14-08-2025

6201CMD30303125ST5 MD

PHYSICS

1) Ram is moving towards East with 5 m/s. Sita is moving towards North with the same speed, then
find the approximate velocity of Sita w.r.t. Ram :

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 7 m/s
(3) 0 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

2)

The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-sec momentum in 0.05 second is:-

(1) 500 N
(2) 125 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 25 N

3) A train of 150 m length is going towards north direction at a speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at a
speed of 5 ms–1 towards south direction parallel to the railway track. The time taken by the parrot to
cross the train is equal to :-

(1) 12 s
(2) 8 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 10 s

4) A boat crosses a river of width 3 km along the shortest path in 20 minutes. If the speed of boat in
still water is 15 km/hr, then what is the speed of the river ?

(1) 10 km/hr
(2) 8 km/hr
(3) 12 km/hr
(4) 5 km/hr

5)

The velocities of A and B are and . Velocity of B as observed by A is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) A man can swim with 4 km/hr in still water. How long does he take to cross river 1 km wide if
river flows steadily at 3 km/hr and makes his strokes normal to river current ?

(1) 15 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 5 min
(4) 25 min

7) Two particles are projected simultaneously with different speed from same point in a plane as

shown in figure. The incorrect statement is

(1) Their relative acceleration is zero

(2) Their relative velocity is constant
(3) Their relative velocity is along horizontal direction
(4) Their relative velocity is along vertical direction

8) Two cars are traveling in the same direction with a velocity of 60 kmph. They are separated by a
distance of 5 km. A truck moving in opposite direction meets the two cars in a time interval of 3 min.
The velocity of the truck is (in kmph) :-

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 60

9) What force will change the velocity of a body of mass 2 kg from 20 ms–1 to 30 ms–1 in 2 seconds?

(1) 5 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 0 N

10) A particle is moving with a constant speed along a straight line path. A force is not required to :-

(1) Increase its speed

(2) Decrease the momentum
(3) Change the direction
(4) Keep it with uniform velocity
11) Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 8 kg are acted upon by the same force. If the acceleration of
lighter body is 2 m/s2, then the acceleration of the heavier body is :-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 2.5 m/s2
(3) 6.25 m/s2
(4) 1.25 m/s2

12) Rain drops are falling vertically downwards at 4 kmph. For a person running horizontally at 3
kmph the rain drops appear to fall at a speed of:

(1) 7 kmph
(2) 1 kmph
(3) 5 kmph
(4) 25 kmph

13) A particle of mass 1 kg is moving with variable velocity (in one dimension). The velocity varies
with times as The force acting on the particle at t = 2 sec is:

(1) 32 N
(2) 64 N
(3) 16 N
(4) 8 N

14) Statement-I: Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in linear motion.

Statement-II: Greater the mass, greater is the force required to change its state of rest or of uniform
motion.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

15) A block is being pulled by a force F on a long frictionless level floor. Magnitude of the force is
gradually increases from zero until the block lifts off the floor. Immediately before the block leaves

the floor, its acceleration is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16) A boy pushes a box of mass 2 kg with a force on a frictionless surface. If the box
was initially at rest, then _______m is displacement along the x-axis after 10 sec. ( along horizontal
and along vertical)

(1) 250
(2) 500
(3) 400
(4) 350

17) A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through a light string. The tension at A and B will be

respectively :

(1) 40 N and 40 N
(2) 0 N and 4 N
(3) 40 N and 4 N
(4) 2 N and 2 N

18) A projectile has the same range R when the maximum height attained by it is either h1 or h2.
Then R, h1 and h2 will be related as :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) In the given figure, mass of man is 60kg and reading of weighing machine is 90kg the

acceleration of lift is :

(1) g/2 in upward direction

(2) g in upward direction
(3) g/2 in downward direction
(4) g in downward

20) Find the acceleration of 3 kg mass.

