lack
synthesized in which site of nucleus ? DNA?
(1) Nucleolus (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(2) Cytoplasm (3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome
(3) Nucleoplasm BCL358
(4) Perinuclear Space 13. In which cell organelle following reaction
BCL350 takes place?
5. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a :- 6CO2 + 12 H2O → 6O2 + 6H2O
(1) Simple protein (2) RNA (1) Mitochondria
(3) Ribonucleoprotein (4) Repetitive DNA (2) Peroxisome
BCL351 (3) Chloroplast
6. Microbodies are present in :- (4) Glyoxisome
(1) Both in Plant and Animal cells BCL359
(2) Only in Plant cells 14. Reserve materials in prokaryotic cells are
(3) Only in Animal cells stored in the cytoplasm, related with______.
(4) Only in bacteria (1) Inclusion bodies
BCL352 (2) Golgi body
7. Which of the following organelle (s) is/are (3) ER
not include in endomembrane system? (4) Polysome
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum BCL360
(2) Golgi body 15. The basic unit of life is :-
(3) Lysosome and vacuoles (1) Cell (2) Tissue
(4) Mitochondria, chloroplast and ribosome. (3) Cell organelle (4) Mitochondria
BCL353 BCL361

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Cell : Structure and Functions
16. All living beings are composed of _______? (1) Glycoprotein and Glycolipids
(1) Cells and product of cells (2) Only protein
(2) Cells only (3) Lipid formation
(3) Product of cells only (4) Only vitamins
(4) Nucleus only BCL367
BCL362 22. Which element is required for maintaining
17. Match the columns I & II and identify the the structure of ribosome ?
incorrect option :- (1) Mg+2 (2) Ca+2
Column-I Column-II (3) Zn+2 (4) Cl–
(1) Robert brown (i) Discovered the BCL368
Nucleus 23. Plastids are found in :-
(2) Robert Hooke (ii) First observed (1) All plant cells and in Euglenoids
cell from cork (2) All animal cells and in Euglenoids
(3) Rudolf (iii) Omnis cellula e (3) All bacteria and animal cells
Virchow cellula (4) All plants and bacteria
(4) Anton von (iv) Discovered cell BCL369
Leeuwenhoek Theory 24. The three dimensional network of protein
BCL363 filaments with in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic
18. In Human beings, the membrane of the cell is called the :-
erythrocyte has approximately :- (1) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(1) 52 % Protein and 40 % Lipids (2) Golgi apparatus
(2) 80 % Protein and 20% Lipids (3) Cytoskeleton
(3) 40% Protein and 52% Lipids (4) Peroxisome
(4) 52% Carbohydrate and 20% Protein BCL370
BCL364 25. Shape of chloroplast found in Spirogyra is :-
19. The fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane (1) Lens shaped (2) Oval
given by Singer and Nicolson is applicable for: (3) Spherical (4) Ribbon like
(1) Only for prokaryotic membrane BCL371
(2) Only for eukaryotic membrane 26. Starch is stored in :-
(3) Both for prokaryotic and eukaryotic (1) Amyloplasts (2) Elaioplasts
membranes (3) Aleuroplast (4) Cytoskeleton
(4) Only for organellar membranes BCL372
BCL365 27. Chloroplast, chromoplast, leucoplast are
20. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the classified under the :-
major site for :- (1) Plastid (2) Cytoskeleton
(1) Synthesis of protein (3) Mitochondria (4) Lysosome
(2) Synthesis of carbohydrate BCL373
(3) Synthesis of lipid 28. Which cell organelle is related with protein
(4) Synthesis of nucleic acid synthesis ?
BCL366 (1) Cytoskeleton (2) Ribosome
21. Golgi apparatus is the important site for the (3) Lysosome (4) Glyoxysome
formation of_______. BCL374

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
29. The pattern arrangement of axonemal 33. Given below are two statements :-
microtubules is referred to as the _____ array : Statement-I : Membrane of lysosome is
(1) 9 + 2 (2) 9 + 0 known as tonoplast.
(3) 27 + 2 (4) 27 + 0 Statement-II : Contractile vacuole helps in
BCL375 osmoregulation.
30. Which cell organelle is formed by Golgi In the light of the above statements, choose
apparatus. the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole options given below:
(3) Ribosomes (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
BCL376 correct.
31. Given below are two statements: (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Statement-I : Ribosomes are known as incorrect.
organelle within organelle. (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
Statement-II : Peroxisomes degrade H2O2 is correct.
into H2O and O2 with the help of catalase (4) Both Statement-I and II both are
enzyme. incorrect.
In the light of the above statements, choose BCL379
the most appropriate answer from the 34. Given below are two statements:
options given below :- Statement-I : Mitochondria and chloroplasts
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are are called semi autonomous cell organelles.
correct. Statement-II : Golgi complex is called suicidal
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is bag of cell.
incorrect. In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II the most appropriate answer from the
is correct. options given below:
(4) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
BCL377 correct.
32. Given below are two statements :- (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Statement-I : Nucleus is called to be incorrect.
controller or director of cell. (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
Statement-II : Golgi complex is is correct.
endosymbiont in origin.
(4) Both Statement-I and II both are
In the light of the above statements, choose
incorrect.
the most appropriate answer from the
BCL380
options given below:
35. Given below are two statements; one is
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
correct.
labelled as Reason(R) .
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Assertion (A) : Middle lamellae is like
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II cementing material between two adjacent
is correct. plant cells.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. Reason (R) : Plasmodesmata traverse cell
BCL378 wall and middle lamellae.

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Cell : Structure and Functions
In the light of the above statements, choose 40. Cell membrane of the organism have :-
the most appropriate answer from the (1) Phospholipid bilayer.
options given below :- (2) Hydrophobic tail of unsaturated
(1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not hydrocarbon.
the correct explanation of (A). (3) Maximum amount of cholesterol.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. BCL386
(4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the 41. Match column I with column II :-
correct explanation of (A). Column I Column II
BCL381 (i) Algae (a) Diminished as
36. Select the incorrect statement among them. the cell
(1) Prokaryotes have cell wall surrounding membrane
their plasma membrane. mature.
(2) Genomic DNA provides resistance to (ii) Primary wall (b) Calcium-
antibiotics in bacterial. pectate
(3) Plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial (iii) Middle (c) Capable of
transformation with foreign DNA. lamella growth
(4) Ribosomes is found in prokaryotes also. (iv) Secondary (d) Have minerals
BCL382 wall like CaCO3
37. Select the mismatch option :- (e) Formed
(1) Cell wall – Prevent bacteria from bursting towards the
(2) Slime layer – loose sheath membrane
(3) Cell wall – determine the shape of host cell
(1) (i)–d, (ii)–a, (iii)–b, (iv)–e
(4) Capsule -Thick and tough
(2) (i)–a, (ii)–d, (iii)–b, (iv)–e
BCL383
(3) (i)–d, (ii)–c, (iii)–b, (iv)–e
38. The ribosomes which are found in
(4) (i)–d, (ii)–e, (iii)–a, (iv)–c
prokaryotes are :-
BCL387
(1) The site of protein synthesis
42. Read the following properties :-
(2) 50S and 30S subunits
(i) Network of reticulum of tiny tubular
(3) 70S and form polysome
structure.
(4) All of these
(ii) Intracellular space has two compartment
BCL384
i.e. luminal and extra luminal.
39. Which properties differentiate animal and
(iii) If it has ribosome it will synthesis protein.
plant cell :-
(iv) Help in nuclear membrane formation.
(a) Presence of cell wall
The above properties is of :-
(b) Small size vacuole
(1) Golgi body and Endoplasmic reticulum.
(c) Plastid
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum only.
(d) Centriole
(3) Mitochondria and Golgi body
(1) All (2) a, b
(4) Nucleus and Nucleolus
(3) a, b, c (4) a, c, d
BCL388
BCL385
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
43. The organelle which have varied number of 45. Read the following statement :
cisternae and are concentrically arranged (i) Larger and move numerous nucleoli in
near the nucleus with distinct face is :-
cell which actively carrying out protein
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
synthesis.
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Golgi body (ii) Content of nucleolus is discontinuous
(4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum with the rest of nucleoplasm.
BCL389 (iii) Chromatin in interphase.
44. Which statement is wrong among them :-
(iv) Outer membrane usually remain
(1) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
continuous with endoplasmic reticulum.
packaging in the Golgi apparatus and are
rich in hydrolytic enzyme. How many statements among them are
(2) Vacuole contain water sap, excretory incorrect.
product and other useful material of cell. (1) Two
(3) In amoeba contractile vacuole help in
(2) One
excretion.
(3) Four
(4) Mitochondria unless specifically stained
are not easily visible under microscope. (4) Three
BCL390 BCL391

Exercise – I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 1 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 3 4 3 1 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 4 1 1 2 1 4
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Answer 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 2 3 2 2

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Cell : Structure and Functions
Exercise - II Cell : The unit of life
1. Match the Column-I and Column-II and select (3) Only 80S ribosomes are found in
the correct answer :- cytoplasm, mitochondria and chloroplast
Column - I Column - II of eukaryotic cell.
(A) Metacentric (i) At the tip (4) 80S ribosomes are present in cytoplasm
(B) Sub-Metacentric (ii) At the middle of eukaryotic cell only.
(C) Acrocentric (iii) Almost near the tip BCL395
(D) Telocentric (iv) Slightly away from 5. Incorrect match between column -I, II and III:
the middle Column-I Column-II
(1) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii (1) RBCs Round/
(2) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i biconcave
(3) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
(4) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv (2) WBCs Amoeboid
BCL392
2. Function of nuclear pores is ............
(1) Through these pores movement of RNA
(3) Mesophyll Round and
and protein molecules in both directions
oval
between the nucleus and the cytoplasm is
performed.
(2) Transport of RNA in both direction (4) A Tracheid Branched &
between the Nucleus and the cytoplasm is Elongated
performed.
(3) Only for transport of RNA in BCL396
unidirectional manner from nucleus to 6. Match between column I and column-II and
cytoplasm. choose the correct answer ?
(4) 1 and 3 option is correct. Column-I Column-II
BCL393 (A) Typical Bacteria (i) 10 - 20 m
3. Which option provide correct information (B) PPLO (ii) 0.02 - 0.2 m
regarding the nucleus. (C) Viruses (iii) 0.1 m
(1) Normally, there is only one nucleus per
(D) A Typical (iv) 1 - 2 m
cell, variation in the number of nuclei are eukaryotic cell
also observed. (1) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(2) Normally, there is multiple nucleus per (2) A-iv B-ii C-i D-iii
cell. (3) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(3) Chlamydomonas contains only one (4) A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i
nucleus. BCL397
(4) 1 and 3 option is correct. 7. In plants, the ____A___ facilitates the transport
BCL394 of a number of ions and other materials
4. Which option is correct regarding eukaryotic against concentration gradient into the ___B__.
Cell: (1) A - Tonoplast B - Vacuole
(1) Cytoplasm of Eukaryotic cell contain 70 S (2) A - Outer membrane B - Mitochondria
and 80S ribosome. (3) A - Outer membrane B - Chloroplast
(2) Eukaryotic cell contain linear ds DNA in (4) A - Tonoplast B - Mitochondria
chloroplast and mitochondria. BCL398
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
8. The figure below shows the section of a 11. Select the correct for label "B" in this diagram:
cilia/flagella showing different parts labelled Extracellular space

A and B select the correct labelled name ? A

Membrane
removal Constitative
secretory
A pathway

B
(1) A – Radial spoke Regulated
secretory
B – Central microtubule Lysosome pathway

(2) A – Interdoublet Bridge (1) Endoplasmic reticulum

B – Peripheral microtubule (2) Peroxisome
(3) A – Centeral sheath (3) Golgi apparatus
B – Plasma membrane (4) Glyoxysome
BCL402
(4) A – Interdoublet Bridge 12. Secondary cell wall is formed on :-
B – Radial spoke (1) The inner side of primary cell wall
BCL399
(2) The outer side of primary cell wall
9. Which statement provides correct information (3) Middle side of cell
regarding prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella: (4) Intercellular space
(1) The prokaryotic cell also possess flagella BCL403
13. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in
but these are structurally different from
many functions such as :-
that of eukaryotic flagella.
(1) Mechanical support
(2) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic both flagella (2) Motility
are structurally similar. (3) Maintenance of shape
(3) In case of both microtubule arrangement (4) All of these
is 9 + 2. BCL404
14. Statement-I : Microbodies are present in
(4) In case of both flagella is made up of
both animal and plants cells.
microtubule and flagellin protein.
Statement-II : Eukaryotic cell contain linear
BCL400 ds DNA in chloroplast and mitochondria.
10. Which similarity is found between chloroplast In the light of the above statements, choose
and mitochondria ? the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Both are semi-autonomous contain options given below:
double stranded circular DNA and double (1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
membrane bound. (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(2) Both are autonomous organelle.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(3) Both are single membrane bounded.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(4) Both contains 80S type of ribosome. are correct.
BCL401
BCL405
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Cell : Structure and Functions
15. Statement-I : Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 18. Assertion : Chromoplast is coloured plastid
is major site for synthesis of lipid. in corolla and fruit.
Statement-II : In animal cells lipid like Reason : It has water soluble chlorophyll and
steroid hormone are synthesised in SER. carotenoid pigments.
In the light of the above statements, choose In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: options given below :-
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
incorrect. the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
are correct.
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
BCL406 BCL409
19. Assertion : RER is frequently observed in cell
16. Statement-I : Centrosomes is an organelle
actively involved in protein synthesis and
usually containing two cylindrical structure
secretion.
called centrioles.
Reason : RER have ribosomes attached to its
Statement-II : Centrioles in centrosomes lie
outer surface.
parallel to each other in which each has an
In the light of the above statements, choose
organisation like cart wheel.
the most appropriate answer from the
In the light of the above statements, choose
options given below :-
the most appropriate answer from the (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
options given below :- the correct explanation of (A).
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
incorrect. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II correct explanation of (A).
are correct. BCL410
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. 20. Given below are two statements:
BCL407 Statement-I : Oxidative phosphorylation
17. Assertion : Lysosomes help in digestion of take place in mitochondria.
foreign particle in animal cells. Statement-II : Calvin cycle take place in
Reason : Lysosome have digestive enzymes. chloroplast.
In the light of the above statements, choose In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :- options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
the correct explanation of (A). incorrect.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the is correct.
correct explanation of (A). (4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
BCL408 BCL411

[Link] [ 163 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
21. Given below are two statements :- (1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not
Statement-I : Chloroplast is double the correct explanation of (A).
membranous structure. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Statement-II : Inner membrane of (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
chloroplast is more permeable. (4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the
In the light of the above statements, choose correct explanation of (A).
the most appropriate answer from the BCL414
options given below :- 24. Identify for correct set of statements for
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. endoplasmic reticulum :-
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(a) ER is known as system of membranes
incorrect.
(b) It has cis-trans face
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
(c) Ribosomes are present on the surface of
is correct.
RER
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(d) SER are the sites of synthesis of lipids and
BCL412
cholesterols
22. Given below are two statements:
Choose the correct answer from the given
Statement-I : Periplasmic space in bacteria
options below.
contain enzyme similar to lysosome.
Statement-II : Heterophagosomes are (1) all a, b, c & d are correct
formed by fusion of primary lysosome and (2) b, c and d are correct
phagosome. (3) only c and d are correct
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) a, c and d are correct
the most appropriate answer from the BCL415
options given below :- 25. Identify the correct set of statements out of
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. followings :-
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (a) Maximum arm ratio exhibited by
incorrect. acrocentric chromosomes
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II (b) Human cells (2n) has two genomes and
is correct. each genome consists fourty six
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. chromosomes
BCL413 (c) Nucleolar organizer regions are not
23. Given below are two statements; one is present on each human chromosomes
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (d) Secondary constriction is present at the
labelled as Reason(R) . place of centromere
Assertion (A) : Fluid mosaic model is most (e) Each centromere posses two protein discs
widely accepted model of plasma membrane.
called kinetochores
Reason (R) : It states that protein icebergs
Choose the correct answer from the given
are present in mosaic pattern in the sea of
options below.
glycolipid.
(1) b, c, d & e (2) a, b, c & d
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) a, c & e (4) a, b & c
the most appropriate answer from the
BCL416
options given below :-

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Cell : Structure and Functions
26. Centromere holds two chromatids of a (v) Nuclear envelope have two parallel
chromosome based on its position the sub- membrane with space between them
metacentric chromosome has :- called perinuclear space.
(1) Middle centromere forming two equal (1) (i), (ii), (iv) (2) (i), (v)
arms of chromosome. (3) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(4) (i), (iii), (v)
(2) Centromere greatly away from middle of BCL420
chromosome. 30. Cytoskeleton of cell have :-
(3) One shorter arm and one longer arm. (1) An elaborate network of filamentous
(4) One extremely short and one very long
proteinaceous structure.
arm.
(2) Element that maintains cyclosis.
BCL417
(3) It helps in cell recognition.
27. Select the incorrect statement among them
for chromosome :- (4) Both option (1) and (2) are correct.
(1) Mitochondria is present in 80s containing BCL421
31. The long arm and short arm of chromosome
cytoplasm.
(2) Telocentric chromosome has terminal which appears during metaphase of cell cycle
kinetochores. is represented by :-
(3) Chromatin also contain non-histone (1) Long arm –s, Short arm–p
protein and RNA. (2) Long arm–p, Short arm–q
(4) Satellite have not constant location in few (3) Long arm–p, Short arm–s
chromosomes. (4) Short arm–p, Long arm–q
BCL418 BCL422
28. The organelle in cell which is surrounded by 32. Pick the mis-match one :-
amorphous pericentriolar material has :- (1) Golgi body – Glycosylation
(1) Two centriole which lie perpendicular to (2) Radial spoke–Connected to singlet
each other. (3) Inter doublet bridge–is present between
(2) Same arrangement of tubules as in cilia or A-B (microtubule of doublet)
flagella. (4) Centrioles form basal body of cilia or
(3) Peripheral fibril which is double as flagella.
compare to cilia. BCL423
(4) Important role during generative and 33. Ribosomes of prokaryote is mostly 70S and
vegetative cell formation by division in ribosomes which is present in cytoplasm of
microspore. eukaryote is 80S. So here S represent :-
BCL419 (1) Svedberg’s unit, which indirectly measure
29. How many points are related to nucleus are shape and size.
true :- (2) Svedberg’s unit, which indirectly measure
(i) Nucleus was first discovered by Robert density and size.
Brown. (3) Svedberg’s unit, which indirectly measure
(ii) Chromatin was stained by acidic dyes. shape and density.
(iii)Chromatin discovered earlier than (4) Svedberg’s unit, which indirectly measure
nucleus. molecules number of ribosomes.
(iv) Nucleoli is visible in any stage of cell. BCL424

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
34. How many statements are correct for 35. Pick the incorrect statement :-
mitochondria :- (1) Steroids pass easily through lipid layer
(a) Matrix of mitochondria is heterogenous. (2) Non polar substance pass easily through
(b) Matrix of mitochondria is homogenous. lipid layer
(c) Matrix of mitochondria has high H+ (3) Small polar molecule may be passes easily
concentration. by lipid layer.
(d) The space between outer and inner (4) Both polar charged and non-polar passes
membrane of mitochondria is called easily by lipid layer.
intra-membrane space. BCL426
(e) It is power house of all living cells.
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Three (4) Four
BCL425

Exercise – II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 1 4 4 4 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 2 4 2 4 1 2 1 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 4
Question 31 32 33 34 35
Answer 4 2 2 2 4

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Cell Cycle and Cell Division

1. Chromosomes with variations in progeny 9. The term meiosis was given by :-
cells are found in case of _________. (1) Farmer and Moore
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis (2) Watson and Crick
(3) Amitosis (4) Fission (3) Alexander Fleming
BCD213 (4) Flaming and Skoog
2. Bouquet stage and synapsis is absent in case of: BCD221
(1) Mitosis 10. Nuclear membrane and Nucleolus will
(2) Heterotypic division disappear at the end of :-
(3) Meiosis-I (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(4) Reductional division (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
BCD214 BCD222
3. In which type of division nuclear division 11. Which enzyme is responsible for
takes place twice but division of chromosome recombination process in meiosis-I ?
occurs only once ? (1) Recombinase
(1) Meiosis (2) Fission (2) Protease
(3) Mitosis (4) Amitosis (3) DNA ligase only
BCD215 (4) DNA Polymerase
4. If the cell had 4n number of chromosome at BCD223
G1, after S phase the number of chromosome 12. Yeast for example can progress through the
in the cell will be :- cell cycle in only about..............
(1) 2n (2) n (3) 4n (4) 8n (1) 40 minutes (2) 90 minutes
BCD216 (3) 1440 minutes (4) 60 minutes
5. Nuclear membrane, ER, Golgibody, Nucleolus BCD224
reappears in which stage of karyokinesis :- 13. First check point occurred during cell cycle is:
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) G1 ⎯→ S-phase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (2) G2 ⎯→ Prophase
BCD217 (3) S ⎯→ G2 phase
6. Which phase of prophase-I represents
(4) Metaphase ⎯→ Anaphase
transition of metaphase I?
BCD225
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
14. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of
(3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene
DNA in a cell remains at 8C level. If the initial
BCD218
amount is denoted as 4C ?
7. Bivalents arrange on equator (congression)
(1) G0 and G1 (2) G1 and S
of cell to form :
(1) Pole (2) Metaphase plate (3) Only G2 (4) G2 and Telophase
(3) Telophase plate (4) Near to pole BCD226
BCD219 15. Which of the following is wrong about
8. Interkinesis is present between........... S-phase in animal cell?
(1) Meiosis-I and Meiosis-II (1) DNA duplication occur in S-phase
(2) Leptotene and Zygotene (2) Cell synthesized Histone protein in S-phase
(3) Pachytene and diplotene (3) Centriole duplication occur in S-phase
(4) Diplotene and diakinesis (4) Synthesis of tubulin protein in S-phase
BCD220 BCD227
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Cell : Structure and Functions
16. During cell division, centriole duplication 23. A cell has 48 chromosomes at each pole in
takes place in :- mitotic telophase. In this division the number
(1) G2-phase (2) M-phase of chromatids at the metaphase was :
(3) S-phase (4) G1-phase (1) 24 (2) 48 (3) 69 (4) 46
BCD228 BCD235
17. Which of the following is smallest phase of 24. Refer to the following statements describing
the cell cycle ? Prophase I of meiosis and answer the question.
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase (i) Thin thread like chromosomes
(3) Anaphase (4) Metaphase (ii) Appearance of recombination nodules
BCD229 (iii) Formation of bivalents/tetrads
18. Best material for the study of mitosis in (iv) Terminalisation of chiasmata
laboratory is :- (v) Appearance of chiasmata
(1) Anther (2) Onion root tip Arrange the given statements in the correct
(3) Leaf tip (4) Ovary sequence their occurrence during prophase I
BCD230 (1) (i) → (iii) → (ii) → (iv) → (v)
19. Prophase is marked by : (2) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv) → (v)
(1) The initiation of condensation of (3) (i) → (iv) → (v) → (ii) → (iii)
chromosomal material (4) (i) → (iii) → (ii) → (v) → (iv)
(2) DNA Duplication BCD236
(3) Transcription and translation 25. If the female gamete of an organism has 10 pg
(4) Duplication of centriole of DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would
BCD231 a diploid cell of same organism have in
20. Which of the following is not related to zygotene (A) diplotene (B) and anaphase-I
mitosis? (C)? (pg = Picogram)
(1) It is an equational division. (1) A = 40 pg, B = 20 pg, C = 10 pg
(2) It involves recombination and crossing (2) A = 20 pg, B = 40 pg, C = 10 pg
over. (3) A = 40 pg, B = 40 pg, C = 40 pg
(3) Sister chromatids are separated during (4) A = 40 pg, B = 40 pg, C = 20 pg
Anaphase. BCD237
(4) Nuclear membrane disappears during late 26. If in metaphase I, n = 20. Then which of the
prophase. following is true?
BCD232 (1) 20 tetrads, 40 chromatids
21. By which method, cytokinesis occurs in Animals: (2) 80 chromatids, 80 kinetochores
(1) Centripetal (3) 10 bivalents, 80 chromatids
(2) Centrifugal (4) 10 bivalents, 40 kinetochores
(3) Oblique BCD238
(4) Equational 27. Which statement is correct w.r.t. anaphase I
BCD233 chromosomes at each pole?
22. Meiosis process does not occur in_______. (1) Twice number of chromosomes as
(1) Somatic cell compared to gametes
(2) Germ cell (2) One chromatid in each chromosome.
(3) Microspore mother cell (3) Two chromatids in each chromosome.
(4) Megaspore mother cell (4) Same number of chromosomes as that of
BCD234 parent cell.
BCD239
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
28. Given below are two statements : 30. Given below are two statements :-
Statement-I : During G0-phase of cell cycle, Statement-I : Chromosomes decondense in
the cell is metabolically inactive. telophase I to form chromatin to extended
Statement-II : Heart cells enter G0-phase and state of interphase nucleus.
divide on when required. Statement-II : Chromosomes recondense in
In the light of the above statements, choose prophase II.
the most appropriate answer from the (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
options given below : correct.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
incorrect. is correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect. incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is correct. incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are BCD242
correct.
BCD240
29. In which phase (stage) synthesis of proteins
for formation of spindle fibres takes place :-
(1) G1-phase (2) S-phase
(3) M-phase (4) G2-phase
BCD241

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 1 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 3 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 3 3 4 2

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Cell : Structure and Functions

Exercise - II Cell Cycle and Cell Division

1. In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of (3) Meiosis decreases the genetic variability
DNA is 40 picogram (pg) after meiosis-I what in the population of organisms from one
will be the quantity of DNA is each daughter generation to the next.
cell ? (4) 1 and 2 option is correct.
(1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg BCD247
(3) 5 pg (4) 40 pg 6. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed
BCD243 under the microscope do not show______.
2. The specialised kind of cell division that (1) Golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum,
reduces the chromosome number by half nucleolus and the nuclear envelope
results in the production of haploid daughter (2) Only nuclear envelope
cells. This kind of division is called ............
(3) Only endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
(4) Only nucleolus
(3) Amitosis (4) Fission
BCD248
BCD244
7. Statement-I : If the cell has diploid or '2n'
3. Which one of the following statement is
correct :- number of chromosomes at G1 then after 'S'
(1) Meiosis-I equivalent to mitosis division. phase the number of chromosomes will be
(2) The major objective of meiosis-I is double (4n).
segregation of homologous chromosome Statement-II : During prophase, protein are
after recombination. synthesized in preparation for mitosis.
(3) The major objective of meiosis-II is In the light of the above statements, choose
Segregation of Homologous chromosome the most appropriate answer from the
after Recombination.
options given below:-
(4) Division of chromosomes or centromere
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
occurs during meiosis-I.
BCD245 (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
4. Recombination process occur between....... incorrect.
(1) Non sister chromatids of Homologous (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
chromosomes. are correct.
(2) Sister chromatid of Homologous (4) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
chromosome. BCD249
(3) Sister chromatids of non homologous 8. Statement-I : Centriole begin to move
chromosomes. towards opposite poles of the cell in
(4) Non sister chromatids of Non homologous anaphase.
chromosomes. Statement-II: Condensation of chromosomes
BCD246
is completed in metaphase.
5. What is the significance of meiosis :-
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) The conservation of specific chromosome
number of each species is achieved across the most appropriate answer from the
generations in sexually reproducing options given below:-
organisms. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) It increases the genetic variability in the incorrect.
population of organisms from one (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
generation to the next. incorrect.

