CLASS 10

SAMPLE QUESTION
PAPERS
 ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE - Code No. 184
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS-X- (2025-26)

Time allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
Read the instructions carefully and follow them:

1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper contains THREE sections –
Section – A: Reading Skills
Section – B: Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section – C: Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each Part.

SECTION A
READING SKILLS (20 marks)

1. Read the following passage. 10

1 The growing preference for indigenous craft items is a welcome trend in today’s globalised
world, where mass-produced goods often dominate markets. These handcrafted
products, rooted in the cultural and artistic traditions of their regions, offer more than just
aesthetic appeal. They symbolise sustainability, support local economies, and preserve
the heritage of diverse communities.

2 One of the primary reasons for choosing indigenous crafts is their eco-friendliness. Unlike
factory-made products, most traditional crafts are created using natural, locally sourced
materials. Artisans often employ time-tested methods that minimise waste and avoid
harmful industrial processes. For example, pottery made from local clay, handwoven
textiles using organic dyes, and bamboo-based crafts all have a much lower
environmental footprint compared to their machine-made counterparts. By opting for these
items, consumers indirectly contribute to reducing pollution and promoting sustainable
practices.

3 Supporting indigenous crafts also strengthens local economies. Many artisans depend
solely on their craft for livelihood, often working in small communities where opportunities
for other forms of employment are limited. When people purchase their products, it
provides a direct income to these artisans, empowering them and encouraging their
craftsmanship. Initiatives like fair trade further ensure that artisans receive fair wages,
fostering economic stability within their communities.

4 Moreover, indigenous craft items help preserve cultural heritage. Every handcrafted
product carries a story—a glimpse into the traditions, beliefs, and skills passed down
through generations. In India, whether it’s paintings, terracotta jewellery, sculptures,
athangudi tiles, mud work frames or many others, each item reflects the unique identity of

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 its region. By choosing these crafts, people not only appreciate the artistry but also help
keep these traditions alive in an era where cultural homogenisation threatens diversity.

5 In addition to their economic and cultural value, indigenous crafts add a personal touch to
homes and wardrobes. Unlike mass-produced items, which often lack individuality,
handcrafted products are unique. Each piece bears the imprint of the artisan’s effort,
creativity, and dedication, making it special for the buyer.

6 However, the preference for indigenous crafts requires sustained efforts to thrive.
Governments, organisations, and consumers all have roles to play. Policies that promote
local craftsmanship, provide training to artisans, and create global platforms for
showcasing their work can boost the visibility and demand for these products. Consumers,
too, must actively seek out and invest in handmade crafts rather than opting for cheaper,
factory-made alternatives. Choosing indigenous craft items is a meaningful step toward a
more sustainable and culturally enriched world.
Created for academic usage / 403 words
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

I Why is the growing preference for indigenous craft items described as a ‘welcome 1
trend’ in paragraph 1?

II According to paragraph 1, the indigenous craft items have all of the following 1
qualities EXCEPT being:

A. handcrafted products
B. rooted in artistic traditions
C. aesthetic in appeal
D. easily accessible

III Complete the following by selecting the correct option from those given in the 1
brackets.
The usage of locally sourced materials makes the indigenous crafts ________
(traditional / eco-friendly). (Paragraph 2)

IV Select the option that is True from (a)-(c) given for what the phrase, ‘time-tested 1
methods’ suggests in paragraph 2.

A. Artisans use traditional techniques that have been refined and proven effective
over generations
B. Artisans use outdated practices that are no longer relevant in today's
commercial markets.
C. Artisans follow techniques that prioritise speed and mass production over
craftsmanship.

V Complete the analogy by selecting one of the two correct options (a), (b) 1
fair trade: fair wages:: _______ : _______ (Paragraph 3)

(a) employment: job security (b) mass production : reduced prices

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 VI Why is supporting indigenous crafts considered an effective way to improve the 2
economic conditions of small communities? (Paragraph 3)
VII What are the main ideas of paragraph 4 and paragraph 5?
1
i) Choosing indigenous crafts helps preserve cultural heritage
ii) Handcrafted products lack individuality.
iii) Indigenous crafts reflect the artisan’s creativity.
iv) Indigenous crafts promote uniformity by erasing regional differences in artistic
traditions.
v) Cultural homogenisation encourages people to choose indigenous crafts over
mass-produced goods.
Select the correct option.

Options Main idea of paragraph 4 Main idea of paragraph 5

A. ii iv
B. v ii
C. i iii
D. iv ii

VIII Why is it important for consumers to take an active role alongside government 2
and organisations in sustaining indigenous crafts? (Paragraph 6)

2. Read the following passage. 10

1 A recent study conducted across two age groups—students aged 10–12 and 13–16—
explored their preferences for ballpoint and micro-tip pens for various writing activities
such as note-taking, examinations, and personal writing. The study aimed to understand
trends in writing habits and the factors influencing pen selection among students.
2 The results revealed distinct patterns based on age groups and writing purposes. Among
students aged 10–12, 65% preferred ballpoint pens for note-taking, citing ease of use and
affordability as key factors. However, 35% opted for micro-tip pens, valuing their precision
and smooth writing. For examinations, ballpoint pens were the overwhelming choice, with
78% favouring them for their speed and reliability, while 22% stuck with micro-tip pens,
appreciating their fine control.

3 In the 13–16 age group, preferences shifted slightly. For note-taking, 60% favoured micro-
tip pens, highlighting their ability to produce neat, legible notes, while 40% continued to
use ballpoint pens. During examinations, however, 70% still relied on ballpoint pens,
indicating their consistency under time constraints. When it came to personal writing, such
as journalling or creative tasks, 58% in this group chose micro-tip pens, appreciating the
aesthetic appeal of finer lines, while 42% stuck with ballpoint pens for their convenience.
4 These findings point to the importance of understanding age-specific preferences and
task requirements, enabling manufacturers to innovate products. Manufacturers could
further explore incorporating hybrid features, such as pens offering the speed of ballpoint
pens with the precision of micro-tip pens, to cater to a wider range of student preferences.
Created for academic usage / 250 words

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 Answer the following questions, based on the passage above

I Why did the study most likely focus on the two specific age groups of 10–12 and 1
13–16? (Paragraph 1)
This is so because these age groups ____.
A. represent the largest population of growing students.
B. are when students develop and refine their writing habits.
C. were the easiest to survey across various schools.
D. have a natural preference for ballpoint pens.

II Identify the phrase in paragraph 1 that conveys the writer's reference to the 1
patterns or preferences observed in how students use pens for various writing
tasks.

III Complete the following by selecting the correct option from those given in the 1
brackets. (Paragraph 2)
Geetha, aged 11, wishes to complete her practical file neatly, ensuring her work is
legible and appealing. She is most likely to choose a micro-tip pen for this task
because the ________ (speed / precision) offered by this type of pen helps
produce tidy work.

IV What does the writer mean by ‘affordability’ while citing the high percentage of ball 1
point pen usage? (Paragraph 2)

V Complete the following with the correct option.

1
When the writer says ‘distinct patterns’ in the line ‘The results revealed distinct
patterns based on age groups and writing purposes,’ of paragraph 3, s/he means
that _______.
A. students in both age groups use pens in the same way for all the listed purposes.
B. the preferences for pens varied according to the students' age and the type of
writing task.
C. only micro-tip pens were popular across all writing tasks in the 13-16 age group.
D. students of all age groups preferred ballpoint pens for completing creative
writing tasks.

VI Complete the following appropriately.

The one likely reason why more than 40% of students still chose ballpoint pens for 1
creative tasks, even though micro-tip pens are better suited for such activities is
_____________________. (Paragraph 3)

VII How are ‘aesthetic appeal’ and ‘finer lines’ connected? (Paragraph 3) 1

VIII Elaborate how hybrid features in pens would lead to a commercially viable product.
(Paragraph 4) 2

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 IX Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. (Paragraph 4) 1
Understanding age-specific preferences helps manufacturers design products that
cater to the unique needs of different age groups, ensuring their products are both
________ as well as appealing.

SECTION B: WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR (20 marks)

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete any ten of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

I Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket for the given 1
portion of a market research:
The special subscriptions of newspapers are well _____(illustrate), to make
reading interesting for school students.
II Identify the error and write the correction in the given sentence from a life skills’ 1
book.
The road to success is not the bed of roses.
Use the given format.
Error Correction

III Fill in the blank with the correct form of verb given in the brackets. 1
I’m so happy to see my plants again! They _____ (grow) so much since I last saw
them.
IV Read the given statement. 1
They said to the guide, “We’d love to come here again next year.”

Report it correctly by completing the following.

They told the guide that _____.

V Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the conclusion of a 1
letter of placing order.
There would be no compromise _________the quality of items supplied.
A. regards
B. regard
C. regardless
D. regarding
VI Report the following by completing the sentence correctly. 1
"Don't try mending the trousers yourself," she warned him.
She warned him _____.

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the
current session i.e. 2025-26
 VII Complete the given opinion by filling the blank with correct option. 1
The experience of watching the movie left me _____ grateful for knowing the
importance of being empathetic to others.
A. having felt
B. feeling
C. felt
D. feels
VIII The given question has an error. Select the option that correctly identifies the error 1
and the correction.
Which kind of person does something like that?

No. Error Correction

A. Which What
B. kind kinds
C. something somethings
D. that this
1
IX Report the following question.
She said to her sister, “Are you joining us for lunch today?”

X Fill in the blank with the correct option from those given in the brackets. 1
Everyone is saying that Farhana’s chances are bright in the upcoming tournament
and she ______ (must / may) become the youngest football player ever.
XI Fill in the blank to complete the sentence in a teacher’s diary by choosing the 1
correct option.
_____ student in the class submitted their assignment on time.

A. All
B. One
C. Every
D. A

XII Choose the correct option to fill the blank. 1

I looked inside the bucket and saw there was ______water in it, so they had to
add more to use.
A. little
B. any
C. few
D. least

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 WRITING
NOTE: All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.
4A As Vaibhav, the Club in-charge of your school’s Ecology Club, you strongly believe 5
in the importance of starting Eco-Clubs in schools in the rural areas surrounding
your city to promote the preservation and conservation of nature. Write a letter to
the Education Secretary of your city, in about 120 words, highlighting the
significance of ecological awareness and suggesting the need to establish Eco-
Clubs in these schools.
OR

4B As Amitha, the Vice Head Girl of Vidya Mandir, you are aware of the increasing 5
prevalence of cyber-attacks and unauthorised exploitation of systems, networks,
and technologies affecting individuals across all demographics. Write a letter to the
editor of a national daily in about 120 words, stressing the urgent need to promote
digital security among all age groups. Highlight the challenges posed by cyber
threats and propose practical solutions to address this growing issue.
5A You are the President of the Debate Society in your school. Two guest speakers 5
--Mr. Rajan Sharma and Ms. Meera Kapoor, have written to express their interest
in participating in your upcoming debate competition. Below are excerpts from
their letters.
Excerpt 1
...I am thrilled to express my interest in participating as a guest speaker at your
school's debate competition. With over 10 years of experience as a public
speaker and debate coach, I have guided numerous students to success in
national-level competitions. My approach focuses on encouraging critical thinking
and fostering a passion for debating. I have previously spoken at various schools
and universities, often receiving positive feedback for my engaging sessions and
practical insights. I believe my experience and knowledge can inspire and
empower your students to excel in debating.
Best regards
Mr. Rajan Sharma

Excerpt 2:
...It would be a privilege to participate as a guest speaker at your school's
upcoming debate competition. I have participated in international debate
forums and have won accolades for my arguments on global and social issues.
My strength lies in connecting with young audiences and making debates
relevant to real-world scenarios. I also emphasise how debating can improve
public speaking, confidence, and interpersonal skills. I look forward to sharing
my journey and experiences with your students to inspire them to use debating
as a tool for personal growth.
Yours sincerely
Ms. Meera Kapoor
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 Analyse the information in a paragraph, justifying which guest speaker would be
a better choice. Consider factors such as experience, relevance to the topic, and
audience engagement.

OR

5B Jaspreet, class X, is known for her creativity, excellent communication skills, and 5
ability to think outside the box. However, she sometimes struggles with time
management and prefers collaborative efforts over working solo. She has been
assigned an art-integrated project presentation and must choose a partner from
Sunaina, Tabassum, and Alice. Below are the profiles of the three candidates.

Sunaina: Sunaina is highly disciplined and excels in meeting deadlines. She is

known for her strong organisational skills and ability to handle multiple tasks
efficiently. However, she is slightly reserved and prefers working in structured,
predictable environments.

Tabassum: Tabassum is enthusiastic and spontaneous, with a talent for

generating unique ideas. She is an excellent artist and thrives in creative settings.
However, she occasionally struggles to stay focused on tasks and complete them
on time.

Alice: Alice is confident and articulate, with a flair for delivering polished
presentations. She is detail-oriented and ensures that the final product is of high
quality. However, she sometimes prefers to take control and may overlook
collaborative efforts.

Based on the features of each candidate, analyse and decide who would be the
best partner for Jaspreet. Consider aspects such as complementary strengths,
teamwork, and the project's requirements.

SECTION D
LITERATURE TEXTBOOK (40 marks)

6 Read the given extracts A and B and answer ANY ONE of the two. 5

A. He just felt a bit dizzy Then he flapped his wings once and he soared upwards. “Ga, ga,
ga, Ga, ga, ga, Gaw-col-ah,” his mother swooped past him, her wings making a loud noise.
He answered her with another scream. Then his father flew over him screaming. He saw
his two brothers and his sister flying around him curvetting and banking and soaring and
diving. Then he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly, and commended
himself to dive and soar and curve, shrieking shrilly.
(Two Stories About Flying - First Flight)

I Contradict the view that the young seagull celebrated his maiden flight alone. 2

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 II Which of the following statements best explains the young seagull’s 1
experience as he starts flying?
a) The young seagull immediately mastered flying and was no longer afraid.
b) The young seagull gradually gained confidence and joined his family in
the air.
III What can be inferred about the young seagull’s emotional state after flying with 1
his family?

IV Read the following sound and movement words. 1

i) flapped
ii) shrieking
iii) swooped
iv) soared
v) screaming
Select the option that correctly categorises (i) –(v) into sound and movement
words.
No. Sound Movement
A i, ii, v iii, iv
B iv, v i, ii, iii
C ii, v i, iii, iv
D v i, ii, iii, iv

OR

B. Historian: ...You haven’t heard about the Martian invasion of 2040? Tsk, tsk. What do
they teach children nowadays? Well, you know, the invasion never really happened,
because a single book stopped it. What was the book, you ask? A noble encyclopaedia?
A tome about rockets and missiles? A secret file from outer space? No, it was none of
those. It was — but here, let me turn on the historiscope and show you what happened
many centuries ago, in 2040. (She turns on projector, and points it left. Spotlight on
Historian goes out...)
(The Book That saved the Earth)
I What does the pause indicated by the dash in the line ‘It was — but here, let 1
me turn on the historiscope and show you’ convey?
i) a sense of impatience and frustration
ii) a point of suspense and anticipation
iii) a moment of confusion and hesitation
iv) a sudden shift to lightheartedness
v) a reflective moment of deep thought

A. i, ii, v
B. Only ii
C. iii and iv
D. Only v

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 II How do the stage directions, such as ‘Historian turns on projector’ and 2
‘Spotlight on Historian goes out,’ contribute to the atmosphere and
understanding of the scene in this part of the play?

III Select the option that correctly completes the following. 1

The Historian dismisses the noble encyclopaedia and rockets because she
wants to _____
a) convey the importance of scientific knowledge and military power in stopping
the invasion.
b) stress the surprising and unexpected nature of the book that stopped the
invasion.
IV What emotion is the Historian most likely conveying with the phrase ‘Tsk, tsk’? 1

7 Read the given extracts A and B and answer ANY ONE of the two. 5

A. He is learning, well behind his desperate eyes,

The epistemology of loss, how to stand up
Knowing what every man must one day know
And most know many days, how to stand up.
(The Ball Poem)
I What emotions are most appropriately conveyed by the phrase ‘desperate 1
eyes’ and ‘epistemology of loss’?

i) despair
ii) anger
iii) frustration
iv) confusion
v) helplessness

Select the correct option.

A. i, iii
B. i, iv, v
C. ii, iii, iv
D. iv, v

II What does the phrase ‘how to stand up’ suggest about the boy’s emotional 2
growth?

III Which phrase from the extract conveys the poet's idea that loss is universal? 1

IV Fill in the blank with a phrase to suitably complete the sentence. 1

The loss of his ball symbolises _______ in life.
OR

B. Or if some time when roaming round,

A noble wild beast greets you,
With black stripes on a yellow ground,
Just notice if he eats you.
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current session i.e. 2025-26
 This simple rule may help you learn
The Bengal Tiger to discern.
(How to tell Wild Animals)
I What does the poet imply by referring to the Bengal Tiger as a ‘noble wild 1
beast’?
A. The tiger is majestic and dignified despite its ferocity.
B. The tiger is kind and considerate toward humans.
C. The tiger has a royal lineage and should be revered.
D. The tiger is a symbol of fear and destruction.