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) Zero

21) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 2m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 11 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin
will strike with the lift is :

(1) 4 s
(2) 2 s

(3)

(4)

22) A boat is moving with a velocity with respect to the ground. The water in the river is
flowing with a velocity with respect to the ground. The velocity of the boat relative to the
water is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

23) A car is standing 200 m behind a bus, which is also at rest. The two start moving at the same
instant but with different forward accelerations. The bus has acceleration 2 m/s2 and the car has
acceleration 4 m/s2. The car will catch up with the bus after a time of Where x is ___.

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

CHEMISTRY

1) For the following reaction, the mass of water produced from 445 g of C57H110O6 is

(1) 495 g
(2) 490 g
(3) 890 g
(4) 445 g

2) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50% of
element Y (atomic mass 20) is

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) XY3
(4) X2Y3

3) A compound possesses 8% sulphur by mass. The least molecular mass is

(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 155
(4) 355

4) 12g of Mg (At. mass 24) will react completely with to give

(1) One mole of H2

(2)
mole of H2

(3)
mole of O2

(4)
Both mol of H2 and mol of O2

5) The number of g-atom of oxygen in molecule is

(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 5
(4) 10

6) The incorrect statement for 14g of CO is

(1) It occupies 2.24 litre at NTP

(2)
It corresponds to mole of CO
(3) It corresponds to same number moles of CO and N2
(4) It corresponds to molecules of CO

7) One litre of a gas at STP weight 1.16 g, when can it possible ?

(1) C2H2
(2) CO
(3) O2
(4) CH4

8)

At NTP, 1 L of O2 reacts with 3L of carbon monoxide. What will be the volume of CO and CO2 after
the reaction ?

(1) 1 L CO, 1 L CO2

(2) 2 L CO, 2 L CO2
(3) 2 L CO, 1 L CO2
(4) 1 L CO, 2 L CO2

9)

Arrange the following in the order of increasing mass (atomic mass: O = 16, Cu = 63, N = 14)
(i) One atom of oxygen.
(ii) One atom of nitrogen.
(iii) 1 × 10–10 mole of oxygen.
(iv) 1 × 10–10 mole of copper.

(1) ii < i < iii < iv

(2) i < ii < iii < iv
(3) iii < ii < iv < i
(4) iv < ii < iii < i

10)

Which of the following pairs illustrates the law of multiple proportions ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) The largest number of molecules is in

(1) 36 g of water
(2) 28 g of carbon monoxide
(3) 46 g of ethyl alcohol
(4) 22 g carbon dioxide

12) Which of the following reactions is not correct according to the law of conservation of mass ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) If 1 ml of water contains 20 drops. Then number of molecules in a drop of water is

(1) molecules
(2) molecules
(3) molecules
(4) molecules

14) The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of
the following element contains the greatest number of atoms ?

(1) 4 g He
(2) 46 g Na
(3) 0.4 g Ca
(4) 12 g He

15) 1 g of Mg is burnt in a closed vessel containing 0.5 g of O2. Which reactant is limiting reagent
and how much of the excess reactant will be left ?

(1) O2 is a limiting reagent and Mg is in excess by 0.25 g.

(2) Mg is a limiting reagent and O2 is in excess by 0.5 g.
(3) O2 is a limiting reagent and Mg is in excess by 0.05 g.
(4) O2 is a limiting reagent and Mg is in excess by 0.75 g.

16) A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a solute 'X' to 45 g of solvent 'Y'. What is the mass
percent of the solute 'X' ?

(1) 10%
(2) 11.1%
(3) 90%
(4) 75%

17) Assertion: One mole of a substance always contain the same number of entities, no matter
what the substance may be.
Reason: One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there
are atoms in exactly 12 g of the 12C isotope.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

18)
Given below are few statements. Mark the statement which is not correct.

(1) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

Law of definite proportion states that a given compound always contains exactly the same
(2)
proportion of elements by weight.
(3) Gay Lussac’s law of chemical combination is valid for all substances
(4) A pure compound has always a fixed proportion of masses of its constituents.

