14-07-2024

1015CMD303054240006 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If current through 4Ω is 2A then calculate potential difference across A and B :-

(1) 8V
(2) 16 V
(3) 4 V
(4) None of these

2) A battery of e.m.f. 10 V is connected to resistance as shown in figure. The potential difference VA –

VB between the point A and B is :-

(1) –2V
(2) 2V
(3) 5V

(4)

3) The reading of the ammeter in the adjoining figure will be :-

(1) 0.8 A
(2) 0.6 A
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 0.2 A
4) In the adjoining circuit, the battery E1 has an emf of 12 volt and zero internal resistance while the
battery E2 has an emf of 2 volt. If the galvanometer G reads zero, then the value of the resistance X

(in ohm) is :-

(1) 10
(2) 100
(3) 500
(4) 200

5) The potential difference between the points A and B in the following circuit will be :-

(1) zero
(2) 2V
(3) 3.5V
(4) 4.5V

6) In the circuit shown here, the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter are :-

(1) 6 A, 60 V
(2) 0.6 A, 6 V
(3) 6 A, 6 V

(4)

7) Potential of the point B in the circuit below is :-

(1) 5 V
(2) 7 V
(3) 8 V
(4) 10 V

8) The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance is 48 volt as shown in figure. The value of
potential difference across x and y points will be :

(1) 160 Volt

(2) 128 Volt
(3) 80 Volt
(4) 62 Volt

9) The effective resistance between points P and Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is:

(1)

(2)

(3) 2r + 4R

(4)

10) Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If σ1 and σ2 are the
conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combinations is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) In the given network, galvanometer is showing no deflection, then R =

(1) 100 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 25 Ω

12) The resistance of a moving coil galvanometer is 20Ω. It requires 0.01A current for full scale
deflection. Calculate the value of resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter of range 20 volt :-

(1) 1980 Ω
(2) 2000 Ω
(3) 1880 Ω
(4) 1500 Ω

13) In the circuit shown in figure, the power which is dissipated as heat in the 6 Ω resistor is 6 W.

What is the value of resistance R in the circuit ?

(1) 6 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 13 Ω
(4) 24 Ω

14) Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. A is
given a charge +Q while B is earthed. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is :

(1)
(2) 4πε0(a + b)
(3) 4πε0b

(4)

15) A part of circuit given here if VA–VB = 4V then find charge on 4 µF capacitor :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2µC
(3) 8 µC
(4) 4 µC

16)

For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge on 4µF capacitor is :-

(1) 30 μC
(2) 40 μC
(3) 24 μC
(4) 54 μC

17) In the given circuit if point C is connected to the earth and potential of +1000 V is given to point

A. Then potential at B is :-

(1) 500 V
(2) 1000 V
(3) 100 V
(4) None

18) Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings as shown on a
frictionless table they are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg and m3= 4kg, the

tension T2 will be -
(1) 20 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 32 N

19) Two blocks of masses m and 2m are connected by a light string passing over a frictionless
pulley. As shown in the figure, the mass m is placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30°
and 2m hangs vertically. If the system is released, the blocks move with an acceleration equal to :-

(1) g/4
(2) g/3
(3) g/2
(4) g

20) Find tension in string if θ = 30° and the mass hanged in middle of the string is equal to 22 kg:

(1) 110 N
(2) 220 N
(3) Infinite
(4) Between 110 N and 220 N

21)

Find out the reading of spring balance in the system shown in figure :-

(1) Zero
(2) 30 kg
(3) 15 kg
(4) 7.5 kg

22) A block of mass M is pulled by a uniform chain of mass M tied to it by applying a force F at the
other end of the chain. The tension at a point distant quarter of the length of the chain from free end
will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Figure shows a block of mass 3 kg. The strings shown in figure are pulled by constant forces of

20 N and 32 N .The acceleration of the block is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 3m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

24) Two blocks of masses of 40 kg and 30 kg are connected by a weightless string passing over a
firctionless pulley as shown in the figure.

(g = 9.8 m/s2) The acceleration of the system would be :-

(1) 0.7 m s–2

(2) 0.8 m s–2
(3) 0.6 m s–2
(4) 0.5 m s–2

25) The coefficient of static friction μs between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the
figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum mass value of block B so that the two blocks do not move?
The string and the pulley are assumed to be smooth and massless. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.0 kg
(2) 4.0 kg
(3) 0.2 kg
(4) 0.4 kg

26) A particle moves in a circle of radius R from A to B as shown in figure. Distance travelled by the

particle is

(1)

(2) πR

(3)

(4) None

27) Calculate tension in wire1 shown in figure :-

(1)
N

(2)
N

(3)
N

(4)
N
28)
Find friction between 1 kg & 2kg if F = 4N.