II Complete the following suitably. 1

The word ‘ground’ in the line ‘With black stripes on a yellow ground’ refers to
_____.

III How does the poet use humour in the description of the Bengal Tiger? 2
IV Identify the phrase in the poem that is advisory in nature. 1
8 Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 50 words 4x3=12
each.

I Otters are known for their peculiar behavioural traits. Support this statement 3
with reference to any two traits mentioned in ‘Mijbil the Otter.’

II How does the use of repetition in the poem ‘Amanda!’ highlight the speaker's 3
expectations and Amanda's responses?

III How can Nelson Mandela’s vision of ‘liberating both the oppressed and the 3
oppressor’ be applied in modern-day societies to address issues of inequality
and discrimination? (Nelson Mandela – Long Walk to Freedom)

IV How does the line ‘and then moves on’ reflect the transient nature of the fog 3
thereby contributing to the poem's deeper message about life's
impermanence? (Fog)

V How does Chubukov’s reaction to Lomov’s marriage proposal reflect his 3

priorities and values? (The Proposal)

9 Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2x3=6

I How does ‘The Necklace’ illustrate the significance of honesty as the 3

key element for leading a happy and stress-free life?

II Briefly evaluate the validity of the adage ‘Values are caught, not taught’, in the 3
context of the relationship between Anil and Hari Singh in ‘The Thief’s Story’.
III Griffin’s experiences moments of comfort and normalcy while being invisible. 3
How do these fleeting moments impact his sense of identity and his actions

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 throughout 'Footprints Without Feet'?

10 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words 1x6

A. How does literature like ‘The Baker from Goa,’ ‘Coorg,’ and ‘Tea from Assam’ 6
contribute to promoting tourism and raising awareness about regional cultures
and traditions?

OR
B. The poems, ‘The Trees’ and ‘A Tiger in the Zoo’ resonate the theme of 6
importance of freedom and the desire to break free from any kind of
dominance. Examine.

11 Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 1x6

A. How does the author use the narrative technique of misdirection in 'The 6
Midnight Visitor', to enhance the suspense and the story’s unexpected ending?

OR

B. Comment critically on the role of the Surgery in the ‘The Triumph of Surgery’. 6

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current session i.e. 2025-26
 English Language and Literature -Code No. 184
MARKING SCHEME
CLASS-X- (2025-26)

General Instructions: -
1. The Marking Scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers / sample answers.
The value points are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete
answer. The students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, then due
marks should be awarded accordingly.
2. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks
should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
3. If more than one option is mentioned in the answer of multiple choice questions, then no marks
to be awarded.

A: READING (20 marks)

Discursive Passage

1. Answer the following questions, based on the passage above. 10

I because it counters the dominance of mass-produced goods, supports 1

sustainability, and helps preserve cultural and artistic traditions.

II D. easily accessible 1

III eco-friendly 1

IV (a) Artisans use traditional techniques that have been refined and proven effective 1
over generations

V (a) employment : job security 1

[(a) is correct. Just as fair trade ensures fair wages, employment aims to provide
job security and both relationships focus on fairness and stability. Mass production
often prioritises efficiency and cost reduction, sometimes at the expense of
fairness, environmental responsibility, or the well-being of workers. Thus, (b) does
not match the context of the analogy.]

VI Supporting indigenous crafts improves the economic conditions of small 2

communities by providing artisans with a stable source of income. This empowers
them to sustain their livelihoods and encourages the continuation of their
craftsmanship. Additionally, it reduces economic challenges in areas where other
employment opportunities are limited, creating a positive cycle of growth within
these communities.

1
VII C. i -iii [Paragraph 4 emphasises the preservation of cultural heritage (i), while 1
paragraph 5 highlights the uniqueness and creativity reflected in indigenous crafts
(iii).]

VIII While governments and organisations can create supportive policies and 2
platforms, consumers play a crucial role in driving demand for indigenous crafts.
Without consumer interest and investment, these efforts may fail to translate into
tangible benefits for artisans. Consumers' choices directly impact the visibility and
survival of handmade crafts, making their active participation essential for creating
a sustainable market and preserving cultural heritage.

Case-based Passage

2. Answer the following questions, based on the passage above 10

I B. are when students develop and refine their writing habits. 1

[ Option B is the most likely because the study aims to explore writing
preferences, which are likely to evolve during these developmental stages.]

II ‘trends in writing habits’ 1

III precision 1

IV By ‘affordability,’ the writer refers to the lower cost of ballpoint pens compared to 1
micro-tip pens, making them accessible and budget-friendly for students.

V B. The preferences for pens varied according to the students' age and the type of 1
writing task.

VI Ballpoints do not dry out quickly unlike micro-tips / Ballpoints work on a variety of 1
surfaces unlike microtips / Ballpoints are less likely to smudge unlike microtips/
Ballpoints pens are usually more affordable

VII The ‘aesthetic appeal’ is closely connected to ‘finer lines’ because finer lines create 1
neat, elegant, and visually pleasing writing.

VIII Hybrid features in pens, such as combining the speed and reliability of ballpoint 2
pens with the precision and aesthetic appeal of micro-tip pens, would likely result in
a commercially viable product as such pens would cater to a broader demographic,
meeting the needs of students across different age groups and writing tasks. This
would capitalise on the growing demand for versatile and functional writing tools.
Which would enhance its commercial success.

IX functional / useful 1

2
 SECTION B: WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR (20 marks)

GRAMMAR (10 marks)

3. Complete any ten of twelve of the following tasks, as directed. 10x1=10

I illustrated 1

II Error – the ; Correction - a 1

III have grown 1

IV ...they would love to go there again the following year 1

V D. regarding 1

VI ...not to try mending the trousers himself 1

VII B. feeling 1

VIII A. Error -Which ; Correction - What 1

IX She asked her sister if she was joining them for lunch that day. 1

X may 1

XI C. Every 1

XII A. little 1

WRITING SKILLS (10 marks)

4 Format-1 Content-2 Organisation of ideas-1 Accuracy-1 1X5=5

A. (The response may be created from the following content points)

 Significance of Ecological Awareness:

 the role of ecological awareness in protecting natural resources.
 how it can foster responsible environmental behaviour in students from an early age.
 the need for collective action to address pressing environmental issues such as
deforestation, pollution, and loss of biodiversity.

 Proposal to Start Eco-Clubs in Rural Schools:

 establishing Eco-Clubs in rural schools to engage students in practical environmental
activities.

3
  how these clubs can organise tree plantations, cleanliness drives, and awareness
campaigns.
 the educational benefits of Eco-Clubs in building future environmentally conscious citizens.

 Support and Resources Needed:

 Request support from the Education Department in the form of resources, funding, and
guidance to set up and run the Eco-Clubs.
 Propose collaborations with NGOs or environmental organizations to support these
initiatives.

OR
B. (The response may be created from the following content points)

 Challenges Posed by Cyber Threats:

 the risks of identity theft, financial fraud, and data breaches.
 the vulnerability of children, the elderly, and untrained individuals to phishing scams,
malware, and online predators.
 how ignorance about digital security increases the impact of these threats.

 Urgent Need for Digital Security Awareness:

 the importance of educating people about safe online practices and promoting digital
hygiene.
 the role of schools, workplaces, and community organisations in spreading awareness.

 Proposed Practical Solutions:

 digital literacy programmes for all age groups.
 organising workshops, webinars, and public awareness campaigns on topics like strong
password creation, recognising scams, and safe browsing habits.
 the implementation of stricter cybersecurity policies by authorities.

 Call to Action:
 use of the platform of the national daily to raise awareness about digital security.
 the need for collaborative efforts between individuals, organisations, and the government
to tackle this issue effectively.

5 Content - 2 Organisation of ideas - 2 Accuracy - 1 1X5=5

Note:
 No title
 Analytical writing doesn't require a ‘correct’ answer. All perspectives are valid as long as the
reasoning is strong and evidence is used effectively.
 The writer must address the strengths of their chosen candidate and contrast them with the
other candidate/s’ qualities to highlight why their choice is better, in order for it to be
considered an analysis.
 A recommended approach would be to know the specific needs of the event/audience and
match them with the strengths of the candidate/s, ensuring a logical / audience-focused
approach.

4
A Option 1:
Based on the letters from Mr. Rajan Sharma and Ms. Meera Kapoor, Ms. Kapoor emerges as
the better choice for the guest speaker at the school's debate competition. While both
candidates are experienced and skilled, Ms. Kapoor’s international accolades and ability to
connect debating with real-world scenarios give her a distinct edge. Her focus on making
debates relevant to global and social issues aligns well with the interests of high school
students, offering them a broader perspective. Although Mr. Sharma has significant
experience as a coach and speaker, his approach appears more focused on techniques rather
than engaging students with relevant and inspiring real-world examples. Moreover, Ms.
Kapoor’s emphasis on personal growth through debating resonates with the developmental
needs of students. Her global exposure and relatability make her the ideal speaker to inspire
and connect with the audience effectively.

Option 2:
Based on the letters from Mr. Rajan Sharma and Ms. Meera Kapoor, Mr. Rajan emerges as
the better choice for the guest speaker at the school's debate competition. With over 10 years
of experience as a debate coach and public speaker, Mr. Sharma brings unmatched expertise
in nurturing critical thinking and fostering a passion for debating among students. His track
record of guiding students to success in national-level competitions demonstrates his ability to
deliver practical insights and techniques that directly contribute to debate performance. While
Ms. Kapoor’s global exposure and focus on real-world relevance are commendable, Mr.
Sharma’s hands-on experience in coaching students and making them competition-ready
seems more aligned with the goals of the Debate Society. Additionally, his experience with
school and university-level events ensures that he understands the aspects of connecting with
high school audiences.

OR
B Option 1:
Sunaina emerges as the most appropriate partner for Jaspreet in the art-integrated project
presentation as her qualities balance those of Jaspreet’s. Jaspreet’s creativity and
communication skills make her an excellent presenter and idea generator, but her struggles
with time management require a partner who can complement her weaknesses. Sunaina’s
strong organisational skills and discipline ensure that tasks are completed on time and
deadlines are met, which is crucial for the success of the project. Although Sunaina is slightly
reserved, her preference for structure and predictability aligns well with Jaspreet’s
collaborative working style, as Jaspreet can take the lead in brainstorming and presenting
ideas while Sunaina ensures everything stays on track. While Tabassum is highly creative and
spontaneous, her difficulty in staying focused may amplify Jaspreet’s challenges with time
management, making her less suitable. Alice, on the other hand, excels in polished
presentations, but her tendency to dominate and prioritise control may conflict with Jaspreet’s
collaborative preferences.

Option 2:
Tabassum would be the best partner for Jaspreet in the art-integrated project presentation as
her qualities balance those of Jaspreet’s. Jaspreet thrives on creativity and collaboration, and

5
 Tabassum’s enthusiastic and spontaneous personality would complement Jaspreet’s
innovative thinking. As an excellent artist, Tabassum brings a unique skill set to the project,
particularly in the visual and design aspects, which are crucial for an art-integrated
presentation. Together, their combined creativity would result in an engaging and visually
appealing final product. Although Tabassum occasionally struggles with focus and timely
completion of tasks, this can be mitigated by Jaspreet’s strong communication skills and
preference for teamwork, allowing them to motivate and support each other effectively. In
contrast, Sunaina’s overly structured and predictable working style may stifle Jaspreet’s free-
flowing creativity. Similarly, Alice’s tendency to take control might conflict with Jaspreet’s
collaborative approach.

Option 3:
Alice would be the most suitable partner for Jaspreet in the art-integrated project presentation
as her qualities balance those of Jaspreet’s. While Jaspreet excels in creativity and
collaboration, her struggles with time management can be addressed by Alice’s confidence,
detail-oriented approach, and ability to deliver polished presentations. Alice’s strength in
ensuring a high-quality final product complements Jaspreet’s talent for generating unique
ideas, creating a balance between creative input and execution. Her confidence in public
speaking would enhance the presentation aspect of the project, allowing Jaspreet to focus on
her creative contributions. Although Sunaina is highly disciplined, her reserved nature may
limit the dynamic engagement needed for such a collaborative and artistic endeavour.
Tabassum, while creative and spontaneous, might worsen Jaspreet’s challenges with time
management.
SECTION D: LITERATURE TEXTBOOK (40 marks)

6 Read the given extracts and answer the questions for any one of the two, given 1x5=5

A Prose
I The young seagull did not celebrate his maiden flight alone. His mother and father 2
encouraged him by flying past him and prompting him. Additionally, his siblings,
were flying around him, further motivating him. The collective presence of his
family made the victory a shared experience rather than a solitary one.

II b) The young seagull gradually gained confidence and joined his family in the air. 1
[wasn’t immediate as he felt dizzy initially]

III The young seagull feels a sense of accomplishment and excitement, as he forgets 1
that he was once afraid to fly and embraces the thrill of soaring and diving with his
family.

IV C. ii, v (sound) 1
i, iii, iv (movement)

OR
B Prose
I B. Only ii [ the pause creates an expectation for the audience, setting the stage 1
for a revelation and keeping them intrigued]

6
II The stage directions, like turning on the projector and dimming the spotlight, help 2
create a shift in focus and set the tone for the scene. The projector signals a
transition from narration to visual storytelling, while the fading spotlight on the
Historian reveals the movement toward the next key action or character,
heightening the suspense and anticipation of the forthcoming revelation. These
technical elements guide the audience’s attention and contribute to the play's
overall pacing and dramatic effect.

III b) stress the surprising and unexpected nature of the book that stopped the 1
invasion.

IV disappointment / disapproval 1

7 Read the given extracts and answer the questions for any one of the two, given. 1x5=5

A. Poetry

I B. i, iv, v [ ‘anger’ and ‘frustration’ are less appropriate because the focus is on 1
emotional confusion, helplessness, and the acceptance of loss, rather than a
reaction of resistance or blockage. The boy’s emotional state is about grappling
with a deeper understanding of life’s impermanence, rather than lashing out at the
loss or the situation.]

II The phrase ‘how to stand up’ suggests that the boy is learning to confront and 2
cope with the emotional impact of loss. It signifies his emotional growth, as he
begins to understand that facing grief is an essential part of life. This realisation
helps to teach him to recover from hardship and accept the inevitability of loss.

III ‘most know’ 1

IV the inevitable hardships / the hardships / the first encounter with grief / the harsh 1
realities / the fleeting nature of joy / the transient nature of material possessions

OR
B. Poetry
I A. The tiger is majestic and dignified despite its ferocity. 1
II ...the background colour of the tiger's coat, which is yellow 1

III The poet uses humour to present the Bengal Tiger's dangerous nature in a light- 1
hearted way. By describing it as ‘noble’ but humorously suggesting identification
through being eaten, the poet softens the fear associated with the tiger and makes
its ferocity entertaining The playful tone and the ironic contradiction between
calling the tiger ‘noble’ and focusing on its ferocity create a humorous effect,
making the tiger’s dangerous nature seem amusing rather than frightening.

IV ‘This simple rule may help you learn’ 1

7
 [This is advisory in nature as it offers a guideline / a playful instruction]

8 Answer any four of the following five questions, in about 50 words. 4x3=12

Content – 2 Expression – 1 Accuracy – Deduct up to 1 mark from overall

I (Any two) 3
 Love for movement in water - Otters cannot tolerate static water. Mijbil
overturned bowls, sat in them, or splashed water until it overflowed, ensuring
water was always in motion.
 Curiosity - Mijbil explored his surroundings keenly, investigating objects and
trying to interact with his environment, such as fumbling with taps to turn them
on.
 Juggling skills - Mijbil could juggle marbles on his belly while lying on his
back, displaying dexterity and coordination.

II The repetition highlights the speaker's constant expectations, reinforcing 3

Amanda's lack of freedom and autonomy. The repeated commands like ‘Don't bite
your nails’ highlight the pressure placed on Amanda.
In contrast, Amanda’s imaginative escapes, which are not repetitive, reflect her
desire for independence and freedom, showcasing the tension between external
control and her longing for self-expression.

III This vision can be applied in modern societies by fostering dialogue, 3

understanding, and reconciliation between different groups. Addressing inequality
requires not only empowering marginalised communities but also educating and
transforming the mindsets of those who perpetuate discrimination, breaking the
cycle of hatred and prejudice. This dual approach ensures lasting peace and
equality.