[Link] [ 179 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II A diagrammatic view of cell cycle indicating
are correct. formation of two cells from one cell, is given
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are below. Identify the different phases (A, B, C & D)
correct. of cell cycle with their corresponding events:-
BCD250 I. DNA replication
9. Assertion : Amount of DNA get doubled in 'S'
II. Organelles duplication
phase of interphase.
Reason : DNA replication occur in 'S' phase of III. Protein synthesis
interphase. IV. Actual phase of cell division
In the light of the above statements, choose I II III IV
the most appropriate answer from the
(1) B A A, B, C D
options given below:-
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (2) B A, C C D
the correct explanation of (A). (3) A, C B C D
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) B A C D
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
BCD253
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
12. Assertion : Meiosis is essential for
correct explanation of (A).
maintaining specific number of chromosome
BCD251
10. Assertion : The individual chromosomes can in a species across generations.
no longer be seen and chromatin material Reason : Meiosis increase genetic variability
tends to collect in a mass in the poles in in sexual reproducing organisms.
telophase. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Reason : Centromeres split and chromatids the correct explanation of (A).
separates in telophase. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
options given below:-
correct explanation of (A).
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
BCD254
the correct explanation of (A).
13. Assertion (A) : In coconut, liquid endosperm
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
represents syncytium.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Reason (R) : In coconut liquid karyokinesis is
correct explanation of (A). not followed by cytokinesis as a result of
BCD252 which multinucleate condition arises in
endosperm.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
11. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
BCD255

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Cell : Structure and Functions
14. Statement-1 : In meiosis, DNA replication 17. The four figures (A, B, C and D) given below
occurs once whereas nuclear division occurs represent four different stages of mitotic cell
twice. division. Which one of these is correctly
Statement-2 : Crossing over occurs between identified in the options given, along with its
non-sister chromatids of non-homologous correct description and key events ?
chromosomes.
(1) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is
correct explanation for statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is
also true but statement-2 is not correct Stage Description Key event
explanation of statement-1
Bivalent
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
Followed by Chromosomes
(4) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are false (1) D Prophase
G2 Phase align on the
BCD256 equatorial plate
15. Which of the following option correctly Daughter
Condensation of
describes the cell as shown in figure ? chromosomes
(2) B Metaphase chromosomes
move to
completed
opposite poles
Chromosomes
Longer and
(3) C Telophase undergo some
highly complex
dispersion
Centromeres
Centromere
(1) 8 chromosomes ; 8 homologous pair are
split
(4) A Anaphase towards
(2) 16 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair poles and arms
and chromatids
separate
(3) 8 chromosomes ; 4 homologous pair trailing behind
(4) 16 chromosomes ; 8 homologous pair BCD259
BCD257 18. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
16. Which of the following is a correct sequences matched :-
of meiotic cell cycle w.r.t given diagram ? Homologous chromosomes
(1) Anaphase I
are separated

A B The microtubules from

opposite poles of the
(2) Metaphase I spindle get attached to the
kinetochores of sister
chromatids.
C D
A nuclear envelope encloses
Meiotic
(3) each haploid set of
Interphase
chromosomes.
(1) A → C → D → B
Non-homologous
(2) B → D → C → A
(4) Prophase I chromosomes undergo
(3) B → A → C → D
crossing over.
(4) D → B → A → C
BCD258 BCD260
[Link] [ 181 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
19. How many of the above are correctly (1) If both the assertion and the reason are
matched? true and the reason is a correct
Phase Characteristic feature explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true
Spindle fibres attach to
(i) Metaphase but the reason is not a correct explanation
kinetochores
of the assertion.
Centriole duplication in
(ii) G2 phase (3) If the assertion is true but the reason is
cytoplasm
false.
Interval between mitosis (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(iii) G1 phase phase and initiation of DNA BCD263
replication in nucleus
22. In meiosis I, the centromere undergoes:
Chromosomes do not reach (1) No division
(iv) Telophase I extremely extended state of (2) Division between anaphase and interphase
interphase nucleus (3) Division between prophase and metaphase
Movement of duplicated (4) Division but the daughter chromosomes
(v) Prophase centrioles towards equator of do not separate
the cell BCD264
(1) Four (2) Three 23. If the number of chromosomes in Metaphase I
(3) One (4) Two is n = 15; which of the following options is true?
BCD261 (1) 15 bivalents, 30 tetrads
20. Match column I and column II. (2) 30 chromatids, 60 kinetochores
(3) 15 tetrads, 60 chromatids
Column-I Column-II
(4) 60 kinetochores, 20 tetrads
Chromosomes
BCD265
(I) are moved to (A) Pachytene
spindle equator 24. In which of the following phases, nuclear
envelope, nucleolus, ER, GB is not seen?
Pair of synapsed
Early Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase,
(II) homologous (B) Zygotene
chromosomes Metaphase I, Metaphase II, Anaphase II, Late
Prophase
Pairing between
(1) Four (2) Five
(III) homologous (C) Bivalent
chromosomes (3) Three (4) Seven
BCD266
Crossing over
25. Find the incorrect
between
(IV) (D) Metaphase statement w.r.t the given
homologous
chromosomes diagram.
(1) I→A, II→B, III→C, IV→D
(1) First stage of karyokinesis of mitosis after
(2) I→B, II→C, III→D, IV→A
the G2 phase of interphase.
(3) I→D, II→C, III→B, IV→A (2) Chromosomal material becomes
(4) I→C, II→A, III→D, IV→A entangled during the process of
BCD262 chromatin condensation.
21. Assertion: Mitosis maintains the genetic (3) The centrosome begins to move towards
similarity of somatic cells. opposite poles of the cell.
(4) The two asters together with spindle
Reason: Chromosomes do not undergo
fibres form mitotic apparatus.
crossing over during mitotic division.
BCD267
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Cell : Structure and Functions
26. Which of the following is an incorrect 29. Assertion: Morphology of chromosomes is
statement? studied in metaphase stage.
(1) Once the chromatids reach the two poles, Reason: Condensation of chromosomes is
the chromosomal elongation starts, completed in this stage and can be easily
nucleolus and the nuclear membrane visualized under microscope.
reappear. This stage is called the (1) If both the assertion and the reason are
telophase. true and the reason is a correct
(2) Chromosome condensation occurs during explanation of the assertion.
prophase. (2) If both the assertion and reason are true
(3) During metaphase II the bivalents arrange
but the reason is not a correct explanation
on the equatorial plate.
of the assertion.
(4) The stages through which a cell passes
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is
from one division to the next is called the
false.
cell cycle.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
BCD268
27. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase per BCD271
30. A cell has 50 chromosomes and 50 pg DNA in
cell in possessing:
(1) Double number of chromosomes and half G1 phase. What would be the number of
number of chromatids. chromosomes and DNA content in anaphase?
(2) Half the number of chromosomes and (1) 50 and 50 respectively
same number of chromatids. (2) 100 and 50 respectively
(3) Half the number of chromosomes and (3) 50 and 100 respectively
double number of chromatids. (4) 100 and 100 respectively
(4) Double number of chromosomes and BCD272
same number of chromatids.
BCD269
28. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of:
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere
(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres.
BCD270

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 2 4 1 2 3 1 1 3 2 2 3 4 3 1 4

[Link] [ 183 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Plant Growth and Development

1. Arithmetic growth can be observed in : 7. Hormone related with –amylase induction is :
(1) BGA colony (2) Yeast colony (1) Cytokinin (2) ABA
(3) Bacteria colony (4) Root elongation (3) Ethylene (4) GA
BPD225 BPD231
2. What is the basic reason behind more than 8. Which of the following is a synergistic
one type of leaves in a plant? function of auxin and cytokinin ?
(1) Due to different growth rates (1) Promotion of flowering in pineapple

(2) Due to lack of nutrients (2) Morphogenesis in plants

(3) Due to nutrients toxicity (3) Increase in absorption surface in plants

(4) Due to plasticity (4) Induction of dormancy in seeds

BPD226 BPD232
9. Which of the following is/are biennial and
3. Which of the following PGRs shows dual role,
monocarpic plant(s) ?
growth promotion and growth inhibition?
(1) Sugar beet (2) Wheat
(1) Cytokinin (2) Gibberellin
(3) Barley (4) All of the above
(3) Ethylene (4) Abscisic acid
BPD233
BPD227
10. Which one of the following is incorrect ?
4. What is the basic reason behind leaves
(1) Auxin was first isolated from human urine.
remaining above the water in rice plant ?
(2) Differentiation in plant is open.
(1) Bolting due to gibberellin
(3) Ethylene promote root growth and root
(2) Apical dominance due to auxin
hair formation.
(3) Internodal elongation due to ethylene
(4) Auxin help to overcome apical dominance.
(4) Due to photoperiodism
BPD234
BPD228 11. Secondary growth does occur in-
5. Foolish seedling disease or Bakanae disease (1) All angiosperms and no gymnosperms
in rice caused by a fungus helped in the (2) Some angiosperms and gymnosperms
discovery of :- (3) No angiosperms and only gymnosperms
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (4) All angiosperms and all gymnosperms
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene BPD235
BPD229 12. The three phases of growth in correct order is
6. Triple response hormone on stem is :- (1) Meristematic, maturation, elongation
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Ethylene (2) Elongation, meristematic, maturation
(3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin (3) Meristematic, elongation, maturation
BPD230 (4) Elongation, maturation, meristematic
BPD236
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Plant Physiology
13. PGR Ethylene can fit into- (3) Fall in rate of respiration called respirastory
(1) Group of plant growth promoters anti-climactic
(2) Group of plant growth inhibitors (4) Fall in rate of respiration called respiratory
(3) Both the groups of promoter & inhibitors climactic
but mostly inhibitor BPD238
(4) Both the groups of promoter & inhibitors 15. Photoperiods are perceived by-
but mostly promoter (1) Shoot apices
BPD237 (2) Flowering apices
14. Ethylene in fruits causes- (3) Nodal buds
(1) Rise in rate of respiration called respiratory (4) Leaves
anti-climactic BPD239
(2) Rise in rate of respiration called respiratory
climactic

Exercise – I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 4

[Link] [ 203 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Plant Growth and Development

1. Number of female flowers increase in 5. The given figure show-
cucumber, due to :
(1) Feminising effect of auxin
(2) Feminising effect of cytokinin
(3) Feminising effect of ethylene
(4) Feminising effect of gibberellins (1) Developmental heterophylly in buttercups
BPD240 (2) Environmental heterophylly in larkspur
(3) Environmental heterophylly in buttercups
2. Development in plants :- (choose the correct one)
(4) Developmental heterophylly in larkspur
(1) Is only under control of intrinsic factors
BPD244
(2) Includes plasmatic growth followed by
6. Match the PGR with the plants which played
cell division, elongation and differentiation role in their discovery-
(3) Is governed by intercellular factors like Column-I Column-II
genetic factors (a) Auxin (i) Tobacco
(4) Is not influenced by environmental factors (b) Gibberellin (ii) Rice
BPD241 (c) Cytokinin (iii) Orange
3. Open form of growth involves. (d) Ethylene (iv) Avena
(1) Continuous division in all meristematic (1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
cells forming new set of cells which divide (3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
further necessarily. BPD245
(2) Division in some cells forming new set of 7. Assertion : Auxin is used in plant
cells which do not divide further propagation widely.
necessarily Reason : Auxin initiate rooting.
(3) No division at all (1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct &
(4) Division in some cells at the time of injury Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
which forms new set of cells to heal the (2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
injury Reason is not correct explanation of
BPD242 Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4. Choose the correct set of option for size or
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect
weight of organ against time-
BPD246
(i) W1 = W0 ert
8. Assertion : Spraying gibberellins on fruits
(ii) Lt = L0 rt
extend its market period.
(iii) Linear growth curve Reason : Gibberellins delays senescence.
(iv) Sigmoid growth curve Choose the best option-
(v) Arithmetic growth (1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct &
(vi) Geometric growth Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) (i), (iii), (iv) (2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
(2) (ii), (iii), (vi) Reason is not correct explanation of
(3) (i), (iv), (vi) Assertion.
(4) (ii), (iv), (v) (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
BPD243 (4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect
BPD247
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Plant Physiology
9. Assertion : Juvenile conifers are sprayed 12. Identify the correct and incorrect statements
with GA. from the following.
Reason : GA delays senescence and malting (i) More than 17,500 new cells are
period. produced per hour by a single maize root
Which of the given options are correct? apical meristem.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & (ii) With the help of length, growth of pollen
tube is measured.
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(iii) The growth of the leaf is measured in
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
terms of volume.
Reason is not correct explanation of
(iv) Cells in a watermelon may increase in
Assertion
size by upto 3,50,000 times.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(1) (i),(ii),(iii)are correct and (iv) is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect (2) (i),(ii),(iv)are correct and (iii) is incorrect.
BPD248 (3) (ii), (iii) are correct and (i), (iv) are incorrect.
10. Statement-I : Ethylene promotes internode/ (4) (i), (iv) are correct and (ii), (iii) are incorrect.
petiole elongation in deep water rice plants. BPD251
Statement-II : Ethylene helps upper part of 13. Which of the following is an incorrect
shoot to remain above water. statement?
Choose the appropriate option- (1) Long day plants flower if the night length
(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is shorter than a critical period.
are incorrect. (2) Short-day plants flower when night
(2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II length exceeds a critical dark period.
(3) Day-neutral plants are insensitive to day
is correct.
length.
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) The process of flowering does not occur in
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
day neutral plants
BPD249
BPD252
11. Read the given statements –
14. Assertion :- Development is a term that
Statement-I : Some plants require a periodic includes all changes that an organism goes
exposure to light to induce flowering. through during its life cycle.
Statement-II : Some plants are able to Reason :- Plants follows different pathways
measure the duration of exposure to light. in response to environment or phases of life
Choose the correct option- to form different kinds of structures.
(1) Both statements are correct and are about (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
photoperiodism Reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) One of the statements is correct about Assertion.
photoperiodism (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) Both statements are correct and is about Reason is not a correct explanation of the
vernalization Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) One of the statements is correct about
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
vernalization
BPD253
BPD250
[Link] [ 205 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
15. Assertion : Cytokinins helps in the delay of 18. Match column-I with column-II.
leaf senescence. Column-I Column-II
Reason : Cytokinins promote nutrient
(I) IAA (A) Terpenes
mobilisation.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (II) GA (B) Indole compounds
Reason is a correct explanation of the (III) ABA (C) Adenine derivatives
Assertion.
Carotenoid
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (IV) Kinetin (D)
derivatives
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) I - B, II - D, III - A, IV - A
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (2) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
BPD254 (4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C
16. Assertion : A sigmoid curve is a BPD257
characteristic of living organism growing in a 19. Represented below are the two phenomena
natural environment. in plants. Among the following two
Reason : Sigmoid curve is a straight line curve. phenomena (a) and (b) which phenomena is
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but widely applied in tea plantation?
Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
BPD255
(1) Phenomena (a)
17. Match the phytohormones given in column-I
(2) Phenomena (b)
with their functions given in column-II.
(3) Phenomena (a) and (b) both
Choose the answer with correct combination
(4) Neither phenomena (a) nor (b)
of alphabets of the two column :-
BPD258
Column-I Column-II
20. Find out correct labelling sequence in given
Phytohormones) (Functions)
figure:
Elongation of genetic
(A) Auxins (p)
dwarf plants
(B) Gibberellins (q) Inducing fruit ripening
Formation of abscission
(C) Cytokinins (r)
layer
(D) Ethylene (s) Root initiation

(t) Richmond lang effect

(1) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-t (2) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s
(1) a = Cotyledon, b = Hypocotyle,
(3) A-s, B-t, C-r, D-q (4) A-s, B-p, C-t, D-q
BPD256 c = Epicotyle, d = Epicotyle hook

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Plant Physiology
(2) a = Hypocotyle, b = Cotyledon, 24. Auxin helps in -
c = Epicotyle, d = Epicotyle hook 1) Promotes flowering in pineapple
(3) a = Epicotyle, b = Epicotyle hook, (2) Preparation of weed free lawns
c = Cotyledon, d = Hypocotyle (3) Cell division
(4) a = Cotyledon, b = Hypocotyle, (4) All of the above
c = Epicotyle hook, d = Epicotyle BPD263
BPD259 25. Which hormone helps the plants to increase
21. Statement-I : Growth is measured by a their absorption surface ?
variety of paraments some of which are (1) Abscisic acid (2) Cytokinin’s
increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length (3) Ethylene (4) Auxin
area, volume and cell number. BPD264
Statement-II : A single maize root apical
meristem can give rise to more than 17500
new cells per hour.
(1) Both Statement-I & II are correct. 26.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & II is incorrect.
BPD260
22. Statement-I : In plant growth, the role of PGR
(A) & (B) represent -
is of only one kind of extrinsic control.
(1) (A)-Heterophilly in tomato,
Statement-II : Along with genomic control
(B)-Heterophilly in buttercup
and extrinsic factors, PGR play an important
(2) (A)-Heterophilly in larkspur,
role in plant growth and development.
(B)-Heterophilly in buttercup
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) (A)-Heterophilly in pea,
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(B)-Heterophilly in buttercup
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) All of the above
(4) Only Statement-II is correct. BPD265
BPD261 27. Match the following.
23. Statement-I : Auxins was first isolated from
(A) Ethylene (i) Root hair formation
human urine.
Statement-II : Cytokinin was discovered as (B) Kinetin (ii) Corn kernels
kinetin from the autoclaved herring sperm (C) IAA (iii) Dormin
DNA. (D) Zeatin (iv) Human urine
(1) Both Statement-I & II are correct.
(E) ABA (v) Herring sperm DNA
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect. (1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(i)
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is (2) A-(i), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(iii)
correct. (3) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)
(4) Both Statement-I & II is incorrect. (4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(iii), E-(v)
BPD262 BPD266
[Link] [ 207 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
28. Which hormone is present in extract of 30. Assertion : Growth at a cellular level is a
vascular tissues ? consequence of increase in the amount of
(1) Gibberellins (2) Ethylene protoplasm.
(3) Cytokinins (4) Indole acetic acid Reason : Increase in protoplasm is difficult to
BPD267 measure directly.
29. Assertion : Plant retain the capacity for (1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is the
unlimited growth throughout their life. correct explanation of (A).
Reason : This capacity of plant is due to the (2) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is not
meristem presence at certain locations. the correct explanation of (A).
(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is the (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
correct explanation of (A). (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. BPD269
(3) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
BPD268

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 2 4 2 2 1 1 4 1 4 3 2 2 3 1 2

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Respiration in Plants

1. First CO2 release in aerobic respiration occurs 7. Match the column-I with column-II and select
during :- the correct option :-
(1) 3-PGAL formation Column-I Column-II
(A) Alcoholic (i) 3-carbon
(2) Pyruvic acid formation
fermentation compound
(3) Acetyl CoA formation
(B) Lactic acid (ii) CO2 production
(4) -Ketoglutaric acid formation fermentation
BRP203 (C) Pyruvic acid (iii) Muscles during
2. At how many steps substrate level vigorous exercise
phosphorylation occurs during glycolysis? in animals
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(1) One (2) Two
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(3) Three (4) Four
BRP209
BRP204
8. RQ is more than one if respiratory substrate is:
3. All enzymes are present in matrix of (1) Tripalmitin (2) Glucose
mitochondria for TCA cycle except :- (3) Protein (4) Malic acid
(1) -Ketoglutaric acid dehydrogenase BRP210
(2) Citrate synthase 9. Select the correct statement regarding R.Q. ?
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase (1) RQ depends upon type of respiratory
(4) Decarboxylase substrate
BRP205 (2) R.Q. is less than one in case of organic acids
(3) R.Q. is always more than one in case of
4. ETS is inhibited at complex-IV by :-
carbohydrate
(1) Cyanide (2) Rotenone
(4) R.Q. is 0.7 in succulent plants
(3) Antimycin (4) Oligomycin
BRP211
BRP206 10. If 15 Acetyl CoA enter into Krebs cycle then
5. Select the correct match for one glucose how many CO2 molecules are produced after
molecule:- complete decarboxylation?
(1) EMP pathway – 12 ATP (1) 60 CO2 molecule (2) 15 CO2 molecule
(2) Link reaction – 8 ATP (3) 30 CO2 molecule (4) 75 CO2 molecule
(3) Krebs cycle – 24 ATP BRP212
(4) Anaerobic respiration – 6 ATP 11. Which of the following enzymes is called as
mitochondrial marker enzyme?
BRP207
(1) Carboxylase
6. Select the correct statement about anaerobic
(2) Decarboxylase
respiration :-
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(1) More than 7% of total energy of glucose is (4) Succinate dehydrogenase
generated BRP213
(2) Yeast poison themselves to death when 12. The C–C bond of complex compound in
concentration of alcohol reaches about 30% broken by which process in respiration?
(3) Net gain is of 2ATP. (1) Oxidation
(4) CO2 is produced in all types of (2) Reduction
fermentations (3) Hydrogenation
BRP208 (4) None of the above
BRP214
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Plant Physiology
13. Choose the correct equation :- 21. For each ATP produced, ______ passes through
(1) C6H12O6 + 12O2 → 6H2O + 6H2O + Energy F0 from intermembrane space to the matrix
(2) C6H12O6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O + Energy down the electrochemical proton gradient.
(3) C6H12O6 + 6CO2 → 6H2O + Energy (1) H+ (2) 2H+
(4) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy (3) 3H+ (4) 4H+
BRP215 BRP223
14. Glycolysis is a how many steps of process? 22. In the balance sheet of fermentation, net gain
(1) Ten (2) Eight is :-
(3) Eleven (4) Five (1) 12 ATP molecules (2) 38 ATP molecules
BRP216 (3) 2 ATP molecules (4) 8 ATP molecules
15. One molecule of glucose is converted into BRP224
how many molecules of pyruvic acid? 23. What is RQ if carbohydrates are used as a
(1) 1 (2) 2 respiratory substrate?
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.9
BRP217 BRP225
16. How many molecules of ATP are directly 24. Choose the correct.
produced in one complete glycolysis of one (1) RQ = volume of CO2 evolved/volume of O2
glucose molecule? consumed
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (2) RQ = volume of O2 consumed /volume of
BRP218 CO2 evolved
17. In alcoholic fermentation, pyruvate is (3) RQ = volume of O2 evolved/volume of CO2
converted to which among the following? consumed
(1) Ethanol, CO2, NADH (4) None of these
BRP226
(2) CO2 and Methanol
25. What is the final end product of TCA cycles?
(3) CO2 and Ethanol only
(1) 3 NADH + H+ (2) 1 ATP
(4) CO2 and Carboxylic acid
(3) 1 FADH2 (4) All of the above
BRP219
BRP227
18. The range beyond which yeasts poison
26. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+ is :-
themselves to death in alcohol fermentation
(1) Slower in fermentation than aerobic
when the concentration of alcohol reaches to?
respiration
(1) 13% (2) 15% (3) 12% (4) 17%
(2) Faster in fermentation than aerobic
BRP220
respiration
19. Pyruvate enters to the mitochondrial matrix
(3) Equal in fermentation than aerobic
and undergoes.
respiration
(1) Reductive decarboxylation
(4) Cannot be compared
(2) Oxidative carboxylation
BRP228
(3) Reductive carboxylation
27. In ETS, O2 accept the electrons and get
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation
reduced to which of the following?
BRP221
(1) Water
20. One molecule of glucose synthesizes how
(2) Carbon dioxide
many molecules of NADH + H+ in TCA cycle?
(3) Palmitic acid
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 10
(4) None of the above
BRP222 BRP229
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
28. How many statements are correct about
fermentation?
(i) Very low amount of energy is released, < 7%
of energy in glucose is released in
fermentation
(ii) In animal cells, when oxygen is inadequate
acetic acid is formed during respiration
(iii) It is dangerous process as it leads to acid
and alcohol formation.
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
BRP230