(1) 2 N
(2) 6 N
(3) 8 N
(4) Zero

29) Two bodies of 5 kg and 4 kg are tied to a string as shown in the fig. If the table and pulley both

are smooth, acceleration of 5 kg body will be equal to-

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A block of mass 10 kg is moving up an inclined plane of inclination 30° with an initial speed of 5
m/s. It stops after 0.5 s, what is the value of coefficient of kinetic friction ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6 cm
(3)

(4)

31) A body goes 20 km north and then 10 km due east. The displacement of body from its starting
point is-

(1) 30 km
(2) 25.2 km
(3) 22.36 km
(4) 10 km

32) A particle suffers three displacements by 4 m northward, 2 m in south east and 2 m in the south
west direction. What is the net displacement of the particle :-

(1) (4 – ) towards North

(2) (4 – ) N-W
(3) (4 – ) N-E
(4) (4 + ) North

33) A particle 80 kg is supported by two cables as shown in the figure. Then the ratio of tensions T1

and T2 is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2)
(3)
(4) 1:3

34) Find the acceleration of a block of mass 10 kg kept on a smooth inclined plane as shown in

diagram.

(1) m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 0 m/s2

35) Contact forces f1 and f2 are :-

(1) 10N, 6N
(2) 6N, 10N
(3) 3N, 2N
(4) 2N, 3N

SECTION-B
1) Net resistance of the given circuit between X and Y is :-

(1)
Ω
(2) 1Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 2Ω

2) The current in the given circuit is :-

(1) 8.31 A
(2) 6.82 A
(3) 4.92 A
(4) 2 A

3)

The potential at junction O is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

4)

In the given circuit current I1 is:-

(1) 0.4A
(2) –0.4A
(3) 1.2 A
(4) –0.8A

5) In a meter bridge the null point is obtained at the middle point of the wire. If an one gap the
resistance is 10Ω, then the value of resistance in the other gap is-

(1) 10Ω
(2) 5Ω

(3)
Ω
(4) 500Ω

6) Capacitance of the capacitor does not depend on :-

(1) Charge
(2) Voltage
(3) Size of capacitor
(4) Both (1) & (2)

7) Two large metal plates are placed parallel to each other. The inner surface of plates are charged
by +σ and –σ (coulomb/m2). The electric field between the plates and outside the plates :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
8) Find net capacitance between A & B :-

(1) 32µf
(2) 2µf
(3) 8µf
(4) 16µf

9) A block of 5kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. (μ = ). A force 'F' is applied as shown.
Find the minimum value of 'F' to move the block :-

(1) 200/3
(2) 100 N
(3)
(4) 50 N

10) A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg. The co-efficient of friction between block and
wall. The force of friction acting on block is :-

(1) 15 N downwards
(2) 25 N upwards
(3) 20 N downwards
(4) 20 N upwards

11) A block of mass 5 kg is suspended by a massless rope of length 2 m from the ceiling. A force of
50N is applied in the horizontal direction at the midpoint P of the rope, as shown in the figure. The
angle made by the rope with the vertical in equilibrium is (Take g = 10 ms–2) :-

(1) 30°
(2) 40°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

12) In the shown arrangement mass of A = 1 kg mass of B = 2 kg. Coefficient of friction between A
and B = 0.2. There is no friction between B and ground. The frictional force exerted by A on B equals

to

(1) 5/3 N
(2) 7/5 N
(3) 5 N
(4) None

13) In the figure shown, blocks A and B move with velocities v1 and v2 along horizontal direction. The

ratio of :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) In the shown figure acceleration of mass M is :

(1) 20 m/s2 leftward

(2) 5 m/s2 leftward
(3) 10 m/s2 rightward
(4) 5 m/s2 rightward

15) Two blocks of 7 kg and 5 kg are connected by a heavy rope of mass 4 kg. An upward force of
200N is applied as shown in the diagram. The tension at the top of heavy rope at point P is (g = 10
m/s2) :

(1) 2.27 N
(2) 112.5 N
(3) 87.5 N
(4) 360 N

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) How many total benzenoid isomers are possible for molecular formula C7H8O ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

2) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CN and

are the examples of :-

(1) Position isomerism

(2) Chain isomerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional isomerism

3) Identify the relation between given pair

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Position isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) Metamerism

4) How many double bonds are having cis arrangement in following example ?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) The total number of geometrical isomer in-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

6) Compound which can show G.I.?

(1) 2-phenyl prop-1-ene

(2) 1,1-dichloro prop-1-ene
(3) 4-phenyl but-1-ene
(4) 1-phenyl but-2-ene

7)

Total number of structural and geometrical isomers of C4H8 is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

8) and are :-

(1) Diastereomers
(2) Enantiomer
(3) Identical
(4) Structural isomers

9) The number of conformational isomers of ethane is :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) infinite
(4) 5

10) CH3—CHCl—CH2—CH3 has a chiral centre which one of the following represents its R
configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The total number of isomeric geminal dihalides having the molecular formula C3H6Cl2 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

12) 2-pentanone and 3-methyl-2-butanone are a pair of ______ isomers.

(1) Metamers
(2) Chain
(3) Positional
(4) (1) and (2) both

13) Number of primary alcohols of the formula C5H12O are :

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3
14) Which of the following compounds does not show geometrical isomer?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The Z-isomer is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The number of stereoisomers of given compound will be :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

17) Which of the following is correct structure of L-alanine?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Angle of rotation to get maximum stable from minimum stable conformation of n-butane is :-

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 180°
(4) 360°

19) If 2 moles N2 reacts with 2 moles of H2 then volume of NH3 obtained (in Habers process) at NTP
is :

(1) 5.6 L
(2) 30 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 11.2 L

20) 2A + 3B → 4C
6 moles of A and 6 moles of B will form :-

(1) 6 moles of C
(2) 4 moles of C
(3) 8 moles of C
(4) 12 moles of C

21) Which of the following relationships is true ?