IV The line symbolises the fleeting and impermanent nature of the fog, paralleling the 3
transient moments in life. Just as the fog quietly arrives, lingers briefly, and
disappears, so too do many moments in life that come and go without warning, often
leaving a lasting impression or a sense of reflection. This imagery reinforces the
poem’s theme that, like fog, many experiences are temporary, quietly arriving and
departing without notice, leaving behind a sense of mystery and contemplation.
V Chubukov’s reaction to Lomov’s marriage proposal reflects his opportunistic and 3
materialistic priorities. He enthusiastically embraces the proposal, showing relief
and joy, not because of Lomov’s love for Natalya but due to the potential benefits
of securing a marriage for his daughter with a neighbouring landowner. His
exaggerated affection for Lomov, calling him ‘my dear fellow,’ contrasts sharply
with his prior suspicions. This reveals Chubukov’s value for a status in society and
economic security over genuine emotional connections.

9 Answer any two of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2x3=6

Content – 2 Expression – 1 Accuracy – Deduct up to 1 mark from overall

8
I  Matilda’s decision to replace the necklace without telling her friend the truth 3
leads to a decade of suffering – how dishonesty can result in unforeseen
consequences that affect one’s well-being.
 The act of lying causes unnecessary stress and anxiety - Matilda and her
husband live in constant fear of being found out, which affects their physical
and emotional health.
 If Matilda had admitted her mistake, the outcome could have been very
different - honesty fosters peace of mind.
II The statement ‘Values are caught, not taught’ is evident in the story, particularly in 3
the incident when Hari Singh steals Anil’s money but later decides to return it.
Anil’s silent trust and kindness, such as forgiving Hari Singh’s failed attempt at
cooking and teaching him to read and write, deeply impact the thief. These
actions, rather than words, teach Hari Singh the value of trust and honesty,
prompting him to choose integrity over theft.
III Griffin’s fleeting moments of comfort, such as finding warmth and food, 3
momentarily restore his sense of normalcy but quickly highlight his isolation.
These experiences deepen his frustration and longing for connection, influencing
his actions. His desperation for survival leads him to steal, disguise himself, and
ultimately resort to violence, revealing the emotional toll and the erosion of his
identity as he becomes increasingly detached from society.
10. Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words 1x6=6

Content – 3 Expression – 2 Accuracy – 1

A. Introduction
It plays a significant role in promoting tourism by showcasing the unique cultural, historical,
and natural elements of these regions. Each narrative vividly describes local traditions,
landscapes, and lifestyles, sparking interest in these destinations among readers.

Body response points

 ‘The Baker from Goa’ highlights the enduring Goan tradition of baking, the cultural
significance of the baker’s role, and the idyllic charm of the region. By focusing on the
local customs and the nostalgia of childhood memories, it attracts visitors eager to
experience Goa’s rich heritage, culinary delights, and laid-back atmosphere.
 ‘Coorg’ introduces readers to the region’s beautiful landscapes, rich history, and distinct
culture. It entices tourists by describing the Coorgi people’s martial traditions, hospitality,
and connection to nature.
 ‘Tea from Assam’ presents Assam as a tea haven, talking about its tea gardens,
picturesque landscapes, and cultural significance. The story highlights the importance of
tea in Assam’s history, making it an attractive destination for travellers keen on exploring
the tea estates, learning about tea cultivation, and experiencing the region’s serene
beauty.
Conclusion
The detailed depictions of these regions, make them effective tools for promoting tourism by
encouraging people to visit and experience these unique places firsthand.
OR
B. (Response to be created largely from the first point combined with either the second or
third point)

9
  The trees are metaphorically trapped within the house, with their roots disengaging from
the cracks in the veranda. Their movement toward the forest represents a yearning for
freedom and a return to their natural state.
The tiger is physically confined to a cage in the zoo, symbolising the desire to break free
from captivity and return to the wild. The tiger’s restlessness in the cage mirrors the
internal struggle for freedom.
 The trees symbolise natural growth and freedom. Their release from the house signifies
nature's tolerance and the need for unrestricted growth, much like the human desire to
escape limitations that are either physical or the society’s.
The tiger represents the power of nature and wildness that is stifled by human
confinement. The metaphorical connection to freedom is portrayed through the tiger’s
yearning for the freedom to roam freely in its natural habitat.
 The movement of the trees towards the forest symbolises liberation from human-made
boundaries, stressing how freedom brings renewal and natural growth.
The zoo represents oppression, where the tiger’s desire for freedom is unmet. The
contrast between the freedom of the wild and the limitations of captivity is stark,
showcasing the tiger's struggle.

11. Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words 1x6=6

Content – 3 Expression – 2 Accuracy – 1

A. The author uses the narrative technique of misdirection masterfully in ‘The Midnight Visitor’ to
enhance suspense and deliver an unexpected ending.
From the beginning, the reader is led to believe in the existence of a balcony through
Ausable’s fabricated story. By confidently describing how the balcony has been used for
intrusions in the past, Ausable creates a believable scenario. This misdirection not only
deceives Max but also builds tension as the reader anticipates how the balcony might play a
role in the unfolding events.
The suspense peaks when Max, in a desperate attempt to avoid the ‘police,’ decides to
escape through the balcony—only to realise too late that it doesn’t exist. This clever twist
destabilises expectations and highlights Ausable’s wit and resourcefulness.
The use of misdirection keeps the reader engaged and ensures a surprising and satisfying
conclusion to the story.

OR
B. The role of the Surgery in the story is pivotal, both as a place of physical recovery and as a
catalyst for Tricki’s transformation. Critically, the Surgery represents a contrast to the
overindulgent environment at Mrs. Pumphrey's home. While Mrs. Pumphrey’s pampering and
excessive feeding led to Tricki’s ill health, the Surgery offers a more balanced, structured
environment where Tricki receives proper care, including a strict diet, exercise, and,
importantly, social interaction with other dogs, all of which contribute significantly to his
recovery.
The Surgery symbolises not just medical intervention but a shift toward responsible pet care,
bringing up the important aspect of a pet’s well-being which requires more than affection and
indulgence.
Through Tricki’s recovery at the Surgery, the writer critiques overindulgence and highlights the
importance of holistic, responsible care for pets, both physically and emotionally.

10
 MATHEMATICS STANDARD – Code No.041
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS – X (2025-26)
Maximum Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 38 questions. All Questions are compulsory.
2. This Question Paper is divided into 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. In Section A, Question numbers 1-18 are multiple choice questions (MCQs) and questions no.
19 and 20 are Assertion- Reason based questions of 1 mark each.
4. In Section B, Question numbers 21-25 are very short answer (VSA) type questions, carrying 02
marks each.
5. In Section C, Question numbers 26-31 are short answer (SA) type questions, carrying 03 marks
each.
6. In Section D, Question numbers 32-35 are long answer (LA) type questions, carrying 05 marks
each.
7. In Section E, Question numbers 36-38 are case study-based questions carrying 4 marks each
with sub parts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
8. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice in 2 questions of Section B, 2 questions
of Section C and 2 questions of Section D has been provided. An internal choice has been
provided in all the 2 marks questions of Section E.
22
9. Draw neat and clean figures wherever required. Take 𝜋 = wherever required if not stated.
7
10. Use of calculators is not allowed.

(Section A)
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

[Link]. Questions Marks

1. If 𝑎 = 22 × 3𝑥 ,𝑏 = 22 × 3 × 5,𝑐 = 22 × 3 × 7 and LCM (𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐) = 3780, then 𝑥 is 1

equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

2. The shortest distance (in units) of the point (2,3) from y-axis is 1
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 1

3. If the lines given by 3x +2ky =2 and 2x+5y +1=0 are not parallel, then k has to be 1
15 15
(A) (B) ≠ 4
4
(C) any rational number (D) any rational number having 4 as denominator

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26 Page 1 of 8
 4. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. If BC=7cm, CD=4cm and 1
AD=3cm, then the length of AB is
(A) 3cm (B) 4cm (C) 6cm (D) 7cm

5. If 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝛳 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛳 = 𝑥 ,then 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝛳 − 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛳 will be 1

2 1
(A) 𝑥 (B) 𝑥 2 (C) 𝑥 (D) 𝑥

6. Which one of the following is not a quadratic equation? 1

(A) (𝑥 +2)2 =2(𝑥 +3) (B) 𝑥 2 +3𝑥 =(- 1)(1- 3𝑥)2
(C) 𝑥 3 - 𝑥 2 +2 𝑥 +1 =( 𝑥 +1)3 (D) ( 𝑥 +2)( 𝑥 +1) = 𝑥 2+ 2𝑥 +3

7. Given below is the picture of the Olympic rings made by taking five congruent circles 1
of radius 1cm each, intersecting in such a way that the chord formed by joining the
point of intersection of two circles is also of length [Link] area of all the dotted
regions (assuming the thickness of the rings to be negligible) is

𝜋 √3 𝜋 √3
(A) 4[12 - ] cm2 (B) [6 - ] cm2
4 4
𝜋 √3 𝜋 √3
(C) 4[ 6 - ] cm2 (D) 8[6 - ] cm2
4 4

For Visually Impaired candidates

The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of 6 cm is

(A) 36𝜋cm2 (B) 18𝜋cm2 (C) 12𝜋cm2 (D) 9𝜋cm2

8. A pair of dice is tossed. The probability of not getting the sum eight is 1
5 31 5 5
(A) 36 (B) 36 (C) 18 (D) 9

9. If 2sin5𝑥 = √3 ,0˚≤ 𝑥 ≤90o, then 𝑥 is equal to 1

(A) 10o (B) 12o (C) 20o (D) 50o

10. The sum of two numbers is 1215 and their HCF is 81, then the possible pairs of such 1
numbers are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C ) 4 (D) 5

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 2 of 8
 11. If the area of the base of a right circular cone is 51cm2 and it's volume is 85cm2, then 1
the height of the cone is given as
5 5 5
(A) 6 cm (B) 3cm (C) 2cm (D) 5cm

12. If zeroes of the quadratic polynomial a𝑥 2 + b𝑥 +c (a, c ≠0) are equal, then 1
(A) c and b must have opposite signs (B) c and a must have opposite signs
(C) c and b must have same signs (D) c and a must have same signs

13. The area (in cm2) of a sector of a circle of radius 21cm cut off by an arc of length 1
22cm is
(A) 441 (B) 321 (C) 231 (D) 221

14. If ∆ABC ~∆DEF, AB=6cm, DE=9cm, EF=6cm and FD=12cm, then the perimeter of 1
∆ABC is
(A) 28cm (B) 28.5cm (C) 18cm (D) 23cm

15. If the probability of the letter chosen at random from the letters of the word 1
2
“Mathematics” to be a vowel is 2𝑥+1, then 𝑥 is equal to
4 9 11 4
(A) 11 (B) 4 (C) (D) 9
4

16. The points A(9,0), B(9, -6) ,C(-9,0) and D(-9,6) are the vertices of a 1
(A) Square (B) Rectangle (C) Parallelogram (D) Trapezium

17. The median of a set of 9 distinct observation is 20.5. If each of the observations of a 1
set is increased by 2,then the median of a new set
(A) is increased by 2
(B) is decreased by 2
(C) is two times the original number
(D) Remains same as that of original observations

18. The length of a tangent drawn to a circle of radius 9 cm from a point at a distance of 1
41cm from the centre of the circle is
(A) 40cm (B) 9cm (C) 41cm (D) 50cm

DIRECTIONS: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Choose the correct option:
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26 Page 3 of 8
 19. Assertion (A): The number 5n cannot end with the digit 0, where n is a natural 1
number
Reason (R): A number ends with 0, if its prime factorization contains both 2 and 5

20. Assertion (A): If cosA + cos2A=1, then sin2A + sin4A =1 1

Reason (R): sin2A + cos2A =1

(Section – B)
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21.(A) The A.P 8, 10, 12,……. has 60 terms. Find the sum of last 10 terms. 2
OR
(B) Find the middle term of A.P 6,13, 20, ……., 230

22. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝐴 + 𝐵) = 1 and 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝐴 − 𝐵) =

√3
,0° < 𝐴, 𝐵 < 90°, find the measure of 2
2
angles 𝐴 and 𝐵.

23. If AP and DQ are medians of triangles ABC and DEF respectively, where 2
𝐴𝐵 𝐴𝑃
∆ABC~ ∆DEF, then prove that 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐷𝑄

24. A horse, a cow and a goat are tied, each by ropes of length 14m, at the corners A, B 2
(A) and C respectively, of a grassy triangular field ABC with sides of lengths 35m, 40m
and 50 m. Find the area of grass field that can be grazed by them.
OR
(B) Find the area of the major segment (in terms of 𝜋) of a circle of radius 5cm, formed
by a chord subtending an angle of 90˚ at the centre.

25. A ∆ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm such that the segments BD 2
and DC are of lengths 10 cm and 8 cm respectively. Find the lengths of the sides AB
and AC, if it is given that ar(∆ABC) = 90cm2

For Visually Impaired candidates:

A circle is inscribed in a right-angled triangle ABC, right angled at B. If BC=7cm and

AB=24cm, find the radius of the circle

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
Page 4 of 8
 (Section – C)
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. In Figure, XY and X′Y′ are two parallel tangents to a 3

circle with centre O and another tangent AB with
point of contact C intersecting XY at A and X′Y′ at B.
Prove that ∠ AOB = 90°

For Visually Impaired candidates:

Two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point
P. Prove that ∠APB= 2(∠OAB)

27. In a workshop, the number of teachers of English, Hindi and Science are 36, 60 and 3
84 respectively. Find the minimum number of rooms required, if in each room the
same number of teachers are to be seated and all of them being of the same subject.

28. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2𝑥 2 – (1 + 2√2) 𝑥 + √2 and verify the 3
relationship between the zeroes and coefficents of the polynomial.

29. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛳 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛳 = √3 ,then prove that 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛳 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝛳 = 1 3

OR
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴+1
Prove that 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴−1 =cosecA + cotA

30. On a particular day, Vidhi and Unnati couldn’t decide on who would get to drive the 3
car. They had one coin each and flipped their coin exactly three times. The following
was agreed upon:
1. If Vidhi gets two heads in a row, she would drive the car
2. If Unnati gets a head immediately followed by a tail, she would drive the car.
Who has greater probability to drive the car that day? Justify your answer.

31.(A) The monthly income of Aryan and Babban are in the ratio 3:4 and their monthly 3
expenditures are in ratio 5:7. If each saves ₹ 15,000 per month, find their monthly
incomes.
OR
(B) Solve the following system of equations graphically:
2𝑥 + 𝑦 =6, 2 𝑥 – 𝑦 – 2=0. Find the area of the triangle so formed by two lines and 𝑥 -
axis.

For Visually Impaired candidates:

Five years hence, fathers age will be three times the age of son. Five years ago,
father was seven times as old as his son. Find their present ages.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26 Page 5 of 8
 (Section – D)
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

32. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63km and then travels at 5
a distance of 72km at an average speed of 6km/hr more than its original speed. If it
takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original average speed?

33. Prove that if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two 5
sides in distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the sameratio.

Hence in ΔPQR, prove that a line ℓ intersects the sides PQ and PR of a ∆PQR at L
and M respectively such that LM II QR. If PL = 5.7cm, PQ=15.2cm and MR=5.5cm,
then find the length of PM (in cm)

34.(A) From a solid right circular cone, whose height is 6cm and radius of base is 12cm, a 5
right circular cylindrical cavity of height 3cm and radius 4cm is hollowed out such that
bases of cone and cylinder form concentric circles. Find the surface area of the
remaining solid in terms of 𝜋.
OR

(B) An empty cone of radius 3cm and height 12cm is filled with ice-cream such that the
1
lower part of the cone which is (6 )th of the volume of the cone is unfilled (empty) but
a hemisphere is formed on the top. Find the volume of the ice-cream.

35.(A) If the mode of the following distribution is 55, then find the value of 𝑥. Hence, find the 5
mean.

Class 0 − 15 15 − 30 30 − 45 45 − 60 60 − 75 75 − 90
Interval
Freque 10 7 𝑥 15 10 12
ncy

OR
(B) A survey regarding heights (in cm) of 51 girls of class X of a school was conducted
and the following data was obtained:

Heights (in cm) Number of girls

less than 140 04
less than 145 11
less than 150 29
less than 155 40
less than 160 46
less than 165 51

Find the median height of girls. If mode of the above distribution is 148.05, find the
mean using empirical formula.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 6 of 8
 (Section – E)
Section E consists of 3 case study-based questions of 4 marks each.

36. In a class, the teacher asks every student to write an example of A.P. Two boys
Aryan and Roshan writes the progression as −5, −2,1,4, …… and 187, 184, 181, ….
respectively. Now the teacher asks his various students the following questions on
progression.