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 4 1 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Answer 4 3 1 4 1 4 3 1 1 4 1 1 3

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Plant Physiology
Exercise - II Respiration in Plants
1. Select the incorrect statement regarding (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
amphibolic pathway :- incorrect.
(1) All carbohydrates are usually converted (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
into glucose before they used for incorrect.
respiration (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(2) It includes both anabolism and catabolism is correct.
(3) Acetyl CoA is the connecting link between
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
fat, carbohydrate and protein metabolism
correct.
(4) Proteins can enter into the respiratory
BRP234
pathway only at one point i.e. as
5. Which among the following step in glycolysis
-ketoglutaric acid.
yields energy?
BRP231
2. Which one of the following is incorrect about (i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA
cellular respiration? (ii) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to
(1) Glycolysis takes place inside cytoplasm of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
all living cells. (iii) Conversion of PEP to pyruvate acid
(2) Value of RQ for fat is 0.9 (iv) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to
(3) Yeast poison themselves to death when fructose-6-phosphate
the concentration of alcohol reaches (1) Both ii and iv (2) i, ii, iii
about 13%. (3) Both i and iii (4) All of the above
(4) During complete oxidation of glucose, BRP235
oxidation take place in both cytoplasm 6. Which among the following is wrong?
and mitochondria. (i) Glycolysis occurs in all living organism.
BRP232
(ii) TCA cycle and ETS only occurs in aerobes
3. Statement-I : Cytochrome c is a small protein
(iii) Complete oxidation of pyruvate occurs
remain attached to outer surface of inner
by removal of all hydrogen atom in TCA
mitochondrial membrane.
cycle.
Statement-II : Cytochrome c is a mobile e–
carrier between complex-III and IV. (1) (i) (2) (ii)
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) (iii) (4) None of the above
incorrect. BRP236
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is 7. Which among the following is the role of O2 in
incorrect. whole respiration process?
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (i) Act as hydrogen removal from the system
is correct. (ii) Act as final hydrogen acceptor
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (iii) It bond with C atom and released CO2,
correct. one of the by product of respiration.
BRP233 (1) Both ii and iii
4. Statement-I : ATP act as energy currency of cell (2) iii only
Statement-II : Energy released through
(3) Both i and ii
respiration is trapped as bio-chemical energy
(4) All of the above
in the from of ATP.
BRP237
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8. The respiratory balance sheet is calculated on (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
some assumptions. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Which of the following assumption is correct? Assertion.
(1) The pathway is sequential, with series of (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
glycolysis, ETS and TCA cycle in the same (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
order for a given molecules. BRP241
(2) NADH is transferred to chloroplast where 12. Which among the following is wrong about
oxidative phosphorylation occurs, leading ATP synthase?
to formation of 3 ATP. (i) It is also called complex V.
(3) Only glucose is the substrate and none
(ii) This is used to synthesis ATP by utilising
other substrate or intermediate enters or
the energy released during ETS.
leaves the pathway.
(iii) It works on the basis of proton and F0.
(4) None of these.
(iv) It consist of two major components, F1
BRP238
and F0.
9. Choose the correct option according to the
(1) Only ii (2) Both i and iii
correct sequence (from substrate to end
(3) i and iv (4) None of the above
product) :-
(i) Glucose 6-phosphate BRP242
(ii) Pyruvic acid 13. Match the following :-
(iii) Carbohydrate 1. Amino acids i. Pyruvic acid
(iv) Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate 2. Fatty acid ii. Dihyroxy Acetone
(v) Glucose Phosphate
(vi) Dihydroxy Acetone Phosphate 3. Glycerol iii. Acetyl CoA
(1) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii (2) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
(1) i, iii, iv, v, vi, ii (3) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii (4) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
(2) iii, iv, v, ii, i, vi BRP243
(3) iii, v, i, ii, iv, vi 14. Assertion: The respiratory pathway comes
(4) iii, v, i, iv, vi, ii into the picture both during breakdown and
BRP239 synthesis of fatty acids.
10. Match the following :- Reason : fatty acids would be broken down to
1. NADH + H+ i. 1 ATP acetyl CoA before entering the respiratory
2. FADH2 ii. 2 ATP pathway. But when the organism needs to
3. GTP iii.3 ATP synthesise fatty acids, acetyl CoA would be
(1) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii (2) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii withdrawn from the respiratory pathway.
(3) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i (4) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
BRP240 Reason is a correct explanation of the
11. Assertion :- Two redox-equivalents are Assertion.
removed from PGAL during glycolysis. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason :- Two molecules of pyruvic acids are Reason is not a correct explanation of the
formed at the end of glycolysis. Assertion.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
Reason is a correct explanation of the (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Assertion.
BRP244

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Plant Physiology
A B C D
α-ketoglutaric
(1) OAA Acetyl CoA CO2
15. acid
α-ketoglutaric
(2) OAA Acetyl CoA CoA
acid
Acetyl
(3) OOA CoA CO2
CoA
Acetyl α-ketoglutaric
(4) CO2 OAA
CoA acid

BRP246
17. Choose the correct option for A to D.

The above figure indicates the

interrelationship among metabolic pathways.
Now identify A to D.
A B C D
(1) Protein Acetyl Fats DHAP
CoA
(2) Fats DHAP Protein Acetyl
CoA
(3) Acetyl Fats DHAP Protein (1) A-Fat, B-key product of glycolysis,
CoA C-Lactic acid, D-Ethanol
(4) Fats DHAP Acetyl Protein (2) A-Carbohydrate, B-Pyruvic acid,
CoA C-Ethanol, D-Lactic acid
BRP245 (3) A-Respiratory substrate, B-Key product
16. In the given representation of Krebs cycle, of glycolysis, C-lactic acid, D-Ethanol
Identify A, B, C and D. (4) A-Proteins, B-Pyruvic acid, C-Lactic acid,
D-Ethanol.
BRP247
18. Match the column :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) NADH (1) Complex IV
dehydrogenase
(B) Cytochrome bc1 (2) Complex III
(C) Cytochrome a-a3 (3) Complex I
(D) ATP synthase (4) Complex V
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(2) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(3) A–4, B–1, C–3, D–2
(4) A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3
BRP248
[Link] [ 199 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
19. Which one of the following options give the 23. Statement-I : During glycolysis two redox-
correct number of ATP molecules released equivalents are removed from PGAL and
during different processes (A, B, C) of aerobic transferred to a molecule of NAD+.
respiration of one glucose? Statement-II : PGAL is reduced to 1,3-Bis
PGA during glycolysis.
B C
A (1) Statement I and II both are correct
One Link One Krebs
Glycolysis
Reaction cycle (2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(1) 6 3 12 (3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct
(2) 8 2 11 BRP253
(3) 8 3 11 24. Statement-I : Fermentation accounts for only
(4) 8 2 12 a partial breakdown of glucose whereas in
aerobic respiration it is completely
BRP249
breakdown to CO2 and H2O.
20. Select the wrong match with respect to
Statement-II : In fermentation there is a net
respiratory quotient (R.Q.) :-
gain of only two molecules of ATP for each
(1) Proteins = 0.9 (2) Carbohydrate = 1
molecules glucose breakdown to alcohol and
(3) Tripalmitin = 4 (4) Organic acid > 1
CO2.
BRP250
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
21. Select correct option with respect to number (2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
of carbon present in respiratory intermediate: (3) Only Statement I is correct
Pyruvic Acetyl Citric (4) Only Statement II is correct
OAA
acid CoA acid BRP254
(1) 3C 2C 5C 4C 25. Statement-I : The electron, as they move
through the electron transport system
(2) 2C 2C 6C 4C
release enough energy that are trapped to
(3) 3C 2C 6C 4C synthesize ATP, called oxidative phosphorylation.
(4) 3C 2C 6C 5C Statement-II : In oxidative phosphorylation
O2 is the ultimate acceptor of electron and it
BRP251
gets reduced to water.
22. Match the Column-I with Column-II and
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
choose the correct combination from the
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
option given below:-
(3) Only Statement I is correct
Column-I Column-II (4) Only Statement II is correct
Inner mitochondrial BRP255
(A) I Krebs cycle
membrane 26. Chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis in
Pyruvic acid is converted respiration based on-
(B) II ETC (1) Proton gradient between lumen and
into CO2 and ethanol
stroma.
(C) Cytoplasm III Fermentation
(2) Proton gradient between matrix and
(D) Mitochondrial matrix IV Glycolysis inner membrane.
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) Proton gradient between matrix and
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III inner membrane space.
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) Proton gradient between matrix and inter
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I membrane space.
BRP252 BRP256

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27. Which is not true for glycolysis - 32. If 5 molecules of water are produced in ETS
(1) End product is pyruvic acid than find the number of NADH2 oxidised and
(2) Expenditure of ATP electron required respectively, in
(3) Formation of NADPH2 mitochondria :-
(4) Consumption of ATP (1) 10, 10 (2) 5, 10
BRP257 (3) 6, 15 (4) 8, 20
28. RQ value 0.7 represent that - BRP262
(1) Glucose is used as respiratory substrate 33. Select incorrect statement :-
(2) Organic acid is used as respiratory (1) For each ATP, 4H+ passes through F0 by
active transport
substrate
(2) Oxygen acts as a final hydrogen accepter.
(3) Protein is used as respiratory substrate
(3) F0 is an integral membrane protein
(4) Fat is used as respiratory substrate
complex
BRP258
(4) Proton passes through intermembrane
29. Which of the following process use oxygen as
space to the matrix down the
the final hydrogen acceptor-
electrochemical proton gradient.
(1) Fermentation
BRP263
(2) Glycolysis 34. Select the incorrect assumption for
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation calculations on respiratory balance sheet-
(4) Krebs cycle (1) There is a sequential orderly pathway.
BRP259 (2) NADH2 synthesised in glycolysis
30. End product of fermentation are- transferred in to the mitochondria.
(1) Ethanol + CO2 (2) Lactic acid (3) Intermediates in the pathway are utilised
(3) Pyruvic acid + CO2 (4) Both (1) and (2) to synthesise any other compound.
BRP260 (4) Only glucose is being respired.
31. In which step of glycolysis NADH2 formation BRP264
occurs :- 35. Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(A)
Pyruvate Acetyl
(1) Triose phosphate → Triose bisphosphate dehyrogenase

(2) DHAP → G3P CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+

A is –
(3) 3PGA → 2PGA
(1) Coenzyme A (2) Mg+2
(4) 2 Phosphoenol pyruvic acid → pyruvic acid
(3) K+ (4) ATP
BRP261 BRP265

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 2 4 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 4
Question 31 32 33 34 35
Answer 1 2 1 3 2

[Link] [ 201 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

1. O2 evolved during light reaction of 7. In an experiment where a part of leaf is
photosynthesis comes from H2O was proved enclosed in test tube containing KOH soaked
by: cotton & exposed to light will-
(1) T.W. Engelmann (1) Test positive for starch.
(2) Joseph Priestley (2) Test negative for starch due to inability to
absorb light inside test tube.
(3) Ruben and Kamen
(3) Test negative for starch due to inability to
(4) Julius Von Sachs
absorb CO2.
BPP323
2. Which of the following pigments is an (4) Test negative for starch due to absence of
water.
universal photosynthetic pigment ?
BPP329
(1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b
8. ________ from a suitable oxidizable compound
(3) Chlorophyll-c (4) Chlorophyll-d
reduces CO2 to Carbohydrates.
BPP324 (1) Oxygen
3. Experiment for Emerson enhancement and
(2) Hydrogen
red drop was conducted on : (3) Carbon
(1) Chlamydomonas (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Polysiphonia BPP330
(3) Chlorella 9. Sugar is synthesized -
(4) Dictyota (1) Non-enzymatically in grana
BPP325 (2) Non-enzymatically in stroma
4. How many additional ATPs are required in C4 (3) Enzymatically in grana
plants as compared to C3 plants to synthesize (4) Enzymatically in stroma
2 molecules of hexose sugar ? BPP331
(1) 12 ATP (2) 24 ATP 10. Leaf pigments are separated by -
(3) 36 ATP (4) 48 ATP (1) Crystallization
BPP326 (2) Gel electrophoresis
5. Select the incorrect statement :- (3) Blotting
(1) Primary CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is RuBP (4) Paper chromatography
(2) Primary CO2 acceptor in CAM plants is BPP332
PEP 11. Maximum absorption by chlorophyll a occurs
(3) High temperature sensitive enzyme PEP in:
(1) Blue & green region
case is present in bundle sheath cells of C4
(2) Red & green region
plants
(3) Blue & red region
(4) CO2 is stored in CAM plants as malic acid
(4) Yellow & red region
inside vacuole during night. BPP333
BPP327 12. Reaction centre is formed by-
6. Red drop occurs due to : (1) Only one chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule
(1) Low CO2 in atmosphere (2) A few chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule
(2) High CO2 in atmosphere (3) One chlorophyll ‘a’ and a few accessory
(3) Supply of wavelengths of light below 680 nm (4) A few chlorophyll ‘a’ and a few accessory
(4) Supply of monochromatic light of 700 nm pigments.
BPP328 BPP334
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Plant Physiology
13. The movement of excited electrons in 19. Which of these is a H carrier?
Noncyclic Photophosphorylation: (1) PS II (2) Ferredoxin
(1) Uphill in terms of reduction potential scale (3) Plastocyanin (4) Plastoquinone
(2) Downhill in terms of reduction potential BPP341
scale 20. ATP formation occurs upon-
(3) Uphill and downhill in terms of oxidation- (1) Build up of potential gradient
reduction potential scale (2) Break down of potential gradient
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Both of these
BPP335 (4) None of these
14. The Z scheme is named so because- BPP342
(1) It was discovered by a scientist with ‘Z’ as 21. The transmembrane channel allows movement
initial letter of name across membrane for ATP synthesis -
(2) The carriers of ETS present in thylakoid (1) Osmosis of protons
membrane are in ‘Z’ shape. (2) Simple diffusion of proton
(3) It forms ‘Z’ shape when the carriers of ETS
(3) Facilitated diffusion of electron
are arranged in sequence of redox
(4) Facilitated diffusion of proton
potential scale.
BPP343
(4) Both (1) and (3)
BPP336 22. The first product of CO2 fixation was
15. The O2 is released in - identified to be in the Calvin cycle.
(1) Lumen of thylakoid (1) PGA (2) RUBP
(2) Outer side of thylakoid (3) Citric acid (4) OAA
BPP344
(3) Stroma
(4) Cytoplasm 23. The Calvin cycle starts with ______ ends with-
BPP337 (1) RuBisCO, regeneration of RuBisCO
16. Non-cyclic photo phosphorylation involves- (2) RUBP, regeneration of RuBisCO
(1) PS I (3) RUBP, regeneration of RUBP
(2) PS II (4) PGA, regeneration of PGA
(3) Both PS I & PS II BPP345
(4) None of the these, only enzymes in stroma 24. Reduction involves use of ______ molecules of
BPP338 NADPH to reduce fixed CO2.
17. A possible location of cyclic photo (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
phosphorylation under full light is :-
BPP346
(1) Stroma
25. For formation of 1 glucose, how many
(2) Stroma lamellae
molecules of ATP are required by C3 cycle?
(3) Cristate
(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 10
(4) Outer membrane of chloroplast
BPP339 BPP347
18. The proton gradient may be formed in 26. Which of the following is true?
photosynthesis due to- (1) C4 plants lack RuBisCO
(1) Splitting of water (2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCO
(2) Reduction of NADP+ (3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants lack
(3) Both (1) and (2) RuBisCO
(4) None of these (4) C3 plants lack RuBisCO
BPP340 BPP348
[Link] [ 185 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
27. PEP case enzyme in C4 plants is 29. C3 plants show saturation for CO2 concentration
(1) Absent in mesophyll cells at-
(2) Present in bundle sheath cells (1) 450 lL–1 (2) 390 lL–1
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) 540 lL–1 (4) 240 lL–1
(4) None of these
BPP349 BPP351
28. In photorespiration- 30. Water stress causes-
(1) Sugar and ATP are formed (1) Reduced CO2 availability
(2) Sugar is formed but not ATP (2) Leaf wilting
(3) ATP is formed but not sugar (3) Reduced surface area of leaf
(4) Sugar and ATP are not formed (4) All of these
BPP350 BPP352

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 3 3 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 3 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 4 1 4

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Plant Physiology

Exercise - II Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

1. Select the incorrect statement regarding (2) Green house crops (C3 plants) show
photosynthesis: CO2 fertilization effect
(1) It is an endothermic (endergonic) process (3) Atmospheric CO2 is rarely a limiting factor
(2) It is a physico-chemical process for C3 plants
(3) It is a redox process (4) High concentration of CO2 in C3 plants
(4) It is a non enzymatic process causes photorespiration
BPP353 BPP357
2. Select the correct statement about 6. Select the incorrect statement about
photophosphorylation : photosystems :-
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves
(1) PS-I is located at non-appressed parts of
photolysis of water
grana and stroma thylakoid
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation always
(2) PS-II is involved in photolysis of water
occurs in granal thylakoid
(3) Both PS-II and PS-I participate in cyclic
(3) External electron donor is required in
photophosphorylation
cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) PS-II requires external electrons in
(4) Only PS-I is involved in cyclic
non-cyclic photophosphorylation
photophosphorylation
BPP358
BPP354
3. Which of the following is most strong natural 7. Which one of the following statements is
oxidant involved in photophosphorylation? incorrect?
(1) Pheophytin (1) The first stable product of calvin cycle is
(2) Plastoquinone 3PGA
(3) NADP+ (2) Sugarcane and maize are C4 plants
(4) Cytochrome b6 & f complex (3) Light is a major limiting factor for
BPP355 photosynthesis.
4. Select the incorrect statement about (4) Chl-a is the most abundant pigment in the
photorespiration :- world.
(1) Photorespiration occurs in high light BPP359
intensities 8. Statement-1 : Kranz anatomy is
(2) Photorespiration occurs in high characteristic feature of C4 plants only.
temperature Statement-2 : There is a linear relationship
(3) Photorespiration occurs under high O2
between incident light and CO2 fixation rate
concentration
under low light intensity.
(4) Photorespiration occurs under high CO2
Options :
concentration
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
BPP356
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
5. Select the correct statement about CO2 in
(3) Both the statements are correct
photosynthesis :
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Rate of photosynthesis decreases with
BPP360
increase in CO2 concentration upto 0.05%

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
9. Match the experiment objective with the (3) They enable narrower range of wavelength
scientist who performed it- of incoming light to be used for
(i) Priestly (I) Production of photosynthesis
glucose in (4) Both (1) & (2)
photosynthesis BPP364
(ii) Julius von (II) Role of sunlight 13. Choose correct order of events in light reaction-
Sachs in (i) ATP & NADPH formation
photosynthesis (ii) Water Splitting
(iii) Jan (III) Role of air in
(iii) Oxygen release
Ingenhousez photosynthesis
(iv) Light absorption
(1) (i)–I, (ii)–III, (iii)–II (1) III → IV → II → I (2) IV → II → I → III
(2) (i)–II, (ii)–I, (iii)–III (3) IV → II → III → I (4) III → III → IV → I
(3) (i)–II, (ii)–III, (iii)–I BPP365
(4) (i)–III, (ii)–I, (iii)–II 14. Identify the correct site for I-water splitting,
BPP361 II-NADP+ reduction, III-ATP synthesis.

(iii)
10.
(ii)

(i)

Identity correct-
(1) (i) Chl a, (ii) Chl b, (iii) Carotenoids
(2) (i) Carotenoids, (ii) Chl a, (iii) Chl b
(3) (i) Chl b, (ii) Chl a, (iii) Carotenoids
(4) (i) Chl a, (ii) Carotenoids, (iii) Chl b (1) (i)–I, (ii)–II, (iii)–III
BPP362 (2) (i)–II, (ii)–I, (iii)–III
11. Assertion : Chlorophyll ‘a’ is the chief (3) (i)–III, (ii)–II, (iii)–I
pigment associated with photosynthesis. (4) (i)–III, (ii)–I, (iii)–II
BPP366
Reason : Chlorophyll ‘a’ maximum absorption
15. Assertion : Cyclic photophosphorylation
coincides with maximum photosynthesis.
occurs in stroma lamellae.
(1) Assertion & Reason are correct & Reason is
Reason : Stroma lamellae lacks PS II and
correct explanation of Assertion
NADP reductase.
(2) Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct &
is not correct explanation of Assertion
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct & Reason is incorrect
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
(4) Assertion & Reason are incorrect
Reason is not correct explanation of
BPP363
Assertion
12. Advantage of accessory pigments include-
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(1) They help by photolyzing the water
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect
(2) They protect chl ‘a’ from photooxidation
BPP367
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Plant Physiology
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Carboxylation Oxidation Regeneration
(2) Reduction Carboxylation Regeneration
16. (3) Carboxylation Reduction Regeneration
(4) Carbonation Reduction Regeneration

BPP370
19. Statement A : In CO2 fixation cycle, the
molecules of ATP used is more than NADPH
used.
Statement B : To meet the difference in
Identify correct labels-
number of ATP & NADPH used in dark
(1) (i) PQ, (ii) PC, (iii) Cyt B6f
(2) (i) Cyt B6f, (ii) PQ, (iii) PC reaction, cyclic phosphorylation take place.
(3) (i) PC, (ii) Cyt B6f, (iii) PC (1) A is correct but B is wrong
(4) (i) PQ, (ii) Cyt B6f, (iii) PC (2) B is correct but A is wrong
BPP368 (3) A & B are correct and A explains B
17. Statement A : Biosynthetic reaction is (4) A & B are incorrect
independent of direct presence of light BPP371
Statement B : Biosynthetic process 20. Identify correct lables-
continues for some time after the light
becomes unavailable and then stops.
(1) Both A & B are correct
(2) A is correct and B incorrect
(3) A is incorrect and B is correct
(4) A & B are incorrect
BPP369
18. The three steps in Calvin cycle are :

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Fixation Decarboxylation Regeneration
(2) Transport Fixation Regeneration
(3) Regeneration Transport Fixation
(4) Regeneration Decarboxylation Fixation

BPP372

[Link] [ 189 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
21. Assertion : Photorespiration doesn’t occur is 24. According to Blackman’s Law, the rate of
C4 plants. chemical process is determined by the factor
Reason : CO2 concentration at enzyme site in which.
high in C4 plants. (1) Is nearest to its maximum value
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & (2) Is nearest to its minimum value
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion (3) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong (4) None of these
(3) Assertion is wrong and Reason is correct BPP376
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are wrong 25. Which of the following is true?
BPP373 (1) C4 plants lack RuBisCO
22. Assertion : Greenhouse crops like tomatoes (2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCO
and bell pepper are grown in CO2 enriched (3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants lack
atmosphere for higher yields. RuBisCO
Reason : C4 plants respond to higher CO2 (4) C3 plants lack RuBisCO
concentration by showing decreased rate of BPP377
photosynthesis. 26. Statement A : The accumulation of protons in
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & stroma cause decrease in pH of stroma.
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion Statement B : The accumulation of proton in
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but lumen cause formation of potential gradient
Reason is not correct explanation of cross thylakoid membrane.
Assertion (1) A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect (2) B is correct but A is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect (3) A & B are correct
BPP374 (4) A & B are incorrect
23. In the given graph, in which region will plant BPP378
not respond to increase in light intensity? 27. When O2 binds to RuBisCO, RUBP is converted
to ________ and ________.
(1) Phosphoglycerate, phosphoenolpyruvate
(2) Phosphoglycerate, phosphoglycerate
(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate, phosphoglycerate
(4) Phosphoglycolate, phosphoglycerate
BPP379
28. Statement-I : C3 plants respond to higher CO2
concentration by showing increased rates of
photosynthesis leading to higher
productivity.
Statement-II : C4 plants respond to lower
(1) A (2) B
temperature and show higher rate of
(3) C (4) None
photosynthesis.
BPP375
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Plant Physiology
In the light of the above statements, choose 31. Choose the correct option for A to D :-
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
BPP380
29. Regeneration of ___(i)___ takes place at (1) A-Photon B-Reaction centre, C-Pigment
expense of ___(ii)___ ATP & ___(iii)___ NADPH. molecules, D-Primary e– acceptor
(i) (ii) (iii) (2) A-Pigment molecules, B-Primary e– acceptor,
(1) RUBP 0 1 C-Photon, D-Reaction centre
(2) RUBP 1 0 (3) A-Primary e– acceptor, B-Photon,
(3) RuBisCO 0 1 C-Reaction centre, D-Pigment molecules
(4) RuBisCO 1 0 (4) A-Reaction centre, B-Pigment molecules,
BPP381 C-Primary e– acceptor, D-Photon
30. The diagram shows the movement of BPP383
substances in and out of a chloroplast :- 32. To synthesise one molecule of glucose the
requirements of CO2 : ATP : NADPH + H+ in C3
plants are C4 plants are :-
C3 Plants CO2 : C4 Plant CO2 : ATP
ATP : NADPH + H+ : NADPH + H+
(1) 6 : 30 : 12 6 : 18 : 12