19) For a reaction,

;
identify dihydrogen (H2) as a limiting reagent in following reaction mixtures.

(1) 14g of N2 + 4g of H2
(2) 28g of N2 + 6g of H2
(3) 56g of N2 + 10g of H2
(4) 35g of N2 + 8g of H2

20) In the reaction,

.
When 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion.

(1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced

(2) 1.0 mole of NO will be produced
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed

21)

The number of molecule in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Assertion: Components of a homogeneous mixture can be separated by using physical methods.
Reason: Composition of homogeneous mixture is uniform throughout as the components react to
form it.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason arc false.

BOTANY
1) Cellulose, galactans, mannans, and calcium carbonate are present in the cell wall of

(1) Algae
(2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria
(4) Higher plants

2) The physico-chemical approach to study biology is referred as

(1) Systema biology

(2) Reductionist biology
(3) Modern biology
(4) Classical biology

3) Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a genetic trait. It is normally carried by

(1) Nucleoid DNA

(2) Plasmid DNA
(3) Mesosomes
(4) Volutin granules

4) The fluid nature of the cell membrane is helpful in function of :-

(1) Cell growth

(2) Cell division
(3) Endocytosis
(4) All the above

5) ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula, (all cells arise from pre-existing cells). Who gave this concept
and modified the cell theory ?

(1) Schleiden and Schwann

(2) Virchow
(3) Robert Brown
(4) Leeuwenhoek

6)

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

(2) Any structure less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.
(3) Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist discovered the nucleus.
(4) Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.

7)
Which of the following statements is incorrect for prokaryotic inclusion bodies ?

(1) These are storage granules in the cytoplasm.

(2) They are membrane bound structures.
Phosphate granules, cyanophycean granules and glycogen granules are the examples of cell
(3)
inclusions.
(4) Gas vacuole is found in BGA and purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.

8)

Match the following columns:

Column-I Column-II
(Cells) (Features)

(A) RBCs (i) Branched and long

(B) WBCs (ii) Long and narrow

(C) Columnar epithelial

(iii) Amoeboid
cell

(D) Nerve cell (iv) Round and biconcave

(1) A – ii; B – iii; C – iv; D – i
(2) A – iii; B – ii; C – i; D – iv
(3) A – iv; B – iii; C – ii; D – i
(4) A – iv; B – ii; C – iii; D – i

9)

Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their
size. Choose the correct option among the followings.
(I) Mycoplasma (II) Ostrich eggs
(III) Human RBC (IV) Bacteria

(1) I, IV, III, II

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) II, I, III, IV
(4) III, II, I, IV

10) Which one of the following differentiates plant cells from animal cells ?

(1) Large vacuole, plastid and cell wall

(2) Cell wall, plastid and centriole
(3) Cell wall, plastid and mitochondria
(4) Cell membrane, plastid and cell wall

11) The cell wall and middle lamellae are transversed by

(1) Plasmodesmata
(2) Primary wall
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cortex

12)

Choose the incorrect pair.

Gram-positive Take up the Gram

(1)
bacteria stain

Prevents bacterium
(2) Cell wall
from collapsing

Thick and tough

(3) Capsule
glycocalyx

Locomotory
(4) Pili
structure in bacteria
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13)

Cell wall is the outer most covering in plant cell which

(a) Provides mechanical support.
(b) Protects the cell from infection.
(c) Helps in cell-to-cell interaction.
(d) Provides barrier to macromolecules.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) a & b only

(2) b, c & d only
(3) a, c & d only
(4) All a, b, c and d

14) Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can
be explained by

(1) Facilitated diffusion

(2) Passive transport
(3) Active transport
(4) Osmosis

15) The membrane proteins are classified as integral or peripheral. The basis of this classification is

(1) Quasi-fluid nature

(2) Biochemical investigation
(3) Ease of extraction
(4) Requirement of energy for transport of material

16) The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Mitochondrion
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nucleus

17) Assertion (A): Prokaryotic cells lack a true nucleus.