Help the students to find answers for the following:

i. Find the sum of the common difference of two progressions. 1

ii. Find the 34th term of progression written by Roshan. 1
iii. (A) Find the sum of first 10 terms of the progression written by Aryan. 2
OR
(B) Which term of the progressions will have the same value? 2

37. A group of class X students goes to

picnic during winter holidays. The
position of three friends Aman, Kirti
and Chahat are shown by the points
P, Q and R

(i) Find the distance between P and R. 1

(ii) Is Q, the midpoint of PR? Justify by finding midpoint of PR. 1
(iii) (A) Find the point on x-axis which is equidistant from P and Q. 2
OR
(B) Let S be a point which divides the line joining PQ in ratio 2:3. Find the 2
coordinates of S.

For Visually Impaired Candidates:

A group of class X students goes to picnic during winter holidays. Aman, Kirti and
Chahat are three friends. The position of three friends Aman, Kirti and Chahat are
shown by the points P, Q and R.
The co-ordinates of P (2,5), Q (4,4) and R (8,3) are given.
(i) Find the distance between P and R. 1
(ii) Is Q the midpoint of PR? Justify by finding midpoint of PR. 1
(iii) (A) Find the point on x-axis which is equidistant from P and Q. 2
OR
(B) Let S be a point which divides the line joining PQ in ratio 2:3. Find the 2
coordinates of S.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26 Page 7 of 8
 38. India gate (formerly known as All India war
memorial) is located near Karthavya path.
(formerly Rajpath) at New Delhi. It stands
as a memorial to 74187 soldiers of Indian
Army, who gave their life in the first world
war. This 42m tall structure was designed
by Sir Edwin Lutyens in the style of Roman
triumphal arches. A student Shreya of
height 1 m visited India Gate as a part of
her study tour.

i. What is the angle of elevation from Shreya’s eye to the top of India Gate, if 1
she is standing at a distance of 41m away from the India Gate?
ii. If Shreya observes the angle of elevation from her eye to the top of India Gate 1
to be 60o, then how far is the she standing from the base of the India Gate?
iii. (A) If the angle of elevation from Shreya’s eye changes from 45° to 30°, when 2
she moves some distance back from the original position. Find the distance
she moves back.
OR
41
(B) If Shreya moves to a point which is at a distance of m from
from the
mfrom India Gate, 2
√3
then find the angle of elevation made by her eye to the top of India Gate.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26

Page 8 of 8
 MATHEMATICS STANDARD – Code No.041
MARKING SCHEME
CLASS – X (2025-26)
Maximum Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

[Link]. Section A Marks

1. (C) 3 1
LCM(𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐) = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 3780
140 × 3 = 3780
3 = 27 = 3
𝑥=3

2. (A) 2 1
As shortest distance from (2, 3) to y-axis is the 𝑥 coordinate, i.e., 2.

3. (B) k≠ 1

≠ , hence
k≠

4. (C) 6cm 1
AB+CD=AD+BC
AB+4=3+7
AB=6cm

5. (D) 1
( ) ( )
=( )( )
= = secϴ-tanϴ

6. (D) (𝑥 +2) ( 𝑥 +1) = 𝑥 2 +2 𝑥 +3, so, 𝑥 2 +3 𝑥 +2= 𝑥 2 +2 𝑥 +3 gives 𝑥 -1=0 1

It’s not a quadratic equation.

7. D) 8[ -
√
] cm2 1

Required Area=8 × area of one segment (with r = 1cm and 𝜃 = 60˚)

° √
=8x ( x 𝜋 x 12 − x 12)
°
√
= 8[ − ] cm2

Page 1 of 12
 For Visually Impaired candidates:
(D) 9𝜋cm2
area of circle=𝜋(3 )
=9 𝜋 cm2

8. (B) 1

Probability of getting sum 8 is

Probability of not getting sum 8 is

9. (B) 12° 1
√
sin 5𝑥 =
So, 5𝑥 = 60°
And hence 𝑥 = 12°

10. (C) 4 1

Since HCF=81, the numbers can be 81𝑥 and 81𝑦

81𝑥 +81𝑦 =1215
𝑥 + 𝑦 =15
which gives four pairs as
(1,14), (2,13), (4,11), (7,8)

11. (D) 5cm 1

𝜋r2= 51
V= × 𝜋r2 × h
85 = × 51 × h
h= = 5𝑐𝑚

12. (D) 1

As for equal roots to the corresponding equation,

b2 =4ac
Hence ac =
And hence ac > 0⇒ c and a must have same signs

13. (C) 231 1

Area of sector
= ×𝑙×r
= × 22 × 21 = 231cm2

Page 2 of 12
14. (C) 18cm 1

∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆𝐷𝐸𝐹
∆
= = = ∆

∆
=

Perimeter of ∆ ABC= 18cm

15. (B) 1

Probability of getting vowels in the word Mathematics is ,

So, =
⇒𝑥=

16. (C) Parallelogram 1

By visualising the figure by plotting points in co-ordinate plane it can be concluded it
is a Parallelogram.

17. (A) median is increased by 2 1

18. (A) 40cm 1

Since, tangent is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact

In ∆OPT, right angled at T
OP2=OT2+TP2
412=92+TP2
TP2= 1681-81=1600
TP=40cm

19. (A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct 1
explanation of assertion (A)

20. (A) 1
cosA+cos2A=1 ---------(i)
gives cos A= sin2A------(ii) (using sin2A+ cos2A=1)
Substituting value of cos A from (ii) in (i)
sin2A +sin4A=1
⸫ Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
Page 3 of 12
 (Section – B)

21. n =60, a =8 and d=2 ½

(A) 𝑡 = 8 + 59(2) =126 ½
𝑡 = 108 1
Hence 𝑡 + 𝑡 +……..+ 𝑡 = (108 +126) =1170
OR
(B) 230 = 6 + (n -1)7 gives n=33 1
⸫ Middle Term = 𝑡 = 6 + (16)(7) = 118 1

22. A+B = 90o and A – B= 30o 1

A=60o and B =30o 1

23.

△ABC∼△DEF

⇒ = ½

= (AP and DQ are the medians) ½

In △ABP and △DEQ

=

∠B=∠E (△ABC∼△DEF)

⇒△ABP ~△DEQ ½

Hence, = ½

24.(A) area of grass field that can be grazed by them

= °
× 𝜋 𝑟2 + °
× 𝜋 𝑟2 + °
𝑥 𝜋 𝑟2

= °
(𝜃 + 𝜃 + 𝜃 )
= × 180˚ 1
°
= ×
=308 m2 1

Page 4 of 12
 OR

(B) Area of minor segment= Area of sector − area of triangle

°
= 𝜋 r2 − × r2
°
=( 𝜋 − ) cm2
1
Area of major segment = Area of circle – Area of minor segment
= 𝜋 52 – ( 𝜋 − )
= 25𝜋 – 𝜋+
=( 𝜋+ ) cm2 1

25.

Let r be the radius of the inscribed circle

BD=BE=10cm
CD=CF=8cm
Let AF=AE= 𝑥 ½

ar(△ABC) =ar(△AOC) + ar(△BOC) + ar(△AOB)

½
= × r x AC + × r × BC + × r × AB
90 = × 4 (𝑥 +8+18+ 𝑥 +10)
𝑥 = 4.5cm
½
∴ AB=4.5+10=14.5cm
AC=4.5+8=12.5cm
½
For Visually Impaired candidates:

AC2=AB2+BC2= 242+72=625
AC=25cm ½
Area of ∆ABC= × 7× 24=84cm2 -----(i) ½
Let r=radius of circle
Also, Area of ∆ABC= (24r+25r+7r)
= × 56 r -------(ii) ½
From (i) and (ii), we get
r=3cm ½

Page 5 of 12
 (Section – C)

26. In ∆APO and ∆ACO

AP=AC (Tangents from External Point)
AO=AO (common)
OP=OC (radii)
∆APO ≅ ∆ACO 1
∠POQ=180˚ (PQ is the diameter)
∠POA+∠COA+∠QOB+∠COB=180˚ 1
2∠COA+2∠COB=180˚
∠ AOB = 90° 1

For Visually Impaired candidates:

PA=PB (Tangents from external point to a circle)

∠PAB=∠PBA= 𝑥 (angles opposite to equal sides) ½
In ∆PAB, ∠PAB+∠PBA+∠APB=180°
𝑥 + 𝑥 +∠APB=180°
∠APB=180°−2 𝑥 ------(i)
1
Also,
∠PAB+∠OAB=90° (radius is perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact)
𝑥 +∠OAB=90°
𝑥 =90°−∠OAB --------(ii)
Substituting (ii) in (i), we get 1
∠APB=180°-2(90°− ∠OAB)
∠APB=2∠OAB ½

27. HCF (36,60,84) =12 1½

Required number of rooms= + + 1
=3+5+7
=15 ½

28. 2 𝑥 2 − (1+2√2) 𝑥 + √2

= 2 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 2√2 𝑥 + √2 1

= (2 𝑥 − 1) ( 𝑥 − √2 ) Hence the zeroes are and √2 . 1

√ √
Now = = √2 + and = = × √2
1
Page 6 of 12
29. 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛳 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛳 = √3 gives (𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛳 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛳) = 3. 1
Hence 1 + 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛳𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛳 = 3
So 2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛳𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛳 = 2
⇒ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛳 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛳 = 1 1

⸫ t𝑎𝑛 𝛳 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝛳 = =1 1

OR

( )( )
=
( )( ) 1

= 1

( )
= = = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝐴 1

30. P(Vidhi drives the car) = as favourable outcomes are HHT,THH,HHH 1

P(Unnati drives the car) = as favourable outcomes are THT,THH,HTH,TTH 1

As >
1
Unnati has greater probability to drive the car

31. Let the income of Aryan and Babban be 3𝑥 and 4𝑥 respectively 1

And let their expenditure be 5𝑦 and 7𝑦 respectively.
Since each saves ₹ 15,000, we get
3𝑥 – 5𝑦 = 15000
4𝑥 – 7𝑦 = 15000 1
Hence 𝑥 = 30000

Their income thus become ₹90,000 and ₹1,20,000 respectively. 1

OR

2 for
correct
Graph

Page 7 of 12
 Hence, the solution is 𝑥 = 2, 𝑦 = 2 ½

Area= 2 sq. units ½

For Visually Impaired candidates

Let the present age of father be 𝑥 and son be 𝑦

So, (𝑥 + 5) = 3(𝑦 + 5) ⇒𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 10 1
𝑥 − 5 = 7(𝑦 − 5) ⇒ 𝑥 − 7𝑦 = − 30 1
1
So, 𝑥 = 40, 𝑦 = 10.
Hence the present ages of father and son are 40 years and 10 years
Respectively

Section D

32. Let the original speed of train be 𝑥 km/hr

Distance =63km, time(t1) = hrs 1
Faster speed = (𝑥 +6) km/hr
time (t2)= hrs
1
Now t1 + t2 = 3 hrs

So + =3
1

63(𝑥 + 6) + 72𝑥 = 3(𝑥 + 6)𝑥

135𝑥 +378=3𝑥 2 +18𝑥
3𝑥2 −117𝑥 − 378 = 0
𝑥 2 −39𝑥 − 126 = 0 1
𝑥 2 −42𝑥 +3𝑥 − 126 = 0 gives (𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 − 42) = 0
As 𝑥 can’t be negative, so 𝑥 = 42 km/hr 1

The original speed of train=42 km/hr

33. Correct given, figure and construction 2

Correct Proof 2
since LM is parallel to QR
Let PM= 𝑥
=
. ½
=
. .
𝑥 =PM=3.3cm ½

Page 8 of 12
34. (A)
Slant height of the cone 𝐿 = √𝑅 + 𝐻 = √12 + 6
= 3√20 𝑐𝑚 ½
Curved Surface area of cone= 𝜋𝑅𝐿 = 𝜋 × 12 × 3√20
= (36√20) 𝜋 𝑐𝑚 1
Area of base circle of cone (= area of outer circle –
area of inner circle + top circular area of cylinder)
= 𝜋𝑅 = 𝜋 × (12)
= 144𝜋 𝑐𝑚 1
Curved Surface area of cylinder= 2𝜋𝑟ℎ = 2𝜋 × 4 × 3
= 24 𝜋 𝑐𝑚 1

Surface area of the remaining solid= Curved surface of cone

+ area of base circle of cone 1
+ curved surface area of cylinder
= 36√20 𝜋 + 144𝜋 + 24𝜋
= 168 + 36√20 𝜋 𝑐𝑚 ½

OR

(B) Volume of cone= 𝜋r2h= 𝜋 × 3×3×12= 36𝜋cm3

Volume of ice-cream in the cone= × 36𝜋cm3 = 30𝜋 cm3 2

Volume of ice-cream in the hemispherical part= 𝜋r3= 𝜋 ×3×3×3=18𝜋 cm3 1+½

Total volume of the ice-cream = (30𝜋+18𝜋 ) =48 𝜋=150.86cm3 (approx.) 1+½

35. (A) Mode of the frequency distribution = 55

Modal class is 45-60. Lower limit is 45 Class Interval (h) =15 ½
Now, Mode = 𝑙 + ( ) ×h
55 = 45 + ×5 1
So, 𝑥 = 5 1

CI 𝒇𝒊 𝒙𝒊 𝒇𝒊 𝒙𝒊
0-15 10 7.5 75
15-30 7 22.5 157.5
30-45 5 37.5 187.5 1½
45-60 15 52.5 787.5
60-75 10 67.5 675
75-90 12 82.5 990
59 2872.5

.
Mean= 𝑥̅ = = 48.68 1

Page 9 of 12
 OR
(B)
Height (in cm) Number Class Interval frequency
of girls
less than 140 04 135-140 4

less than 145 11 140-145 7

less than 150 29 145-150 18

1
less than 155 40 150-155 11

less than 160 46 155-160 6

less than 165 51 160-165 5

Median = l +( )𝑥h 1

=145 + ( )×5 1
=149.03
Median height = 149.03cm
1
3×Median= Mode +2× Mean 1
3×149.03=148.05+2× Mean
Mean=149.52

Section E

36.
(i) Common difference of first progression= 3

Common difference of first progression= −3

Sum of common difference=0. 1

(ii) t34 = 187 +(34-1) (−3)

So, t34 =88 1

(iii) (A) Sum = [2(−5) + (10 − 1)(3)] 1

= 85 1
OR

(B) −5 +(n−1)3 = 187 +(n−1) (−3)

n = 33 1
1

Page 10 of 12
37. (i)
PR= (8 − 2) + (3 − 5) = 2√10 1

(ii) Co-ordinates of Q (4,4). ½

The mid-point of PR is (5,4) ½
⸫Q is not the mid-point of PR

(iii) (A) Let the point be (𝑥,0)

So, (2 − 𝑥) + 25 = (4 − 𝑥) + 16
1
Hence 𝑥 = .Therefore the point is ( ,0). 1
OR
(B) The coordinates of S will be

× × × ×
, 1

= , 1

38. (i) Distance from India gate = 41m,

Height of monument = 42m,
Shreya’s height =1m
So, tan 𝜃= =1 ½
½
Angle of elevation = 𝜃 = 45o.

(ii) Angle of elevation =60o

Perpendicular = 41m
Let the distance from the India Gate be 𝑥 m
Hence tan 60o= ½
⟹𝑥= ½
√
√
∴ Shreya is standing at a distance of m

Page 11 of 12
 (iii) (A)
Distance from the India Gate = 41 m
Let the distance moved back be 𝑥 m
Then, tan30o = 1
𝑥 = (41√3 −41) m = 41(√3-1) m 1
∴ The distance moved back = 41(√3-1) m

OR

(B) Let the angle of elevation of be 𝜃

Now, tan 𝜃 = = √3 1
√
This gives 𝛳 =60o 1

Page 12 of 12
 SCIENCE – Code no. 086
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER*
CLASS – X (2025-26)
Max. Marks: 80 Time Allowed: 3 hours
General Instructions:
(i) This question paper consists of 39 questions in 3 sections. Section A is Biology,
Section B is Chemistry and Section C is Physics.
(ii) All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some
questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.

Section – A Marks

1 Select the group in which all organisms have the same mode of nutrition. 1
A. Cuscuta, yeast, legumes, leeches and tapeworm
B. Cactus, ticks, lice, leeches and cow
C. Cuscuta, ticks, lice, leeches and tapeworm
D. Cactus, grass, lice, lion and tapeworm

2 Which of the following options indicates the products formed after breakdown 1
of the glucose in our muscle cells when there is lack of oxygen?
A. Ethanol + carbon dioxide + Energy
B. Lactic acid + Energy
C. Lactic acid + carbon monoxide + Energy
D. Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

3 Which of the following is a correct combination of function and part of the 1

brain?
A. Posture and balance: Cerebrum
B. Salivation: Medulla in midbrain
C. Hunger: Pons in hindbrain
D. Blood pressure: Medulla in hindbrain

4 The blood glucose level in a patient was very high. It may be due to 1
inadequate secretion of:
A. growth hormone from pituitary gland
B. oestrogen from ovary
C. insulin from pituitary gland
D. insulin from pancreas

5 In a cross between black furred rabbit (B) and white furred rabbit (b), all 1
offspring were found to have black fur. What can be inferred about the genetic
makeup of the parent rabbits?
A. BB X bb
B. Bb X Bb
C. Bb X bb
D. bb X bb
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
6 Which are the correct statements related to ozone? 1
(i) Ozone layer helps in increasing the UV radiations reaching earth.
(ii) Ozone is a deadly poison.
(iii) Ozone layer shields the earth from UV radiations.
(iv) Ozone layer prevents UV rays which cause skin cancer.
(v) Ozone is formed with the help of Chloroflurocarbons.