(2) 1:5:2 1:3:2

(3) 6 : 18 : 12 6 : 30 : 12

(4) 1:3:2 1:5:2

What do labels A, B, C, D represent? BPP384

33. Match the following.
A B C D
1 Non cyclic ETS a Stroma thylakoid
(1) CO2 ATP H2O Starch
2 Cyclic ETS b Only grana thylakoid
(2) CO2 H2O Sugar O2
(3) H2O O2 CO2 Sugar Chemiosmotic
3 c Stroma
theory
(4) Sugar H2O ATP O2
4 Dark reaction d Formation of ATP
BPP382
[Link] [ 191 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a incorrect.
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d incorrect.
BPP385 (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
34. Assertion: Cyclic flow, results only in the is correct.
synthesis of ATP, but not of NADPH + H+. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Reason : The excited electron does not pass correct.
on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PS I BPP388
complex through the electron transport 37. Given below are two statements:
chain. Statement-I : The particularly large cells
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the around the vascular bundles of the C4 plants
Reason is a correct explanation of the are called bundle sheath cells.
Assertion. Statement-II : C4 plants lack a process called
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but photorespiration.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the In the light of the above statements, choose
Assertion. the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. options given below:
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
BPP386 incorrect.
35. Statement-I : Except for plants in shade or in (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
dense forests, light is rarely a limiting factor incorrect.
in nature. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Statement-II : light saturation occurs at 10 is correct.
per cent of the full sunlight. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Both Statement-I & II are correct. correct.
(2) Both Statement-I & II are incorrect. BPP389
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 38. Assertion : Yellow green colour chlorophyll
incorrect. is the chief pigment associated with
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II photosynthesis.
is correct. Reason : Yellow green chlorophyll shows
BPP387 maximum absorption of blue and red regions
36. Statement-I : The NADP reductase enzyme is
of wavelengths.
located on the lumen side of thylakoid
(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is the
membrane.
correct explanation of (A).
Statement-II : The ATP synthase enzyme
(2) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is not
consist of two parts : one called the CF0 and
the correct explanation of (A).
the other portion is called CF1.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
the most appropriate answer from the
BPP390
options given below:

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Plant Physiology
39. Assertion : In photosystem-II, the electron 40. Primary electron acceptor (A) transfers its
become exited and jump into an orbit farther electron on H carrier (B) in photosynthesis.
from the atomic nucleus. How many statement about (A) and (B) is
correct.
Reason : In photosystem-II, the reaction
(i) B removes proton from stroma and
centre chlorophyll a absorbs 700 nm
transfer it to the lumen.
wavelength of red light. (ii) A located towards the inner side the
(1) Both (A) and (R) is correct and (R) is the membrane.
correct explanation of (A). (iii) A has lower redox potential compare to B
(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. (iv) B passes its electron to the Fe-S protein.
(1) (i), (ii)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(3) (i), (ii), (iv)
BPP391 (4) All the above
BPP392

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 3 4 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 3
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer 3 3 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 2

[Link] [ 193 ]
Reproduction

Exercise - I Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

1. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a 8. The innermost wall layer of micro-
seed is referred as __________. sporangium is called.
(1) Apomixis (2) Polyembryony (1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis
(3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum
BSR405
BSR412
2. The plants in which some of the nucellar cells
9. The exine of pollen grain is made up of ________
surrounding the embryo sac start dividing
and has germ pores :-
protrude into the embryo sac and develops
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Pectin
into the embryos are :-
(1) Citrus and mango (2) Papaya and Citrus (3) Cellulose (4) 2 & 3 both
(3) Citrus and litchi (4) Mango and guava BSR413
BSR406 10. The mature embryo sac of a typical
3. In flowering plants, after fertilisation, ovary angiosperm is ________ celled and ________
develops into ________ and ovule matures into nucleated :-
________ respectively. (1) 8, 7 (2) 7, 8 (3) 6, 8 (4) 8, 6
(1) Seed, fruit BSR414
(2) Fruit, seed 11. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the:
(3) Seed, embryo (1) Primary endosperm cell (PEC)
(4) Embryo, endosperm
(2) Primary zygote nucleus
BSR407
(3) Ovule
4. Which one of the following structure is
known as the progenitor of the next (4) Embryo
generation ? BSR415
(1) Ovule (2) Embryo 12. Number of nuclei participating in the process
(3) Endosperm (4) Fruit of double fertilization is :-
BSR408 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
5. Flowers are morphological and BSR416
embryological marvels and the site of :- 13. Seeds are endospermic in :-
(1) Apomixis (1) Pea & castor
(2) Parthenocarpy (2) Pea & coconut
(3) Sexual reproduction (3) Castor and coconut
(4) Fragmentation
(4) Coconut & pea
BSR409
BSR417
6. The integumented megasporangium is :- 14. The portion of embryonal axis above the level
(1) Locule (2) Ovule
of cotyledons is the .............. and portion below
(3) Pollen sac (4) Embryo sac
the level of cotyledons is .............. in
BSR410
dicotyledonous embryo :-
7. In a typical angiosperm anther is :-
(1) Monothecous and bisporangiate (1) Epicotyl, hypocotyl
(2) Dithecous and tetrasporangiate (2) Hypocotyl, epicotyl
(3) Monothecous and monosporangiate (3) Epicotyl, plumule
(4) Dithecous and bisporangiate (4) Hypocotyl, plumule
BSR411 BSR418
[Link] [ 103 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
15. .............. is a form of asexual reproduction that 22. In a mature dehisced anther, the anther wall
mimics sexual reproduction :- consists of :-
(1) Apomixis (1) Epidermis and middle layer
(2) Parthenocarpy (2) Epidermis and endothecium
(3) Polyembryony (3) Endothecium and tapetum
(4) Amphimixis (4) Epidermis and tapetum
BSR419 BSR426
16. If the number of chromosomes in stem cells is 23. 'Flower is a modified shoot, for which
14, what will be the number of chromosomes objective it is modified :-
in nucellus cells of ovule of that plant ? (1) formation of leaf
(1) 7 (2) Reproduction
(2) 14 (3) Respiration
(3) 21 (4) Photosynthesis
(4) Incomplete information BSR427
BSR420 24. An oily layer found on the outside of the
17. Megasporophyll is equivalent to which mature pollen grains of many insect
structure? pollinated species is known as :-
(1) Ovule (2) Nucellus (1) Pollen sac (2) Pollinia
(3) Carpel (4) Anther (3) Pollen Kitt (4) Pollen cap
BSR421 BSR428
18. A functional megaspore develops after three 25. Consider the following statements regarding
successive mitotic divisions into : angiosperms and choose the correct option.
(1) Embryo (2) Ovule (a) Microspore represent the mature male
(3) Embryo sac (4) Zygote gametophyte.
BSR422
(b) Pollen tablets are used as food supplement
19. Archesporium of ovule is :
(c) Polar nuclei are situated below the egg
(1) Single celled derived from integuments
apparatus.
(2) Single celled derived from nucellar
(1) a and b are true but c is false
hypodermis
(2) b and c are true but a is false
(3) Multicellular derived from nucellar
(3) a and c are true but b is false
epidermis
(4) a, b and c are false
(4) Multicellular derived from nucellar
BSR429
hypodermis 26. Which of the following statement regarding
BSR423 sporopollenin is true
20. One of the most resistant known biological
(A) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
material is :-
(B) Sporopollenin is most resistant inorganic
(1) Lignin (2) Hemicellulose
material in nature
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Lignocellulose
(C) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
BSR424
21. Mature pollen grain contains :- (D) Sporopollenin form intine of pollen grain
(1) One Cell (2) Two Cells (1) A, B & C (2) A & C
(3) Three Cells (4) Four Cells (3) A & B (4) Only C
BSR425 BSR430

[ 104 ] [Link]
Reproduction
27. Find out the structure A, B, C and D in given 29. Statement-I: The hard inner layer of pollen
figure : grain intine, has prominent apertures called
germ pores.
Statement-II: Cytoplasm of pollen grain is
surrounded by Tapetum.
(1) Statement-I & II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct & Statement-II is
Incorrect
A B C D (3) Both Statements are Incorrect
(1) Embryo sac Chalaza Funicle Hilum (4) Statement II is only correct
(2) Embryo sac Hilum Chalaza Micropyle BSR433
30. Statement-I: The process of true fertilization
(3) Embryo sac Nucellus Funicle Hilum was discovered by Strasburger in Monotropa.
(4) Embryo sac Nucellus Micropyle Funicle Statement-II: In most of angiosperms,
chalazal megaspore remains functional.
BSR431
(1) Both Statement -I and II are correct.
28. (A) Polar nuclei are situated below the egg
(2) Statement -I is correct but statement II is
apparatus in the large central cell.
incorrect.
(B) Filiform apparatus plays important role
(3) Statement -I is incorrect and statement -II
in guiding the entry of pollen tube into is correct.
embryo sac. (4) Both Statement -I and statement -II are
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct incorrect.
(2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect BSR434
(3) Only (A) is correct
(4) Only (B) is correct
BSR432

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 1 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 1 3 1

[Link] [ 105 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

1. How many given structures are haploid ? 6. Statement-I : Transfer of pollen grains from
Ovary, anther, egg, pollen grain, male gamete, anther to the stigma of different plant is
zygote known as xenogamy.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 Statement-II : Plants use two biotic (wind
BSR435 and water) and one abiotic (animals) agents
2. A typical angiospermic microsporangium to achieve pollination.
appears near circular in outline. It is generally In the light of the above statements, choose
surrounded by four wall layers. Find correct the most appropriate answer from the
option with correct sequence from outside to options given below:
inner side :- (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Epidermis, hypodermis, middle layers incorrect.
and tapetum (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(2) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers incorrect.
and tapetum (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Endothecium, epidermis, middle layers are correct
and tapetum (4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
(4) Endothecium, hypodermis, middle layers correct
and tapetum BSR440
BSR436 7. Statement-I : Most of zygotes divide only
3. Zygote develops into the ............. and the after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
primary endosperm cell forms the ............. Statement-II : In the pea family the cotyledon
tissue in angiosperm :- is called scutellum that situated towards one
(1) Embryo, endosperm side (lateral) of the embryonal axis.
(2) Endosperm, embryo In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Seed, embryo the most appropriate answer from the
(4) Endosperm, seed options given below:
BSR437 (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. In Angiosperm, formation of endosperm incorrect.
always precedes development of the (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
.................... :- incorrect.
(1) Embryo
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(2) Embryosac
are correct
(3) Male gametophyte
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are
(4) Female gametophyte
correct
BSR438
BSR441
5. The coconut water form tender coconut
8. Read the following statements and choose the
respectively is .......... and the white kernel is
set of correct statements :-
the .......... :-
(a) Pollen grains represents the male
(1) Nuclear endosperm, cellular endosperm
gametophytic generation.
(2) Cellular endosperm, nuclear endosperm
(b) Some angiosperms produce more than
(3) Cellular endosperm, cellular endosperm
one embryo in their seed this
(4) Nuclear endosperm, nuclear endosperm
phenomenon is called polyembryony.
BSR439

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
(c) In angiosperm the fruit is the only final (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
product of sexual reproduction. the correct explanation of (A).
(d) The portion of embryonal axis above the (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
level of cotyledons is hypocotyl which (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
terminates with the plumule or stem tip. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
(e) Embryo development precedes endosperm correct explanation of (A).
development. BSR444
Choose the correct answer from the options 11. Given below are two statements : one is
given below. labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
(1) (a) and (b) only
Assertion : Tapetum is innermost layer of
(2) (a), (b) and (e) only
anther which is single layered.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
Reason : Tapetum is polyploid and
(4) (c), (d) and (e) only
multinucleated.
BSR442
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
9. Read the following statement and choose the
the correct explanation of (A).
set of correct statements :-
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(a) Majority of insect pollinated flowers are (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
large. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
(b) Pollination does not guarantee the correct explanation of (A).
transfer of right type of pollen. BSR445
(c) Pollination by wind is quite rare in 12. Match List-I with List-II
flowering plants and is limited to about 30 List-I List-II
genera mostly monocotyledons. (a) Autogamy (i) Transfer of pollen
(d) Both wind and water pollinated flowers grains from anther
are very colourful and produce nector. to stigma of different
(e) Opposite the micropylar end, is the plant
chalaza, representing the apical part of (b) Xenogamy (ii) Transfer of pollen
the ovule. grain from anther to
Choose the correct answer from the options stigma of same plant
given below. but different flower
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (c) Cleistogamous (iii) Transfer of pollen
(2) (a), (b) and (e) only grain from anther to
(3) (a) and (b) only stigma of same
(4) (c), (d) and (e) only flower
BSR443 (d) Geitonogamy (iv) Flower do not open
10. Given below are two statements : one is and never are
labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is exposed stigma &
anther
labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from the options
Assertion : Pollen grains can withstand high
given below:
temperatures and strong acid and alkali.
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Reason : Their hard outer layer exine is made
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
up of sporopollenin.
BSR446
[Link] [ 107 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
13. Match the column-I with column-II and select Options :
the right option :- (1) i, ii, iii, iv, v (2) i, v, iv, iii, ii
Column-I Column-II (3) i, ii, iv, iii, v (4) i, v, ii, iv, iii
(A) Male gametophyte (i) Embryosac BSR449
(B) Megasporangium (ii) Pollen grain 16. Identify the correct match from the columns I,
(C) Megasporophyll (iii) Ovule II and III :-
(D) Female (iv) Pistil/carpel Column-I Column-II Column-III
gametophyte (1) Microsporan (a) Megasporangium (i) Embryosac
gium
A B C D (2) Ovule (b) Pollen sac (ii) Microsporogenesis
(1) i ii iii iv (3) Aril (c) Endothecium (iii) Litchi
(4) Stomium (d) Integument (iv) Dehiscence
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) ii iii iv i (1) 1–b–ii, 2–a–i, 3–d–iii, 4–c–iv
(4) ii iii i iv (2) 1–a–ii, 2–b–i, 3–d–iii, 4–c–iv
BSR447 (3) 1–c–iii, 2–d–ii, 3–b–iv, 4–a–i
14. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of T.S. (4) 1–d–ii, 2–c–iii, 3–a–i, 4–b–iv
of mature anther. Identify the labelled parts BSR450
and select the right option- 17. Identify the structure A, B, C, D in given fig and
select the right option :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) Endothecium Sporogenous Tapetum Connective
Tissue
(2) Tapetum Sporogenous Endothecium Connective
Tissue
(3) Endothecium Connective Tapetum Sporogenous A B C D
Tissue
(1) Pollen Pollen Line of Filament
(4) Tapetum Connective Endothecium Sporogenous
Tissue
grains chamber dehiscence
(2) Pollen sac Pollen Line of Filament
BSR448 grain dehiscence
15. Few events of male gametophyte development (3) Pollen Pollen sac Line of Filament
in angiosperm are shown in figure given grains dehiscence
(4) Pollen Micro Line of Filament
below. Arrange the diagram in progressive
grains sporangia dehiscence
order of their occurrence and select the
correct order from options given below : BSR451
18. How many layers are found in angiospermic
anther at this stage :-

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

BSR452
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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
19. Given below is the diagrammatic view of an 24. Read the following statements and choose the
embryo sac. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C set of correct statements:
and D and select the right option about them :- (A) Persistent nucellus is found in beet and
black pepper.
(B) Wheat, maize, barley and castor are non-
albuminous seed.
(C) Parthenocarpic fruits are always seedless.
(D) Apomixis is seen in some species of
Asteraceae and grasses.
Part A Part B Part C Part D
(1) A, C and D (2) B, C and D
(1) Antipodals Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform
apparatus (3) C and D (4) A and D
(2) Synergids Polar nuclei Antipodals Filiform BSR458
apparatus 25. Identify the structure A, B, C, D, E and F in the
(3) Antipodals Filiform Synergids Polar nuclei given figure and select the correct option :
apparatus
(4) Synergids Filiform Antipodals Polar nuclei
apparatus

BSR453
20. How many given structures are diploid?
Pollen grain, embryo sac, nucellus,
A B C D E F
sporogenous tissue, anther, pistil (1) Synergid Egg cell Secondary Male Male gamete Central
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1 nucleus gamete cell
BSR454 (2) Filiform Synergid Polar nuclei Male Vegetative Central
apparatus gametes nucleus cell
21. Microsporophyll is equivalent to: (3) Egg cell Egg Central cell Male Male gamete Egg cell
(1) Pistil (2) Stamen apparatus gamete
(3) Anther (4) Ovule (4) Synergid Synergid Polar nuclei Male Vegetative Central
gamete nucleus cell
BSR455
22. What is the function of tapetum ? BSR459
(1) It helps in the dehiscence of anther. 26. Statement-I: Typical anther is bilobed and
(2) It provides nutrition to the developing dithecous.
spores. Statement-II : In Malvaceae , anthers are
(3) It provides protection to anther. monothecous and bisporangiate.
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Both Statement -I and II are correct.
BSR456 (2) Statement -I is correct but statement II is
23. Choose the correct statement : incorrect.
Assertion: Female gametophyte or embryo
(3) Statement -I is incorrect and statement -II
sac is embedded in nucellus.
is correct.
Reason: Nucellus provides nutrition to the
(4) Both Statement -I and statement -II are
developing embryo sac.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the incorrect.
correct explanation of A. BSR460
(2) A is correct but R is incorrect. 27. Pollen grains of rice and wheat loose viability
(3) A is not correct but R is correct. within :
(4) A and R both are correct, and R is the (1) 1 hour (2) 40 minutes
correct explanation of A. (3) 30 minutes (4) 10 minutes.
BSR457 BSR461
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
28. Arrange them in sequential order and choose (2) Statement -I is correct but statement II is
the correct option : incorrect.
(A) Ploidy of megaspore is haploid (3) Statement -I is incorrect and statement -II
(B) Out of 4 megaspores, 3 degenerate. is correct.
(C) Megaspore mother cell divides meiotically (4) Both Statement -I and statement -II are
to form megaspores. incorrect.
(D) Megaspore develops into female BSR463
gametophyte. 30. Pollen grains of which family retain viability
(1) B, C, D and A (2) C, B, A and D for months?
(3) A, B, C and D (4) D, C, B and A (1) Rosaceae, Cucurbitaceae and Solanaceae.
BSR462 (2) Solanaceae, Asteraceae and Cucurbitaceae.
29. Statement-I: Endothecium helps in the (3) Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Solanaceae.
dehiscence of anther. (4) Rosaceae, Leguminosae and Solanaceae.
Statement-II: Tapetum acts as a nutritive layer. BSR464
(1) Both Statement -I and II are correct.

Exercise – II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 4

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Genetics and Evolution

Exercise - I Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. (i) Segregation of alleles is a ___(a)___ process 7. Myotonic dystrophy is an example of :-
(ii) Dwarf character shows itself in ___(b)____ (1) Autosomal recessive trait
condition. (2) Autosomal dominant trait
Fill the correct option respectively : (3) Sex linked recessive trait
(1) a-Sequenced, b-heterozygous (4) Sex linked dominant trait
(2) a-Random, b-homozygous BPV644
(3) a-Random, b-heterozygous 8. Following symbol shows :-
(4) a-Sequenced, b-homozygous
BPV638
2. In monohybrid cross, What is the possibility (1) Affected individual
of obtaining genotype TT, tt and Tt (2) Mating between non relative
respectively in F2 generation : (3) Mating between relative
(4) Parents with male child
(1) 3/4, 1/4, 1/2 (2) 1/4, 1/4, 1/2
(3) 1/4, 1/2, 1/4 (4) 1/2, 1/2, 1/4 BPV645
BPV639 9. Presence of one additional copy of a
3. Which statement is correct about polygenic chromosome known as :-
inheritance :- (1) Monosomy
(1) One character is controlled by many genes (2) Tetrasomy
(2) Characters controlled by cytogenes (3) Trisomy
(3) Two pair of allelic genes are essential in (4) Double monosomy
dominant form to produce a particular BPV646
character 10. Which disease is sex linked recessive disease?
(4) Gene which inhibit the expression of (1) Haemophilia
another non allelic gene (2) Sickle cell anaemia
BPV640 (3) Phenylketonuria
4. 'Mendel work remain unrecognised till 1900'. (4) Thalassemia
Which statement is not correct regarding BPV647
above statement :- 11. Which symbol used for unspecified sex :-
(1) Communication was not easy (1) (2) (3) (4)
(2) Mendel did not provide any physical BPV648
proof of factor 12. Which type of genetic disorder is related to
(3) Factors which did not blend with each other, chromosomal disorder :-
was not accepted by his contemporaries (1) Haemophilia (2) Cystic fibrosis
(4) Mendel's approach of using mathematics
(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Down's syndrome
was totally new and unacceptable
BPV649
BPV641
13. Which of the following type of gamete will not
5. Physical association of two genes is known as:
(1) Recombination (2) Linkage be produce by a genotype AAbbCcDd :-
(3) Crossing over (4) Sex determination (1) AbCd (2) AbcD
BPV642 (3) AbCD (4) AbCcd
6. Analysis of traits in a several generation of a BPV650
family is called :- 14. Which part is removed at the time of
(1) Mendelian disorder emasculation in unisexual flower :-
(2) Chromosomal disorder
(3) Pedigree (1) Anther (2) Carpel
(4) Aneuploidy (3) Stamen (4) None
BPV643 BPV651

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
15. Given below are two statements: In the light of the above statements, choose
Statement-I : Heterozygous female for the most appropriate answer from the
haemophilia may transmit the disease to options given below:
sons. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-II : Sickle-cell anaemia is caused incorrect.
by the substitution of valine (val) by glutamic (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
acid (Glu) of -globin chain. incorrect.
In the light of the above statements, choose (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
the correct answer from the options given is correct.
below: (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
incorrect. BPV654
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is 18. Given below are two statements:
incorrect. Statement-I : Behaviour of chromosome is
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II parallel to the behaviour of genes.
is correct. Statement-II : Sutton and Boveri used
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are chromosomal movement to explain Mendel’s
correct. laws.
In the light of the above statements, choose
BPV652
the most appropriate answer from the
16. Given below are two statements:
options given below:
Statement-I : Dominant disorder in human
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
cause due to formation of any undesired
incorrect.
chemical/protein.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Statement-II : Recessive disorder occurs due
incorrect.
to lack of protein in animals.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
In the light of the above statements, choose is correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
options given below: correct.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are BPV655
incorrect. 19. Read the all statements carefully :
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (i) Mendel conducted artificial pollination
incorrect. /cross pollination experiments using
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II several true breeding pea line
is correct. (ii) True breeding having undergone
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are continuous self pollination, show stable
correct. trait inheritance
BPV653 (iii) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea
17. Given below are two statements: plant varieties.
Statement-I : One gene affect many (1) Only i and iii are correct
characters called pleiotropic gene. (2) i, ii and iii are correct
(3) Only iii is incorrect
Statement-II : Dominance is an autonomous
(4) i and ii are incorrect
feature of a gene or the gene product.
BPV656
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Genetics and Evolution
20. Read the following statement and choose 24. Which statement is not correct regarding the
incorrect statement : (According to Mendel sickle cell anaemia :-
experiment) (1) This is autosomal linked recessive trait
(1) Mendel crossed tall and dwarf pea plant (2) Heterozygous (HbAHbS) are resistant to
to study the inheritance of one gene malarial disease
known as Monohybrid cross. (3) Heterozygous (HbAHbS) individuals are
(2) In monohybrid cross, F1 progeny plants diseased phenotype
were similar to one of its parents (4) Defect is caused by the substitution of
(3) In F2 generation of monohybrid cross, glutamic acid (Glu) by valine (Val) at the
only one of the parental trait was sixth position of the beta globin chain of
expressed the haemoglobin molecule
(4) In F2 generation of monohybrid cross both BPV661
the traits were expressed in the proportion 25. In the following pedigree chart, the mutant
3 : 1. trait is shaded black. The gene responsible for
BPV657 the trait is :-
21. Match column-I to column-II and then
arrange all correctly :
Column-I Column-II
(i) Factor (a) Different forms of the
same gene (1) Dominant and sex linked
(ii) Allele (b) Morphological appearance (2) Dominant but autosomal
of a particular character (3) Y-linked
(iii) Phenotype (c) Genetic constitution of a (4) Recessive and autosomal
character BPV662
(iv) Genotype (d) Pass down from parent to 26. Which is not a correct match :-
offspring stably in Mendel (1) Deletion - Loss of a segment of DNA result
experiments in alteration in chromosome
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) Insertion - Gain of a segment of DNA,
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c result in alteration in chromosome
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c (3) Aberration - Result of chromosomal
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b alteration
BPV658 (4) Sickle cell anaemia - A classical example of
22. Which are related to incomplete dominance frame shift mutation
in following :- BPV663
(i) Flower colour in Mirabilis Jalapa 27. Which match is not correct :-
(ii) Coat colour in cattle (1) Crossing over - Recombination of genes
(iii) ABO blood group (2) Turner's syndrome - Additional copy of
(iv) Flower colour in snapdragon X-chromosome
(v) Coat colour in mice (3) Test cross - Tt × tt
(1) i, ii (2) i, iii (3) i, iv (4) ii, iii (4) Polyploidy - more than two sets of
chromosomes
BPV659
BPV664
23. Which genetic disorder presented in Queen
28. Which statement is not correct :-
Victoria’s family :-
(1) ABO blood group is an example of
(1) Colour blindness (2) Haemophilia
multiple allelism.
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Thalassemia
(2) Law of independent assortment is based
BPV660
on monohybrid cross.
[Link] [ 133 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
(3) A set of haploid chromosome known as 33. Assertion: Translocation is an illegal cross
genome. over.
(4) X-body name given by Henking. Reason: Translocation is the exchange of
BPV665 chromosomal segments between
29. Which of the following is not a test cross? nonhomologous chromosomes.
(1) Aabb x aaBb (2) AaBb x aabb (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
(3) AAbb x aaBb (3) AabbCc x aaBbcc but reason is not the correct explanation
BPV666 of Assertion.
30. The possibility of a human female being (2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
colorblind is : (3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
(1) Very rare and Reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Very high Assertion.
(3) Equal to male (4) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) No specific pattern as such BPV670
BPV667 34. A person having genotype I and I will show
A B

