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FAR 135 Pilot Testing and Regulations Guide

The document outlines the initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements under FAR 135, detailing the necessary knowledge areas for pilots, including regulations, navigation, weather procedures, and operational specifications. It also covers various operational guidelines, such as flight reviews, alcohol consumption limits, and preflight actions, as well as specific requirements for flight operations, maintenance discrepancies, and emergency procedures. Additionally, it includes technical specifications related to aircraft systems, performance limitations, and safety protocols for pilots.

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
33 views16 pages

FAR 135 Pilot Testing and Regulations Guide

The document outlines the initial and recurrent pilot testing requirements under FAR 135, detailing the necessary knowledge areas for pilots, including regulations, navigation, weather procedures, and operational specifications. It also covers various operational guidelines, such as flight reviews, alcohol consumption limits, and preflight actions, as well as specific requirements for flight operations, maintenance discrepancies, and emergency procedures. Additionally, it includes technical specifications related to aircraft systems, performance limitations, and safety protocols for pilots.

Uploaded by

garymxms
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as RTF, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

135.293 Initial and Recurrent pilot testing requirements.

a-No certificate holder may use a pilot, nor may any person serve as a pilot, unless, since the beginning
of the 12th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed a written or oral test, given by the
administrator or an authorized check pilot, on that pilot's knowledge in the following areas-

The appropriate provisions of parts 61, 91, and 135 of this chapter and the operations specifications and
the manual of the certificate holder;

For each type of aircraft to be flown by pilot , the method of determining compliance with weight and
balance limitations for takeoff, landing and en route operations;

Navigation and use of air navigation aids appropriate to the operation or pilot authorization, including,
when applicable, instrument approach facilities and procedures;

Air traffic control procedures, including the priciples of frontal systems, icing, fog, thunderstorms, and
windshear, and if appropriate for operation of the certificate holder, high altitude weather;

Procedures for- recognizing and avoiding severe weather situations; escaping from severe weather
situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear ( except that rotorcraft
pilots are not required to be tested on escaping from low-altitude windshear-

Operating in or near thunderstorms including best penetrating altitudes, turbulent air including clear air
turbulence icing hail and other potentially hazardous meterorlogical conditions and New equipment
procedures or techniques as appropriate.

What is FAR 61 and how does it apply to you as a 135 Pilot?

When do you need a FLight Review as a FAR 135 Pilot?

How long do you have to file an address change with the FAA after moving your residence?

a. 30 Days FAR 61.60

How would you accomplish the change?

FAR 91 How does FAR 91 apply to FAR 135 Operations?


Careless and reckless Operation. - Operation so as to endanger life or property of another.

What can you drop from an airplane in flight?- Objects if reasonable precautions are taken to prevent
injury or damage to property.

How long mus you wait to fly an aircraft after consuming alcoholic beveragers or drugs? -8 Hours for
alcohol and while using any drug that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safetly.

How long must you wait to fly an aircraft after consuming alcoholic beverages or drugs? -8 hours and
whle using any drug that affects the faculties in any way contrary to safety.

Alcohol and passengers?

Carriage of cargo? Drugs?

Portable electronic devices?

Hearing aids, pacemakers, etc.?

NASA reports?

What kind of preflight actions are required by FAR 91?

What are the speed limits prescribed by FAR 91?

C or D airspace below 2500- 200 kts.

B airspace?- 250

Under B? -200

What if the speed is lower than min safe airspeed? The min prescribed speed.

What is a TFR?

Fuel requirement VFR and IFR?

Crusing Altitudes VFR and IRF?

Is there anything special about flying in the Washington DC area? 60 Miles of DC VOR.
Where can you get the training for VFR in the DC area? FAA Website.

Is there anything that the FAA. Law Enforcement, TSA or others might ask for during a ramp check in that
area?

May a passenger occupy the right seat during FAR 135 operations?

How often must a VOR check be completed in FAR 91 operations?

When must Naviation Lights be illuminated?

What significance does the 1 hour after sunset until 1 hour before sunrise have to do with night flight?

Are you required to have the anti collision lights (strobes/beacon) turned on at night?