(1) Molecular mass = (Vapor density of gas)2

(2)
Molecular mass = (Vapor density of gas)
(3) Molecular mass = 2 × (Vapor density of gas)
Molecular mass =
(4)

22) Which of the following has least mass :

(1) 4 gram atom of carbon

(2) 3.011×1023 atom of nitrogen
(3) 1 mole CO2
(4) 32 g SO2

23) Equivalent weight of Ca+2 is :-

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 8
(4) 15

24)

The total number of neutrons present in 54 mL H2O(ℓ) are :-

(1) 3NA
(2) 30 NA
(3) 24 NA
(4) None of these

25) For the gaseous reaction

H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
If initially 40ml of H2 and 30 ml of Cl2 are present, then find the volume of unreacted part of Cl2(g):-

(1) 10ml
(2) 25ml
(3) 15ml
(4) 0 ml

26) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% element x (atomic mass = 10) and 50% of
element y (atomic mass = 20) is:-

(1) xy
(2) x2y
(3) xy3
(4) x2y3
27) 0.45g of acid (molecular wt = 90) was exactly neutralised by 20mL of 0.5N NaOH. Basicity of the
acid is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) If 3.01 × 1020 molecules are removed from 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of H2SO4
left are :–

(1) 0.1 × 10–3

(2) 0.5 × 10–3
(3) 1.66 × 10–3
(4) 9.95 × 10–2

29) 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.). The
hydrocarbon is -

(1) C4H5
(2) C8H10
(3) C4H8
(4) C4H10

30) CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected at STP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed is -

(1) 2.016 litres

(2) 1.008 litres
(3) 10.08 litres
(4) 20.16 litres

31) How many mole of magnesium phosphate, Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

(1) 2.5 × 10–2

(2) 0.02
(3) 3.125 × 10–2
(4) 1.25 × 10–2

32) For the reaction C(s) + CO2(g) 2CO(g) the partial pressure of CO and CO2 are 2.0 and 4.0 atm
respectively at equilibrium. The KP for the reaction is

(1) 0.5
(2) 4.0
(3) 8.0
(4) 1
33) Which Oxide of Nitrogen is most stable :-

2NO2(g) N2(g) + 2O2(g)

(1)
K = 6.7 × 1016 mol L–1
2 NO(g) N2(g) + O2(g)
(2)
K = 2.2 × 1030
2 N2O5(g) 2N2(g) + 5O2(g)
(3)
K = 1.2 × 1034 mol5 L–5
2N2O(g) 2N2(g) + O2(g)
(4)
K = 3.5 × 1033 mol L–1

34) The equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction at a given temperature:-

(1) Depends on initial concentration of the reactants.

(2) Depends on the concentration of the products at equilibrium.
(3) Does not depend on the initial concentrations.
(4) It is not characteristic of the reaction.

35) At equilibrium 500mL vessel contains 1·5 M of each A, B, C, D. If 0·5 M of C and D expelled out
than what would be the KC :–
A+B C+D

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) What is relation between following compounds ? CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3 and

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomers
(3) Metamer
(4) Ring chain isomer

2) are :-

(1) Positional isomer

(2) E & Z isomer
(3) Chain isomer
(4) Metamer

3) Number of optically active isomer of the following molecule are :-

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 8

4) Assertion : Racemic mixture and meso forms are optically inactive.

Reason : These are optically inactive due to external and internal compensation of rotation
respectively :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

5)
Above Gauche form is more stable when Z is :-

(1) –F
(2) –OH
(3) –OCH3
(4) All of these

6) Which of the following functional group containing compounds may show metamerism?
(a) Ester (b) anhydride (c) Ketone
(d) thioalcohol (e) Nitrile

(1) a, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) all

7) A meso compound is optically inactive due to :-

(1) being mixture of d and ℓ isomers

(2) external compensation
(3) internal compensation
(4) absence of chiral C-atoms

8) The actual mass of a molecule of CaCO3 is :-

(1) 100 g
(2) 1.67 × 10–24 g
(3) 1.67 × 10–22 g
(4) 100 a.m.u

9) 15 g of a gaseous hydrocarbon occupy 11.2 L of volume at NTP. It vapour density is :-

(1) 30
(2) 15
(3) 45
(4) 60

10) Number of atoms in 24 g of He is :-

(1) NA
(2) 2 NA
(3) 4 NA
(4) 6 NA

11) Number of electrons present in 9.5 g of :-

(1) 6
(2) 5NA
(3) 0.1NA
(4) 4.7NA

12) Air contains nearly 20% oxygen by volume. The volume of air needed for complete combustion of
100 mL C2H2 will be :

(1) 500 mL
(2) 100 mL
(3) 250 mL
(4) 1250 mL

13) An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The emperical
formula of the oxide is :-

(1) M2O
(2) M2O3
(3) MO
(4) M3O4

14) 1 L of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as one litre of CO2 Under similar conditions. Then the
molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is -

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

15) If A ⇌ B (Kc = 3), B ⇌ C (Kc = 5), C ⇌ D (Kc = 2). The value of equilibrium constant for the above
reaction are given, the value of equilibrium constant for D ⇌ A will be :-

(1) 15
(2) 0.3
(3) 30
(4) 0.03

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following trait is not expresses in heterozygous condition :-

(a) Yellow seed colour.
(b) Green pod colour.
(c) Inflated pod shape.
(d) Terminal position of flower.
(e) Yellow pod colour.