31. Regarding the following cross AB blood group. This is because of-
AaBbCcDd × AABbCcDD (1) Segregation (2) Dominance
Which statement is correct? (3) Co-dominance
(1) The possibility of one specific genotype (4) Independent assortment
cannot be calculated. BPV671
(2) The probability of genotype AaBBCCDd is 35. Select the correct statement regarding
1/4. dihybrid cross-
(3) The probability of having an offspring (1) Genes of the same chromosomes that are
with all dominant alleles is zero. loosely linked, show similar
(4) The probability of genotype aabbccdd is recombination as the tightly linked genes
zero. do.
BPV668 (2) Tightly linked genes like body colour and
32. Among the following disorders eye colour genes in Drosophila show very
Turner’s syndrome, Cri-du-chat syndrome, less recombination.
Down’s syndrome, and Thalassemia (3) Tightly linked genes of the same
How many of them are caused due to chromosomes show high recombination.
trisomy? (4) Genes that are far apart and present on
(1) One (2) Two the same chromosomes show very little
(3) Three (4) Four recombination.
BPV669 BPV672

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 4 4 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 2 3 1
Question 31 32 33 34 35
Answer 4 1 3 3 2

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Genetics and Evolution

Exercise - II Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. Which statement is incorrect :- YR Yr yR ry
(1) Pleotropic gene has multiple phenotype YR F J N R
(2) 9 : 7 ratio is produced due to co-dominance Yr G K O S
(3) Two identical alleles known as homozygous yR H L P T
(4) Incomplete dominance is present in ry I M Q U
Antirrhinum majus A plant of 'H' type will produce seeds with the
BPV673 genotype identical to seeds produced by the
2. Which statement is not true :- plants of:-
(1) Type M (2) Type J
(1) Genetics deals with the inheritance, as
(3) Type P (4) Type N
well as the variation of characters from
BPV678
parents to offspring
7. Given below are two statements :
(2) Characters are controlled by discrete Statement-I : Every gene, as you know by
units called factor now, contains the information to express a
(3) Co-dominance present in 'AB' blood group particular trait.
(4) Linkage  distance between two gene Statement-II : In a diploid organism, there
present in one chromosome are two copies of each gene i.e. as a pair of
BPV674 alleles. Now these two alleles always be
3. For human ABO blood group there are three identical, as in heterozygote.
different ______, there are six different______ In the light of the above statements, choose
and there are four different______. the correct answer from the options given
(1) Alleles, phenotypes, genotypes below:
(2) Phenotypes, genotypes, alleles (1) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(3) Genotypes, Alleles, phenotypes (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Alleles, genotypes, phenotypes
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
BPV675
correct.
4. How many dominant traits are present in pea
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.
plant from the given list ?
BPV679
Yellow seed colour, Green pod colour, 8. Given below are two statements :
Wrinkled seed shape, Violet flower colour, Statement-I : According to Sutton and Boveri
Terminal flower position, Full pod shape the important things to remember are that
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs.
BPV676 Statement-II : The two alleles of a gene pair
5. Which of the following is correctly matched :- are located on homologous sites on
(1) Stem height – chromosome number 1 homologous chromosomes.
(2) Seed colour – chromosome number 2 In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Pod colour – chromosome number 5 the correct answer from the options given
(4) Pod shape – chromosome number 7 below:
BPV677 (1) Both statement I and II are incorrect
6. The Punnett square shown below represents (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
the pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross incorrect.
when yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) correct.
seeds:- (4) Both statement I and II are correct.
BPV680
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
9. Given below are two statements : One is Choose the correct answer from the option
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is given below :
labelled as Reason (R). (1) (a) and (c) only
Assertion (A) : Failure of segregation of (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
chromatids during cell division cycle results (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
in the gain or loss of a chromosome, called (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all
aneuploidy. BPV683
Reason (R) : Down's syndrome and Turner's 12. Identify the set of correct statement :
syndrome are example of aneuploidy. (a) Mendel conducted test cross for the first
In the light of the above statements, choose time between a tall plant from F2 with a
the correct answer from the options given dwarf plant.
below: (b) Test cross can easily predict the genotype
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not of the test organism.
the correct explanation of (A). (c) Law of dominance explains the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (d) Alleles show blending and both the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the characters are not recovered as such in F2
correct explanation of (A) in pea.
BPV681 (e) Factor occurs in pairs.
10. Given below are two statements : One is Choose the correct answer from the option
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is given below :
labelled as Reason (R). (1) (a) and (e) only
Assertion (A) : Female heterogamety is (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
found in birds. (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
Reason (R) : Two different types of gametes (4) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
in terms of the sex chromosomes, are BPV684
produced by female birds. 13. Identify the set of incorrect statement/s :
In the light of the above statements, choose (a) Gene which code for a pair of contrasting
the correct answer from the options given traits are known as Allele.
below: (b) Mendelian factors are discrete units.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (c) A large sample size is required to make
the correct explanation of (A). any quantitative conclusion.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (d) Graphical representation to calculate the
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. probability of all possible genotype of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the offsprings genetic cross, developed by
correct explanation of (A) Morgan.
BPV682 Choose the correct answer from the option
11. Identify the set of correct statement : given below :
(a) Mendel investigated inheritance with (1) (a) and (c) only
usage of statistical analysis and (2) (d) only
mathematical logics. (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(b) Mendel's experiments had a small (4) (b) and (d) only
sampling size. BPV685
(c) Mendel conducted artificial/cross 14. Identify the set of incorrect statement/s.
pollination for the hybridisation (a) Sometime, F1 do not resemble either of
experiment. two parents for flower colour in some
(d) Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plants.
plant varieties.
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Genetics and Evolution
(b) Occasionally a single gene product may (1) (e) only
produce more than one phenotype. (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(c) After maturation of seeds, BB seeds are (3) (a), (c) and (e) only
round and Bb seeds are wrinkled. (4) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only
(d) Dominance is an autonomous feature of a BPV688
gene. 17. Identify the set of correct statement/s.
Choose the correct answer from the option (a) Today genetic maps are extensively used
given below : as a starting point in genome sequencing
(1) (c) only in HGP.
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only (b) In Morgan's experiment's, wild type allele
(3) (c) and (d) only and mutant type allele are represented
(4) (b) and (c) only with (+) and (–) sign in superscript,
BPV686 respectively.
15. Identify the set of incorrect statement/s. (c) Strength of linkage between Y and W is
(a) In 1902, De Vries, Correns and higher than W and M.
Tschermark independently rediscovered (d) Pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a
Mendel’s result on inheritance. gene on metabolism pathways.
(b) By 1902, the chromosome movement Choose the correct answer from the option
during meiosis had been worked out by given below :
Sutton and Boveri. (1) (a), (b) and (d) only
(c) Two Alleles of a gene pair are located on (2) (b), (c), (d) only
different loci of homologous chromosomes. (3) (a) and (d) only
(d) Chromosome segregate at the time of (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
gamete formation which occurs in pairs in BPV689
an individual. 18. Identify the set of correct statement/s.
Choose the correct answer from the options (a) Grasshopper is an example of female
given below : heterogamety.
(1) (a) and (c) only (b) In birds, total number of chromosome is
(2) (a) only same in both male and female.
(3) (c) only (c) In honey bee, fertilized egg develops
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only queen and unfertilized egg develops
BPV687 worker.
16. Identify the set of incorrect statement/s. (d) Haplo-diploid sex-determination system
(a) Drosophila complete their life span in found in Honey bee.
about two weeks. Choose the correct answer from the option
(b) Drosophila has heteromorphic sex given below :
chromosomes in male. (1) (a) and (d) only
(c) Morgan carried out test cross in (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
Drosophila. (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(d) Morgan attributed linkage as physical (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
association of two genes. BPV690
(e) Morgan et al. found in Drosophila that the 19. Identify the set of correct statement :
genes white and yellow were loosely (a) Mutation is a phenomenon which results
linked than white and miniature. in change in genotype and phenotype of
Choose the correct answer from the options an organism.
given below :
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
(b) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
observed in cancer cells. is correct.
(c) There are many chemical and physical (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
factors referred as mutagens. correct.
(d) Analysis of traits in a several of BPV693
generations of a family is called the 22. Given below are two statements:
pedigree analysis. Statement-I : ABO blood group system
(e) Deletions and insertions of base pairs of provide a good example of multiple alleles.
DNA causes point mutation. Statement-II : Multiple Allele can be found in
Choose the correct answer from the options
an individual of Human population.
given below :
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
the most appropriate answer from the
(2) (a), (b), (c) only
options given below:
(3) All are incorrect
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) All are correct
BPV691 (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
20. Identify the set of incorrect statement/s. incorrect.
(a) Colour blindness is a sex-linked dominant (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
disorder. is correct.
(b) Colour blindness occurs in about 0.4 per (4) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
cent of males and 8 per cent of females. BPV694
(c) Male are in heterozygous condition for 23. Given below are two statements:
haemophilia and colour blindness. Statement-I : Modified allele could be
(d) Colour blindness is due to absence of responsible for production of normal
some specific proteins which forms cones. enzyme.
Choose the correct answer from the option Statement-II : Normal/unmodified allele is
given below : responsible for production of normal
(1) only (a) enzyme.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) (a) and (b) only the most appropriate answer from the
(4) only (d) options given below:
BPV692 (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
21. Given below are two statements:
incorrect.
Statement-I : Mendel's study found that the
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
factors independently assort and combine in
incorrect.
all permutations and combinations.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Statement-II : Later, it was found that
is correct.
Mendel's law of independent assortment
does not hold true for the genes located on (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the same chromosomes. correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose BPV695
the most appropriate answer from the 24. Assertion (A) : Law of segregation is based
options given below: on the fact that the alleles do not show any
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are blending.
incorrect. Reason (R) : Factor or alleles of a pair
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is segregate from each other such that a gamete
incorrect. receives only one of the two factor.

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Genetics and Evolution
In the light of the above statements, choose 27. Assertion (A) : Starch synthesis gene in
the correct answer from the options given Heterozygous (Bb) produce intermediate size
below : starch grains but round seed.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not Reason (R) : Gene for starch branching
the correct explanation of (A). enzyme (SBE) show multiple allelism.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. the correct answer from the options given
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the below :
correct explanation of (A). (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
BPV696 the correct explanation of (A).
25. Given below are two statements; one is (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
labelled as Reason(R). (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
Assertion (A) : Unmodified Allele, which correct explanation of (A).
represents the original phenotype is the BPV699
dominant allele. 28. Assertion (A) : Phenylketonuria is an
Reason (R) : A dominant allele could be example of pleiotropy.
modified into recessive allele by only crossing Reason (R) : Phenylketonuria manifests
over. mental retardation and a reduction in hair
In the light of the above statements, choose and skin pigmentation besides too much
the correct answer from the options given phenylalanine in the body.
below : In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct answer from the options given
the correct explanation of (A). below:
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
BPV697 (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
26. Given below are two statements; one is correct explanation of (A).
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is BPV700
labelled as Reason(R). 29. Assertion (A) : In human, we don't just have
Assertion (A) : A gene 'T' is responsible for tall or short people as two distinct alternatives
tallness in pea plant. but a whole range of possible heights.
Reason (R) : 'T' allele is functional, that Reason (R) : Human skin colour is a classic
produces normal enzyme. example of pleiotropic gene.
In the light of the above statements, choose In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given the correct answer from the options given
below : below :
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A). the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). correct explanation of (A).
BPV698 BPV701
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
30. Assertion (A) : Maximum 50% non-parental Polygenic Size of starch grain
(IV) (D)
gene combinations are possibly produces inheritance in pea seeds
during gamete formation. (1) I - (D); II - (A); III - (C); IV - (B)
Reason (R) : Maximum frequency of crossing (2) I - (D); II - (B); III - (C); IV - (A)
over could be 100% because all four (3) I - (C); II - (A); III - (D); IV - (B)
chromatids of tetrad are involves in crossing (4) I - (A); II - (C); III - (B); IV - (D)
over. BPV704
In the light of the above statements, choose 33. Match the column-I with column-II and select
the correct answer from the options given the correct answer using codes given below:-
below:
Column-I Column-II
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A). Turner
A. i. Trisomy of 21
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. syndrome
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. Klinefelter’s
B. ii. AA + XO
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the syndrome
correct explanation of (A). Karyotype of
C. Y-chromosome iii.
BPV702 47
31. The figure below shows three types of sex Testis
determination. Select the option giving Down's
D. iv. determining fa
correct identification. syndrome
ctor
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
BPV705
34. Identify A and B, in the given diagrammatic
representation of genetic disorder.

(1) B - XY males, XX females

(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males
BPV703 (1) A = Tall stature with feminised character
32. Match the Column - I with Column - II. B = Turner’s Syndrome
Column-I Column-II (2) A = Turner’s Syndrome
(I) Phenylketonuria (A) 8 percent of males B = Klinefelter Syndrome
Colour Colour of human
(3) A = Klinefelter Syndrome
(II) (B) B = Turner’s Syndrome
blindness being
Incomplete (4) Both (1) and (3)
(III) (C) Mental retardation BPV706
dominance

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35. Identify A, B and C in the given representative 38. Assertion: Unlike humans, eggs are
figure showing an individual inflicted with responsible for sex determination in birds.
down syndrome. Reason: Female birds show heterogamy.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but the reason is
incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but the reason is
correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
but Reason is not the correct explanation
A B C of Assertion.
Flat back Broad Small and BPV710
(1) 39. Assertion: The possibility of a female being
of head flat face wrinkled tongue
colorblind is extremely rare.
Flat back Broad Big and wrinkled
(2) Reason: For a female to be colorblind, her
of head flat face tongue
mother must be colorblind.
Oval back Broad Big and wrinkled
(3) (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
head flat face tongue
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Oval back Assertion.
(4) flat face Wrinkled tongue
head
(2) Assertion is correct but the reason is
BPV707 incorrect.
36. Match column I with column II and choose the (3) Assertion is incorrect but the reason is
correct option correct.
Column-I Column-II (4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
A. Linkage theory I. Sturtevant but Reason is not the correct explanation
B. Chromosomal II. Henking of Assertion.
theory of BPV711
inheritance 40. Match the following and select the correct
C. Discovery of X III. Sutton and option-
chromosome Boveri Column I Column II
D. Genetic mapping [Link] A. P. Death
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
B. Q. Five unaffected
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
offspring
BPV708
37. Which of the following is not matched C. R. Sex unspecified
correctly?
D. S. Female
(1) Incomplete dominance — Exception of
Mendel’s first law
E. T. Male
(2) Co-dominance — Exception of law of
purity of gametes (1) A→P; B→Q; C→T; D→S; E→R
(3) Multiple alleles — Studied in population (2) A→P; B→Q; C→S; D→R; E→T
(4) Linkage — Exception of independent (3) A→P; B→Q; C→R; D→S; E→T
assortment
(4) A→T; B→S; C→R; D→Q; E→P
BPV709
BPV712

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41. Which of the following is correctly matched (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
A B C incorrect.
Mendel Morgan Bateson (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Segregation Sex linkage Dominance correct
(2) Segregation Linkage Modern (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Genetics incorrect
(3) Dominance Assortment Linkage
BPV715
(4) Linkage Segregation Allele
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
BPV713 correct?
42. Assertion: Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal (1) Crossing over occurs during mitosis in
disorder that shows co-dominance in gametes.
heterozygous condition. (2) Crossing over leads to the exchange of
Reason: Round and Sickle-shaped, both chromosomal segments.
types of RBCs are found in a person (3) Crossing over is done between non-sister
heterozygous for Sickle cell anaemia. chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, (4) Both (1) and (3)
and Reason is the correct explanation of BPV716
Assertion. 45. Read the following statements and select the
(2) Assertion is correct but the reason is correct option.
incorrect. Statement I: Segregation of alleles during
(3) Assertion is incorrect but the reason is cell division takes place due to disjunction.
correct. Statement II : Segregation of alleles takes
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, place during Anaphase-I.
but Reason is not the correct explanation (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
of Assertion. correct.
BPV714 (2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
43. Statement I: Male honeybees do not have is correct.
fathers and sons. (3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Statement II: Male grasshoppers have two X incorrect.
chromosomes besides autosomes. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II incorrect.
is correct. BPV717

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 2
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Answer 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 1 1

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Genetics and Evolution

Exercise - I Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. The component of a nucleotide in DNA are :- 7. Which was the first genetic material on earth:
(1) Nucleoside + phosphate group (1) DNA (2) Protein
(2) Nitrogenous base + deoxyribose sugar + (3) RNA (4) Carbohydrate
phosphate group BMI541
(3) Nitrogenous base + ribose sugar + 8. Which one of the following synthesize a
phosphate group repressor protein :-
(4) (1) and (2) both are correct (1) Regulator gene (2) Promoter gene
BMI535 (3) Structural gene (4) Operator gene
2. Which type of bond is not present in DNA :- BMI542
9. DNA fingerprinting involve identifying
(1) Phosphodiester bond
differences in some specific regions in DNA
(2) Glycosidic bond
sequence called as :-
(3) Hydrogen bond
(1) Euchromatin
(4) Disulphide bond
(2) Repetitive DNA
BMI536
(3) Genophore
3. In RNA, which type of nitrogen base is not (4) Heterochromatin
present as a structural component :- BMI543
(1) Uracil (2) 5-methyl uracil 10. Allelic sequence variation has traditionally
(3) Cytosine (4) Adenine been described as a DNA polymorphism if
BMI537 more than one variant (allele) at a locus
4. Nature of histone protein is :- occurs in human population with a frequency:
(1) Basic and positive charged (1) Greater than 0.1 (2) Greater than 0.01
(2) Acidic and positive charged (3) Less than 0.1 (4) Less than 0.01
(3) Acidic and negative charged BMI544
(4) Basic and negative charged 11. Human genome consists how many number
BMI538 of genes :-
5. Replication is continuous in :- (1) 3000 (2) 30000
(1) The leading strand (3) 3 × 109 (4) 40000
(2) The lagging strand BMI545
(3) Strand where okazaki fragments are 12. Which major approach of HGP used for
present identifying all the genes that are expressed as
(4) Both (2) & (3) RNA :-
(1) Bio informatics (2) ESTs
BMI539
(3) Sequence annotation (4) BAC
6. Hershey and chase use which type of
BMI546
radioactive medium in experiment :-
13. Which is wrongly match with its specificity :-
(1) Radioactive sulphur containing medium
(1) YAC – A type of vector
only.
(2) SNPs – Single nucleotide polymorphisms
(2) Radioactive phosphorus containing (3) Human largest gene – Dystrophin
medium only. (4) Chromosome No. 1 – 231 genes
(3) One medium radioactive sulphur BMI547
containing and another medium 14. A sequence of three Nitrogen base of mRNA
radioactive phosphorus containing. can function as :-
(4) Both medium were radioactive sulphur (1) Gene (2) Nucleoside
containing. (3) Codon (4) Amino acid
BMI540 BMI548
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
15. Find out incorrect match :- 22. Process of polymerisation of amino acids to
(1) Genome of ×174 bacteriophage - 5386 form a polypeptide known as :-
nucleotides (1) Transcription (2) Translation
(2) Catalytic RNA - Ribozyme (3) Replication (4) Duplication
(3) Sudden chemical change in DNA - Mutation BMI556
(4) Purine - Adenine and cytosine 23. Which type of rRNA act as ribozyme in
BMI549 bacteria :-
16. Find out incorrect match :-
(1) 23s-rRNA (2) 16s-rRNA
(1) Inducer - Lactose
(3) 28s-rRNA (4) 18s-rRNA
(2) Euchromatin - Inactive chromatin
BMI557
(3) DNA packaging - Nucleosome
24. Given below are two statements:
(4) Prokaryotic DNA - Nucleoid
BMI550 Statement-I : Splicing refers to joining of
17. Which statement is not correct :- exons in a defined order.
(1) Heterochromatic region is more densely Statement-II : In capping an unusual
packed nucleotide is added to 3'-end of hn-RNA.
(2) DNA replication takes place in 3' → 5' In the light of the above statements, choose
direction the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Intron is non coding sequence options given below:
(4) DNA have acidic nature (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
BMI551 incorrect.
18. Which statement is not correct :- (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(1) DNA polymerase is the main enzyme for incorrect.
RNA synthesis (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(2) Primer is formed by primase enzyme
is correct.
(3) In human, less than 2% of genome codes
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
for protein
correct.
(4) AUG codes for methionine amino acid
BMI558
BMI552
19. Give the correct sequence of Hershey-Chase 25. Given below are two statements:
experiment :- Statement-I : Split-gene arrangements
(1) Infection, centrifugation, blending represent probably an ancient feature of the
(2) Blending, infection, centrifugation genome.
(3) Infection, blending, centrifugation Statement-II : Process of splicing represent
(4) Centrifugation, infection, blending the dominance of RNA-world.
BMI553 In the light of the above statements, choose
20. The process of copying genetic information the most appropriate answer from the
from one strand of the DNA into RNA is options given below:
known is :- (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Replication (2) Transcription incorrect.
(3) Translation (4) Termination (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
BMI554
incorrect.
21. Which of the following region is not present
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
in transcriptional unit in DNA :-
is correct.
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene
(3) Terminator (4) N-terminal (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
BMI555 correct.
BMI559

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Genetics and Evolution
26. Statement-I : Process of translation is easy to (1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
conceptualise on the basis of (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
complementarity. incorrect.
Statement-II : Nirenberg's cell-free system (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
for protein synthesis finally helped the code is correct.
to be deciphered. (4) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose BMI562
the most appropriate answer from the 29. Which one of the following is correctly
options given below: matched.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA
(1) Highly stable Soluble Act as an
incorrect.
RNA enzyme
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(2) Adapter RNA Largest Single
incorrect.
RNA stranded
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Have message Adapter Play
is correct.
for synthesis RNA catalytic
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
protein role
correct.
(4) Soluble RNA Highly Double
BMI560
stable stranded
27. Statement-I : Genetic code is nearly
universal. BMI563
Statement-II : AUG codes of methionine 30. Match column I with column II and select the
(met), and it also acts as 'stop' codon. correct option.
In the light of the above statements, choose Column-I Column-II
(I) Termination (A) Aminoacyl tRNA
the most appropriate answer from the
synthetase
options given below:
(II) Charging of (B) Okazaki
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are tRNA fragments
incorrect. (III) Transcription (C) GTP dependent
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is release factor
incorrect. (IV) DNA (D) RNA polymerase
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II replication
is correct. (1) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
correct. (3) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
BMI561 (4) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
28. Statement-I : 23s rRNA also acts as ribozyme BMI564
for formation of peptide bond and known as 31. Which of the following is not a part of the DNA
peptidyl transferase enzyme. fingerprinting process?
(1) Transfer of DNA fragments on
Statement-II : In prokaryotes, control of the
nitrocellulose membrane.
rate of transcriptional initiation is the
(2) Denaturation of DNA using alkaline
predominant site for control of gene
solution.
expression.
(3) Gel electrophoresis.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(4) Formation of complementary DNA using
the most appropriate answer from the reverse transcription process.
options given below: BMI565
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
32. Carefully read the diagram and select the 34. Select the set of correct statements only
correct option. (A) Eukaryotic mRNA is polycistronic while
prokaryotic mRNA is monocistronic.
(B) Capping and tailing are done for
eukaryotic mRNA only.
(C) The precursor for eukaryotic mRNA is
called hnRNA.
(D) During replication only one strand of DNA
is copied into RNA.
(E) In prokaryotes, transcription and
Identify A, B, C, D :- translation are coupled.
(1) A = inducer, B = repressor, (1) B, C and E only
C = inhibitor, D = mRNA (2) A, B, and D only
(2) A = repressor mRNA, B = inducer,
(3) A, B, C and E only
C = permease, D = transacetylase,
(3) A = repressor, B = operator, (4) A and D only
C = -galactosidase, D = transacetylase, BMI568
(4) A = operator, B = inducer, C = permease, 35. Choose the correct set of statements :-
D = RNA polymerase
(A) RNA is the genetic material in QB
BMI566
33. Which of the following correctly represent bacteriophage.
DNA replication? (B) DNA is chemically less reactive and more
stable than RNA.