Can you operate the aircraft under FAR 91 with inoperative equipment?

FAR 135

What visibility must Southern Airways have for departure while operating the C-208 under FAR 135?

What must be true of the destination weather forecast at departure time?

When is a takeoff alternate necessary?

When is a destination alternate necessary? 135.223- hour before until hour after -1500 above lowest
circle; or the higher of 1500 above the lowest min or 2000-the higher of 2 miles more than the lowest
viability or 3 miles.

What must be true of the alternate selected? must be included on C-70 -C-055 States-With at least one
approach from a nav facility add 400 to DA/DH and 1 mile vis and With two facilities, add 200 to the
higher DA/DH and 1/2 mile to the vis -RNAV not authorized.

What must be done prior to takeoff in icing conditions?

What types of fluid are we allowed to use in our operations?

How many hours can you fly? 7 consecutive days- Calendar month- Calendar year - Single pilot 8 hours in
24 consecutive hours- Two pilots 8 hours between required rest periods.

Legal to start legal to Finish?

If Scheduling calls during a required rest and asks if you can accept a flight tomorrow has your rest been
interupted?

Required to answer vs not required?


When does rest begin?

What sort of things would interupt that rest?

Are there any exceptions to the preceding question?

Tail end Ferry?

Front End Ferry

How often is your Proficiency/ Competncy Check required?

What is required if you have not flown into a particular airport within the last 90 days?

How do you know your aircraft is airworthy before accepting it for flight? log book entries -MEL items-
limitations and due dates- open items with no action taken in previous days-next inspection due- VOR
check- Preflight Inspection

Is Southern allowed to carry Hazmat? Passenger carrying operations- Dry Ice- Aircraft parts.

What sort of information is contrained in the Flight Operations Manual?

Where would I find a listing of Chapters in the manual? Where is FLight Duty Located? Job Descriptions?
Your Position is where?

When is an Incident/Debrief Report necessary?

What sort of issues should SOCC be contacted for

Where would information regarding maintenance discrepancies be found in the manual?

With regard to Maintenance Discrepancies, when should they be written up in the FLight Log?

How many legs can be flown after a writeup is entered in the LOG Book?

What has to be accomplished before the aircraft can be put back into service after a writeup has been
placed in the LOG BOOK?

With electronic weight and balance, what must you do to ensure aircraft is within cg?

How do we MEL an item on the aircraft?

Who must be notified before an item can be placed on MEL?

WAht itiems must be considered when placing an item on MEL Status?

If an item is placed on MEL, where else must it be documented?

When is the pink copy of the maintenance log removed?


What is done with the pink copy upon removal?

Do we remove the yellow sheet?

When accepting an aircraft for the aircraft/s first flight of the day, we must move some things forward in
the log book. What are they?

What is trend monitoring?

How often is trend monitoring accomplished ?

Where is it documented?

When is the trend monitoring sheet turned in?

WHen refueling, what are some requirements?

What is meant by the term VDP

If you cannot see the runway at the VDP wehat should you do?

What is a stabilized approach? -1000 IFR- 500 VFR

In the event electronic WT and Bal is not available, what must we do?

What are some things that need to be accomplished prior to entering icing conditions?

What are icing conditions?

What do you do if severe icing is encountered?

We talked about FLight and Duty Limitations earlier. where would you find guidance on that issue in the
FOM?

How do we change minutes to hours and 1/10s on the log page?

WAhat items should be considered when planning a flight?

What should be done with the information you review during your planning?

How do you avoid weather such as - thunderstorms

icing

turbulence

fog

windshear
when is a takeoff alternate necessary?

When is an additional alternate necessary? -marginal at destination and first alternate below 800 and 2
miles.

what is the minimum weather forecast for an alternate airport for southern airways? if one approach
available add 400 and 1 to minimums- if two approaches available add 200 and 1/2 to the higher of the
minimums.

Are there any Special considerations when deterining the suitability of a runway when using as an
alternate?

What are some items that must be considered during a passenger briefing

What should you do to verify you are on the right runway for takeoff?

How much frost, snow or ice can be on the aircraft before takeoff, where can it be and what do we do
about it?

What kinds of de-icing anti-icing can we use?