(1) Only e
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) d and e

2) If both parents are affected by autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy
resulting in a normal child–

(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 100%
(4) 0%

3) Which of the following law is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending.

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) None of the above

4) If an organism with genotype Ww is crossed with Ww organism what would be the proportion of
offspring that would be Heterozygous ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All would be heterogygous

5)

Proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2-generation can be explained by:–

(1) Paired factors

(2) Dominance
(3) Elements
(4) Independent assortment

6) The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be
understood using :-

(1) Pie diagram

(2) A pyramid diagram
(3) Punnet square
(4) Venn diagram

7) Presence of single allele of character in diploid organism is known as :-

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Hybrid vigour
(4) Hemizygous

8) In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for albinism gene, what percentage of
the progeny will be diseased ?

(1) 50%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 100%

9)
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws
of Inheritance.
Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed
shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

10) Phenotypic ratio of a mendelian monohybrid cross is :-

(1) 1 : 4 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

11)

Mendel did not propose :-

(1) Dominance
(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Segregation
(4) Independent assortment

12)

Factor term was given by :-

(1) Mendel
(2) Watson
(3) Morgan
(4) Henking

13)

Which of the following postulate will not be explain by mendelian monohybrid cross ?

(1) Postulate of unit factor

(2) Postulate of dominance
(3) Postulate of segergation
(4) Postulate of independent assortment

14)
Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments?

(1) 1840 - 1850

(2) 1857 - 1869
(3) 1870 - 1877
(4) 1856 - 1863

15)

To prevent self pollination which technique was used by Mendel ?

(1) Emasculation
(2) Bagging
(3) Tagging
(4) Autoradiography

16) Dominant phenotype/trait is produced by :-

(1) Unmodified allele only

(2) Modified alleles only
(3) Both unmodified and equivalent modified alleles
(4) Every modified and unmodified allele.

17) Which of the following scientists rediscovered Mendel's work ?

(1) Correns, Bateson, Tschermak

(2) Correns, De vries, Tschermak
(3) De vries, Morgan, Tschermak
(4) Correns, Tschermak, Garrod

18) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding law of segregation ?

(1) Alleles separate from each other during gametogenesis.

(2) The segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
(3) Law of segregation is also called as law of purity of gametes
(4) All of the above

19) Blue eye colour in human is recessive to brown eye colour. The expected children of a marriage
between a blue eyed woman and a brown eyed man who had a blue eyed mother will be-

(1) All black eyed

(2) All blue eyed
(3) All brown eyed
(4) 50% probability of each blue eyed and brown eyed

20)
Alleles are :

(1) true breeding homozygotes

(2) different molecular forms of a gene
(3) heterozygotes
(4) different phenotype

21) About genotype Tt select out the incorrect statement :-

(1) Allelic gene pair

(2) Can be present on non homologous chromosome
(3) They share common locus
(4) They share same character

22) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) In which technique, fertilisation occurs inside the body of female ?

(1) Z.I.F.T
(2) I.U.T.
(3) I.C.S.I
(4) G.I.F.T
24) In ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer), the fertilisation occurs

(1) inside fallopian tube

(2) outside female body
(3) inside uterus
(4) None of the above

25) The contraceptive method with almost no side effect is :-

(1) Periodic abstinence

(2) Implants
(3) IUDs
(4) Pills

26) Which of the following option is incorrect ?

(1) Saheli – Weekly oral pill

(2) Condom – Barrier method
(3) CuT – IUD
(4) MTP – Assisted reproductive technology

27) Match the following and give the answer for correct match :–

More than 8 blastomere stage transfer into the

(A) ZIFT (i)
uterus.

(B) IUT (ii) Sperm is directly injected into the cytoplasm of ovum.

Zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres could be

(C) GIFT (iii)
transferred into the fallopian tube.

Transfer of an ovum collected from ovary into the

(D) ICSI (iv)
fallopian tube.
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(2) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii

28) Choose the incorrect match pair :-

(1) Multiload 375 Suppress sperm motility

(2) Progestasert Make uterus unsuitable for implantation.

(3) Lippes loop Make cervix hostile to the sperm

(4) CuT Suppress sperm motility

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) If male is impotent and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive technique is
used for treating infertility in particular couple :-

(1) G.I.F.T
(2) Z.I.F.T
(3) A.I
(4) I.U.T

30) Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?