(1) (2) (C) Viruses with RNA genomes have shorter

life spans and evolve slowly.
(1) A and B only
(2) A only
(3) (4) (3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C
BMI569
BMI567

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 4 2 1 1 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 4 3 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 4 3 2 4 3 3
Question 31 32 33 34 35
Answer 4 2 1 1 1

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Genetics and Evolution

Exercise - II Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. If in double stranded DNA molecule, cytosine (3) –Phosphate group on 5th position of
is 40%, then the percentage of adenine would ribose sugar
be :- (4) –OH group on 1st position of ribose sugar
(1) 60% (2) 40% (3) 20% (4) 10% BMI574
BMI570 6. Which statement is not correct :-
2. Match the column-I to column-II :- (1) DNA and RNA are able to mutate
Column-I Column-II (2) RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster
(i) Griffith (a) Transduction rate compare to DNA
(ii) Hershey and (b) Nucleoid
(3) The presence of thymine at the place of
Chase
uracil also confers additional stability to
(iii) Euchromatin (c) Transformation
DNA
(iv) Prokaryotic (d) Active chromatin
DNA (4) DNA is not dependent on RNA for
(1) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d synthesis of protein.
(2) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b BMI575
(3) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a 7. (i) Transcriptional level
(4) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d (ii) Processing level
BMI571 (iii) Transport of m-RNA from nucleus to the
3. The correct match is :- cytoplasm
Column-I Column-II (iv) Translational level
(i) Helicase (a) Polymerisation of Which of the above level includes in
nucleotides regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes :-
(ii) Topoisomerase (b) Ligate okazaki (1) (i) and (ii) only
fragments (2) (iii) only
(iii) Ligase (c) Remove stress at
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
the time of
(4) (i) and (iv) only
unwinding
(iv) DNA (d) Opening of DNA BMI576
polymerase-II 8. Match the column-I to column-II :-
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b Column-I Column-II
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b (i) i-gene (a) Codes for
(3) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a transacetylase
(4) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d (ii) z-gene (b) Codes for
BMI572 permease
4. The base sequence in one strand of DNA is (iii) y-gene (c) Codes for the
AAGCTACCGA, then what would be the repressor of lac
sequence of bases in another strand is :- operon
(1) AAGCTACCGA (2) TTCGATGGCT (iv) a-gene (d) Codes for beta-
(3) TTCCATGGCT (4) TTCGATGCCT galactosidase
BMI573
5. RNA is more reactive or unstable to DNA due (1) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
to presence of :- (2) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
(1) –OH group on 2nd position of ribose sugar (3) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
(2) –OH group on 3rd position of deoxy ribose (4) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
sugar BMI577

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
9. Which statement is not correct :- 13. Statement-I : Deoxy ribonucleic acid (DNA)
(1) Amino acid attach with acceptor end of and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types
t-RNA of nucleic acids found in living system.
(2) Release factor binds to the stop codon for Statement-II : DNA acts as the genetic
terminating translation material in most of the organisms. RNA
(3) All 64 codons code for amino acids though it also acts as a genetic material in
(4) In splicing, introns are removed and exons some viruses, mostly functions as a
are joined messenger.
BMI578 In the light of the above statements, choose
10. What is the basic concept of transformation the correct answer from the options given
experiment of Griffith :- below:
(1) R-II strains convert in new R-II strains (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) R-II strains transform in S-III strains incorrect
(3) S-III strains transform in R-II strains (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(4) S-III strains transform in new S-III strains incorrect.
BMI579 (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
11. Match the column-I to column-II :- correct.
Column-I Column-II
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(i) Griffith (a) Use of protein, RNA
correct.
experiment and DNA digestive
enzymes
BMI582
(ii) Avery, Macleod (b) S-III and R-II strain of 14. Statement-I : The genetic material should be
and McCarty Pneumococcus stable enough not to change with different
experiment stages of life cycle, age or with change in
(iii) Hershey and (c) Discovery of nuclein physiology of the organism.
Chase experiment Statement-II : Stability as one of the
(iv) Miescher (d) Use if P82 and S35 properties of genetic material was not very
(radioactive P and S) evident in Griffith's 'transforming principle'.
(1) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a the correct answer from the options given
(3) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b below:
(4) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c (1) Both statement I and statement II are
BMI580 incorrect
12. Match the column-I to column-II :-
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Column-I Column-II incorrect.
(i) m-RNA (a) Attach on promoter (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(ii) t-RNA (b) Provide the template correct.
during translation (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(iii) r-RNA (c) Brings amino acids correct.
and read genetic code BMI583
(iv) RNA (d) Play structural and 15. Assertion (A) : RNA is also now known to be
polymerase catalytic role during catalytic, hence reactive.
translation
Reason (R) : DNA is chemically less reactive
(1) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a and structurally more stable when compared
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a to RNA.
(3) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d In the light of the above statements, choose
(4) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a the correct answer from the options given
BMI581 below:

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Genetics and Evolution
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (c) In adenosine, a Nitrogenous base linked to
the correct explanation of (A). pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic bond.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (d) DNA polymer has a free phosphate moiety
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. at 3'- end of sugar at one end.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (e) Backbone of a polynucleotide chain is
correct explanation of (A) formed due to sugar and phosphates.
BMI584 Choose the correct answer from the option
16. Given below are two statements : One is given below :
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (1) (a), (b), (c), (e) only
labelled as Reason (R). (2) (a), (d) and (e) only
Assertion (A) : The DNA replication scheme (3) (a), (b), (c) only
was termed as semi-conservative. (4) All are correct
Reason (R) : After the completion of BMI587
replication, each DNA molecule would have one 19. Identify the incorrect set of statement :
parental and one newly synthesised strand. (a) 5-methyl uracil is another chemical name
In the light of the above statements, choose of thymine.
the correct answer from the options given (b) Elucidation of structure of DNA was
below: proposed by Watson and crick.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (c) Each strand from a parental DNA act as a
the correct explanation of (A). template for synthesis of new strand.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (d) Two chain of DNA have parallel polarity.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (e) Two chain of DNA are coiled in a left-
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the handed fashion only.
correct explanation of (A) Choose the correct answer from the option
BMI585 given below :
17. Identify the correct set of statement : (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(a) The length of DNA is usually defined as (2) (b), (d) and (e) only
number of nucleotides. (3) (d) and (e) only
(b) Number of pair of nucleotides is (4) All are incorrect
characteristic of an organism or species. BMI588
(c) A bacteriophage  × 174 has 5386 base 20. Identify the correct set of statement :
pairs (bp). (a) Base pairs are said to be complementary
(d) Diploid content of human DNA is 3.3 × 109 to each other.
bp. (b) Guanine is bonded with cytosine with
(e) Human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. three H-bonds.
Choose the correct answer from the option (c) Pitch of the DNA helix is 3.4 × 10–6m.
given below : (d) Distance between two base pair in a helix
(1) (a), (b), (e) only is approximately 3.4 nm.
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only (e) DNA is scattered throughout the cell in
(3) (a) and (e) only [Link].
(4) All are correct Choose the correct answer from the option
BMI586 given below :
18. Identify the correct set of statement : (1) (a) and (b) only
(a) A nucleotide has three components – a (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
phosphate group.
(4) All are correct
(b) Uracil is present in RNA at the place of
BMI589
thymine.
[Link] [ 149 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
21. Identify the correct set of statement/s. (c) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.
(a) Histones are rich in the basic amino acid (d) For transmission of genetic information,
residues lysine and arginine. RNA is better.
(b) Lysine and arginine carry positive Choose the correct answer from the option
charges in their side chain. given below :
(c) Nucleosomes constitute the repeating (1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (c) and (d) only
unit of a structure in nucleus called
(3) (a) only
chromatin.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only
(d) Packaging of chromatin at higher level BMI592
requires additional set of proteins that 24. Identify the correct set of statement/s.
collectively referred as non-histone (a) Cscl (cesium chloride) density gradient
chromosomal protein. require for distinguish normal DNA from
(e) Heterochromatin is said to be heavy DNA.
transcriptionally active chromatin. (b) 15N is radioactive isotope.
Choose the correct answer from the option (c) In Meselson and Stahl experiment DNA
given below : extracted after 2 generation have equal
(1) (a) and (c) only amount of hybrid and heavy DNA.
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only (d) DNA in chromosomes also replicate semi
(3) (a), (c), (d) only conservatively.
(4) All are correct Choose the correct answer from the option
BMI590 given below :
22. Identify the correct set of statement/s. (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) only
(a) Some "transforming principle" transferred (3) (a), (b), (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only
from heat-killed S-strain to R-strain in BMI593
25. Identify the correct set of statement :
Hershey and Chase experiment.
(a) DNA polymerase uses a DNA template to
(b) Proteases and RNase do not affect
catalyse the polymerisation of
transformation.
deoxynucleotides.
(c) S-strain bacteria have genes for synthesis (b) Diploid content of DNA in human genome,
of mucous coat. completes the process of replication
(d) Genetic material should be stable within 18 minutes.
chemically and do not provide the scope (c) dNTPs serve dual purpose in DNA
for any changes. replication.
Choose the correct answer from the option (d) Discontinuously synthesised fragments
given below : are later joined by DNA polymerase
(1) (c) and (d) only enzyme.
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only Choose the correct answer from the option
(3) (b) and (c) only given below :
(4) All are incorrect (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) and (d) only
BMI591 (3) (d) only (4) All are correct
23. Identify the incorrect set of statement/s. BMI594
(a) RNA chemically is less reactive and 26. Identify the incorrect set of statement :
structurally more stable as compared to (a) Principle of complementarity governs the
DNA. process of transcription.
(b) The presence of uracil at the place of (b) If both strands of DNA transcribed, they
5-methyl uracil also confer additional would code for RNA with same sequences.
stability to RNA. (c) Structural gene in transcription unit could
be said as monocistronic in eukaryotes.
[ 150 ] [Link]
Genetics and Evolution
(d) Transcription and translation can be 29. Given below are two statements; one is
coupled in bacteria. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(e) There is a clear cut division of labour in labelled as Reason(R) .
RNA polymerase of eukaryotes. Assertion (A) : If the bacteria do not have
Choose the correct answer from the option lactose around them they would no longer
given below : require the synthesis of the enzyme beta-
(1) (b) only galactosidase.
(2) (b), (d) and (e) only Reason (R) : -galactosidase is used to
(3) (a) and (b) only
catalyse the hydrolysis of lactose into
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
galactose and glucose.
BMI595
In the light of the above statements, choose
27. Statement-I : Mutations may result in loss or
gain of a gene. the correct answer from the options given
Statement-II : Amino acids have no below :
structural specialities to read the code (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
uniquely. the correct explanation of (A).
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
options given below: (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct explanation of (A).
incorrect. BMI598
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is 30. Given below are two statements; one is
incorrect. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II labelled as Reason(R).
is correct. Assertion (A) : A very low level of expression
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are of lac operon has to be present in the cell all
correct. the time.
BMI596 Reason (R) : Lactose regulates switching on
28. Given below are two statements: and off of the operon and termed as "inducer".
Statement-I : Secondary structure of t-RNA
In the light of the above statements, choose
has been depicted that looks like a clover-leaf
the correct answer from the options given
but in actual structure, it is a compact
below :
molecule which looks like inverted L.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
Statement-II : Charging of t-RNA is the first
the correct explanation of (A).
phase in which amino acids are activated
without using ATPs. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
options given below: correct explanation of (A).
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are BMI599
incorrect. 31. Given below are two statements; one is
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
incorrect. labelled as Reason(R).
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II Assertion (A) : Regulation of an operon by
is correct. repressor is referred to as negative regulation.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Reason (R) : Operon under control of positive
correct.
regulation are regulated by activators.
BMI597
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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
In the light of the above statements, choose (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct answer from the options given the correct explanation of (A).
below : (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
the correct explanation of (A). (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. correct explanation of (A).
BMI602
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
34. Given below are two statements; one is
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
correct explanation of (A).
labelled as Reason(R).
BMI600
Assertion (A) : In repetitive sequences a
32. Given below are two statements; one is
small stretch of DNA is repeated many time.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Reason (R) : The bulk DNA forms a major
labelled as Reason(R).
peak and the other small peak are referred as
Assertion (A) : In HGP genes which remains
satellite DNA during centrifugation.
unexpressed as RNA referred as expressed
In the light of the above statements, choose
sequence tags (ESTs) in HGP. the correct answer from the options given
Reason (R) : One major approach focused on below :
identifying all the genes that are expressed as (1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
RNA in methodologies in HGP. the correct explanation of (A).
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
the correct answer from the options given (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
below : (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
the correct explanation of (A). BMI603
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. 35. Assertion (A) : VNTRs (Variable Number of
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. Tandem repeats) is the basis of "DNA
fingerprinting".
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
Reason (R) : VNTRs are small DNA
correct explanation of (A).
sequences whose copy numbers varies from
BMI601
33. Given below are two statements; one is chromosome to chromosome in an individual.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is In the light of the above statements, choose
labelled as Reason(R). the correct answer from the options given
Assertion (A) : In HGP, DNA fragments were below :
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not
sequenced using automated DNA sequencers
the correct explanation of (A).
that worked on the principle of sanger's method.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Reason (R) : HGP was a mega project.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
the correct answer from the options given correct explanation of (A).
below : BMI604
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Genetics and Evolution
36. Examine the diagram below and select the Coding Template
(3) Terminator Promotor
right option given all the correct match w.r.t strand strand
A, B, C & D. Template Coding
(4) Promotor Terminator
strand strand

BMI607
39. Which of the salient features of double helical
structure of DNA are correct?
(i) It is made up of two polynucleotide
chain.
(ii) Two chains are coiled in right handed
A B C D fashion .
Repressor Inactive (iii) Bases in two strands are joined by
(1) Lac mRNA Inducer
m-RNA repressor phosphoester bonds.
Repressor Inactive In presence (iv) Pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm.
(2) Inducer
m-RNA repressor of inducer (1) i, ii are correct
Inactive In presence Repressor (2) i, ii and iv are correct
(3) Inducer (3) iii, iv are correct
repressor of inducer m-RNA
In presence Repressor Inactive (4) i, iii, iv are correct
(4) Inducer BMI608
of inducer m-RNA repressor
40. Select the incorrect match regarding lac
BMI605 operon.
37. Identify A and B in the given diagram : (1) Structural genes — Transcribe mRNA for
polypeptide synthesis
(2) Repressor protein — Functional in the
presence of lactose
(3) Operator gene — Interacts with a
regulator molecule
(4) Promoter — Site for RNA polymerase
binding
(1) A = Tyrosine, B = Serine BMI609
(2) A = Valine, B = Leucine 41. Assertion : DNA fingerprinting involves
(3) A = Serine, B = Tyrosine identifying difference in some specific
(4) A = A larine, B = Uracil regions in DNA called as repetitive DNA
BMI606 sequences.
38. In the given schematic structure of a Reason : These sequences show high degree
transcription unit, identify the correct of polymorphism & form the basis of DNA
labelling for A to D. fingerprinting.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
A B C D
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Template Assertion.
(1) Promotor Terminator Promotor
strand
(3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is
Structural Coding incorrect.
(2) Terminator Promotor
gene strand (4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.
BMI610
[Link] [ 153 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
42. If a DNA molecule with 200 bp has 40 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but
Adenine bases, then find out the number of Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Guanine bases. Assertion.
(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) Assertion is correct but the Reason is
(3) 80 (4) 60 incorrect.
BMI611 (4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.
43. Select the two correct statements out of the BMI613
four (i–iv) given below about lac operon. 45. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the and select the option which includes all the
repressor and inactivate it. correct ones :-
(ii) In the absence of lactose, the repressor (a) The codon is read in mRNA in a
binds with the operator region. contiguous fashion.
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease. (b) AUG is a stop codon in bacteria.
(iv) lac-operon was elucidated by Francois (c) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact
Jacob and Jacques Monod. molecule which looks like inverted 'L'
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iii) (d) 28S rRNA in bacteria also functions as
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (ii) ribozyme.
BMI612 (1) b, c and d
44. Assertion : N-base is heterocyclic compound. (2) a, b and d
Reason : Adenine and Guanine are found in (3) a, c and d
both RNA & DNA (4) a and c
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and BMI614
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 4 2 3 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 4 4 4 2 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 4 2 4 1
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Answer 1 3 1 1 4 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 4

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Biology in Human Welfare

Exercise - I Microbes in Human Welfare

1. Find the correct match :- 5. Statement-I : A bacterium Propionibacterium
(1) Aspergillus niger - butyric acid sharmanii is used to produce more CO2 in
(2) Clostridium butylicum - ethanol Swiss cheese.
(3) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid Statement-II : Saccharomyces cerevisiae is
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - citric acid used to make breads spongy due to much
BMH173 production of CO2.
2. The micro-organism used to prepare In the light of the above statements, choose
alcoholic beverages is :- the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Streptococcus options given below:
(2) Staphylococcus (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(3) Lactobacillus (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae incorrect.
BMH174 (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II
3. Statement-1 : Baculoviruses are pathogens is correct.
that attack insects and other arthropods. (4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
Statement-2 : These viruses are excellent BMH177
candidates for species-specific and broad 6. Why some fermented beverages are made by
spectrum insecticidal application. distillation of fermented broth ?
In light of above statement, choose the (1) To reduce toxicity
correct answer from the option given below. (2) To enable fermentation
(1) Both statement I and II are incorrect (3) To prevent spoilage
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) To increase the alcohol percentage
incorrect. BMH178
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 7. How many of the following beverages are
correct. produced by distillation of the fermented
(4) Both statement I and II are correct. broth?
BMH175 Whisky, wine, rum, brandy, beer
4. Statement-I : Cyclosporin-A is a bioactive (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1
molecule used as an immune suppressive BMH179
drug during organ transplantation. 8. Which of the following is correctly matched
Statement-II : Statins produced from yeast, is for the product produced by them?
used as blood cholesterol lowering agents. (1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
the most appropriate answer from the (3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
options given below: (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. BMH180
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is 9. Methanogenic bacteria are not present in-
incorrect. (1) Gobar gas plant
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II (2) Stomach of ruminants
is correct. (3) Bottom of water-logged paddy fields
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. (4) Activated sludge
BMH176 BMH181

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
10. Which of the following is incorrect with 13. The bacteria which can fix atmospheric
respect to production of biogas? nitrogen in it’s free-living form in the soil are-
(1) The type of the gas produced depends (1) Azospirillum and Azorhizobium
upon the microbes and the organic (2) Azospirillum and Azotobacter
substrates they utilise. (3) Azotobacter and Rhizobium
(2) Certain bacteria, which grow anaerobically
(4) Frankia and Azospirillum
on cellulosic material, produce large
BMH185
amount of methane along with CO2 and N2.
14. Which one of the following helps in the
(3) Methanogens are commonly found in the
anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment, absorption of phosphorus from the soil by
the common example is Methanobacterium. plants?
(4) Methanogens are also present in the (1) Anabaena (2) Glomus
rumen of cattle where they help in the (3) Rhizobium (4) Frankia
breakdown of cellulose and play an BMH186
important role in the nutrition of cattle. 15. BOD of wastewater is represented as -
BMH182 (1) Total inorganic matter
11. Which of the following statements about (2) Biodegradable matter
methanogens is not correct? (3) Carbon dioxide evolution
(1) They produce methane gas.
(4) oxygen consumption
(2) They can be used to produce biogas.
BMH187
(3) They are found in the rumen of cattle and
16. Assertion: Integrated pest management
their excreta.
(4) They grow aerobically and breakdown (IPM) programme at the same time deals with
cellulose-rich food. conservation of insects and destruction of
BMH183 insects.
12. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Reason: IPM programmes are specially used
(1) Eradication of the pests is undesirable as in dealing with ecologically sensitive areas.
without them the beneficial predatory (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
and parasitic insects which depend upon Reason is the correct explanation of
them as food or hosts would not be able to Assertion.
survive. (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(2) An important part of the biological
Reason is not the correct explanation of
farming approach is to become familiar
Assertion.
with the various life form that inhabit the
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
field, predators as well as pests, and also
their life cycles, patterns of feeding and (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
the habitats that they prefer. BMH188
(3) The very familiar beetle with red and 17. Assertion: Disadvantages of synthetic
black markings is the Ladybird. pesticides can be overcome by the use of
(4) Bt spores are mixed with water and natural biopesticides.
sprayed onto valuable plants such as Reason: Biopesticides are harmless agents
brassicas and fruit trees, where these are which are used to control weeds and pest
eaten by the insect adults. without causing any damage.
BMH184
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Biology in Human Welfare
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and 19. Assertion: Leguminous plants are best
Reason is the correct explanation of preferred in rotation of crops.
Assertion. Reason: They have root nodules, which have
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but nitrogen-fixing bacteria Clostridium.
Reason is not the correct explanation of (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
Reason is not the correct explanation of
BMH189
Assertion.
18. Assertion: Chemical pesticides are more (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
hazardous as compared to biopesticides. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
Reason: Chemical pesticides are mostly BMH191
nonspecific, expensive, hazardous and 20. Match column I with column II and select the
pollute the atmosphere. correct answer from the given codes.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Column-I Column-II
Reason is the correct explanation of A. Methanogens (i) BOD
Assertion. B. Fermentors (ii) Methane rich fuel
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but gas
Reason is not the correct explanation of C. Organic waste in (iii) Production of
water methane
Assertion.
D. Biogas (iv) Large vessels for
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
growing microbes
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
BMH190 (1) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
BMH192

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 4 2 1 1 4 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 2 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20
Answer 2 2 1 3 4

[Link] [ 183 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Microbes in Human Welfare

1. How many of the dipteran insects given in (3) A-Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B-Clot
below are killed by the proteins produced buster, C-Hirudin, D-Gene silencing
form Bt bacterium (4) A-Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B-immuno
Budworm, Flies, armyworm, mosquitoes suppressive agent, C-Hirudin, D-Gene
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four silencing
BMH193 BMH196
2. Match the column-I and column-II :- 5. Given below are two statements; one is
Column-I Column-II labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(Bioactive (Source) labelled as Reason(R) .
molecule) Assertion (A) : LAB grows in milk and
(A) Clot buster (i) Monascus converts milk into curd.
(B) Statins (ii) Trichoderma Reason (R) : LAB produces acid that
(C) Butyric acid (iii) Streptococcus coagulate and partially digest the milk
protein.
(D) Cyclosporin-A (iv) Clostridium
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii
the most appropriate answer from the
(2) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
options given below :
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
(1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not
(4) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii the correct explanation of (A).
BMH194 (2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect: (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(1) Green revolution was dependent to a (4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the
large extent on plant breeding technique correct explanation of (A).
(2) The greater the BOD of waste water, more BMH197
is its polluting potential 6. Identify the correct set of statements out of
(3) Trichoderma species are effective followings :
biocontrol agents of several plant (a) Commercial production of citric acid is
pathogens done in the presence of Aspergillus niger
(4) Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack fungi
several Plant pathogen (b) First antibiotic was penicillin produced
BMH195 from a fungi
4. Choose the correct options :- (c) Trichoderma is a free living fungi which is
(A) Dough used Baker’s yeast …..A….. common in the root ecosystem
(B) Cyclosporin-A …..B….. Transgenic pigs (d) Streptokinase is obtained from a
(C) Anticoagulant Brassica napus …..C….. bacterium called Streptobacillus
(D) RNA interference …..D….. Meloidegyne Choose the correct answer from the given
incognitia
options below.
Options are :- (1) a, b, c and d (2) only a and b
(1) A-Saccharomyces cerevisiae, B-Immuno (3) a, b and c (4) b, c and d
suppressive agent, C-Heparin, D-Gene BMH198
silencing 7. Which of the following statements is not
(2) A-Schizosaccharomyces, B-Immuno incorrect?
suppressive agent, C-Hirudin, D-Gene (1) LAB produces acids that coagulate and
silencing completely digest the milk proteins.