DO we use holdover times , do we use in use in our operation?

What will an FAA inspector show you if he is doing a ramp or other check? a 110A

What must ou do if an inspector is conducting an inspection -Free uninterupted acess- cerificates-aircraft


docs, etc...

How long is your medical good for?

What is sterile cockpit?

What is the purpose of a post fligth inspection?

What are operations specifications?

Which Ops Spec lists the airports that may be used as alternates and regulars during operations?

Which Ops Spec provides information regarding alternate minimums?

Navigation and Nav Aids-

When Operating with GPS, what must we be able to do?

Please give me some information about what we do if we lose DME, GPS or a VOR receiver enroute?
WHat do we do when starting up the avionics in the aircraft and we get a Nav Data Base Out of Date
Alert?

Same question for Terrain Avoidance?

If we are tracking to an approach fix and the controller says maintain 5000 cleared for the approach what
do we do?

How often must the VORs be checked for IFR operations?

What are the limits? +/- 4 with a VOT; +/-with a ground check from designated point - 6 between the two
in flight

What instrument approaches can we conduct?

Can we do a back course?

Communication failure procedures?- Land ASAP if in VMC conditions-Route last received in clearance-if
being vectored direct to the fix being vecored to- Expected route-route filed in flight plan-route filed in
flight plan-Altitude highest of the last assigned-The min altitude for IFR operations- Altitude or flight
level ATC has said might be expected- Leave the clearance limit as close as possible to the efc time if
assigned-If not assigned as close as posible to the filed or amended eta- If the clearance limit is not an
approach fix, leave the fix at the efc. If non reeived leave the fix and proceed to the approach fix and
leave it so as to land at the eta.

What make and model of engine is installed on the C-208? PT6A-114A

What is the horsepower rating? 675

How many compressor stages are there in engine? 4-3 Axial and 1 Centrifugal

What type of oil is used in the engine? 2380

What is the minumum oil level for flight? Oil is shown on the dipstick

What is the normal oil level and when should it be observed? -Within 2 quarts of Max within 10 minutes
of shutdown.

What is: Max ITT or idle?

Max ITT for idle? 208 685 degrees 208EX 700

MAX ITT for Takeoff? 805 degrees 208- 208EX 850

MAX ITT for Climb 765 degrees- 825 degrees

Max ITT for Climb 710 degrees to 710 degrees -775 degrees
MAX ITT for Cruise 740 degrees 805 degrees

Max ITT 700 degrees to 775 degrees

NG at High Idle? 65%

Maximum torque for Takeoff? 1658-1865-2000 FT-lbs

Maximum NG? 101.6 103.7

Components and Systems

What is the voltage and Amperage output of the Starter/Generator? 28.5

At What % NG does the generator produce maximum output?

What is the Voltage and Amperage output of the Standby Alternator? 27.5 V 75AMPS

What is the purpose of the Avionics Standby Power and Avionics Bus Tie Switches? Standby

Power provides power to Bus 1. Bus Two Connects 1 and 2 to power both from either that is powered.

How do you know if a Switch is also a Circuit Breaker? It has a number indicating its Amperage Limit on
Top.

What does the illuminated Low Voltage Annunciator indicate? Voltage has dropped below 24.5 and the
battery is supplying power to the sytmes.

Where are the Feeder Circuit Breakers? -The Left Most CB in a row

Can a Feeder Circuit Breaker be reset? Why or Why not? -No it has isolated a short and should not be
reset.

What is the Purpose of the Ejector Pump? It provides fuel to the engine driven pump.

What is an indication of an Engine Driven Fuel Pump failure? Complete Engine Failure

If the Primary Prop Governor fails, what happens? propeller speed will go to 1976 RPM

How does the fuel Topping Govenor control the speed of the Propeller? By Reducing fuel flow to the
engine thereby slowing the propeller

If Oil Pressure is lost to the Propelle Governor what happens?The propeller feathers.