(1) Lippes loop

(2) Cu-7
(3) LNG-20
(4) Multiload-375

31) Given below are four methods (A–D) and their modes of action (a–d) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four options that follow

Method Mode of Action

A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix

Decrease sperm
B. Condom (b)
fertilisation capacity

C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation

D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms

Matching :-
(1) A – (c), B – (d), C – (a), D – (b)
(2) A – (b), B – (c), C – (a), D – (d)
(3) A – (c), B – (a), C – (d), D – (b)
(4) A – (d), B – (a), C – (b), D – (c)

32) Surgical sterlization techniques are highly effective but the disadvantage is :-

(1) Ectopic pregnancy risk

(2) Increased risk of cancer
(3) Reversibility is very poor
(4) Irregular menstrual bleeding
33) Which of the following is correct w.r.t. diagram illustrated below?

(1) CuT - Prevent ovulation

(2) Progestasert - Prevent ovulation
(3) Implant - ART
(4) Multiload 375-Prevent fertilisation

34) Which one of the following is not the function of placenta ?

(1) Facilitates removal of CO2 and waste material from embryo

(2) Secrete oxytocin during parturition
(3) Secrete estrogen & progesterone
(4) Faciliates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

35) In the given diagram choose the correct options for labellings :-

(1) A → Placental villi, B → Cavity of uterus

B → Umbilical cord with its vessels,
(2)
C → Yolk sac
E → Cavity of uterus,
(3)
C → Plug of mucus in cervix
(4) D → Yolk sac, C → Plug of mucus in vagina

SECTION-B

1) Mendel selected _____ true breeding pea plant varieties, as pairs which were similar except for
_____ character with contrasting traits :-

(1) 1, 7
(2) 7, 1
(3) 14, 1
(4) 14, 2
2) Which statement is not correct :-
(i) Male individual is hemizygous for autosomal character
(ii) Seven Mendelian character's genes are located on chromosome number 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th
(iii) Unmodified allele produce normal enzyme
(iv) In pea plant Green pod colour is a dominant character

(1) iii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) i, ii
(4) i, ii, iv

3) Which one of the following statements is true with respect to quantitative characters ?

(1) Impact of environment is more on qualitative characters as compared to quantitative characters

(2) Impact of environment is more on quantitative characters as compared to qualitative characters
(3) Impact of environment is equal on qualitative and quantitative characters
In some cases impact of environment is more on qualitative characters, in others it is more on
(4)
quantitative characters

4) How is the arrangement of Mendel’s selected seven characters on four chromosomes :–

(1) One in ch. no. 1, 4 in ch. no. 4, one in ch. no. 5, and one in ch. no. 7
(2) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, one in ch. no. 5 and one in ch. no. 6
(3) 3 in ch. no. 1, 1 in ch. no. 4, 2 in ch. no. 5 and one in ch. no. 7
(4) 2 in ch. no. 1, 3 in ch. no. 4, 1 in ch. no. 5 and 1 in ch. no. 7

5) When a red flower homozygous pea plant is crossed with a white flower plant what colour is
produced in F1 :-

(1) Red
(2) White
(3) Pink
(4) Red + white

6) An organisms genetic constitution is called its :-

(1) Phenotype
(2) Phenocopy
(3) Holotype
(4) Genotype

7) Term genetics was given by :-

(1) Bateson
(2) Morgan
(3) Boveri
(4) Mendel

8)

Which of the following is true for progenies of F4 generation of mendelians monohybrid cross?

(1) 6.25% pure 93.75% impure

(2) 6.25% impure 93.75% pure
(3) 12.5% pure 87.5% hybrid
(4) 12.5% hybrid 87.5% pure

9)

Mendel's work remain unrecognised for long time due to :-

I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problem was unacceptable
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existance of factors.
Choose the right combinations

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and IV
(4) All of these

10) Which is not a natural method of contraception ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Lactational amenorrhoea

11) Weekly oral pills for females are :-

(1) Mala-D
(2) Mala-N
(3) Saheli
(4) Gossypol

12) Family planning programme in India launched in :-

(1) 1951
(2) 1961
(3) 1971
(4) 1981

13) Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by :-
(1) Fallopian tube
(2) Pituitary
(3) Ovary
(4) Placenta

14) Which of the following extra embryonic membrane prevents dessication of embryo?

(1) Amnion
(2) Chorion
(3) Allantois
(4) Yolk-sac

15) Which is/are the infectious disease/diseases?

(a) Cancer (b) Polio (c) Allergy
(d) Pneumonia (e) Tetanus

(1) c, d
(2) b, d, e
(3) a, c, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Find out which one of given below does not occur during natural menopause :-

(1) Progesterone level in blood decrease

(2) FSH & LH level in blood decrease
(3) Estrogen level in blood decrease
(4) Uterine changes are stopped

2) The layer which attaches with endometrium of uterus during the process of implantation is:-

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Inner cell mass
(4) Corona radiata

3) During Oogenesis in mammals Oocytes are arrested in which phase of cell division?