A. (i), (ii), (iii)

B. (ii), (iii), (iv)
C. (iii), (iv), (v)
D. (i), (iv), (v)

7 Which of the following human activities has resulted in an increase of non- 1

biodegradable substances?
A. Organic farming
B. Increase in tree plantation
C. Use of plastic as packaging material
D. Composting of kitchen waste

The following two questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

8 Assertion (A): Tallness of a pea plant is controlled by an enzyme. 1

Reason (R): The gene for that enzyme makes proteins which help the plant to
be tall.

9 Assertion (A): Vulture will always have the least amount of pesticides in a food 1
chain.
Reason (R): Vulture occupies the last trophic level and it gets only 10% of
energy of the previous trophic level.

10 Unlike animals, plants do not have any excretory products as they do not eat 2
food. Comment upon the statement with justification.

11 Students to attempt either option A or B. 2

A. How many chambers are there in the heart of the following organisms?
How is mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood prevented in their
body?
(i) Fishes
(ii) Humans
OR
B. Explain the mechanism by which the water is transported in plants?

12 About 100 acres of forest land was declared as Natural reserve park. The 2
following organisms were predominant in the Natural reserve park:

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 rabbit, frog, grass, fish, fox, water insects, zebra, peacock, snake, trees, bird,
owl, insects, tiger, vulture, duck.
Create a food web comprising two separate food chains with different
producers by using the above data.

13 Draw and explain how the nerve cells help in transmission of impulses? 3

14 In a genetic experiment, plants with pure round green seeds (RRyy) were 3
crossed with plants with wrinkled yellow seeds (rrYY).
(i) Show the gametes formed when F1 was self-pollinated.
(ii) A total of 144 seeds were produced which developed into saplings.
Show the ratio in which these traits are independently inherited in
these144 sapling.

15 Neha consumed boiled sweet potatoes and boiled eggs for breakfast. Help her 4
to understand some steps in the process of digestion of the food taken by her
by answering the questions given below.
Attempt either subpart A or B.
A. Which of these food items is rich in proteins? In which part of the
alimentary canal is the digestion of this component initiated? Name the
enzymes, conditions required and the glands associated with the
digestion here.
OR
B. Which of these food items contains fats? How is it digested?
C. Which of these food items is rich in starch? How is its digestion initiated?
D. The figure given below represents parts of the human alimentary canal.
Which of these parts will have the maximum amount of digested food as
soon as the process of digestion is completed?

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 For visually impaired students
D. How will the digested food be taken up by the alimentary canal?

16 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. Puneet wanted to grow banana plants.
(i) Based on your knowledge on plant reproduction should he opt for seeds
or any alternate method of reproduction. Justify your answer.
(ii) Offsprings of a banana plant usually show very little variation. What
causes variation and are variations good or bad? Justify.
OR
B. Annie was conducting research on the number of fruits produced by
watermelon under different conditions. She grew 25 watermelon plants
each in both glass house A and B. She introduced pollinators in glass
house A only.
(i) What difference will she observe in the number of fruits produced in the
two glass houses? Explain with reason.
(ii) List 3 changes that will occur in a flower once it gets fertilized.

Section – B

17 Which of the following equations represent redox reactions and what are the
values for ‘p’ and ‘q’ in these equations? 1
Equation 1: Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) Al2O3 (s) + p Fe(l) + heat
Equation 2: 2C4H10(g) + 13O2(g) △ 8CO2(g)+ q H2O(g)
A. Only equation 1 is a redox reaction, p =1 and q=3
B. Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p= 2 and q=4
C. Only equation 2 is a redox reaction, p= 2 and q= 10
D. Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p= 2 and q=10

18 Four statements about the reactions of oxides with dilute hydrochloric acid and
aqueous sodium hydroxide are listed. 1
I. Aluminium oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous
sodium hydroxide.
II. Calcium oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium
hydroxide.
III. Zinc oxide reacts with both dilute hydrochloric acid and aqueous sodium
hydroxide.
IV. Sulphur dioxide does not react with either dilute hydrochloric acid or
aqueous sodium hydroxide.
Which statements are correct?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
19 An iron nail is added to each of the two test tubes ‘P’ and ‘Q’ containing
aqueous copper (II) sulphate, and aqueous silver nitrate respectively. Which of 1
the following observation is correct?
A. In test tube ‘P’ iron nail is coated with a blue coating and in test tube ‘Q’
there is no reaction.
B. Iron nail is coated with a brown coating in test tube ‘P’ and silver coating
in test tube ‘Q’.
C. There is no reaction in either of the test tubes ‘P’ or ‘Q’.
D. There is no reaction in test tube ‘P’ but a silver coating on iron nail is
seen in test tube ‘Q’.

20 Methyl orange is added to dilute hydrochloric acid and to aqueous sodium

hydroxide. What is the colour of the methyl orange in each solution? 1

Sample colour in dilute colour in aqueous

hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide
A Orange Red
B Red Yellow
C Red Orange
D Yellow Red

21 Which of the following substances when dissolved in equal volume of water,

will have the highest pH value? 1
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. Sodium hydroxide

22 When excess of carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the milkiness
disappears because 1
A. water soluble calcium carbonate converts to water soluble calcium
bicarbonate.
B. insoluble calcium carbonate converts to water soluble calcium
bicarbonate.
C. water soluble calcium carbonate converts to insoluble calcium
bicarbonate.
D. insoluble calcium carbonate converts to insoluble calcium bicarbonate.

23 In the reaction of aqueous solution of barium chloride with aqueous solution of 1

sodium sulphate, the aqueous solution formed will be:
A. BaCl2
B. BaSO4
C. Na2SO4
D. NaCl

The following question consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

24 Assertion (A): C4H8, C4H6 and C4H10 are members of the same homologous 1
series
Reason (R): C4H8, C4H6, C3H4, C3H6, C2H4, C2H2 are unsaturated
hydrocarbons.

25 The following activity is set-up in the science lab by the teacher. 2

He clamped an aluminium wire on a stand and fixed a pin to the free end of
the wire using wax. Then he heated the wire with a burner from the end where
the wire is clamped. Students observed the pin fall off.

A. If the teacher replaces aluminium wire by silver wire, will the students’
observation change? Justify your answer.
B. Will the aluminium wire melt? Give reason for your answer.

26 Attempt either option A or B.

3
A. An element ‘X’ is stored in kerosene, and cannot be extracted from its ore
using a reducing agent. ‘X’ forms an ionic compound on reaction with
chlorine.
(i) Can we store ‘X’ in water? Give reason to support your answer.
(ii) Identify element ‘X’. Name the process used and write the equation for
extraction of ‘X’ from its ore.
OR
B. The domes of many building in Europe are made of copper. These domes
now appear greenish in colour.
(i) Why do the domes appear greenish though copper is orange-red in
colour?
(ii) In your opinion, should the copper domes be replaced by iron domes to
overcome the problem of change of colour of copper domes?
(iii) Domes used to be made from thin sheets of metals. Why did the ancient
architects use copper to make domes?

27 Amrita electrolysed distilled water using the set-up shown in figure 1. She was 3
expecting two gases to be evolved at the anode and cathode respectively

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 Fig.1
Suddenly, she realised that the bulb in the circuit did not glow when she used
distilled water (figure 2)

Fig. 2
After this realization, she added a substance to the distilled water for
electrolysis to take place.
Answer the following questions based on the information given above:
A. Which gas was she expecting to be formed at the anode and which one
at the cathode respectively?
B. Why did the bulb not glow when Amrita passed electricity through
distilled water?
C. Which substance was added by Amrita to distilled water to get the
expected result?
-------------------
For visually impaired students
Identify the type of reaction:
A. ZnO + C Zn + CO
B. ZnCO3 heat ZnO + CO2
C. 2Mg + O2 2 MgO + heat

28 Sara took 2 mL of dilute NaOH solution in a test tube and added two drops of 4
phenolphthalein solution to it. The solution turned pink in colour. She added
dilute H2SO4 to the above solution drop by drop until the solution in the test
tube became colourless. 40 drops of dilute H2SO4 were used for the change in

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 colour from pink to colourless. When Sara added a drop of NaOH to the
solution, the colour changed to back to pink again.
Sara now tried the activity with different volumes of NaOH and recorded her
observation in the table given below:

S. No. Volume of dil. Drops of dil.

NaOH taken (mL) H2SO4 used
1 2 20
2 3 30
3 4 40
Answer the following questions based on the above information:
A. If Sara used concentrated H2SO4 in place of dilute H2SO4, how many drops
will be required for the change in colour to be observed?
(a) 40
(b) < 40
(c) >40
Justify your answer.
B. Sara measured 20 drops of dil. H2SO4 and found its volume to be 1 mL. If
Sara observed a change in colour of NaoH solution by using 3 mL of
H2SO4, how many mL of NaOH did she add to the test tube initially?
OR
Sara takes 10 drops of dilute H2SO4 in the test tube and adds two drops of
phenolphthalein solution to it. Then she adds NaOH dropwise. Sara
observes a change in colour after adding 20 drops of NaOH. What change
in colour would she observe and why?
C. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place in the
above experiment. Which of the following is true and why? The reaction is
a
(a) neutralisation and double displacement reaction
(b) neutralisation and precipitation reaction
(c) precipitation and double displacement reaction
(d) neutralisation, double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.

29 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A. A hydrocarbon with the formula CxHy undergoes complete combustion as
shown in the following equation:
2CxHy + 9O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O.
(a) What are the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’?
(b) Give the chemical (IUPAC) name of the hydrocarbon.
(c) Draw its electron dot structure.
(d) Name the alcohol which on heating with conc. H2SO4 will produce the
above hydrocarbon CxHy.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 (e) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of CxHy with
hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel.
OR
B. The electronic structures of atoms P and Q are shown below

Based on the information given above, answer the following questions:

(a) If P and Q combine to form a compound, what type of bond is formed
between them?
(b) Give the chemical formula of the compound formed.
(c) The compound so formed is dissolved in water. Is the resultant solution
acidic or basic in nature? Justify your answer.
(d) Write the chemical equation for the reaction between ‘Q’ and ethanol.
(e) What will be the formula of the compound formed when ‘P’ undergoes
bonding with carbon?
-------------------
For visually impaired students
A. A hydrocarbon with the formula CxHy undergoes complete combustion as
shown in the following equation:
2CxHy + 9O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O.
(a) What are the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’?
(b) Give the chemical (IUPAC) name of the hydrocarbon.
(c) Is CxHy a saturated or an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
(d) Name the alcohol which on heating with conc. H2SO4 will produce the
above hydrocarbon CxHy.
(e) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction of CxHy with
hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel.
OR
B. Oxygen can combine with both metals and non-metals. It combines with
Calcium to form CaO and with carbon to form CO2.
(a) What type of bond is formed between carbon and oxygen?
(b) Identify the type of bond formed between Calcium and oxygen.
(c) Which of the above compounds will be a good conductor of electricity
in molten state and why?
(d) Comment on the physical state (solid, liquid or gas) of CaO and CO2.
(e) What is the valency of carbon in CO2?

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 Section – C

Arnav was making notes and he wrote down the following statements from his 1
30
understanding of reflection from curved surfaces.
I. Concave mirrors can produce both real and virtual images depending on
the position of the object.
II. Convex mirrors always produce real, inverted images regardless of the
object’s position.
III. In both concave and convex mirrors, the image location can be
1 1 1
determined using the mirror formula = + where f is the focal length,
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
v is the image distance, and u is the object distance.
Choose from the following the correct option that lists the correct statements
about reflection from curved surfaces.
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II and III
D. I and III

31 Choose the correct option from the below which explains the reason for us to 1
perceive the day sky as blue.
A. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, shorter wavelengths, such
as blue are scattered more than other colors.
B. The sky appears blue because all colors are scattered equally, but
blue light is stronger and more visible to the human eye.
C. The blue color of the sky is due to longer wavelengths like red and
orange scattering more than shorter wavelengths, making blue stand
out more.
D. The atmosphere contains blue-colored particles that give the sky its
blue appearance.

The following question consists of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.

32 Assertion (A): A point object is placed at a distance of 26 cm from a convex 1

mirror of focal length 26 cm. The image will not form at infinity.
1 1 1
Reason (R): For above given system the equation 𝑓 = 𝑣 + 𝑢 gives v = ∞.

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
33 2

The above image shows the formation of an image with an optical instrument.
A. Identify the optical instrument (shown schematically as a rectangle) in
the image.
B. What type of image is formed in this case?
C. Based on the measurements given in the image, calculate the focal
length of the instrument.
--------------
For visually impaired students
A. Under what conditions can a convex lens form a virtual image?
B. Why does a piece of paper catch fire if we allow sunlight to pass
through a convex lens onto the paper?

34 Attempt either option A or B. 2

A.

Find out the following in the electric circuit given in the figure-
(i) Effective resistance of two 8 ohm resistors in the combination.
(ii) Current flowing through the 4-ohm resistor
OR

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 B.

Study the circuit and find out-

(i) Current in 12 ohm resistor
(ii) Difference in the readings of ammeter A1 and A2 if any
--------------
For visually impaired students
A. You are given four resistors each having resistance of R ohm. Find the
maximum and minimum resistance that can be made with these four
resistors.
OR
B. A copper wire has a length L=2 m, a cross-sectional area A=0.5 mm2, and
resistivity ρ=1.7×10−8 Ω-m. Calculate the resistance of another wire made
of the same material whose length is twice the length of the wire but has
the same cross-sectional area.

35 3

The above image shows a corrective measure for a particular defect of vision.
(i) Identify the defect of vision and state what kind of lens is used to correct
this deficiency.
(ii) Draw and label a ray diagram that shows the defect of vision in the above
case before correction.
--------------
For visually impaired students
(i) What is dispersion of light?
*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 (ii) Explain the condition under which dispersion happens?
(iii) Give one reason that causes presbyopia.

36 A student needs to make a 0.12 Ω resistor. She has some copper wire of 0.80 3
mm diameter. Resistivity of copper is 1.8 × 10–8 Ωm
(i) Determine the cross-sectional area of the wire.
(ii) Calculate the length of wire required for the 0.12 Ω resistor.

37 Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a 3
statement that the magnetic field at X is stronger than at Y.
(i) Explain with reason if the student’s claim is correct.
(ii) Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field lines.

38 4

The above image is that of a Digital Single Lense Reflector (DSLR) Camera
which are used to take high resolution photographs by professional
photographers. The second image of the above two is a schematic diagram of
how an image is formed on the sensor of the camera. Based on your
understanding of the lenses, answer the following questions.
A. What type of lens is used in the DSLR camera shown in the image?
B. What type of image is formed on the sensor?
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. A photographer is using a DSLR camera with a lens of focal length
f=50 mm to take a close-up photograph of a small object. The lens
projects an image onto the camera sensor that is located 60 mm behind
the lens. Calculate the object distance (i.e., the distance between the
object and the lens).

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 OR
D. A photographer is using a DSLR camera to take a picture of a flower.
The flower is positioned 150 mm away from the camera lens. The actual
height of the flower is 80 mm, and the image height formed on the
camera’s sensor is measured to be 20 mm. Calculate the focal length of
the camera lens.
For visually impaired students
Zarina worked as an apprentice in a factory where flashlights and solar cookers
are made. She learnt to make the circuits, the design of the light-box and light
concentrators of the solar cookers as well. She learnt the uses of lenses in
making all those tools. Based on your understanding of lenses, answer the
following questions.
A. What kind of lenses are used in the flashlight and light concentrator of the
solar-cooker?
B. Give reasons for your choices in your answer for part A.
Attempt either subpart C or D.
C. An object is placed 40 cm away from a lens which is normally used in a
solar-cooker. The image formed is twice the size of the object. Calculate
the focal length of the lens.
OR
D. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a lens which is used in a flashlight,
and the image is formed 10 cm away from the lens on the same side as
the object. Calculate the focal length of the lens.

39 Attempt either option A or B. 5

A.

The arrangement of resistors shown in the above figure is connected to a

battery.;
The power dissipation in the 100 Ω resistor is 81 W. Calculate
(i) the current in the circuit
(ii) the reading in the voltmeter V2
(iii) the reading in the voltmeter V1

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 OR
B.