Reason (R) : Prokaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

18) The membrane of RBCs of human have protein and lipid content respectively in the ratio of

(1) 40 percent and 52 percent

(2) 52 percent and 40 percent
(3) 60 percent and 40 percent
(4) 72 percent and 30 percent

19) Which part of the cell wall is chiefly made up of calcium pectate ?

(1) Primary wall

(2) Middle lamella
(3) Secondary wall
(4) Middle lamella and primary wall

20)

Select the right option, which relates to Schwann regarding the following statements.
(I) He reported that cells have a thin outer layer, which is today known as plasma membrane.
(II) Presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cell.
(III) Body of plants and animals are composed of cells and product of cells.
Choose the correct option from below.

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Only III is correct
(3) All are correct
(4) II and III are correct

21) Statement-I: The organisation of the prokaryotic cell is fundamentally similar even though
prokaryotes exhibit a wide variety of shapes and functions.
Statement-II: The plasma membrane is selectively permeable in nature and interacts with the
outside world.

(1) Both the statements are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I only correct.
(3) Statement-II only correct.
(4) Both the statements are correct.

22) Glycocalyx differs in composition and thickness among different bacteria. It could be a loose
sheath called the _____ or it may be thick and tough, called the ______.

(1) Capsule; slime layer

(2) Slime layer; capsule
(3) Mesosome, slime layer
(4) Capsule, mesosome

23) The fluid mosaic model was given by Singer and Nicolson in the year ______.

(1) 1972
(2) 1976
(3) 1982
(4) 1986

ZOOLOGY

1) Both neurotransmitters and hormones

(1) Produce a slower response.

(2) Bind to receptors on or in their target cells.
(3) Are transported by interstitial fluid.
(4) Produce a rapid response.

2) The nervous and endocrine systems interact to coordinate the functions of all the body
systems and help to maintain

(1) Homeostasis
(2) Reflex actions
(3) Fight or flight response
(4) Stress responses

3)

Which of the following statements correctly differentiate the endocrine and nervous systems ?

(1) The endocrine system regulates all types of body cells.

(2) Nerve fibers innervate all the body cell types.
(3) Endocrine system acts on specific muscle cells only.
(4) The influence of the nervous system is much broader.

4)

Which of the following statements is false ?

(1) Hormones provide chemical coordination, integration and regulation in the human body.
(2) Hormones regulate metabolism, growth and development of our organs.
Besides hypothalamus, pituitary, pineal, thyroid, adrenal, parathyroid, thymus, etc., GIT, heart,
(3)
kidney, etc also produce hormones.
(4) Hormone can be used again and again like biocatalyst.

5)

Consider the following events:

(a) Production of regulatory hormones from neurosecretory cells.
(b) Hormones are secreted into the portal system.
(c) Hormones move down the axons to axon endings.
Arrange them in sequential order and select the correct option.

(1) A → B → C
(2) A → C → B
(3) B → C → A
(4) C → A → B

6) The hormones produced by hypothalamic nuclei

(1) Regulate the functions of the anterior pituitary.

(2) Regulate the functions of the posterior pituitary.
(3) Regulate the functions of both anterior and posterior pituitary.
(4) Inhibit the secretion of posterior pituitary hormones.

7) How many of the following are correct ?

(i) Somatostatin is released from hypothalamus.
(ii) Hypothalamic hormones reach the pituitary gland through hypophyseal-hypoportal system.
(iii) Anterior pituitary is under direct neural regulation of hypothalamus.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None of these

8) Portal circulatory system connect the _____ to the _____.

(1) Hypothalamus, brain.

(2) Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary.
(3) Hypothalamus, anterior pituitary.
(4) Anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary.

9)

Following is the diagrammatic representation of the pituitary gland and its connection with
the hypothalamus.