What is the Operating Range of the compressor bleed air valve? 86% to 92% No
What happens if it fails in the closed position? Compressor Stalls when reducing power below 92%

What are some uses of the P2.5 Bleed Air from the Compressor Bleed Valve? Cabin Heating on the
ground

What limitations are associate with using the Emergency Power Lever? Move Slowly in both directions
betwee 65% and 101.6%

When do the Aileron Spoilers operate? 5" movement up of the aileron on the same side

Where is the aileron trim tab? On the RH side

What does the Rudder Trim Wheel Do? applies pressure to the nosewheel steering bungie to apply
pressure to and deflect the rudder

What are the limitarions of the Standby Flaps? Always active, no stop limits, no autopilot use

What are the Engine Starter Limitations? Battery-30 Sec-On-60 Off, 30 Sec, On 60 Sec Off 30 Sec On 30
minoff

GPU: 20 Sec On 120 Sec off, 20 sec on 12 off, 20 sec on 60 min off

What are the functions of the GCU? voltage regulation, overvoltage and reverse current protection,
starter cutout at 46%

What does it mean when he left half of the chip detector annunciator illuminates? Right Half? Left half
means chips detected in the Accessory Gear Box. ---Right half means chips detected in the power
section.

What woud cause a fuel selector warning horning to sound? Both selectors off and Battery on-One
Selector off, Battery On and Start Switch to Start-Fuel level Low with a single tank selected.

When woud a fuel selector warning annunciator illuminate without a horn? Fuel Selector Warning or
Start control CB pulled or tripped.

Performance and Operating limitations--

what is VX-72 Kias

What is Vy-104 Kias

What is the range of CA-148 to 112 Stating at 8750 lbs. and reducing by 12 kts. for each 1250 bs.

At what weight would a VA of 148 kias be appropriate? 8750 lbs. What is the maximum Window open
Speed? 175 kts.

What is the approximate Fuel flow for Engine Start? 80-110 PPH
How many ways can we descend while using the autopilot on an ils? 200 Feet KFC 225

When Conducting a Non Precision approach using the KF225 Autopilot what is the minimum altitude for
use of the autopilot? Double the loss in approach mode. 140*2 -280 or 50 below MDA whichever is
higher.

What is the speed range for Best Glide Speed? 71-95 -95kias at 8750 LBS and reduce by 8 kias for each
1250 lbs lighter.

What is the glide distance for 1,000 feet of altuitud? 2 NM

What speed should you reduce to if one of the Aft Doors Opens up? 100 Kias

What is the NG if there is a P3 or FCU failure at sea level ? 45%

What is the minum NG required to re-light the engine afte a Flame out? 50%

If the Reservoir Fuel Low Annunciator Illuminates how long before the engine may lose fuel flow? About
90 seconds - What actions should be taken? Fuel Selectors Both On, Boost Pump On ignition ON

What action should be taken if the Standby Power Inoperative Annunciator illuminates just a afer takeoff
on an IFR flight? Return and land if VMC and request clearance to return and land from ATC if IMC.

If a Pull Up Command is presented by the EGPWS and the Terrain is not in sight what should be done?
Level the wings, Maximum power and climb at Vx until warning stops.

Weight and Balance

What is the Maximum Landing weight? 8500 or as indicated on the Weight and Balance Form for the
partinular aircraft.

What is the maximum fuel imbalance? 200lbs.

What is the maximum zero Fuel Weight? It is not appliciable to this aircraft

How do we determine a passenger's weight for a Weight for a weight and balance calculation? Asked
weight plus 10 pounds for personal items. If in doube, Scale weight.

How do we perform the weight and balance calculation? Either electronically by the station or manually
with the provided form for the the aircraft involved. SOCC can provide an Electronic Weight and balance
if not available at the departure point.

Instrument Approach Procedures----

What is RAIM? Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

When is RAIM calculated on a GPS approach? 2 miles prior to the Final Approach Fix
What is the CDI accuracy on a GPS approach 3 NM from approach centerline at full scale.

How far off course does a full scale deflection of the CDI indicate in the Terminal Mode?- 1.0 NM

METEOROLOGY-

What are considered to be the most hazardous conditions associated with a Thunderstorm? Turbulence
and Winshiear

The Presence of Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of what? Possible turbulence

What might be indications that you have encountered windshear? Change in airspeed of =/- 15 kias,
change in VSI or change glide slope of 1 dot or more.