An electric heater consists of three similar heating elements A, B and C,

connected as shown in the figure above. Each heating element is rated as 1.2
kW, 240 V and has constant resistance. S1, S2 and S3 are respective
switches.
The circuit is connected to a 240 V supply.
(i) Calculate the resistance of one heating element.
(ii) Calculate the current in each resistor when only S1 and S3 are
closed.
(iii) Calculate the power dissipated across A when S1, S2 and S3 are
closed.
--------------
For visually impaired students
A.
(i) Explain why in household circuits only the fuse is connected in series
with all the rest of the appliances but all appliances are connected in
parallel to each other.
(ii) In a household circuit, an electric heater of power 1500 Wand a fan of
power 500 W are connected in parallel to a 220 V supply. A fuse rated
for 10 A is connected to the circuit to protect it from excessive current.
(a) Calculate the total current drawn by the heater and the fan.
(b) Determine whether the 10 A fuse is appropriate for this circuit or
if it will blow.
OR
B. Two resistors, R1=6 Ω and R2=12 Ω, are connected in parallel to a 24V
battery. The circuit operates for 5 minutes.
(i) Calculate the total heat generated in both resistors.
(ii) If each resistor has a power rating of 100 W, determine whether it is safe
to use these resistors in the circuit.

***********

*Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session
i.e. 2025-26.
 SCIENCE – Code no. 086
MARKING SCHEME
CLASS – X (2025-26)

Section – A

1 C. Cuscuta, ticks, lice, leeches and tapeworm; as all of these are parasites. 1

2 B. Lactic acid + Energy 1

3 D. Blood pressure: Medulla in hindbrain 1

4 D. insulin from pancreas 1

5 A. BB x bb 1

6 B. (ii), (iii), (iv) 1

7 C. Use of plastic as packaging material. 1

8 A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 1

9 D. A is false but R is true 1

10 It is completely wrong to say that plants do not produce any excretory 2

products.
However, plants use completely different strategies for excretion than those
of the animals. They get rid of these wastes in different manner (any two):
i. Oxygen, a photosynthetic waste, is removed through stomata.
ii. Excess water is removed by transpiration through stomata.
iii. Other metabolic wastes are either stored in dead cells, resins and
gums or are removed through falling of old leaves.
iv. Many waste products are stored in cellular vacuoles

11 Students to attempt either option A or B. 2

A.
(i) There are two chambers in the heart of fish. The blood is pumped to
the gills, is oxygenated there and passes directly to the rest of the
body.
(ii) There are four chambers in the heart of a human being. Separation
of the right side and the left side of the heart by septum prevents
mixing of oxygenated and de-oxygenated bloods
OR
B. Xylem moves water and minerals obtained from the soil through roots to
all other parts of the plant in a unidirectional manner// Transpiration
takes place from leaf which causes a transpirational pull in the tracheids
and vessels of xylem facilitating upward movement of water// roots
 actively uptake ions from the soil, leading to difference in concentration
gradient, thereby water moves into the roots to eliminate this difference/
creating a steady movement of water into root xylem.

12 Tree food chain- tree, zebra, tiger /Any other food chain 2
Grassland food chain- grass, zebra, tiger / Any other food chain
Food web- Join the two food chains at a common point (zebra)

13  All information from our environment is detected by the specialised tips 3

of some nerve cells. The information acquired at the end of the dendritic
tip of a nerve cell (Fig. a), sets off a chemical reaction that creates an
electrical impulse.
 This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along
the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off
the release of some chemicals.
 These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical
impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron. This is how nervous impulses
travel in the body. (Fig b).

14 A. RY, Ry, rY, ry 3

B. The traits which are independently inherited are as follows
Tall round: 81
Tall wrinkled: 27
Short round: 27
Short wrinkled: 9
(Ratio :- 9 : 3 : 3 : 1)

15 Students to attempt either subpart A or B. 4

A. Eggs are rich in proteins. The digestion of proteins is initiated in the
stomach. Gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach release
 hydrochloric acid, a protein digesting enzyme called pepsin and mucus.
The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the
action of enzyme pepsin.
OR
B. Eggs contain fats. Bile juice from the liver breaks down large fat globules
into smaller ones for increasing the efficiency of the enzymes and making
the medium alkaline. Emulsified fats are digested by lipase secreted by
pancreas.
C. Sweet potatoes are rich in starch. The saliva secreted by salivary glands
present in buccal cavity contain an enzyme called salivary amylase that
breaks down starch which is a complex molecule to give sugar.
D. Small Intestine will have a maximum amount of digested food as the
process of digestion is completed in the small intestine.
For Visually impaired students
D. The digested food is taken up by the inner lining of the intestine with the
help of finger-like projections or villi which increase the surface area for
the absorption.

16 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

(i) Puneet should not choose seeds as banana plants have lost the
capacity to produce seeds. He should go for vegetative propagation
of banana (by stem cutting).
(ii) Errors and variations in DNA copying cause variation.
Variation is good as it can help a population tide over unfavourable
conditions by survival of some variants.
It is bad as parents’ desirable characters are lost/ sometimes variants
are not able to survive in the new conditions/ the variant is not able to
use the cellular apparatus efficiently.
OR
(i) Watermelon has unisexual flowers, the male and female flowers are
separate.
The presence of pollinators will facilitate cross pollination between the
flowers increasing the chance of fertilization and number of fruits
being produced. Without pollinators the probability of pollen falling on
stigma reduces in a unisexual flower, especially if they are far apart
thus the number of fruits produced will be less.
(ii) The three changes observed are:
● Ovule develops a tough coat and becomes seed.
● Ovary grows and ripens to form fruit.
● Petals, sepals, stamen, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.

Section – B

17 D. Both equations 1 and 2 are redox reactions, p= 2 and q=10 1

18 B. (I) and (III) 1

19 B. Iron nail is coated with a brown coating in test tube ‘P’ and silver coating 1
in test tube ‘Q’.

20 B. Red Yellow 1

21 D. Sodium hydroxide 1

22 B. insoluble calcium carbonate converts to water soluble calcium 1

bicarbonate.

23 D. NaCl 1

24 D. A is false but R is true 1

25 A. The pin will drop but will take less time to drop because silver is a better 2
conductor of heat than aluminium.
B. No, aluminium wire will not melt because metals have high melting points.

26 Attempt either option A or B. 3

A.
(i) No, ‘X’ is highly reactive and will catch fire.
(ii) Sodium.
It is extracted from molten sodium chloride by electrolytic
reduction
Cathode: Na+ + e-  Na
Anode: 2Cl-  Cl2 + 2e-
(Potassium is also a correct option)
OR
B.
(i) Copper gets oxidised/corroded to basic copper carbonate which is
greenish in colour.
(ii) No, iron will rust and the reddish layer of rust will come off exposing
iron to air, the dome will not be stable. Copper on the other hand on
corrosion forms a protective layer which does not allow further
corrosion.
(iii) Copper is a highly malleable metal, its thin sheets can be used to
give different shapes of roofs, like the shape of a dome.

27 A. She was expecting Oxygen gas to be formed at the anode and hydrogen 3
at the cathode.
B. Distilled water is a poor conductor of electricity.
C. Adding few drops of H2SO4 or some NaCl (or any other strong
electrolyte).
For visually impaired students
A. Redox reaction
 B. Decomposition reaction and endothermic reaction
C. Combination reaction and exothermic reaction

28 A. (b) < 40, because concentrated H2SO4 gives more H+ ions than dilute 4
acid.
B. 3 mL of H2SO4 will be 60 drops, which will neutralise 6 mL of NaOH
S. No. Volume of dil Drops of dil
NaOH taken (mL) H2SO4 used
1 2 20 (1 mL)
2 3 30 (1.5 mL)
3 4 40 (2 mL)
4 6 3 mL = 60 drops

OR
Colour will change from colourless to pink. Phenolphthalein in
colourless in acids and turns pink in basic solution.
C. 2NaOH + H2SO4  Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(a) neutralisation and double displacement reaction.
Base NaOH is getting neutralised and forming salt + water. It is
double displacement as Na+ ions are being replaced by H+ and OH-
by SO42-. It is not precipitation reaction because Na2SO4 is soluble in
water.

29 Student to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(a) x = 3, y = 6
(b) Propene
(c)

(d) Propanol
(e) C3H6 + H2 Ni C3H8
CH2=CH-CH3 + H2 CH3-CH2-CH3
OR
B.
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Q2P
(c) Basic, metallic oxides are basic in nature.
(d) 2C2H5OH +2Q  2C2H5OQ + H2
(e) CP2

For visually impaired students

A.
(a) x = 3, y = 6
 (b) Propene
(c) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
(d) Propanol
(e) C3H6 + H2 Ni C3H8
OR
B.
(a) Covalent bond
(b) Ionic bond
(c) CaO, due to presence of free ions in molten state.
(d) CaO is solid while CO2 is a gas.
(e) 4

Section – C

30 D. I and III 1

31 A. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, Rayleigh scattering causes 1

shorter wavelengths, such as blue and violet, to scatter more than other
colors, but our eyes are more sensitive to blue than violet.

32 C. A is true but R is false 1

33 A. The optical instrument shown in the figure is a concave lens. 2

B. The image formed is a virtual image.
C. To find the focal length for of a concave lens, we can use the lens
formula:

where:
 𝑢 = - 20 cm (object distance, taken as negative for concave
lenses),
 𝑣 = - 10 cm (image distance, also taken as negative since the
image formed by a concave lens is virtual).
Solution:
1. Substitute the values into the lens formula:

2. Simplify the terms:

3. Find a common denominator:

4. Solve for 𝑓:
𝑓 = - 20 cm
 ------------
For visually impaired students
A. A convex lens can form a virtual image when the object is placed
between the lens and its focal point.
B. A convex lens can focus parallel rays of sunlight to a single point,
known as the focal point. Sunlight contains energy, and when this light
is concentrated at a small point, the energy density increases
significantly. This focused light energy raises the temperature at the
focal point, which can become high enough to ignite a piece of paper
placed at that point.

34 Student to attempt either A or B. 2

A.
(i)
𝑅1 𝑅2 8×8
𝑅= = = 4 𝑜ℎ𝑚𝑠
𝑅1 + 𝑅2 8+8
(ii)
𝑉 8
𝐼= = =1𝐴
𝑅 (4 + 4)
OR
B.
(i)
1 1 1 1 1 2
= + = + =
𝑅𝑃 𝑅1 𝑅2 24 24 24
Rp = 12 ohms
RT= Rp+12 = 24 ohms
𝑉 6
𝐼= = = 0.25 𝐴
𝑅 24
(ii) Same readings of A1 and A2
------------
For visually impaired students

A.
(i) Maximum Resistance:
 To get the maximum resistance, connect all four resistors in
series.
 The total resistance Rmax in series is the sum of the individual
resistance:

(ii) Minimum Resistance:

 To get the minimum resistance, connect all four resistors in
parallel.
  The total resistance Rmin in parallel is given by:

OR
B.

Step 1: Calculate the initial resistance R1 and 𝑙 = 2 m

Step 2: Calculate the new resistance R2 and 𝑙 = 4 m (double length)

The resistance of the wire when the length is double is 0.136 Ω

(i) Hypermetropia is the deficiency in vision and the lens is convex lens.
35 3
(ii)

------------
For visually impaired students
(i) Dispersion of light is the phenomenon in which white light separates into
its component colors (spectrum) when it passes through a medium, such
as a prism. Different colours of light lend through different angles with
respect to incident light, thus becoming district.
 (ii) Dispersion occurs when light passes from one medium to another where
the speed of light is different for each wavelength. For example, in a
prism, each color of light has a different refractive index due to varying
wavelengths, causing each color to bend at different angles as they exit
the prism. Dispersion only happens if the medium has a variable
refractive index across different wavelengths, like glass or water.
(iii) Presbyopia is caused by the gradual loss of flexibility in the lens of the
eye, which occurs with aging. This reduced flexibility prevents the lens
from changing shape effectively to focus on close objects, making it
difficult to see them clearly.

36 (i) Show that the cross-sectional area of the wire is about 5 x 10-7 m2. 3
The cross-sectional are A of a wire with diameter d is given by:

Substitute, d = 0.80 x 10-3 m:

Thus, the cross-sectional are A is approximately 5 x 10-7 m2.

(ii) To find the length 𝑙 of the wire, we can use the formula of
resistance:

Rearrange to solve for 𝑙 :

Substitute the values:

The student needs a length of approximately 3.33 m of given copper wire to

make a 0.12 Ω resistor.
37  Closeness of magnetic field lines is directly related to strength of 3
magnetic field.
 Strength of magnetic field at point X (pole) is more than point Y.
 If the student redraws the diagram he/she should mark arrows correctly
from North to South.

38 A. Convex Lens 4
B. Real and Inverted

Student to attempt either subpart C or D.

C. To find the object distance (u) for the lens, we can use the lens formula:

where:
● f = 50 mm (focal length),
● v = 60 mm (image distance),
● u is the object distance, which we need to calculate.
Rearranging the formula to solve for u:

Substitute the values:

Calculate each term:

Thus, the negative sign indicates that the object is located 300 mm in
front of the lens (on the opposite side from the image). So, the object
distance is:
u = 300 mm
OR
D. image height = - 20 mm
object height = 80 mm
The magnification (m) of the lens is given by:

Substituting the values:

−20𝑚𝑚 1
𝑚= =−
80 𝑚𝑚 4
 Thus, the magnification m = − 0.25 mm.
Magnification is also given by:

where:
● v is the image distance
● u = −150 mm
Rearrange to solve for v:
v = m × u = −0.25 × −150 mm = 37.5 mm
So, the image distance v = 37.5 mm.

The lens formula is:

1 1 1
= −
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
Substituting the values of v and u:

Converting to a common denominator:

Thus, f = 30 mm
Answer: The focal length of the camera lens is 30 mm.
------------
For visually impaired students
A. Concave Lens for Flashlight and Convex Lens for solar cooker.
B. Concave lens diverges the light rays which is needed for a wider reach
of the flashlight. Convex lens converges the rays which helps to raise
the temperature of the place where rays converge.
Student to attempt either subpart C or D
C. To find the focal length (𝑓) of the lens, we can use the information
about the object distance (𝑢) and the magnification (𝑚).
Given:
 Object distance, 𝑢 = − 40 cm
 The image is twice the size of the object, so the magnification,
𝑚=−2
𝑣
Since the magnification 𝑚 = , we can rearrange this to find the image
𝑢
distance 𝑣:
𝑣 = 𝑚×𝑢
 Substitute the values for 𝑚 and 𝑢:
𝑣 = − 2 x − 40 = 80 cm
The lens formula is :
1 1 1
= −
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
Substitute 𝑣 = 80 𝑐𝑚 and 𝑢 = − 40 𝑐𝑚:
1 1 1 1 1
= − = +
𝑓 80 −40 80 40
Convert to a common denominator:
1 1+2 3
= =
𝑓 80 80
Thus,
80
𝑓= = 26.67 cm (approximately)
3
Answer : The focal length of the lens is approximately 26.67 cm.

OR
D.
 Object distance, 𝑢 = - 20 cm
 Image distance 𝑣 = - 10 cm (since the image is on the same side as
the object)
We can use the lens formula to calculate the focal length (𝑓) :
1 1 1
= −
𝑓 𝑣 𝑢
Substitute the values of 𝑣 and 𝑢 :
1 1 1 1 1
= − = +
𝑓 −10 −20 −10 20

Finding a common denominator:

1 −2 1 1
= + =−
𝑓 20 20 20
Thus,
𝑓 = −20 cm
Answer: The focal length of the lens is - 20 cm, indicating it is a
diverging lens (concave lens).

39 Students to attempt either option A or B. 5

A.
(i) Power across the 100 Ω resistance = 81 W
𝑃 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 = 81 𝑊
81
∴ 𝐼2 =
100
81 9
∴ 𝐼 = √100 = = 0.9 𝐴
10
 (ii) Voltage across the 25 Ω resistors = V2 = IReqv
for the 25 Ω resistors
1 1 1 2
= + =
𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑣 25 25 25
25
∴ 𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑣 = = 12.5 Ω
2
∴ 𝑉2 = 0.9 𝐴 × 12.5 Ω = 11.25 𝑉
(iii) Voltage across 100 Ω = 𝑉100 = 𝐼𝑅 = 0.9 𝐴 × 100 Ω = 90 𝑉
∴ 𝑉1 = 90 𝑉 + 11.25 𝑉 = 101.25 𝑉
OR
B.
𝑉2
(i) 𝑃 = 𝑅
𝑉2 240 × 240
∴ 𝑅 = = = 48 Ω
𝑃 1200

(ii) For S1 and S3 closed

– Current in C

𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 (𝑂ℎ𝑚′𝑠 𝐿𝑎𝑤)
𝑉 240 𝑉
∴ 𝐼 = = = 5𝐴
𝑅 48 Ω

– Current in A and B
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 (𝑂ℎ𝑚′𝑠 𝐿𝑎𝑤)
𝑉 240 𝑉
∴ 𝐼 = = = 2.5 𝐴
𝑅 96 Ω

(iii) Power across A for S1, S2, S3 closed

𝑃𝐴 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 = 52 × 48 = 1200 𝑊 = 1.2 𝐾𝑊

------------
For visually impaired students
A.
(i) In household circuits, the fuse is connected in series with all
appliances to ensure that it can cut off the entire circuit in case of
excessive current, preventing hazards like fires or damage. This way,
any overload or short circuit causes the fuse to blow, protecting all
appliances.
Appliances are connected in parallel to ensure each receives the
same voltage from the mains and can operate independently. This
setup allows appliances to work simultaneously and efficiently, with
each drawing only the current it needs, without affecting others.