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 Biology in Human Welfare
(2) A small amount of cheese is added to the inorganic matter and microbes. Many of
fresh milk as inoculum or starter contain which are pathogenic.
millions of LAB. III. Sewage is treated in sewage treatment
(3) LAB multiply at a suitable temperature, plants (STPs) to make it non-polluting.
thus converting curd to milk, which also IV. Treatment of waste-water is done by the
improves its nutritional quality by
aerobic microbes naturally present in the
increasing vitamin B12 in our stomach.
sewage.
(4) LAB plays very beneficial role in checking
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
disease causing microbes.
BMH199 BMH202
8. How many of the following statements are 11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
correct? (1) The effluent from the secondary
I. The dough which is used for making food treatment plant is generally released into
such as dosa and idli is also fermented by natural water bodies like rivers and
yeast. streams.
II. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due (2) Microbes play a major role in treating
to the production of CO2 gas. millions of gallons of waste water
III. The dough which is used for making
everyday across the globe. This
bread, is fermented using brewer’s yeast
methodology has been practiced for more
IV. ‘Toddy’ a traditional drink of some parts
than a decade now, in almost all parts of
of Southern India is made by fermenting
sap from palms. the world.
V. Microbes are also used to ferment fishes, (3) Till date, no manmade technology has
soyabean and bamboo-roots to make been able to rival the microbial treatment
foods. of sewage.
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (4) The Ministry of Environment and forests
BMH200 has initiated Ganga Action Plan and
9. Which of the following is wrongly matched in Yamuna Action Plan to save these major
the given table? rivers of our country from pollution.
Microbe Product Application
BMH203
1. Trichoderma I. Cyclosporin A 1. Immunosuppressive
polysporum 12. How many of the following are correct with
2. Monascus II. Statins 2. Blood cholesterol respect to mycorrhiza?
purpureus lowering agent
I. Fungi are also known to form symbiotic
3. Streptococcus III. Streptokinase 3. Removal of clot from
blood vessels associations with plants (mycorrhiza).
4. Clostridium IV. Lipase 4. Removal of oil stains II. Many members of the genus Glomus form
mycorrhiza.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(4) 4
III. It provide resistance to root-borne
BMH201
pathogens.
10. How many of the following are not incorrect
IV. It provide tolerance to salinity and drought.
with respect to wastewater treatment?
I. A major component of waste water is V. It helps in overall increase in plant growth
human excreta. and development.
II. The municipal waste-water is called (1) 5 (2) 4
sewage which contains large amounts of (3) 3 (4) 1
BMH204

[Link] [ 185 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
13. Match the items in Column-I and Column-II Monascus Ripening of Swiss
(B) (ii)
and choose the correct answer. purpureus cheese
Column-I Column-II
Trichoderma
(a) Ladybird (1) Methanobacterium (C) (iii) Butyric acid
polysporum
(b) Mycorrhiza (2) Trichoderma
Production of blood
(c) Biological (3) Aphids Propionibacterium
(D) (iv) cholesterol
control shermanii
lowering agents
(d) Biogas (4) Glomus
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
Which of the following is the correct option?
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(1) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(3) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
BMH208
(4) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
17. Assertion : Trichoderma polysporum is an
BMH205
important fungus.
14. How many of the following are correct with
Reason : Cyclosporin-A is obtained from this
respect to Trichoderma?
fungus which is used as an immunosuppressive
I. Developed for use in the treatment of
plant diseases agent in organ transplant.
II. It’s species are free living fungi that are (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
very common in root ecosystems. Reason is a correct explanation of the
III. It belongs to the division Ascomycetes Assertion.
IV. They are very effective Biocontrol agents (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
for several plant pathogens. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 Assertion.
BMH206 (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
15. Select the correct statements from the (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
following: BMH209
(1) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement 18. Assertion : Streptokinase produced by the
tanks of the sewage treatment plant is a bacterium Streptococcus and modified by
rich source of aerobic bacteria. genetic engineering.
(2) Methanobacterium is an aerobic Reason : It is used as a "Clot buster" for
bacterium found in the rumen of cattle removing clots from the blood vessels of
(3) Biogas is produced by the activity of patients who have undergone myocardial
aerobic bacteria on animal waste. infarction leading to heart attack.
(4) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas is pure
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
methane.
Reason is a correct explanation of the
BMH207
Assertion.
16. Match the following list of microbes and their
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
importance :
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Production of
Clostridium Assertion.
(A) (i) immunosuppressive
bulyticum (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
agents
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
BMH210
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Biology in Human Welfare
19. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 22. Identify the correct pair, in the given diagram.
matching :-

(1) A = Rod shaped Bacteria – Magnified 1500X

(2) B = Spherical shaped bacteria - Magnified
50,000X
(3) C = Rod shaped Bacteria – Magnified
(1) a-sludge, b-dung and water, 21,000X
c-digester, d-gas holder (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) b-sludge, a-dung and water, BMH214
d-digester, c-gas holder 23. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram.
(3) a-sludge, b-dung and water,
d-digester, c-gas holder
(4) b-sludge, a-dung and water,
c-digester, d-gas holder
BMH211
20. Statement-I : The large holes in 'Swiss-
cheese' are due to production of a large
amount of CO2 by bacterium named
Propionibacterium-sharmanii.
Statement-II : The 'Roquefort cheese' are
ripened by growing a specific bacteria on
them, which gives them a particular flavour.
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. A B C
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is (1) Bacteriophage TMV Adenovirus
incorrect. Bacteriopha
(2) TMV Adenovirus
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II ge
is correct. (3) Bacteriophage Adenovirus TMV
(4) Both Statement-I and II is incorrect.
(4) Adenovirus TMV Bacteriophage
BMH212
21. Statement-I :- Statins act by competitively
BMH215
inhibiting the enzyme responsible for
24. Match the following list of bioactive
synthesis of cholesterol.
substances and their roles:
Statement-II :- Statins are commercially Bioactive Role
used as blood cholesterol lowering agent. substance
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct. (i) Statin (A) Removal of oil stains
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect. (ii) Cyclosporin A (B) Removal of clots from
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is blood vessels
incorrect. (iii) Streptokinase (C) Lowering of blood
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is cholesterol
(iv) Lipase (D) Immunosuppressive
correct.
agent
BMH213
[Link] [ 187 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
Choose the correct match: (3) Activated sludge sediment in settlement
(1) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D tanks of sewage treatment plants is rich
(2) i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C source of Aerobic bacteria.
(3) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C (4) Biogas is produced by the activity of
(4) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A aerobic bacteria on animal waste.
BMH216 BMH219
25. What would happen if oxygen availability to 28. Which one of the following is the most
the activated sludge flocs is reduced? important role of microorganism for the well-
(1) It will slow down the rate of degradation being of humans?
of organic matter. (1) Sewage treatment
(2) The centre of floes will become anoxic, (2) Biological control of plant disease
which would cause the death of bacteria (3) Conversion of milk to curd
and eventually breakage of flocs. (4) All of these
(3) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic BMH220
bacteria would grow around flocs. 29. Consider the following statements about
(4) Protozoa would grow in large numbers. organic farming.
BMH217 (i) It utilizes genetically modified crops like
26. Assertion: Greater is BOD of waste water, Bt cotton.
more is its polluting potential. (ii) It uses only naturally produced inputs like
Reason: BOD is a measure of organic matter compost.
present in water. (iii) It does not use pesticides and urea.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (iv) It produces vegetables rich in vitamins
Reason is the correct explanation of and minerals.
Assertion. Which of the above statements are correct?
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (iii) and (iv) only
Reason is not the correct explanation of (3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (ii) only
Assertion. BMH221
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. 30. What are the advantages of gobar gas over
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false conventional utilization?
(i) It is most efficient source of energy.
BMH218
(ii) It is used as good fertilizer.
27. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(iii) It reduces the chances of spreading of
(1) Methanobacterium is an aerobic
pathogens.
bacterium found in rumen of cattle.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(2) Biogas (commonly called gobar gas) is
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) all of these
pure methane.
BMH222

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 1 4 2 2 1 2 2 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 2 2 3 4 3 4

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - I Organisms & Populations

1. What is the correct order of ecological 8. Exponential growth or geometric growth is
hierarchy:- represented by :-
(1) Species → Genes → Family → Order (1) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
→ Class → Division → Kingdom dN
(2) Species →Community →Order → Kingdom (2) = (b – d) × N
dt
(3) Organism → Population → Community
→ Biome
dN K−N
(3) = rN  
(4) Organism → Community → Biosphere dt  K 
→ Ecosystem → Biome (4)
dN
= KN
BOP262 dt
2. Which of the following is an example of BOP269
brood-parasitism? dN K−N
(1) Orchid – Mango tree 9. In logistic growth = rN   Here,
dt  K 
(2) Sea anemone – Clown fish
(3) Cuckoo – Crow K−N
 K  represents :-
(4) Fig free – Wasp  
BOP263 (1) Carrying capacity
3. The clear stratification is found in :- (2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(1) Tropical rain forest (3) Environmental resistance
(2) Temperate deciduous forest (4) biotic potential and environmental resistance
(3) Grasslands BOP270
(4) Deserts 10. An 'Urn' shaped age pyramid represents :-
BOP264
(1) Stable population
4. The feeding efficiency of one species might be
(2) Expanding population
reduced due to the presence of the other
interfering and inhibitory species, even If (3) Declining population
resources are unlimited. It is called :- (4) Threatened population
(1) Competitive release BOP271
(2) Competitive exclusion 11. Given below are two statements:
(3) Resource partitioning Statement-I : Immigration is the number of
(4) Interference competition individuals of same species who left the
BOP265 habitat and gone elsewhere during the time
5. The cattle egret and grazing cattle is an period under consideration.
example of :- Statement-II : Natality and emigration
(1) Mutualism (2) Predation contribute to an increase in population
(3) Parasitism (4) Commensalism density.
BOP266 In the light of the above statements, choose
6. A population growth becomes asymptote the most appropriate answer from the
when population density :- options given below:
(1) is in log phase
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(2) is in lag phase
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(3) reaches carrying capacity
incorrect.
(4) crosses carrying capacity
BOP267 (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
7. Verhulst - Pearl logistic growth pattern is :- is correct.
(1) Sigmoid (2) Parabola (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) Hyperbola (4) J-shaped correct.
BOP268 BOP272

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Ecology
12. Given below are two statements: 14. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : Herbivores and plants appear Statement-I : All autotrophic plants are self-
to be more adversely affected by competition sustainable and do not need any other species
than carnivores. for survival.
Statement-II : Abingdon tortoise in Statement-II : In nature animals, plants and
Galapagos island became extinct within a microbes do not and cannot live in isolation
decade after goats were introduced on island, but interact in various ways to form biological
apparently due to the greater browsing community.
efficiency of the goat. In the light of the above statements, choose
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
options given below: (1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
incorrect. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II

(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

is correct. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

correct. BOP275

BOP273 15. What type of human population is

13. Given below are two statements: represented by the following age pyramid?

Statement-I : Under a particular set of Post-reproductive

selection pressures, organisms evolve towards Reproductive
the most efficient reproduction strategy. Pro-reproductive
Statement-II : Most of the birds and
mammals breed only once in their lifetime. (1) Stable population
In the light of the above statements, choose (2) Declining population
the most appropriate answer from the (3) Expanding population
options given below: (4) Increasing population
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. BOP276
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 16. If N is the population density at time t, then its
incorrect. density at time t + 1 is-
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (1) N t+1 = Nt + (B + E) – (D + I)
is correct. (2) Nt+1 = Nt + (B + D) – (E + I)

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) Nt+1 = Nt – (B + I) – (D + E)

correct. (4) Nt+1 = Nt + (B + I) – (D + E)

BOP274 BOP277

[Link] [ 211 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
17. Birth rate = B, Death rate = D, Emigration = E (1) The invaded land has unlimited resources
and Immigration = I. for the introduced species.
Column-I Column-II (2) The population of the introduced species
(a) Population is (i) B+I=D+E in the invaded land is very low.
increasing (3) Introduced species do not face any
(b) Population is (ii) B+I<D+E competition in the introduced land.
decreasing (4) The invaded land does not have its
(c) Population is (iii) B+I>D+E natural predator
stable BOP282
22. How many statements are correct?
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(a) A group of individuals resulting even from
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
asexual reproduction is also considered a
BOP278
population for the purpose of ecological
18. Which of the following organism breeds only studies.
once in their life time? (b) Population ecology is an important area
(1) Pacific salmon fish (2) Oyster because it links ecology to population
(3) Bamboo (4) Both (1) and (3) genetics and evolution.
BOP279 (c) An individual organism has certain
19. (A) Predators helps in maintaining species attributes whereas, a population does not.
diversity in community. (d) An individual may have births and deaths,
(B) It reduces the intensity of competition but a population has birth rates and death
among competing prey species. rates.
(1) Statement A is correct (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
(2) Statement B is correct BOP283
(3) Both statements are wrong 23. Select the incorrect statement from the
(4) Both statements are correct following?
BOP280 (1) The tiger census in our national parks and
20. The feeding efficiency of one species might be tiger reserves is often based on pug marks
reduced due to the interfering and inhibitory and fecal pellets.
presence of the other species even if resource (2) The size of a population for any species is
are abundant in known as- a static parameter.
(1) Interspecific predation (3) Natality refers to the number of births
(2) Interfering competition during a given period in the population
(3) Both (1) and (2) that are added to the initial population
(4) Commensalism density.
BOP281 (4) Emigration is the number of individuals of
21. When certain exotic species are introduced in the population who left the habitat and
to a geographical area they become invasive gone elsewhere during the time period
mainly because: under consideration.
BOP284

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Ecology
24. Assertion: When resources in the habitat are dN
25. In an exponential growth equation = rN ,
unlimited, each species has the ability to dt
realise fully its innate potential to grow in r represents-
number. (1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
Reason: When resources are limited the (2) (b – d)
population grows in an exponential or (3) Birth rate
geometric fashion. (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and BOP286
reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
BOP285

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 3 1 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 4 2 3 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Answer 4 1 4 4 2 4 2 2 3 4

[Link] [ 213 ]
 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Organisms & Populations

1. (A) If two species compete for the same (3) Ectoparasites are those that live inside the
resource, they could avoid competition by host body at different sites.
choosing, for instance, different times for (4) Brood parasitism in birds is a fascinating
feeding or different foraging patterns. example of parasitism.
(B) A species whose distribution is restricted BOP290
to a small geographical area due to 5. Given below are two statements : One is
presence of a competitively superior labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
species is called "Competitive Exclusion labelled as Reason (R).
Principle" In the light of the above statement, choose the
(1) Both A & B correct correct answer from the options given below:
(2) Only A is correct Assertion (A) : In wasp fig-association wasp
(3) Only B is correct larvae gets nourishment.
(4) Both A & B incorrect Assertion (R) : This is an example of
BOP287 mutualism.
2. The interacting organism become co-evolved (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
in which types of interactions :-
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(1) Mutualism and Competition
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(2) Mutualism and Parasitism
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) Symbiosis and Competition
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Parasitism and Amensalism
BOP291
BOP288
6. Given below are two statements; one is
3. Match list-I with list-II
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
List-I List-II
labelled as Reason(R) .
(a) Predation (i) Ticks on dogs
Assertion (A) : The interaction where one
(b) Competition (ii) Sea-anemone and
species is benefited and the other is neither
Clown fish
benefited nor harmed, is called
(c) Parasitism (iii) Fish and Flamingos
commensalism.
(d) Commensalism (iv) Seeds eating sparrow Reason (R) : An orchid growing as an
Choose the correct answer from the options epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of
given below : commensalism.
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii the most appropriate answer from the
BOP289 options given below :
4. Which of the following statement is correct? (1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R)
(1) The human liver fluke depends on one is not the correct explanation of (A).
intermediate host to complete its life (2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
cycle. (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(2) Parasites that feed on the external surface (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
of the host organism are called correct explanation of (A).
endoparasites. BOP292

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Ecology
7. Given below are two statements; one is (d) The monarch butterfly is highly distasteful
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is to its predator because of a special
labelled as Reason(R) . chemical present in its body.
Assertion (A) : Removal of keystone species (e) A predator species is sustainable when it
cause serious disruption in the function of the is highly efficient.
community. Choose the correct answer from options
Reason (R) : Keystone species are low in given below :
abundance (or biomass) than the dominant (1) a, b and e (2) a, b, c and d
species. (3) d and e (4) only e
In the light of the above statements, choose
BOP295
the most appropriate answer from the 10. Identify the correct set of statements :
options given below : (a) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a
(1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) mango tree is an example of commensalism.
is not the correct explanation of (A). (b) Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. relationship between a photosynthetic
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. fungus and saprophytic algae.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the (c) Sea anemone and Clown fish show prey-
correct explanation of (A). predator relationship.
BOP293 (d) Gause's exclusion principle justifies the
8. Identify the correct set of statements : co-existence of two closely related
(a) Pug marks and faecal pellets are used for species.
measuring tiger population. Choose the correct answer from options
(b) Impact of biotic and abiotic factors on given below :
population growth can be assessed by (1) a only (2) a, b and d
studying "intrinsic rate of natural growth. (3) a, c and d (4) a, b and c
(c) When resources are not limiting, the BOP296
growth plot is logistic. 11. Identify the correct set of statements :
(d) Logistic growth model is considered a (a) Primary productivity is lesser than
more realistic model as compared to secondary productivity.
exponential. (b) The movement of energy is always
(e) All population of all species in nature has unidirectional from lower trophic level to
its disposal unlimited resources to permit higher trophic level in an ecosystem.
exponential growth. (c) Vertical distribution of different species
Choose the correct answer from options occupying different levels is called
given below : stratification.
(1) a, b and d (2) a, b and c (d) All the organic matter produced by the
(3) b, d and e (4) a, b, c and d plant is converted into biomass.
BOP294 (e) NPP is the available biomass for the
9. Identify the incorrect set of statements : consumption to heterotrophs.
(a) Predators help in maintaining species Choose the correct answer from options
diversity in a community. given below :
(b) Predators in nature are prudent. (1) a, c and e (2) a, b and c
(c) The weed Calotropis produces highly (3) b, c and e (4) c, d and e
poisonous cardiac glycosides. BOP297

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
12. Assertion :- Cuscuta is a parasite commonly 15. Assertion (A) :– The life cycles of parasites
found on hedge plants. are complex.
Reason :- Cuscuta has lost its chlorophyll and Reason (R) :– They involve one or two
leaves in the course of evolution.
intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
parasitism of its primary host.
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. Assertion.
BOP298
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
13. Assertion: Fig tree and wasp are example of
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Mutualism.
BOP301
Reason: Fig species can be pollinated only by
16. Which of the following are correct matching
its partner wasp species and wasp uses the
pair(s) among the options given below ?
fruit as an oviposition site and developing
S.N. Species A Species B Name of interaction
seeds with in the fruit for nourishing its
larvae. (i) – 0 (A) Mutualism

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (ii) + – (B) Competition
Reason is a correct explanation of the (iii) + 0 (C) Parasitism
Assertion. (iv) + + (D) Commensalism
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but (v) – – (E) Amensalism
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-iv, E-ii
Assertion.
(2) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iv
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (4) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
BOP299 BOP302
14. Assertion (A) :- The Mediterranean orchid
17. Read the following statement w.r.t. population
ophryus employs 'sexual deceit' to get interaction and find out correct option :
pollinated by some male bees. (A) Some species of insects and frogs are
Reason (R) :- Plant animal interactions never cryptically coloured to avoid being
involve co-evolution. detected easily by the predator
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not (B) Lichens represent an mutualistic
relationship between a fungus and
the correct explanation of (A).
photosynthesising algae.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (C) Amensalism is 0, – type of interspecific
(3) (A) is not correct and (R) is correct interaction
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the (1) Only A, C is correct (2) Only B, C is correct
correct explanation of (A). (3) Only C is correct (4) All are correct
BOP300 BOP303

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Ecology
18. Match the following ecological interaction Which type of interaction is shown by above
with the respective examples and feature of graph between species A and B ?
their relationship. (1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism
(a) Mutualism (p) Orchid on (w) –, – (3) Competition (4) Amensalism
mango branch BOP306
(b) Predation (q) Mycorrhiza (x) +, 0 21. Assertion: No population of any species in
(c) Commensalism (r) Flamingos and (y) +, + nature has at its disposal unlimited resources
resident fishes to permit exponential growth.
(d) Competition (s) Sparrow feeding (z) +, – Reason: Limited resources leads to
on grain competition between individuals for limited
(1) a → q → y ; b → r → z ; c → p → x resources. Eventually, the ‘fittest’ individual
d→s→w will survive and reproduce.
(2) a → q → z ; b → s → w ; c → p → x (1) Both assertion and reason are true and
d→r→y reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) a → q → y; b → s → z ; c → p → x
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
d→r→w
reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) a → q → y ; b → r → z ; c → p → x assertion.
d→s→w (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
BOP304 (4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
19. Match Column-I with Column - II. BOP307
Column-I Column-II 22. Identify the set of correct statements:
(a) Parasite (i) Symbiotic association of (a) Populations evolve to minimize their
fungi with plant roots reproductive fitness, also called
(b) Mycorrhiza (ii) Interaction in which Darwinian fitness.
both the organisms are (b) Pacific salmon fish, bamboo breed only
benefited. once in their lifetime.
(c) Mutualism (iii) Living on living plants (c) Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is
or animals described by the following equation:
(d) Predator (iv) Catch, kill and eat the dN/dt = rN (N-K/N).
prey (d) Oysters, pelagic fishes produce a large
number of small-sized offspring.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) a, b and c only (2) b, c and d only
given below : (3) b and d only (4) b only
(a) (b) (c) (d) BOP308
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 23. Both the species benefit in ____________ and
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) both lose in ___________ in their interactions
with each other.
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(1) Mutualism, competition
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Commensalism, competition
BOP305 (3) Competition, Mutualism
(4) Mutualism and parasitism
BOP309
24. Which of the following interaction is shown
20. by visiting flamingoes and resident fishes in
some shallow South American lakes.
(1) Amensalism (2) Commensalism
(3) Predation (4) Competition
BOP310
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25. Select the incorrect statement from the (b) All the cormorants in a wetland forms
following? population.
(1) Nearly 25 per cent of all insects are known (c) One of the characteristics of a population
to be phytophagous. is age sex ratio.
(2) Acacia produce and store chemicals that (d) A population at any given time is composed
make the herbivore sick when they are
of individuals of the same age.
eaten.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
(3) Some species of insects and frogs are
BOP313
cryptically-coloured (camouflaged) to
avoid being detected easily by the 28. Which of the following is an example of
predator. critical link species-
(4) The Monarch butterfly is highly (1) Kangaroo rat in desert
distasteful to its predator (bird) because (2) Mycorrhizal fungi
of a special chemical present in its body. (3) Metasequoia of China
BOP311 (4) Kangaroo in Australia
26. Match List I with List II. BOP314
List I List II 29. Given below are two statements:
A. MacArthur I Liver fluke
Statement-I: The species which have great
B. Endoparasites II Resource
influence on the community's characteristics
partitioning
C. Brood parasitism III Cuckoo (koel) relative to their low abundance or biomass
and the crow are called key-stone species.
D. Barnacles and whale IV Commensalism Statement-II: Community is defined as the
Choose the correct answer from the options total number of individual of a species present
given below: in a particular area at a given time.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) A-II, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
correct answer from the options given below:
BOP312
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
27. How many statements are correct?
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(a) Individuals of same species living in
groups in a well-defined geographical (3) Both Statement I Statement II is true.
area, share or compete for similar (4) Both Statement I Statement II is false.
resources, potentially interbreed and thus BOP315
constitute a community.