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase-I
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-I
4) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II, and III :-

I II III

A Progesterone a Corpus luteum i Maintain the endometrium

B Oestrogen b Placenta ii Help in parturition

C Relaxin c Theca interna iii Milk ejection reflex

Proliferation of
D Oxytocin d Post. pituitary iv
endometrium
(1) A-a-i B-d-ii C-b-iii D-c-iv
(2) A-a-i B-c-iv C-b-ii D-d-iii
(3) B-a-iv A-b-iii C-c-ii D-d-i
(4) B-c-iii C-b-ii A-d-iv D-a-i

5) Identical twins will be produced when :-

(1) Two eggs are fertilised

(2) One sperm fertilises two ova
(3) One fertilised egg divides into two blastomeres and they become separate
(4) One ovum is fertilised by two sperm

6) During pregnancy the level of thyroxine

(1) Increase several folds in fetal blood

(2) Increase several folds in maternal blood
(3) Decrease several folds in fetal blood
(4) Decrease several folds in maternal blood

7) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle. Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland
 Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Read the statements (a–d). How many statements are true for passive immunity ?
(a) Anti-tetanus serum administered after an injury
(b) An injection of anti-venom after snake bite
(c) A newborn vaccinated against hepatitis-B
(d) Lifetime immunity attained by suffering from chickenpox once

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

9) Identify 'B' from the figure.

(1) Lymphatic Nodes

(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Lymphatic vessels

10) Which of the following would be most benificial in treating an individual who has been bitten by
a poisonous snake ?

(1) Vaccination with weakned form of toxin

(2) Injection of preformed antibodies
(3) Injection of interleukin
(4) Injection of interferons

11) Choose the correct option from given below :-

Innate Immunity Acquired Immunity

(1) Skin, Mucous coating Antibody, Antibiotics

Acid in stomach,
(2) Antibody, Antivenom
Anti serum

Natural killer cell,

(3) Anti serum, Antibiotics
Interferon

Mucous coating, Anti venom, Anti

(4)
Natural killer cell serum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

Common
(A) (i) Diarrhoea
cold

Haemophilus
(B) Typhoid (ii)
influenzae

Stool, mucous,
(C) Pneumonia (iii)
blood clots

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

Salmonella
(E) Cholera (v)
typhi

Haemozoin
(F) Amoebiasis (vi)
granules
(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii

13)

Read the statements (a-e) and select the correct one regarding allergy :-
(a) Allergy is an exaggerated response of the immune system.
(b) Antibodies produced due to these allergens are IgM type.
(c) Allergy is due to release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin.
(d) Modern day life style has resulted in boosting immunity and more sensitivity to allergens.
(e) For determining the cause of allergy patient is exposed or injected with small doses of possible
allergens.
(1) a, c, e
(2) a, c, d, e
(3) a, b, c
(4) All are correct

14) Match the columns with regards to vector - Disease

Column-I Column-II

p. Culex i. Dengue

q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis

r. Aedes iii. Malaria

(1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii
(2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i
(3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii
(4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii

15) Mark the correct match

(1) Colostrum = Yellowish fluid, IgA present

(2) Antivenom = Natural Passive immunity
(3) Peyer's patches = PLO of small intestine
(4) IgM Antibody = Can cross placenta

16) Which of the following statement is correct :-

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is "absence of disease" or physical fitness" only
(d) Infectious disease like AIDS are fatal.

(1) a, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

17) Bean shaped large organ has the lymphocytes and phagocytes and is the reservoir for
erythrocytes. The organ is :-

(1) Thymus
(2) Spleen
(3) Liver
(4) Tonsil
18) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Only identical twins have identical haplotype
(4) Asthma is an allergic disease

19) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

20) Plasmodium enters the human body as ?

(1) Gametocyte
(2) Sporozoite
(3) Trophozoite
(4) Haemozoin

21) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. antibody molecule.

(1) It is usually pentameric

(2) Light and heavy chains are bound by disulphide links
(3) Both light and heavy chains form antigen binding domains
(4) The C-terminal of heavy chain is a constant region

22) It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about:

(1) Four hours

(2) 180 minutes
(3) An hour
(4) 10 hours

23) In which stage of cell division, chromosomal structure is best observed ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

24) If mitotically dividing vegetative cell of flowering plant at G1 stage has 20 chromosome with
20pg DNA then in anaphase cell will has :-
(1) 20 chromosomes/40pg DNA
(2) 40 chromosomes/40pg DNA
(3) 40 chromosomes/80pg DNA
(4) 10 chromosomes/40pg DNA

25) Synapsis is the pairing of :

(1) Analogous chromosomes

(2) Homologous chromosomes
(3) Non-Homologous chromosomes
(4) Male-female gametes

26) Chiasmata visible at :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

27) In Zygotene the number of bivalents are 20. What will be the number of chromosomes during
anaphase-II at each pole :-

(1) 40
(2) 80
(3) 10
(4) 20

28) In meiosis, sister chromatids separate during :-

(1) Metaphase-I
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-II
(4) Anaphase-II

29) Which of the following not occurs in Anaphase –I

(1) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(2) Shortening in spindle
(3) Poleward movement of chromosomes
(4) Division of centromere

30) Interphase :-

(1) includes karyokinesis and cytokinesis

sometime called resting phase is the preparatory phase for division in which cell undergoes
(2)
growth and DNA replication in an order
(3) is the shortest phase in which biomolecules are synthesized very fast
(4) includes 5% duration of the cell cycle