Give Data:
 Power of heater, Pheater = 1500 W
 Power of Fan, Pfan = 500 W
  Supply Voltage, V = 220 V
 Fuse rating = 10 A

Step 1: Calculate the Current Drawn by Each Appliance

Using the formula =

1. Current drawn by the heater:

Iheater = 6.82 A (rounded to two decimal places)

2. Current drawn by the fan:

𝑃𝑓𝑎𝑛 500 𝑊
𝐼𝑓𝑎𝑛 = =
𝑉 220 𝑉

Ifan = 2.27 A (rounded to two decimal places)

Step 2 : Calculate the total curent in the circuit

Since the heater and fan are connected in parallel, the total curent
Itotal is the sum of the currents through each appliance:

Step 3: Compare with the Fuse Rating

The fuse is rated for 10 A, and the total current drawn by the
heater and fan together is 9.09 A.

Since 9.09 A < 10 A, the fuse will not blow and is appropriate for
this circuit, as the total current is within the fuse’s capacity.
OR
B.
Given data:
 Resistor R1 = 6 Ω
 Resistor R2 = 12 Ω
 Voltage V = 24 V
 Time t = 5 Minutes = 5 x 60 = 300 seconds

Step 1: Calculate the Current through each Resistor

Since the resistors are connected in parallel, the voltage across

each resistor is the same as the battery voltage, V = 24 V.

Using Ohm’s Law,

 Current through R1

Current through R2:

Step 2: Calculate the Heat Generated in Each Resistor

Using Joule’s Law of Heating, H = I2Rt:

 Heat generate in R1:

 Heat generate in R2:

 Total Heat Generated H:

So, the total heat generated in both resistor is 43200 J.

Step 3 : Determine if each Resistor is safe

The power dissipated by each resistor can be calculated using P = V x I

 Power dissipated by R1 :

 Power dissipated by R2:

Given that the power rating of each resistor is 100 W:

 R1 is operating at 96 W, which is within the 100 W limit. Hence, it is
safe.
 R2 is operating at 48 W, which is also within the 100 W limit. Hence,
it is safe.

**********
 SOCIAL SCIENCE-Code- 087
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS: X (2025-26)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D-
Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should
not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and
Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted
by Visually Impaired candidates only.

[Link] SECTION A Marks

HISTORY (20 marks)
1. Match the following and Choose the correct option: 1

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Frederic Sorrieu 1 Torch of enlightenments
B Statue of Liberty 2 Shattered remains of absolutist
Institutions
C Foreground in front of the Statue 3 Democratic and Social
of Liberty Republics
D Sorrieu’s utopian vision. 4 French Artist

1.A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

2.A-2, B-4, C-4, D-1
3.A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
4.A-4, B-1, C-3, D-4

1
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 2. Identify and name the leader shown in the picture given below: - 1

Source-India and the Contemporary World-II, NCERT

A. Lala Lajpat Rai

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishan Gokhale
D. Raja Rammohan Roy

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 2

Which one option from the following is the appropriate reason for the formation of the
Swaraj party?

A. To ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians.

B. To return to Council Politics.
C. To ask Dominion State for India.
D. To oppose Simon Commission.
3. Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to - 1

A. Widespread poverty and deadly diseases

B. Frequent famines and poor living conditions
C. Continuous wars and political instability
D. Harsh climate and repeated natural disasters
4. Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! 1
Tremble before the virtual writer!” Who are referred to as the tyrants in this context?

A. Educated classes who wanted to change the society

B. Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church
C. Authors of the new books
D. Printing press

2
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 5A. “The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links 2
between distant parts of the world.” Explain the statement with any two examples.
OR
5B. ‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.’.
Explain the statement.
6 A. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of 3
nationalism in India’. Support the statement with suitable examples.
OR
6 B. Salt March 'became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism.’ Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.
7A. ‘In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval 5
or revolution but was the result of a long-drawn-out process.’ Analyze this statement
with suitable reasons.
OR
7B. ‘The Treaty of Vienna was drawn up in 1815 with the object of undoing most of the
changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.’ Highlight the
significant provisions of this treaty.
8. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+1+2=4) 4
Why Newspapers?
Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in
the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of
local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific
investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics,
curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially... the
patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and Welfare of
the People is earnestly solicited.
Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January 1849

"The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role
of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is to
critically examine government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those
parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy
implementation.
These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse
relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable
improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence”.
Source: Native Opinion, 3 April 1870
.
8.1. Explain the main reason for publishing newspapers by Krishna ji.

3
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 8.2. How was the task of native newspaper and political association seen identical
to the role of the opposition?
8.3. Analyze the reasons for the popularity of newspapers during the 19th century.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2 marks)

9. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify (1+1=
them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map. 2)

A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.

B) The city where Indian National Congress session was held in September
1920.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question 9.
A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.
B) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development? 1

A. The availability of resources alone is enough.
B. The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
C. Technological development and institutional changes.
D. Only human resources can contribute to development.

11. Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes: 1

Classification of Soils

Alluvial ? ?

Ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, Ideal for suitable for crops
wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. growing cotton like cashew nut.

A. Black soil, Red and Yellow soils

B. Laterite soil, Black soil.
C. Red & Yellow soils & Black soil.
D. Black soil & Laterite soil.

12. A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and 1

4
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349
people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with Maharashtra alone
recording 200 deaths.
[source: [Link]
Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on
the tiger population?

A. Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger's food supply.

B. Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
C. Rise in the tiger population.
D. Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks
13. Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most 1
likely apply to states like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala?

A. These states mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for
conservation.
B. They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest
conservation.
C. They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development.
D. There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private
ownership.
14. Which one of the following states has made roof top water harvesting compulsory in 1
India?

A. Haryana
B. Punjab
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu.
15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan 1
Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?

A. Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage.
B. To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices
for farmers.
C. Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops.
D. Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic
ecosystems.

16. Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence 2
crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic
practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.
17A. Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set 5
up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture.
Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.
OR

5
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 17B. ‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement
by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its
different forms.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+2+1=4) 4

Global pollution is rising due to rapid economic growth, population increases, and
insufficient environmental management. This poses serious health risks for people
and ecosystems, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Contributing to
these challenges, the global economy relies on deeply intertwined supply chains,
sustained by more than 100 billion tons of raw materials entering the system each
year. Intensive material consumption depletes natural resources and causes
negative environmental impacts at every stage of the product lifecycle. Global waste
is expected to increase to 3.4 billion tons by 2050.
Pollution of all types hinders development outcomes. Exposure to air pollution, water
pollution, and hazardous chemicals and wastes like mercury, lead and persistent
organic pollutants (POPs) causes debilitating and fatal illnesses, creates harmful
living conditions, and destroys ecosystems. Pollution undermines sustainable
economic growth, exacerbates poverty and inequality in both urban and rural areas,
and significantly contributes to climate change. Poor people, who cannot afford to
protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most.
Pollution is the largest environmental cause of disease and premature death. It is
estimated to be several times more deaths than from AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria
combined. Global health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, are reminders of
the strong linkages between environment and health and of the need to address such
linkages systematically. [Source: [Link]

18.1 Why do you think is global waste expected to increase by 2050?

18.2 How do manufacturing industries cause pollution of different types? Explain with
examples.
18.3 Is it correct to consider pollution as a possible cause for worsening of the current
global trends of poverty and inequality? Justify.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (3 marks)

19. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols: 1

I.(p) The dam in the Sutlej-Beas river basin, which is being used both for hydel
power production and irrigation.
OR
(q) The dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water with
flood control.

II. Any two of the following: (1x2=

(i) A major sea port in West Bengal 2)

6
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 (ii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu
(iii) An international airport in Punjab

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 19.

b) Answer any three of the following:

i Name the dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water
with flood control.
ii Specify the name of a major sea port in West Bengal.
iii Name an international airport in Tamil Nadu.
iv State the name of an international airport in Punjab.
SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)
20. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the ethnic composition of 1
Belgium?
I. 59 percent of the total population of Belgium lives in the Wallonia region and
speaks French.
II. 40 percent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch.
III. One percent of the Belgians speak German.
IV. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 per cent
are Dutch speaking.
Choose the correct option:
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
21. The cartoon below depicts Germany’s government that was formed after the 2005 1
elections. It included the two major parties of the country, namely the Christian
Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are historically
rivals to each other. Which of the following options best explains the cartoon?

Source-Democratic Politics, NCERT

7
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 A. Coalition Government.
B. Two Party System.
C. Democratic government.
D. Bi-party system.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 21
Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct
statement(s) -
I. Imposing the will of the majority community over others.
II. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between the social groups.
III. Power Sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
IV. It brings socio- political opposition among parties.

Choose the correct option:

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II and III
22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option- 1

Suppose the Government of India plans to issue new currency. The Government of
one state is opposed to this policy of the Central Government. Can the state
government stop the union government from implementing this policy?

A. Yes, because Currency is the subject of State List

B. No, because Currency is a subject of Union List
C. Yes, because the approval of both the governments is necessary to implement
this change.
D. No, because any such change must be approved by the local government also.

23. Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Study the statements 1
carefully and identify the correct alternative:

ASSERTION (A): Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results in

democracy.
REASON (R): It can divert attention from other issues.
Choose the correct option:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

8
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 24. Highlight any two key features of federalism. 2

25. ‘Women in India face discrimination, disadvantages and oppression in many ways.’ 2
Highlight any two aspects of life where you witness this inequality.
26. ‘Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens in every sphere.’ 3
Support this statement with suitable arguments.
27A. ‘Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy.’ 5
Explain.

OR
27B. ‘The challenge of dynastic succession is undoubtedly a major challenge for political
parties in India.’ Analyse the statement’.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+1+2=4) 4
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala
community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of
MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. Over the years, it
created feelings of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of
the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their
language and culture. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil
communities strained over time. On the other hand, the Belgian leaders took a
different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural
diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country. Source-Adapted from Power Sharing,NCERT

28. 1 State any two demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka.

28. 2 State the results of the Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka.
28. 3 Explain any two provisions of the Belgian model of power sharing.

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Underemployment is caused when - 1

A. More workers are employed than actually required
B. Fewer workers are employed than actually required
C. Workers are paid more than their actual output
D. Jobs are given only to highly educated workers

9
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 30. What can be inferred about the limitations of using per capita income (average 1
income) to compare well-being across countries? Choose the correct option as the
answer.

A. It shows how equally or unequally income is distributed among the people in a

country.
B. The only measure needed to understand a country’s development is Per capita
income.
C. It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality.
D. It only reflects the industrial growth of a country and does not consider other
important factors.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the tertiary sector supports 1
both the primary and secondary sectors?

A. Farmers grow vegetables and sell them directly to consumers, with no

transportation or storage involved.
B. A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product,
relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.
C. A bakery bakes bread and uses delivery services to send the bread to local
shops for sale, without any direct involvement of raw materials.
D. A company produces furniture from wood, but does not require any transport or
retail services to sell the product.

32. Which one of the following issues currency notes in India? 1

A. Finance Ministry.
B. Reserve Bank of India.
C. State Bank of India.
D. Central Bank of India.

33. Person Z tries to explain how the requirement of a double coincidence of wants in a 1
barter system limits trade and exchange. Which of the following justification do you
think will be used by him/her?

A. It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other
person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.
B. The barter system allows trade to be conducted more efficiently since both parties
already know what they need from the transaction.
C. It increases the number of exchanges because each person can trade for exactly
what they want.
D. The system creates value for goods by ensuring that both parties have a direct
need for each other’s goods.

10
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the effects and consequent 1
outcomes of globalization.

Column A Column B
(Effects of globalisation) (Outcomes)

[Link] foreign investment i. Expansion of global markets and access to

technology

[Link] exchange and ii. Loss of traditional jobs due to automation and
awareness cheaper labor elsewhere

[Link] exchange iii. Spread of cultural practices, ideas, and values

and awareness across borders

[Link] of multinational iv. Large companies becoming dominant players

corporations in global markets

Choose the correct option:

A. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
B. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i
D. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
35. Evaluate the utility of public services in contributing to the overall well-being of 3
individuals and society.
36. ‘Expanding access to loans in the formal sector is important, yet it is equally critical 3
that these loans are accessible to all people for national development.’ Justify the
statement.
37. Highlight the significant three factors that have contributed to the growth of 3
globalisation.
38A. A research student spoke with two people, M and N to learn about their work-related 5
differences. On the basis of the interview conducted with both of them, the student
concludes that while person M was working in an organized sector, person N was an
employee of a workplace that was functioning in an unorganised way. Analyse the
key differences between the two sectors that must have enabled the research
student to come to this conclusion.
OR
38B. Privatisation can have both positive and negative effects on the economy. Support
the statement with argument.

11
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 Map for Q. no. 9 (Section A) & Q. no. 19 (Section B)

12
Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 MARKING SCHEME
SOCIAL SCIENCE (087)
CLASS-X (2025-26)
Time Allowed: 3hrs Max. Marks:80

SECTION A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1 1- A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 1

2 B- Bal Gangadhar Tilak 1

V.I candidates –
B - To return to Council Politics

3 A - Widespread poverty and deadly diseases 1

4 B - Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church 1

5A. 1. Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia also travelled 2
the same route. In return, precious metals - gold and silver - flowed from Europe to
Asia.
2. Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Buddhism from India spread
in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
3. Early Christian missionaries travelled this route to reach Asia and Muslim
preachers took the same route a few centuries later. (Any 2 points)

OR

5B. 1. Sometimes new crops like potatoes could make the difference between life and
death. It was with the introduction of the humble potato that Europe’s poor began
to eat well, eat better and live longer.
2. Ireland’s poor peasants became so dependent on potatoes that when the
potato crop was destroyed by disease in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands of
peasants died of starvation

6A. 1. Figure or Image – The identity of India came to be visually associated with the 3
image of Bharat Mata. This image was created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
Rabindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting,
Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and
spiritual.
2. Songs – Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘VandeMataram’ as a hymn to
the motherland. It was included in his novel Anandmath and widely sung during the
Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
3. Folklore – Indian folklore was revived. In late-nineteenth-century India,
nationalists began recording folk tales sung by bards and they toured villages to
gather folk songs and legends. These tales gave a true picture of traditional culture.
It helped to restore a sense of pride in our past. In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore
himself began collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and myths, and led the movement

1
 for folk revival. In Madras, Natesa Sastri published a massive four-volume collection
of Tamil folk tales, The Folklore of Southern India.
4.– Flag (A). During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green
and yellow) was designed. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of
British India, and a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims.
(B). By 1921, Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag. It was again a tricolour (red,
green and white) and had a spinning wheel in the centre, representing the Gandhian
ideal of self-help. Carrying the flag, holding it aloft, during marches became a
symbol of defiance.
5. Re – interpretation of History – Indians began looking into the past to discover
India’s great achievements. They wrote about art and architecture, Science and
Maths, religion and culture, law, philosophy etc. Indians were asked to take pride in
India’s great achievements in the past and struggle to change the miserable
conditions of life under British rule. (Any three points to be considered)

OR

6B. 1. Salt became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism because of the
following reasons: Gandhiji found in salt a powerful bond that would unite the
nations as it – was consumed by all rich and poor alike.
2. Gandhiji’s letter to Viceroy Irwin stated eleven demands. Most of them were of
general interest but the most stirring was to abolish the salt tax imposed by the
colonial government.
3. Irwin’s unwillingness to negotiate forced Gandhiji to start his salt March which
was joined by thousands. It developed the feeling of nationalism.
4. People in different parts of the country broke salt law and manufactured salt and
demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
5. People unitedly followed Gandhiji’s words. They refused to pay taxes, revenues,
picketed liquor shops, boycotted foreign clothes, resigned from government jobs
and violated forest laws. (Any three points to be considered)]

7A. 1. In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval 5
or revolution. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles
were ethnic ones - such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish.
2. The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation
of the 'United Kingdom of Great Britain' meant that England was able to impose its
influence on Scotland. Scotland's distinctive culture and political institutions were
systematically suppressed.
3. The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear
their national dress and large numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
4. The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over
a largely Catholic country. Catholic revolts against British dominance were
suppressed. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801.
5. The symbols of the new Britain - the British flag, the national anthem, the English
language were actively promoted and the older nations survived only as
subordinate partners in this union.