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 2 3 4 1 1 1 1 4 1 3 1 1 2 1
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Answer 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 1

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Ecology

Exercise - I Ecosystem
1. The annual net primary productivity of the Choose the correct answer from the options
whole biosphere is approximately :- given below :
(1) 70 billion tons (2) 170 billion tons (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) 270 billion tons (4) 55 billion tons (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
BES253 (3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
2. GFC is the major conduit for energy flow in :- (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(1) Aquatic ecosystem BES259
(2) Terrestrial ecosystem 8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) Grassland ecosystem (1) Detritivores break down detritus into
(4) Cropland ecosystem smaller particle this process is called
BES254 catabolism.
3. Pyramid of biomass in a pond and sea is :-
(2) Decomposition is largely an oxygen
(1) Upright (2) Inverted
requiring process.
(3) Irregular (4) None of the above
(3) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is
BES255
rich in lignin and chitin.
4. Total amount of inorganic matter present in
(4) Temperature and soil moisture are the
particular area at a particular time in an
most important climate factors that
ecosystem in known as :-
regulate decomposition.
(1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
BES260
(3) Standing quality (4) Both (2) & (3)
9. Given below are two statements :
BES256
Statement-I : Plants capture only 2-10 per
5. The rate of biomass production is called
cent of the ISR (Incident solar Radiations).
productivity. It is expressed in terms of _____.
(1) g m–2 (2) Kcal m–2 Statement-II : Of the incident solar radiation
(3) g m–2 yr–1 (4) Kcal yr–1 less than 50 per cent of it is photo-
BES257 synthetically active radiations (PAR).
6. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade In the light of the above statements, choose
detritus into simpler inorganic substances. the most appropriate answer from the
This process is called as : options given below:
(1) Fragmentation (2) Leaching (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) Humification (4) Catabolism incorrect.
BES258 (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
7. Match list-I with list-II incorrect.
List-I List-II (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(a) Producer (i) Wolf is correct
(b) Primary consumer (ii) Lion (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Secondary consumer (iii) Grass correct
(d) Tertiary consumer (iv) Grass hopper BES261

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10. Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose
Statement-I : Each trophic level has a certain the most appropriate answer from the
mass of living material at a particular time options given below:
called as the standing state. (1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
Statement-II : The standing state is measured (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
as the mass of living organisms or the number incorrect.
in a unit area. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
In the light of the above statements, choose is correct.
the most appropriate answer from the (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
options given below: correct.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are BES264
incorrect. 13. _______% of incident solar radiation or
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is _______% of PAR is captured by plants for the
incorrect. synthesis of organic matter (gross primary
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II production) :-
is correct (1) 2-10, 1-5 (2) 6-8, 12-16
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) 30-35, 60-75 (4) 1-5, 2-10
correct BES265
BES262 14. The open ocean and tropical rain forest are
11. Given below are two statements: the largest contributors to Earth's net
Statement-I : Dark coloured amorphous primary productivity because :-
substance humus is highly prone to microbial (1) Both have high rates of net primary
action and undergoes decomposition at very productivity
fast rate. (2) Both cover huge surface areas of the Earth
Statement-II : Detritivores help in (3) Nutrient cycle occur fastest in these two
mineralisation and humification of detritus. ecosystem
In the light of the above statements, choose (4) The ocean covers a huge surface area and
the most appropriate answer from the the tropical rain forest has a high rate of
options given below: productivity
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. BES266
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 15. How many statement is/are correct about
incorrect. food chain:-
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (a) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in
grassland ecosystem
is correct.
(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
not directly sun
correct.
(c) Detritus food chain may be connected to
BES263
grazing food chain somewhere
12. Given below are two statements: (d) In grazing food chain size of organism
Statement-I : Pyramid of energy is always commonly decreases at higher trophic
upright. level
Statement-II : A given species may occupy (1) One (2) Two
more than one trophic level in the same (3) Three (4) Four
ecosystem at the same time. BES267

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16. Assertion : Complexity of food web is Statement-II: Interaction of biotic and abiotic
dependent over length of food chains components results in a physical structure
Reason : Complexity of food webs determine that is characteristic for each type of
the stability of an ecosystem ecosystem.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true, and the In the light of the above statements, choose
reason is the correct explanation of the the correct answer from the options given
Assertion. below:
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true, but the (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
reason is not the correct explanation of (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
the Assertion. (3) Both Statement I Statement II is true.
(3) Assertion is true statement, but Reason is (4) Both Statement I Statement II is false.
false. BES271
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 20. Assertion: Of the incident solar radiation less
statements. than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically
BES268 active radiation (PAR).
17. Assertion : Sun is not the immediate source Reason: Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of
of energy for deep sea hydrothermal vent. the PAR and this small amount of energy
Reason : Around these vents, the food web sustains the entire living world.
begins with chemosynthetic bacteria rather (1) Both assertion and reason are true, and
than photosynthetic organism. reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true, and the assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of the (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
Assertion. reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true, but the
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
reason is not the correct explanation of
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
the Assertion.
BES272
(3) Assertion is true statement, but Reason is
21. Given below are two statements:
false.
Statement-I: Primary production is defined
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false as the amount of biomass or organic matter
statements.
produced per unit area over a time period by
BES269
plants during photosynthesis.
18. If 20J of energy is trapped at producer level,
Statement-II: Secondary productivity is
then how much energy will be available to
defined as the rate of formation of new
peacock as food in following chain?
organic matter by consumers.
Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) 0.02 J (2) 0.2 J the correct answer from the options given
(3) 0.002 J (4) 0.0002 J below:
BES270 (1) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
19. Given below are two statements: (2) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Statement-I: Vertical distribution of different (3) Both Statement I Statement II are true.
species occupying different levels is called (4) Both Statement I Statement II are false.
stratification. BES273
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22. Which of the following statement is incorrect: 24. Based on the source of their nutrition or food,
(1) Gross primary productivity of an organisms occupy a specific place in the food
ecosystem is the rate of production of
chain that is known as:
organic matter during photosynthesis.
(2) Secondary productivity is defined as the (1) Food chain (2) Food web
rate of formation of new organic matter (3) Tertiary level (4) Trophic level
by primary consumers. BES276
(3) Secondary productivity depends on the
25. In an ecosystem if the Net Primary
plant species inhabiting a particular area.
(4) The annual net primary productivity of Productivity of first trophic level is
the whole biosphere is approximately 400 (kcal m-2) yr-1. What would be the net
170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic Productivity of the third trophic level of the
matter.
same ecosystem?
BES274
23. The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with (1) 40 (kcal m-2) yr-1
_____________. (2) 4 (kcal m-2) yr-1
(1) Earthworm (3) 0.4 (kcal m-2) yr-1
(2) Ants
(4) 0.004 (kcal m-2) yr-1
(3) Dead organic matter BES277
(4) Fungi
BES275

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 1 4 4 4 2
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Answer 2 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 2

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Ecology

Exercise - II Ecosystem
1. Humus is :- In the light of the above statement, choose the
(i) Dark coloured amorphous substance correct answer from the options given below:
(ii) Highly resistant to microbial action and (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
undergoes decomposition at an extremely the correct explanation of (A).
slow rate (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(iii) Being colloidal in nature (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(iv) Acts as a reservoir of nutrients (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) i, ii are incorrect correct explanation of (A)
(2) i, ii & iv are correct but iii incorrect BES281
(3) i, ii, iii, iv are correct
5. How many statements are correct?
(4) All are incorrect
(A) In an aquatic ecosystem, DFC is the major
BES278
conduit for energy flow.
2. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct option :- (B) The number of trophic levels in the
(i) Sun is the only source of energy for all detritus food chain is restricted as the
ecosystem on earth transfer of energy follows to 10 percent
(ii) PAR is less than 50 percent of incident law.
solar radiation (C) The trophic level represents a functional
(1) only i is correct level, not a species as such.
(2) only ii is correct (D) Organism at each trophic level depend on
(3) both i & ii are correct those at the lower trophic level for their
(4) both are incorrect energy demands.
BES279 (1) One (2) Two
3. There are certain limitations of ecological (3) Three (4) Four
pyramids choose the correct option :- BES282
(A) It assumes a simple food chain 6. Given below are two statements; one is
(B) Saprophytes are not given any place in labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
ecological pyramids.
labelled as Reason(R) .
(C) It does not take into account the same
Assertion (A) : The available biomass for the
species belonging to two or more trophic
consumption to heterotrophs is known as
levels
secondary productivity.
(1) A, B Only (2) B, C Only
Reason (R) : A considerable amount of GPP is
(3) only B (4) All the above
utilised by plants in respiration.
BES280
4. Given below are two statements : One is In the light of the above statements, choose
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is the most appropriate answer from the
labelled as Reason (R). options given below :
Assertion (A) : The annual net primary (1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R)
producvity of the whole biosphere is is not the correct explanation of (A).
approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
of organic matter. (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Reason (R) : Majority of this is contributed (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
by the oceans as they occupy larger area of correct explanation of (A).
earth. BES283

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7. Given below are two statements; one is (1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R)
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is is not the correct explanation of (A).
labelled as Reason(R) . (2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
Assertion (A) : Ecosystems are exempted (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
from the second law of thermodynamics. (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
Reason (R) : Ecosystems need constant correct explanation of (A).
supply of energy to synthesize the molecule BES286
they require to counteract the universal 10. Identify the correct set of statements :
tendency towards increasing disorderliness. (a) Mass of living material at each trophic
In the light of the above statements, choose level in a particular time is called standing
the most appropriate answer from the crop.
options given below : (b) Number of trophic level in the grazing
(1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) food chain is restricted.
is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. conduit for energy flow.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. (d) Inter connected food chains make food
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the web.
correct explanation of (A). (e) Detritus food chain begins with primary
BES284 producers.
8. Given below are two statements; one is Choose the correct answer from options
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is given below :
labelled as Reason(R) . (1) a, b and c only (2) a, c and d only
Assertion (A) : Number of trophic levels in a (3) a, b and e only (4) a, b, c and d
grazing food chain is restricted. BES287
Reason (R) : Transfer of energy "from one 11. Which of the following option correctly
trophic level to next" follows 10 per cent law. represent pyramid of biomass in lake-
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : (1)
(1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. (2)
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
BES285
9. Given below are two statements; one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (3)
labelled as Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : The pyramid of biomass in
sea is generally upright.
Reason (R) : Biomass of fishes far exceeds
that of phytoplankton in sea. (4)
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : BES288
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Ecology
12. Which one of the following options gives the In the light of the above statements, choose
correct categorisation of six organism the correct answer from the options given
according to the type of consumer (A,B,C) below:
they give out :- (1) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
A B C
Primary Secondary Tertiary
(3) Both Statement I Statement II is true.
consumer consumer consumer (4) Both Statement I Statement II is false.
BES292
Cow,
(1) Bird, Wolf Man, Lion 16. For the given food chain choose the correct
Grasshopper
pyramid for biomass:
Cow,
(2) Man, Lion Bird, Fishes Phytoplankton→ Zooplankton → Small fishes
Zooplankton
→ Large fishes (Shark)
Grasshopper,
(3) Fishes, Wolf Man, Lion
Cow
Zooplankton, (1) (2)
(4) Fishes, Lion Bird, Cow
Grasshopper

BES289
13. (3) (4)

Above inverted pyramid of biomass also

predict that :- BES293
(1) Small standing crop of phytoplanktons 17. Which of the following is not included in
supports large standing crop of limitations of ecological pyramids-
zooplankton (1) It assumes a complex food chain.
(2) Organism of high biotic potential (2) It does not accommodate a food web.
supports organism of low biotic potential. (3) Saprophytes are not given any place.
(3) Organism of high energy (4) All of the above
(productivity)supports organism of low BES294
energy(productivity) 18. Assertion: Each trophic level has a certain
(4) All of the above mass of living material at a particular time
BES290 called as the standing state.
14. The base of each pyramid represents _________ Reason: The standing crop is measured as the
while the apex represents ___________. mass of living organisms (biomass) or the
(1) Producers, tertiary consumer number in a unit area.
(2) First trophic level, top level consumer (1) Both assertion and reason are true, and
(3) Secondary producers, consumers reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) Both (1) and (2)
assertion.
BES291
15. Given below are two statements: (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
Statement-I: Trophic level represents a reason is not a correct explanation of the
functional level, not a species as such. assertion.
Statement-II: A given species may occupy (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
more than one trophic level in the same (4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
ecosystem at the same time. BES295

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19. How many statements are correct? 22. Which of the following is an example of a
(a) Pyramid of biomass shows biotic primary consumer in a terrestrial ecosystem?
potential of an ecosystem. (1) Grasshopper (2) Zooplankton’s
(b) Graphical representation of ecological (3) Snake (4) Lion
parameters at different trophic levels in
BES299
ecosystem is called food web.
(c) Those ecosystems which have simple food 23. In an ecosystem, which of the following
web are not very stable. factors mostly favors decomposition?
(d) Organisms which use milk or curd as food, (1) Warm and moist environment
are known as secondary consumer. (2) High pH of soil
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) Anerobic conditions
BES296 (4) Availability of sunlight
20. In the process of decomposition, some
BES300
nutrients get tied up with the biomass of
24. Which of the following processes is
microbes and become temporarily
unavailable to other organisms. Such responsible for the conversion of organic
incorporation of nutrient in living microbes matter into inorganic nutrients in the soil?
(bacteria & fungi) is called ____________ . (1) Energy flow (2) Decomposition
(1) Leaching (3) Transpiration (4) Nitrification
(2) Fragmentation BES301
(3) Nutrient immobilization 25. In a food web, which of the following
(4) Humification
organisms would occupy the highest trophic
BES297
21. Which trophic level includes organisms that level?
feed directly on producers? (1) Producers
(1) Primary consumers (2) Primary consumers
(2) Secondary consumers (3) Secondary producers
(3) Tertiary consumers (4) Tertiary consumers
(4) Primary Producers BES302
BES298

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 3 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 3
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Answer 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 2 4

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Ecology

Exercise - I Biodiversity and Conservation

1. Amazon rain forest are considered as lungs of 7. Species area relationship was given by :-
the plant because they contribute ______ of the (1) Robert Constranza
total oxygen in the earth's atmosphere :- (2) Alexander von Humboldt
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 25% (3) Alexander Flemming
BAC212 (4) Stanford ecologist Paul Ehrlich
2. Species diversity in a community depends
BAC218
upon:-
8. The term "The evil quartet" is related with :-
(1) Size of area only
(1) Four major causes of population growth
(2) Climatic factors only
(2) Four major causes of forest loss
(3) Climatic factors, type of soil & altitude
(3) Four major causes of biodiversity losses
(4) Type & size of area only
(4) Four major causes of sacred groves
BAC213
BAC219
3. Exploring molecular genetic & species level 9. Ex-situ conservation methods for endangered
diversity for products of economic species is :
importance like medicine is called :- (1) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(1) Biofortification (2) Biosphere reserves
(2) Biomagnification (3) Cryopreservation
(3) Bioprospecting (4) National parks
(4) Bioprocessing BAC220
BAC214 10. Which of the following represent maximum
4. How many percent of the earth's land area is number of species among global biodiversity?
covered by all the biodiversity hot spots ? (1) Lichens (2) Fungi (3) Algae (4) Ferns
(1) More than two percent BAC221
(2) Less than two percent 11. The Earth summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in:
(3) More than five percent but less than ten (1) 1987 (2) 1992 (3) 1990 (4) 2002
BAC222
percent
12. Given below are two statements :
(4) More than two percent but less than five
Statement-I : More than 70 percent of all the
percent
species recorded are animals.
BAC215
Statement-II : Out of every 10 animals on
5. Which of the following biome has largest this planet 7 are insects.
number of species ? In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Taiga the most appropriate answer from the
(2) Deciduous options given below:
(3) Tropical forest (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Subtropical forest incorrect.
BAC216 (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
6. According to Robert may, what is the total incorrect.
number of species present on earth ? (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(1) 5 million (2) 6 million are correct
(3) 7 million (4) 9 million (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
BAC217 BAC223

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13. Given below are two statements : In the light of the above statements, choose
Statement-I : Hot spots are regions of the most appropriate answer from the
accelerated habitat loss. options given below:
Statement-II : Hot spots are example of ex- (1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
situ conservation. (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
In the light of the above statements, choose incorrect.
the most appropriate answer from the
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
options given below:
is correct.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect.
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
BAC226
incorrect. 16. How many statements are correct?
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (A) Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different
are correct Himalayan ranges is an example of
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are species diversity.
correct. (B) For many taxonomic groups, species
BAC224 inventories are more complete in tropical
14. Given below are two statements: than in temperate countries.
Statement-I : The diversity of plants and (C) Robert May places the global species
animals is uniform throughout the world. diversity at about 7 million.
Statement-II : In general species diversity (D) Among vertebrates, insects are the most
decreases as we move away from equator species-rich taxonomic group, making up
towards the pole. more than 70 per cent of the total.
(1) One (2) Three
In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) Two (4) Four
the most appropriate answer from the
BAC227
options given below:
17. Match List I with List II.
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are List I List II
incorrect.
A. Alien species I Steller’s sea
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
invasions cow
incorrect.
B. Over-exploitation II Lantana
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
C. In situ conservation III Firewood
is correct.
D. Narrowly utilitarian IV Biodiversity
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are hotspots
correct.
Choose the correct answer from the options
BAC225
15. Given below are two statements: given below:
Statement-I : Communities with more (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
species shows less year-to-year variation in (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
total biomass. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Statement-II : Community with higher
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
biodiversity shows high productivity.
BAC228

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Ecology
18. Given below are two statements: (1) Species-Area relationships given by Paul
Statement-I: The IUCN Red List (2004) Ehrlich.
documents the extinction of 784 species (2) On log scale the relationship becomes
(including 338 invertebrates, 359 vertebrates hyperbola.
and 87 plants) in the last 500 years. (3) The relation between species richness
Statement-II: Over- exploitation is the most and area for angiosperm plants turns out
important cause driving animals and plants to to be a rectangular hyperbola.
extinction. (4) On a logarithmic scale, the relationship is
In the light of the above statements, choose a straight line described by the equation
the correct answer from the options given log S = log A + Z log C.
below: BAC230
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 20. Given below are two statements:
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Statement-I: Communities with more
(3) Both Statement I Statement II is true. species, generally, tend to be more stable than
(4) Both Statement I Statement II is false. those with less species.
BAC229 Statement-II: A stable community should
19. Identify the correct description about the show too much variation in productivity from
given figure: year to year.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I Statement II are true.
(4) Both Statement I Statement II are false.
BAC231

Exercise - I ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20
Answer 1 3 4 3 1

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]

Exercise - II Biodiversity and Conservation

1. Which is not correct about biodiversity :- Reason (R) : Availability of more solar
(1) Insects are the most species rich energy directly affects the presence of more
taxonomic group, making up more than species in these areas.
70 % of the total. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(2) India has only 2.4 percent of the world's the correct explanation of (A).
land area, its share of the global species (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
diversity is an impressive 8.1 percent. (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Nearly 45,000 species of plants & twice as (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
many of animals have been recorded from correct explanation of (A)
India BAC235
(4) India has more than 1200 species of Bird. 5. Given below are two statements : One is
BAC232 labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
2. Match list-I with list-II labelled as Reason (R).
List-I List-II In the light of the above statement, choose the
(a) Edward Wilson (i) Species - Area correct answer from the options given below:
relationships Assertion (A) : Biodiversity hotspots are the
(b) Paul Ehrlich (ii) Diversity-productivity regions which possess low levels of species
(c) David Tilman (iii) Rivet-Popper richness and high degree of endemism.
Hypothesis Reason (R) : Total number of biodiversity
(d) Alexander von (iv) Biodiversity hotspots in the world is 34 with three of these
Humbolt hotspots found in India.
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
given below : the correct explanation of (A).
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
BAC233 (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3. Match list-I with list-II correct explanation of (A)
List-I List-II BAC236
(Taxa) (Chances of extinction) 6. Given below are two statements; one is
(a) Gymnosperms (i) 12% labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
(b) Birds (ii) 23% labelled as Reason(R) .
(c) Amphibians (iii) 31% Assertion (A) : Loss of tropical forest will
(d) Mammals (iv) 32% exterminate the migratory birds of cold
Choose the correct answer from the options countries.
given below : Reason (R) : Birds of cold countries spends
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii the winter in tropics.
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii In the light of the above statements, choose
BAC234 the most appropriate answer from the
4. Given below are two statements : One is options given below :
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (1) Both (A) and (R) both are correct and (R)
labelled as Reason (R). is not the correct explanation of (A).
In the light of the above statement, choose the (2) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
correct answer from the options given below: (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
Assertion (A) : Tropical regions are more (4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the
diversity rich in comparison to temperate correct explanation of (A).
areas. BAC237

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Ecology
7. Identify the correct set of statements : (d) Zoological parks and botanical gardens
(a) India has more than 50,000 genetically serves the purpose of ex-situ
different strains of rice and 1,000 varities conservation.
of mango. Choose the correct answer from options
(b) Eastern ghats have a greater amphibian given below :
species diversity than western ghats. (1) a, b and d (2) a, b and c
(c) According to IUCN (2004) the total (3) b, c and d (4) a, c and d
number of plant and animal species BAC240
described so far is slightly more than 10. Given below are two statements:
1.5 million.
Statement-I : Exploring molecular, genetic
(d) According to Robert May global species
and species level diversity for products of
diversity is about 7 million.
economic importance is known as
Choose the correct answer from options
bioprospecting.
given below :
Statement-II : Aproximetely more than 25%
(1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d
of drugs currently sold in the market
(3) a, b and d (4) b, c and d
worldwide are derived from plants.
BAC238
8. Identify the correct set of statements : In the light of the above statements, choose
(a) Breakdown of large habitats into small the most appropriate answer from the
fragments is one of the major cause of loss options given below:
of biodiversity. (1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(b) Extinction of Steller's sea cow and (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Passenger pigeon is an example of incorrect.
co-extinctions. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(c) Introduction of nile perch into lake is correct.
Victoria in east Africa led to extinction of (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
more than 200 Cichlid fish in the lake. correct.
(d) Loss of the biodiversity may lead to BAC241
increased variability in some ecosystem 11. Match the column I with column II
processes such as plant productivity.
Column-I Column-II
Choose the correct answer from options
given below : Over-
(a) (i) Amazon forest
(1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d exploitation
(3) a, b and c (4) b, c and d Lantana,
(b) Co-extinction (ii)
BAC239 Eicchornia
9. Identify the correct set of statements : (c) Habitat loss (iii) Plant-Pollinator
(a) Protection of entire forest to save a tiger
is an example of in-situ conservation. Alien Stellers sea cow,
(d) (iv)
(b) Biodiversity hot spot regions shows high species invasion Passenger pigeon
degree of endemism and high level of (1) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
species richness. (2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(c) The earth summit was held in Rio-de (3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
Janeiro in 1992 for the protection of (4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
ozone layer. BAC242

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
12. What does A, B, C, D, E and F represent in this (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
figure? Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
BAC245
15. In which of the following both pairs have
correct combination :-
(1) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation
Pie chart for number of species of major taxa Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
of plants. (2) In situ conservation : Seed Bank
(1) A: Ferns and allies, B: Mosses, C: Algae, Ex situ conservation : National Park
D: Fungi, E: Lichens, F: Angiosperms (3) In situ conservation : Tissue culture
(2) A: Fungi, B: Mosses, C: Lichens, D: Ferns Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves
and allies, E: Angiosperms, F: Algae (4) In situ conservation : National Park
(3) A: Angiosperms, B: Ferns and allies, Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
C: Fungi, D: Lichens, E: Algae, F: Mosses BAC246
(4) A: Mosses, B: Ferns and allies, 16. Match the column I, II, III and IV choose the
C: Angiosperms, D: Lichens, E: Algae, correct option for resources.
F: Fungi I II III IV
Conventional Non Renewable Non
BAC243 conventional Renewable
13. (A) India has more than 50,000 genetically
Wind
different strains of rice. a Coal Water Species
energy
(B) Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different
Wind
range of western ghat show variation b Solar energy Plant Coal
energy
about concentration of reserpine.
c Solar energy Coal Species Natural gas
(C) Out of 10 animals on this planet 7 are
d Hydropower Solar energy Wild life Minerals
insects.
(D) Colombia has 1400 species of birds (1) Only a is correct
How many above statement are correct with (2) b and c are correct
respect to Biodiversity? (3) a, b, c are correct
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (4) a and d are correct
BAC244 BAC247
14. Assertion : A stable community should not 17. Match the following :
show too much variation in the productivity (a) Ants (i) Nearly 20,000 species
from year to year. (b) Beetles (ii) 28,000 species
Reason : A stable community must be (c) Fishes (iii) 3,00,000 species
resistant to invasions by the alien species. (d) Orchids (iv) > 20,000 species
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Reason is a correct explanation of the (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Assertion.
BAC248

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Ecology
18. Identify A, B and C in the following A B C
representation of global biodiversity showing
(1) Angiosperms Algae Mosses
proportionate number of species of major
taxa of vertebrates. (2) Angiosperms Algae Fern
(3) Algae Angiosperms Lichens
(4) Algae Angiosperms Mosses

BAC251
21. Which of the following statement(s) are
A B C correct?
(1) Mammals Birds Reptiles In general, loss of biodiversity in a region may
(2) Mammals Birds Amphibians lead to:
(3) Mammals Reptiles Amphibians (a) Decline in plant production
(4) Fishes Mammals Birds (b) Lowered resistance to environmental
BAC249 perturbations such as drought
19. The diagram given below, is of a biosphere (c) Increased variability in certain ecosystem
reserve :- processes such as plant productivity,
water use, and pest and disease cycles.
(1) Only a and b (2) Only a
(3) All a, b, and c (4) None of the above
BAC252
22. Pollination (without which plants cannot give
Which among the following option is correct us fruits or seeds) is another service,
for A, B and C ecosystems provide through pollinators
(1) A - Buffer zone - Tribal huts layer–bees, bumblebees, birds and bats is an
B - Transition zone - Tourism example of _____________.
(2) B - Transition zone - Tribal huts (1) Narrowly utilitarian (2) Broadly utilitarian
C - Core zone - Tourism (3) In- situ approach (4) Ex-situ approach
(3) C - Core zone - No human activities are allowed BAC253
A - Buffer zone - Tourism 23. Given below are two statements:
(4) A - Transition zone - Tribal huts Statement-I: Hotspots are regions of
C - Core zone - No human activities are allowed accelerated habitat loss.
BAC250 Statement-II: Western Ghats and Sri Lanka,
20. Global biodiversity is shown in terms of
Indo-Burma and Himalaya – cover our whole
species in the given groups. Identify the
world.
groups - A, B and C :-
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I Statement II is false.
BAC254

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 NEET : Extra Edge [Biology]
24. Assertion: India has also a history of religious 27. Which of the following is not a direct threat to
and cultural traditions that emphasized biodiversity?
complete area for protection of nature, these (1) Habitat loss
areas are known as sacred groves. (2) Over exploitation
Reason: In Meghalaya, the sacred groves are (3) Exotic species invasion
the last refuges for a large number of rare and (4) Bioprospecting
threatened plants. BAC258
28. Which of the following is an example of in situ
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and
conservation method?
reason is a correct explanation of the (1) Zoo breeding programs
assertion. (2) Botanical gardens
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but (3) Wildlife safari parks
reason is not a correct explanation of the (4) National parks
assertion. BAC259
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. 29. Assertion: Habitat destruction is the primary
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true. cause of biodiversity loss worldwide.
BAC255 Reason: Human activities such as
25. Assertion: Biodiversity knows no political deforestation, urbanization, and agricultural
practices lead to the loss, degradation, and
boundaries and is a collective responsibility
fragmentation of natural habitats, threatening
of all nations to take appropriate measures for species survival.
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable (1) Both assertion and reason are true, and
utilization. reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason: The historic Convention on assertion.
Biological Diversity (‘The Earth Summit’) held (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and assertion.
reason is a correct explanation of the (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
assertion. (4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
BAC260
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
30. Assertion: Biodiversity is essential for
reason is not a correct explanation of the maintaining ecosystem stability and resilience.
assertion. Reason: High biodiversity ensures that
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. ecological communities can withstand and
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true. recover from environmental changes.
BAC256 (1) Both assertion and reason are true, and
26. What term describes the number of different reason is a correct explanation of the
species present in a given area? assertion.
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
(2) Species richness reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Ecological niche
(3) Assertion is true but reason are false.
(4) Population diversity (4) Assertion is false but reason are true.
BAC257 BAC261

Exercise - II ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Answer 1 1 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 3 4 2 1 4
Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 2 4 4 1 1

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