Select the correct option regarding the same.

(1) I : Anterior pituitary that is composed of neural tissues.
(2) I: Anterior pituitary that is composed of glandular epithelial tissues.
(3) II: Posterior pituitary that is composed of epithelial tissues.
(4) II: Posterior pituitary that is composed of connective tissues.

10) In adults, adenohypophysis accounts for 75% of the total weight of the pituitary gland and
consists of

(1) Pars distalis

(2) Pars tuberalis and pars intermedia
(3) Pars nervosa
(4) Pars intermedia

11)

Which of the following statement is incorrect about the posterior pituitary ?

(1) The posterior pituitary lobe is not a true endocrine gland.

(2) It serves as a hormone storage region.
(3) The posterior pituitary lobe and infundibulum together make neurohypophysis.
(4) Oxytocin and vasopressin hormones are synthesized in the posterior pituitary lobe.

12) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not cause a further increase in height, because

(1) Muscle fibers do not grow in size after birth.

(2) Growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
(3) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
(4) Bones lose their sensitivity to growth hormone in adults.

13)

The pituitary gland is a pea-shaped gland that lies in the hypophyseal fossa of

(1) Sella turcica of the glenoid bone

(2) Sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
(3) Sella turcica of the parietal bone
(4) Sella turcica of the frontal bone

14) Select the option that correctly matches the hormone with its source endocrine gland
and respective function/target organs.

Endocrine Function/target
Hormone
gland organ

Anterior
(1) TSH All body cells
pituitary

Stimulates
secretion of
Posterior
(2) ACTH glucocorticoids
pituitary
from the adrenal
cortex

Triggers secretion
Anterior
(3) LH of androgens in
pituitary
males

Stimulates the
Posterior
(4) FSH growth of ovarian
pituitary
follicles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) LH is required for fertility in females because

(1) It maintains corpus luteum.

(2) It induces ovulation.
(3) It stimulates the release of FSH from corpus luteum.
(4) Both (1) and (2).

16)

Which of the following hormone is incorrectly matched with its target organ/cells ?

(1) MSH: Melanocytes

(2) Oxytocin: Smooth muscles
(3) Vasopressin: Distal tubules of kidneys
(4) ADH: Glomerulus

17) Diabetes insipidus is caused by

(1) Hyposecretion of insulin by the pancreas.

(2) Hyposecretion of ADH by the posterior pituitary.
(3) Increased sensitivity of kidneys for ADH.
(4) Hypersecretion of ADH by the posterior pituitary.

18) Which of the following set of functions is not regulated by the hormone of the pineal gland ?

(1) Diurnal rhythm and body temperature

(2) Metabolism and pigmentation
(3) Growth of bones and defense capability
(4) Diurnal rhythm and defense capability

19)

Following is the diagrammatic view of the position of endocrine glands.

Select the option that correctly labels the glands and their respective hormones.

(1) I - Thyroid gland - Thyroxine and TSH

(2) II - Parathyroid gland - PTH
(3) II - Thyroid gland - Thyroxine and calcitonin
(4) I - Parathyroid gland - PTH and calcitonin

20) A group of tadpoles with no thyroxin hormone production exhibited disrupted

metamorphosis. Which of the following statement correctly describes the role of thyroid hormones
in metamorphosis ?

(1) Thyroid hormones lower the blood calcium levels.

(2) Thyroid hormones increase blood calcium levels.
(3) Thyroid hormones lower the blood phosphate levels.
(4) Thyroxin stimulates protein synthesis.

21)

Which of the given statement correctly differentiates Myxoedema from Graves’ disease ?

(1) Hypothyroidism in adult ages causes Graves’ disease.

(2) Graves’ disease is more common among males than females.
(3) Myxoedema causes swelling in facial tissues due to the accumulation of interstitial fluid.
(4) Myxoedema is an auto-immune disorder.