By Wht distance should a TRW be avoided? 20 NM

What actions should be taken if a TRW is inadvertently endtered? Tighten Seatbelt, disengage autopilot
altitude hold, don't chase airspeed, don't attempt a turnaround, turn on pitot heat and inertial separator,
maintain maneuvering speed and turn cokpit light to bright to avoid flash blindness from lightening.

First Class Medical issued 1/3/19 epires as second class on what date? 1/31/20

If convicted of DWI what does far 61.51 require? Notify within 30 days

135 flight over uncongeste area but next to a congested area with buildings 700 agl, what's lowest
altitude and closest distance you cfly?- 500 from congested, 500 agl (135.203)

First Class Medical issued 1/3/9 expires as second class on what date? 1/3/20

When your address changes, what does 61.51 require? Notify within 30 days

135 flight over uncongested area but next to a congested area with buildings 700 agle, whats lowest
altitude and closest distane you can fly? 500 from congested, 500 agl 135.203

Standard rest requirements? Blocked under 8 is 9 hours, 8-9 10hrs, over 9 is 11 hrs, 24hrs off per 7 days
(135. 261-267)

Max scheduled hours per 24 single pilot? 8, none if 2 crew max 14 hrs in 24

If you were to have 0600 show time and you had 8 hrs rest be require previous night, when would you
be required off duty and how much rest would you require? 2200, 10 hours

VFR cloud clearance and vis in class B? Clar, 3 miles (91.155)

Upon reaching DH, min conditions to continue approach? ALs in sight ( 91.175)

How low can you go if you only see als? 100 above TDZE (91.175)
What conditions must be met to go below 100 above tdze? Vis req, rw env in sight, able to land in tdz,
position from which normal landing may be made. (91.175c)

You are on flight to HRO and atc clears you to cruise at 7000 to HRO, what does this allow you to do? Fly
to HRO at 7000 or below but no lower than MEA, choose approach, land all without any further
clearance.

Night 135 departure, rw lights out of service, can you go? No (135.229b2i)

Seat belrs required fastened? Prior to taxi-(135.1228)

Can Passengers use booster seats for child? No

At what age must child occupy a seat? 2

When required to use oxygen on non-pressurized aircraft? More than 30 minutes above 10000 and
always above 12000.

Alternate required if KHOT weather 2000 Ceiling and 4 Vis? Yes, 1500 above lowest circling or lowest
apph is 2100 required

When do you need takeoff alt? At or above takeoff mins but below landing mins

Ceiling required to depart vfr with 1 mile vis in class G? 1000

Who can sit in right seat on revenue leg? Pic, Sic, check airman, faa, ntsb, postal service (135.113)

If you have nothing on board but comat are you 91 or 135? 91

Difference between op specs and ops manual? Ops specs faa writes, manual we write

Discrepancy between ops manual, far, op specs, which governs? Ops specs

Operational Control? Initiating, continuing, terminating a flight, dir ops is ultimate

What are pic duties? Responsible for aircraft, flight controls, crew, compliance

Which mel cats can be extended? B and C

10 fueling rules? No thunderstorms within 10 miles, grounded, superise, no pax, master off, extinguisher
ready, drain sumps, receipt/log, no connect/disconnect gpu, no battery chargers

How much dry ice can we carry? 5.5 lbs

Can Pax carry 190 proof duty free liquor? No

How do you know aircraft has time avail before next inspection? Log page Max tailwind for lahso? <3kts
KHOT alternate, what would weather need to be and at what time? ETA, 600 1 1/2 mile vis, because 1
straight in precision apph

Standard take off minimum? 1 mile

Lowest takeoff minum at Kmem with Pax? 1/2 mile (lowest apph vis)