31) If a cell have 40 unit DNA, 20 chromosome in prophase I then what should be the amount of
DNA and chromosome in gamete respectively :-

(1) 20,20
(2) 10,20
(3) 20,10
(4) 10,10

32) Some events of mitotic cell division are given below in unordered manner :-
(i) Condensation of chromatin is completed
(ii) Chromosome lose their identity as discrete elements
(iii) Sister chromatid separate
(iv) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle.
The correct order for steps of cell division is :-

(1) i → iv → iii → ii
(2) iv → i → iii → ii
(3) ii → i → iv → iii
(4) iv → iii → i → ii

33) Which statement is not true ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms occurs by mitosis

(2) In meiosis nuclear division occurs twice but DNA replication only once
(3) In animals, meiosis occurs in diploid cell
(4) All four cells produced by meiosis are always genetically similar

34) Find out correct match with regards to given diagram:

(1) A = Kinetochore
(2) B = Aster
(3) C = Cell wall
(4) D = Centrosphere
35) What is correct about following figure of mitotic division ?

(1) Crossing over has been occured between homologous chromosome

(2) Centrioles divide and move to opposite poles
(3) Each chromosome consists of two chromatids
(4) Sister chromatid move to opposite pole

SECTION-B

1) ________ is the main Lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.

(1) Lymph node

(2) Thymus
(3) Bone marrow
(4) Spleen

2) Transplantation of tissue in between the individuals of same genetic constitution is ?

(1) Homograft
(2) Xenograft
(3) Isograft
(4) Autograft

3) Toxin in malaria which results chill and high fever in human is ?

(1) Sporozoites
(2) Trophozoites
(3) Haemozoin
(4) Plasmodium

4) Which WBCs are associated with allergic reactions:-

(1) Lymphocytes
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Monocytes

5) Who disproved the 'good humor hypothesis' very first time by using thermometer ?
(1) Hippocrates
(2) Charak
(3) William Harvey
(4) Edward Jenner

6) Which of the following is a viral disease :-

(1) Malaria
(2) Typhoid
(3) Hepatitis B
(4) Plague

7) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin
(4) Antibodies

8) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

9) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people in our society is :-

(1) An age related degeneration

(2) A genetic disorder
(3) An auto immune disorder
(4) A bacterial disease

10) All the following statements are correct for meiosis except that :-

Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing
(1)
organisms
Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear division but only a single cycle of DNA
(2)
replication
(3) Amount of DNA and number of chromosomes in cell during Anaphase-II are double of G1.
(4) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them

11)

Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

I - Terminalization of chiasmata
II - Crossing over
III - Synapsis

IV - Disjunction of homologous chromosomes

(1) IV, III, II, I
(2) III, II, I, IV
(3) II, I, IV, III
(4) I, IV, III, II

12) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

Column-I Column-II

Cytokinesis Constriction &

A
in animals furrow formation

B Astral mitosis In animals

Division Anaphase
C
of centromere and Anaphase-II

D Crossing over Pachytene

Transition
E Diakinesis
to metaphase I
(1) A, B, C, E
(2) A, D, E
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D, E

13) Following diagrams A and B showing the phases of a cell division :-

Choose the correct option from the following regarding identification of above diagrams :-

(1) A = Metaphase-I, B = Anaphase-I

(2) A = Metaphase-II, B = Anaphase-II
(3) A = Metaphase-I, B = Anaphase-II
(4) A = Metaphase-II, B = Anaphase-I

14) Which of the following is correct sequence of amount of DNA in different stages of meiosis if
amount of DNA in G1 phase is 64 pg ?

(1) Anaphase-I = 128 pg, Metaphase-I = 128 pg, Metaphase-II = 64 pg

(2) G2 = 128 pg, Diakinesis = 256 pg, Metaphase-I = 128 pg
(3) Pachytene = 256 pg, Metaphase-I = 256 pg, Diplotene = 256 pg
(4) S = 128 pg, Diakinesis = 256 pg, Metaphase-I = 128 pg
15)
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given mitotic stages shown in above
figures ?

(1) C→B→D→A
(2) C→B→A→D
(3) D→C→B→A
(4) B→A→C→D
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 3 4 1 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 4 4 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 4 1 3 4 1 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 4 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 1 4 4 1 3 2 4 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 4 1 4 1 4 4 3 3 1 4 1 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Since both resistance of 4Ω then current in other 4Ω would be 2A.

5)

2I + 2I1– 6 = 0
I + I1 = 3 ...(1)
(I – I1) 1 + 6 – 2I1 = 0
I – 3I1 = –6 ...(2)
from (1) & (2)

∴ I1 =
VA – VB = IR

= ×2

= = 4.5

7)

Charge on capacitor when isolated

Q = KCV = 5 × 2 × 10-6 × 102 = 10-3 C
When slab is removed. Q = constant.