22) Assertion: Thyroid hormones regulate oxygen consumption and basal metabolic rate of the body
cells.
Reason: Thyroid hormones reduce the number of active mitochondria in body cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 4 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23
A. 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A. 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 1 1 1 3 3 3
Q. 44 45
A. 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68
A. 4 2 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88
A. 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 2 4
Q. 89 90
A. 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

3) As the train and parrot are moving just in opposite directions, hence relative velocity of the
parrot w.r.t. the train = [10–(–5)]ms–1 = 15 ms–1. Time taken by the parrot to cross the train =

4)

5)

6)

= 15 min

7) vHorizontal = |4cos53° – 3cos37°| = 0

8)
Let velocity of truck wrt ground is u, then

5 km = (u + 60) × ⇒ u = 40 km/hr

9)

10) Particle will move with uniform velocity due to inertia.

11)

m1a1 = m2a2

a2 = 1.25 m/s2

12)

13)

14) Theoretical.

15) At the time of leaving the floor, N = 0

16)

Therefore, displacement along x-axis

= 50 × 10 = 500 m.

17) String force is same at each point as string is massless.

18)
 Also,

19) Weighing machine record more weight than usual, when the lift is moving up.
Given, N = 90g
N – mg = ma
90g – 60g = 60a
a = g/2.

20) As both blocks will move together, so

21) For the coin w.r.t. lift, relative vel = 0

acceleration = 11 – 10 = 1 m/s2 upwards
Therefore, it hits the lift after travelling for 8 m.

22)

23)
uCB = 0, aCB = 4 – 2 = 2m/s2

So,

CHEMISTRY
24)

25)
X2Y.

26) At least 1 atom of S should be present.

8 amu S is present = 100 amu comp.

27)

28) [Link] g-atom of oxygen =

= 5 g-atom (or)
= 5 mol O-atom

29) molecules of CO

at NTP

30)
31)

1 L O2 react with 2L CO; CO left = 3 – 2 = 1 L.

32)

ii < i < iii < iv.

33)

34) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)

36)

molecules of H2O.

37) (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
38)

39)

40)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

41)

Theory based.

42)
n=1 3

LR → H2

43)

44)
 45)

Assertion is true, but reason is false.

BOTANY

46) New, NCERT Page no. 94

47) New, NCERT Based

48) New, NCERT Page no. 90

49) New, NCERT Page no. 93

50) New, NCERT Page no. 88

51)

New, NCERT Page no. 87, 88

52)

New, NCERT Page no. 91

53)

New, NCERT Page no. 89

54)

New, NCERT Page no. 90

55) New, NCERT Page no. 91

56) New, NCERT Page no. 94

57)

New, NCERT Page no. 91

58)
 New, NCERT Page no. 94

59) New, NCERT Page no. 94

60) New, NCERT Page no. 93

61) New, NCERT Page no. 88

62)

New, NCERT Page no. 90

63) New, NCERT Page no. 93

64) New, NCERT Page no. 94

65)

New, NCERT Page no. 88

66)

New, NCERT Page no. 90

67) New, NCERT Page no. 90

68) New, NCERT Page no. 94

ZOOLOGY

69) NCERT Concept.

70) NCERT Page no. 239

71)

NCERT Page no. 239

72)

NCERT Page no. 239

73)

NCERT Page no. 240

74)

NCERT Page no. 240

75)

NCERT Page no. 240

76)

NCERT Page no. 241

77)

NCERT Page no. 241 &

Allen module

78)

NCERT Page no. 241

79)

NCERT Page no. 241

80)

NCERT Page no. 241

81)

NCERT Page no. 241

82)

NCERT Page no. 241

83)

NCERT Page no. 241

84)

NCERT Page no. 241

85)

NCERT Page no. 242

86)

NCERT Page no. 242

87)

NCERT Page no. 242

88)

NCERT Concept

89)

Allen module

90)

NCERT Page no. 242 & 243