What would allow you to use this lower minimum? an approach

What type engine on c208b? Pt6a -114a

Horsepower? 600/675/867

How many compressor sections and what type? 4, 3 axial and 1 centrifugal

how many turbines? 2 gas gen and prop

What type oil? 2380

Min oil level for flight? Oil shown on dipstick

Normal oil level? 2 qts of max hot within 10 mins of shutdown

Max itt idle? 685

Max itt take off ? 805

Max itt climb poh? 765

Max itt climb southern? 710

Max itt cruise poh? 740

Max itt cruise southern? 700

Ng high idle? 65

Max takeoff torque? 1865

Max ng 101.6

volt/amp of alternator? 28.5v 200 amps

At what ng does it produce this output? 70

volt /amp of alternator? 27.5v 75 amps

Purpose of stdby pwr and avionics bus tie switches? Stdby pwr solves bus 1 problem, ties solve bus 1 or 2
problems
How do you know if a switch is also breaker? Number on top

What does low voltage light mean? Below 24.5v and battery is powering system

Where are feeder breakers? Left-most in the rows

Can you reset feeder breaker? No

Why? Its job is to isolate a dead short

Purpose of ejector pump? Provide fuel to engine-driven fuel pump

Indication of engine-driven fuel pump failure? Complete power loss

If Primary prop gov fails what rpm will you see? 1976

Fuel topping governor? Primary rpm control in reverse, last line of overspee defense

How does fuel topping governor control prop speed? Reducing py pressure, reduces fuel to engine and
slows it down

if oil pressure lost to prop what happens? Feather

Operating range of compressor bleed air valve? 86-92 ng

What happens if it closes in flight? Compressor stall when below 92 ng

What good is p2.5 air from bleed air valve? Cabin heat on ground

EPL limits? Move Slowly, 65-101.6ng

When do flight spoilers operate? 5 degree movement up of corresponding aileron

Where is aileron trim tab? Right side

What does rudder trim wheel do? Pressure on nosewheel steer bungie to deflect rudder

Standby flap limits? No limit stops, no autopilot

Starter cycle (batt)? 30s on 60s off/30s on 60s off/30s on 30m off

Fuel nozzles simplex or duplex? Simplex

How many used for start? 10 primary

Function of gen control unit? Volt regulation, reverse current protect, starter cutoff 46 ng

Left half chip annunciator illuminates? Meta in accessory gearbox

Fuel selector horn? Both off batt on, one off starter switch start, one off less than 25 gals, test button
Fuel selector annuniciator but not horn? Fuel sel warn or start cont breakers out

Vx 72

Vy 104

Va range 112-148

What wight va 148? 8750

Max win open spee? 175

Fuel flow for start? 80-11-

How many ways autopilot disconnect? 5 (yoke button, ap button, breaker, toga button, ?)

ILS 5 KHO how low can you descend with kfc 225 ap? 200 agl

At what departure altitude can you engage kfc225? 700

Non-prec Apph with Kfc225, whats min usage alt? Double loss in apph mode (140x2 = 280 or 50 below
mda, whichever is higher

Lowest altitude that can be captured using kfc225? 800

Speed range for best glide? 71-95

Min glide distance per 1000 feet of alt? 2 nm

what speed reduce to if aft door opens? 100kt

What is ng if p3/fcu failure at sea level? 48

Min ng required to relight after flameout? 50

Reservoir low light on, how much time before engine failur? 90 seconds

Action items for reservoir low light on? Fuel sel on boost on ignition on

Action if stby pwr light after takeoff in ifr? land

Pullup command from egpws and no terrain in sight? level wings, max power vx

until warning stops

Max takeoff wt? 8750

Max landing wt? 8500

Max fuelimbalance 200


Max ero fuel wt? There is none

Pax wt determination? Asked wt plus 10lbs

What is raim? Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring

When is raim calculated on gps apph? 2 mi prior to FAF

What is CDI accuracy on gps apph? .3 nm full scale delection from centerline

How far off couse are you at full scale deflection in terminal mode ?1 nm

Most hazardous conditions associated with TRW? Wind Shear

Standing lenticular altocumulus indicates? Turbulence

Indications you've encounterd wind shear? +/- 15 kts, vsi change more than 500fpm, glide slope change
more than 1 dot

How far should you avoid TRW? 20 miles

Action if caught in TRW? Seat belts, pitot heat, va power setting, turn off ap altitude hold, constant
attitude don't chase alt or speed, don't turn back, turn up lights to avoid lightning blindness

Opspecs a - admin, b areas of operation (apph types), c alt mins d mtx, e chieftain

FOM ch1 - mgmt/op ctrl, ch2 emer /abnormal ops, ch3-airworthy/mtx, ch4 -aircraft ops, ch5 crew quals,
ch

flt planning, ch7 pax brief, ch8 policies, ch9 security, ch10 int'l.