V= = 500 V

10) Req = R1 + R2

12)

V = i (R + S)
20 = (0.01) (20 + S)
S = 1980 Ω

13)

i26 = 6 ⇒ i= 1A

; 4R = 24 + 3R ⇒ R = 24 Ω

14)
E = 0 for r < a
E = 0 for r > b
potential of outer
sphere = 0
potential of inner sphere is V1

V = V1 – V2 = V1 – 0

15)
 Q=0

18) = 2m/s2
T2 = (m1 + m2)a = (10 + 6)a = 32 N

19)
mg sin30° – T = ma .......(1)

2mg – T = 2 ma ......(2)
solving (1) and (2)

20)

T1cosθ = T2cosθ
T1 = T2 ......(1)
and T1sinθ + T2sinθ = Mg ......(2)
2T1sinθ = Mg

T1 =
 21)

23)

= 4m/s2

27)

T= g

T= g

T= g= N

28)

FL = 0.2 × 3g = 6N
FL = 4N
So, F = 0

34)

a = g sin 30°

a = 10 ×
36) Rxy = = 2Ω

38) Apply KCL

i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

=0
⇒ 30 – 3V + 4 – 2V + 30 – 6V = 0

11V = 64 ⇒ V = volt

39)
= 60V

44)
N = 5g + F sinθ
fe = μN = μ(5g + F sin30°)
F cos30° ≥ fe
F cos30° ≥ μ(5g + F sin30°)
F(cos30° – μsin30°) ≥ 5μg
 ⇒ Fmin =

Fmin =

45)

Liming friction

= 21.65N
TOM = 20 N upwards
Since FL > TOM
∴ fof = 20 N downwards

46) Let θ be the angle made by the rope with the vertical in equilibrium

The free body diagram of 5 kg block is as shown in fig.(b)

In equilibrium
T2 = 5g = 5 × 10 = 50 N
The free body diagram of the point P is as shown in fig.(c)

In equilibrium
T1 sin θ = 50 N ……(i)
 T1 cos θ = T2 = 50 N ……(ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get

tan θ = =1
θ = tan–1 (1) = 45°

48)
V1cosθ1 = V2cosθ2

CHEMISTRY

51)

56)

58) Both have 'R' configuration so they are identical.

60)
Sequence Rule or CIP Rule
 70)

B is L.R.
3 mole of B gives 4 mole of C
So 6 mole of B gives 8 mole of C

72)
W = mole × MW

=7g

73)

Eq. wt. of Ca =

74) 54mL H2O = 54 g H2O

Moles of H2O = = 3 mole

∴ Number of neutrons = 8 × 3 × NA = 24 NA

77)
No of glam equivalents of acid = No of gram equivalents of base

78) nrem = ninitial – nremoved

=
nrem = 0.5 × 10–3

79) CxHy(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)

(Hydrocarbon) ↓ ↓
10 mL 40 mL 50 mL
or 1 vol. 4 vol. 5 vol.
CxHy + 13O2 → 4CO2 + 5H2O
Comparing both sides
x=4
y = 10

80) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

100 g 22.4 L
10 g 2.24 L
1g 0.224 L
[∵ CaCO3 is 90% pure so 10 gms of CaCO3 contains 9 g pure CaCO3]
∴ vol. of CO2 evolved from (10 – 1 = 9 g) CaCO3 = (2.24 – 0.224) L = 2.016 L

81) 1 mol Mg3(PO4)2 contains Þ 8 moles of oxygen atoms

∵ 8 mol of oxygen atoms are present in 1 mol of Mg3(PO4)2

∴ 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms are present in

83)

KC =

= = 0.033

84) Equilibrium constant depends only on temperature.

90)

Z = F, –OH , –OCH3
(H–bonding)

99) wt. of 1 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 1 L of CO2

∴ wt of 22.4 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 22.4 L of CO2
 (mol. wt of CO2) = 44 g
Ans → C3H8 have mol. wt = 44

BIOLOGY-I

119) Module

120)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 56

121)

NCERT Pg. # 56

122)

NCERT XII Pg. # 60 (E) 67 (H) Fig. 4.2

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 64(E), 71(H)

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 48

125)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 59

126)

NCERT XII Pg. # 60, 61, 62

127)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 64

128)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60, Para-4

130)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 44

131)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60, 61

133)
NCERT Page-60

134)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 54(E), 59(H)

135) NCERT XII (Eng), Fig.-3.12, Pg. # 53

145)

NCERT Pg. # 60

147)

NCERT Pg.# 57

150)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 130, 131

BIOLOGY-II

155)

Module–1

156) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37, para–2.5(E),

Pg. # 40, para–2.5(H)

157) NCERT Pg. No. 132

159)

NCERT Pg No. # 154 (Fig. 8.5)

169) NCERT Pg. # 136

170) NCERT, Pg. # 147

171) NCERT Pg. No. 146

172)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163

177)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, para - 1,2,3

 182)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164-165, para-2

185) NCERT Pg # 123-124

187) NCERT Pg. No. 152

190)

NCERT XII Pg. # 145

192) NCERT Pg. No. 150

194)

NCERT XII Pg. # 137

195)

NCERT Page # 170

196)

NCERT-XIth, Pg#168(E), Pg#168(H)

198)

NCERT Pg. # 170

200)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 165, 166, fig. 10.2 (a,b,c,d)