Common questions

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Verifying an aircraft's airworthiness involves checking the log book for any open maintenance items, confirming compliance with the Minimum Equipment List (MEL), ensuring required inspections are up-to-date, and performing a thorough pre-flight inspection . The pilot must ensure all systems essential for flight are functional and that there are no unresolved safety issues reported . Discrepancies should be resolved or deferred according to regulations before flight .

Southern Airways must comply with specific regulations when carrying hazardous materials, such as ensuring that items like dry ice are properly documented and not exceeding the allowed amounts . Passenger operations must not carry items like high-proof liquors, and all hazardous materials must meet safety requirements as outlined in operational manuals and FAA guidelines . Non-compliance can result in severe penalties and compromises to flight safety .

Fuel management systems are crucial for operational efficiency and safety by accurately monitoring fuel usage and preventing engine failures due to fuel mismanagement. Systems such as the ejector pump provide fuel to the engine-driven fuel pump, ensuring continuous flow and pressure, while annunciators indicate potential failures . Effective management prevents fuel starvation and balances fuel distribution, essential for center of gravity control and safety . Proper training and system monitoring are necessary to identify discrepancies early and mitigate risks associated with fuel mismanagement .

Cockpit equipment checks, as per regulations and operational manuals, involve verifying the functionality of navigational and communication devices, ensuring avionics are updated and operational, and confirming emergency equipment availability and readiness . These checks are critical for ensuring compliance with airworthiness standards and preventing equipment failure during critical flight phases, thereby supporting safe and effective flight operations .

For FAR 135 operations, a takeoff alternate is necessary if the weather conditions at the departure airport are below those required for landing . A destination alternate is required when the weather forecast at the destination is below certain minimums: one hour before until one hour after the ETA, the ceiling must be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest prescribed circling minimum, or if no circling applies, at least 2,000 feet above airport elevation, with visibility at least two miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minima or three miles, whichever is greater .

If a discrepancy is discovered during a pre-flight inspection, it should be documented in the Flight Log. Maintenance personnel should be informed to assess and resolve the issue before releasing the aircraft for flight . It is critical not to operate the aircraft until the discrepancy has been rectified or properly deferred if allowed under the Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

Effective trend monitoring involves regularly documenting and analyzing performance data from aircraft systems to predict failures and schedule maintenance proactively . This process helps in identifying patterns indicative of potential systems degradation or failures, allowing for timely intervention. Regular monitoring leads to enhanced safety, reduced operational disruptions, and cost savings by preemptively addressing issues before they escalate into more serious problems or failures .

A stabilized approach in IFR conditions is characterized by an approach path that allows the aircraft to be controlled predictably, descending at a constant speed and configuration, usually with visual confirmation of the runway environment starting at 1,000 feet above touchdown zone elevation (TDZE). For VFR approaches, stability should begin at 500 feet above ground level. Deviations from these conditions can result in increased difficulty in controlling the aircraft, risking runway excursions or unstable landings, thus necessitating a go-around .

The Director of Operations holds ultimate responsibility for operational control, which includes the authority to initiate, continue, terminate, or divert a flight based on safety and regulatory compliance considerations . This role entails making strategic decisions that impact flight safety, efficiency, and regulatory adherence, while ensuring that operations are conducted within the guidelines set out in the Flight Operations Manual and FAA regulations . This position requires comprehensive oversight and decision-making authority to mitigate risks and uphold operational standards.

Southern Airways enhances safety during takeoff and landing by adhering to protocols such as maintaining a 'sterile cockpit,' ensuring all navigational aids and instruments are correctly set, and engaging in Crew Resource Management (CRM) to support communication and decision-making . Compliance with these protocols ensures that the cockpit environment is free from non-essential activities during critical phases of flight, minimizing distractions that can affect safety and operational performance .

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