OR

2
7B 1. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution,
was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under
Napoleon.
2. A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future. Thus the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included
Belgium, was set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
3. Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria
was given control of northern Italy.
4. The German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was
left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was
given a portion of Saxony.
5. The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by
Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.

8. 8.1 Krishnaji wanted to publish significant information about societal developments (1+1+
in the areas of politics, science, and other fields in order to inform the public. 2=4)
8.2 The media used to criticise and analyse government policies were local
newspapers and political organisations. As a result, both of these served as the
government's opposition.
8.3 Reasons for popularity of newspapers during 19th century are:
i. The political developments in the country began to interest a sizable portion of
society, and this information was skillfully presented in the newspapers.

ii. Newspapers started to serve as a source for societal advancements in social,

cultural, and scientific

9. Marked on the map. (1+1=

(Answers to the questions for the V.I candidates are also the same-though only 2)
naming of the locations is required.)

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. C - echnological development and institutional changes. 1

11. D - Black soil & Laterite soil. 1

12. A. Reduction in the prey species leading to the tiger's dwindling food supp 1

13. A - These states have a significant portion of forests managed as reserved or 1

protected forests for conservation.

14. D – Tamil Nadu 1

15. B - To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation 1

practices for farmers.

16. Climate and Irrigation: 2

● Haryana and Punjab have a well-developed irrigation system (e.g., canal

irrigation from the Sutlej-Yamuna Link Canal), which allows for large-scale

3
 commercial cultivation of rice. The climate is suitable for high-yielding
varieties, and irrigation ensures water availability.
● In contrast, Odisha has a more monsoonal climate, and while rice is grown,
the farming is often rainfed and primarily for local consumption. The lack of
large-scale irrigation systems limits its commercialization.

Economic Factors (Market Access):

● In Punjab and Haryana, rice is grown for commercial purposes to meet

national and international demand. The proximity to markets, government
procurement systems, and well-developed transport networks enable these
states to export surplus rice.
● In Odisha, rice is mostly grown for personal or local use, with less access to
large markets for profit-driven farming, making it a subsistence crop.

Farming Practices:

● In Punjab and Haryana, the use of modern farming techniques, machinery,

and high-yielding varieties supports commercial rice cultivation.
● In Odisha, rice farming is more traditional and focused on family
sustenance rather than large-scale production, which reflects the
subsistence nature of cultivation.
Or any other relevant point(s) (Any 2 point to be considered out of which at least
one should be related to climate and one economic)

17A. 1. Odisha was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016- 5
17. Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput district are the most
important bauxite deposits in the state.
2. Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the
strength of metals such as iron,
3. It is a good alternative to other metals due to its extreme
lightness and
4. also has good conductivity and
5. great malleability (any other relevant point - 5 points)

OR

17B. Significance:

-It is used for power generation,

-To supply energy to industry as well as for domestic needs.
-India is highly dependent on coal for meeting its commercial energy
requirements.e.g., in metallurgy
- any other relevant point (at least 2)

Variety of coal types-

Coal, is found in a variety of forms depending on the degrees of compression and

the depth and time of burial.

4
 1. Peat - Decaying plants in swamps produce peat. Which has a low carbon and
high moisture contents and low heating capacity.
2. Lignite - is a low grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content. The
principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for
generation of electricity.
3. Bituminous coal-Coal that has been buried deep and subjected to increased
temperatures. It is the most popular coal in commercial use. Metallurgical coal
is high grade bituminous coal which has a special value for smelting iron in blast
furnaces.
4. Anthracite -is the highest quality hard coal.

18. 18.1 Due to intensive material production and consumption. (1+2+

18.2 Manufacturing industries are a major cause for- 1=4)

1) air pollution – Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories
that ignore pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term
effects.
2) Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and
affluents discharged into rivers. The main culprits in this regard are paper, pulp,
chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating
industries that let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead
and mercury pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and
rubber, etc. into the water bodies.
3) Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal
plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling.
4) Dumping of wastes specially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents,
packaging, salts and garbage renders the soil useless.
5)Rain water percolates to the soil carrying the pollutants to the ground and the
ground water also gets contaminated.
6) Industrial and construction activities, machinery, factory equipment, generators,
saws and pneumatic and electric drills also make a lot of noise. (Or any other
relevant point) – Any two points
18.3 Poor people, cannot afford to protect themselves from the negative impacts
of pollution, end up suffering the most. This also leads to social disparity/inequality
due to the ill effects of poverty. (Can be explained with the help of an example)

19. Marked on the map. (1+2=

(Answers to the questions for the V.I candidates are also the same-though only 3)
naming of the locations is required.)

SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. B- III and IV 1

21. A – Coalition Government. 1

V.I candidates – D. II and III

5
22. B - No, because Currency is a subject of Union List 1

23. A - Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 1

24. Features of federalism: 2

1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.

2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own
jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
3. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in
the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is
constitutionally guaranteed.
4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed
by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels
of government.
5. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different
levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise
between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective
powers.
6. Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure
its financial autonomy.
7. The federal system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and promote unity of
the country, while at the same time accommodate regional diversity. Therefore,
two aspects are crucial for the institutions and practice of federalism.
Governments at different levels should agree to some rules of power sharing.
They should also trust that each would abide by its part of the agreement. An
ideal federal system has both aspects: mutual trust and agreement to live
together. (Any two point to be considered)

25. 1. Education – Literacy rate among women is only 54% as compared with 76% 2
among men. Parents prefer to spend their resources for their sons’ education rather
than daughters.

2. Low Proportion of women in highly paid and valued jobs – Women still have
a small share in the highly paid jobs. Even if a woman works for more hours than a
man, her work is not given importance. This results in low paid and low valued jobs
for women.

3. Women are paid less than men – Despite the Equal Wages of Act women are
paid less than men, even when both do exactly the same work.

4. Preference for Son – In many parts of India parents prefer to have sons and
find ways to have the girl child aborted before she is born. This has led to decline
in child sex – ratio (927)

5. Exploitation at workplace and domestic violence – Women are exploited and

harassed at the workplace. They have to face different forms of domestic violence
at home. (Any 2 point to be considered)

6
26. 1. Democracies accommodate various social divisions. For example, Belgium has 3
peacefully solved her ethnic problems and solved the differences.
2. All democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct competition, i.e. conduct
elections, power-sharing, etc. This reduces the possibility of tensions, due to social
divisions, turning violent or explosive.
3. Democracy teaches people to respect the differences and resolve conflicts
among different groups peacefully. In non-democratic countries, rulers either turn a
blind eye to or suppress internal differences. For example, Sri Lanka. The plus point
in democratic regime is the ability to handle social differences, divisions and
conflicts.
4. A democracy is not just a rule by majority opinion. The majority always needs to
work with the minority so that the government represents the general view.
5. A democratic government ensures that the rule by the majority does not become
autocratic in terms of religion, race or linguistic group etc. It tries to show that in
every election, different persons and groups can form a majority. It tries to see that
every citizen has a chance to be in majority at some point of time and is not barred
on the basis of birth. All these things ensured by a democratic regime lead to a
peaceful and harmonious life. (Any three points to be considered)

27A Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy. To 5
fill political offices and exercise political power, political parties are needed to
perform a series of functions, which are the following

1. Parties contest elections. Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up
by political parties.
In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.
2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes. Political parties in a
democracy group together similar opinions, to provide a direction in which
government policies can be formulated.
3. Parties make laws for a country. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
4. Parties that lose elections play the role of the opposition. Opposition parties voice
their views by criticizing the government for its failure or wrong policies.
5. Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues and resolve
people’s problems. Many pressure groups are the extensions of political parties.
6. Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes.
For an ordinary citizen it is easier to approach a local party leader than a
government officer. (Any 5 points)

OR

27B 1. Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their
functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top
in a party.
2. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as
they favour people close to them or even their family members.
3. In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions
are always controlled by members of a particular family, which is unfair to other

7
 members of the party, and bad for democracy.
4. This is so because people who do not have adequate experience or popular
support come to occupy positions of power.
5. More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader
becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older
democracies.

28. 28.1- (1+1+

(a) To recognise Tamil as official language 2=4)
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunities in securing education and jobs.

(Any one to be considered)

28.2- The Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka created a distrust between Tamils
and Sinhala communities which resulted in civil war. As a result, thousands of
people of both communities were killed and many families were forced to leave the
country as refugees.

28.3
1. The Constitution prescribed that the number of Dutch and French Any two
speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.
Some special laws require the support of majority of members
from each linguistic group. Thus, no single community can make decisions
unilaterally.

2. Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments
of the two regions of the country. The state governments are not subordinate to the
Central Government.

3. Brussels has a separate government in which Dutch and French have equal
representation.

4. Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of
Government. This 'community government' is elected by people belonging to one
language community - Dutch, French and German - speaking - no matter where
they live. This government has the power regarding cultural, educational and
language - related issues. (Any two to be considered)

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. A - More workers are employed than actually required 1

30. C - It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality, 1
cost of living, or access to essential services.

31. B - A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product, 1
relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.

8
32. B – Reserve Bank of India 1

33. A - It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other 1
person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.

34. D - 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv 1

35. Healthcare and Public Health: 1½+

1½
● Accessible and quality public healthcare, is fundamental for maintaining, a =3
productive and healthy population. It reduces mortality rates, ensures the well-
being of the workforce, and allows individuals to contribute meaningfully to the
economy. Inadequate healthcare can result in a higher burden of disease, lower
life expectancy, and economic inefficiencies.

Education and Skill Development:

● Public education systems are essential for providing equal learning opportunities
to all citizens, regardless of socioeconomic status. A well-educated population
leads to increased literacy rates, skill development, and innovation, all of which
are crucial for economic growth, reducing inequality, and fostering social
cohesion.

Sanitation and Clean Water:

● Proper sanitation and access to clean water are vital for maintaining public
health and preventing diseases such as cholera and dysentery. These services
significantly improve life expectancy, reduce healthcare costs, and increase
productivity, especially in rural or underserved areas.

Infrastructure Development:
● Public infrastructure, including roads, transportation, and energy, supports the
functioning of markets, businesses, and industries. It enhances connectivity,
stimulates economic activities, and improves the quality of life for individuals by
providing easy access to essential goods and services.
Or any other relevant point(s) - Any two

36. - Higher cost of borrowing from informal sources means a larger part of the earnings 3
of the borrowers is used to repay the loan. Hence, borrowers have less income left
for themselves (as we saw for Shyamal in Sonpur).
- In certain cases, the high interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to
be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower. -This could lead to increasing
debt (as we saw for Rama in Sonpur) and debt trap.
-Also, people who might wish to start an enterprise by borrowing may not do so
because of the high cost of borrowing.
-For these reasons, banks and cooperative societies need to lend more. This would
lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow cheaply for a variety of
needs.
-They could grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries etc. They could
set up new industries or trade in goods. Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for

9
 the country’s development -Or any other relevant point(s) - Any 3

37. 1. the movements of goods and services, 3

2. information and communication technology
3. Transportation technology
4. movement of people between countries
5. Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment policy
Any other relevant point (any 3 well explained)

38A. Working conditions of person M would have the following features: 5

Regular Employment: Workers have assured, regular work with fixed terms of
employment.
Government Regulation: Enterprises are registered with the government and
follow legal rules and regulations (e.g., Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act).
Security of Employment: Workers enjoy job security with clear working hours and
benefits.
Overtime Compensation: If workers work beyond regular hours, they are paid
overtime.
Employee Benefits: Workers receive benefits like paid leave, holidays, provident
fund, gratuity, and medical benefits.
Safe Working Conditions: Employers are required to provide safe working
environments (e.g., clean drinking water).
Retirement Benefits: Workers are entitled to pensions after retirement.
Formal Processes: The sector follows formal processes and procedures for
employment.
Working conditions of person N would have the following features:

Irregular Employment: Jobs are low-paid and often irregular, with no guarantee of
continuous work.
Lack of Government Regulation: The sector operates largely outside government
control, with few or no legal protections.
No Employee Benefits: Workers do not receive benefits like paid leave, overtime
pay, or medical benefits.
Job Insecurity: Employment is not secure; workers can be dismissed without
notice or reason.
Seasonal Work: Employment is often dependent on seasons, and workers may be
laid off during off-peak periods.
Informal Jobs: Many workers are self-employed, doing small jobs like street
vending or repair work.
Dependence on Employer: Employment conditions are influenced by the
employer's whims and needs.
No Legal Protections: There is little enforcement of rules or regulations related
to working conditions or benefits.

OR

38B. Privatization: Positive Effects-

1. Increased Efficiency and Productivity

10
 2. Improved Quality of Services
3. Reduced Government Burden
4. Any other relevant point(s)

Privatization: Negative Effects-

1. Exclusion of Public Welfare - Profit being the only motive
2. Loss of Employment Security
3. Wide gap between rich and poor - due to inaccessibility of basic facilities
4. Lower government accountability
5. Any other relevant point(s)

(ANY 5 points to be accepted. However, at least 2 positive and 2 negative effects

must be included in the response)

Map for Q. no. 9 (Section A) & Q. no. 19 (Section B)

11
 பத்தாம் வகுப்பு மாதிரி வினாத்தாள்,2025-2026

X-STD SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER, 2025-2026

தமிழ் ( TAMIL 006)

கால அளவு: 3 மணி Time allowed : 3 Hrs

மமாத்த மதிப்மபண்கள்: 80 Maximum Marks : 80
பகுதி – அ (படித்தல் திறன்)

Unseen Passage-10 Marks

1. அ .பின்வரும் உரைநரைப் பகுதிரைப் படித்துக் ககொடுக்கப்பட்ை
பலவுள் கதரிவுகெய் வினொக்களுக்கு ஏற்ற விரை எழுதுக.. (5x1=5)

திருவள்ளுவர் பபாற்றிய விருந்பதாம்பல் புதியவர்களுக்கானது.

இன்று அது மறறந்துபபான ஒன்று எனக் கூறல் பவண்டும்; அதற்கு மாறான
புதிய விருந்பதாம்பல் முறற ஒன்று இன்று சமூகத்தில் மசல்வாக்குப்
மபற்றுள்ளது. நன்கு அறிமுகமானவர்க்கும் பசி அறியாதவர்க்கும் ஆடம்பரமான
வறகயில் பபருணவு பறடக்கும் வழக்கம் இப்பபாது விருந்து என்று மபயர்
மபறுகின்றது.. இது, தன்னலமின்றி நிகழ்ந்துவந்த பறழய விருந்பதாம்பலுக்கு
மாறானது. இந்தப் புதிய முறறக்குத் தன்னலபம அடிப்பறட. ஒருவர் மசய்த
உதவிறயப் பாராட்டிபயா, மசய்யக்கூடிய உதவிறய எதிர்பார்த்பதா, அல்லது
அவரால் கிறடக்கும் மபயர் புகழ் கருதிபயா அவர்க்கு விருந்து றவப்பது
இன்றறய வழக்கம். எளிய மக்களுக்கு - மசல்வமும் மசல்வாக்கும்
இல்லாதவர்க்கு - இத்தறகய விருந்தில் இடம் இல்றல என்பதாபலபய இதன்
உண்றம வடிவம் விளங்குகிறது அன்பறா? ஒருகால் ஏறழ எளியவர்க்கு இந்த
விருந்தில் எவ்வாபறா கண் மறறவாகத் தப்பித் தவறி இடம் கிறடப்பினும்,
அவர் விருந்து அளிப்பவரிடமிருந்து இன்மசால் மபறமுடியாது. விழாக்கறள
முன்னிட்டு நறடமபறும் விருந்துகளும் குறித்த ஒரு நாள் அல்லது சிலநாள்
மட்டுபம நிகழும். திருவள்ளுவர் கூறுவதுபபால், விருந்தினறர நாள்பதாறும்
ஓம்புதல் இன்று இல்றல. விருந்து என்று குறித்த நாள் கழிந்த மறுநாள்
அங்குக் காக்றகயும் நாடாது; எளிய கஞ்சியும் அங்கு மறுநாள் மபறுதல் அரிது.
ஆதலின் பரந்த உணர்வு மபறபவண்டும். . பண்றடக்காலத்தில்
இல்வாழ்வாரிடம் அறமந்திருந்த விருந்பதாம்புதல் இன்று இல்றல

வினொக்கள்

I. இக்காலத்தில் விருந்து யாருக்குத் தரப்படுகிறது ?.

A( புதியவர்க்கு B (அறிமுகமானவர்க்கு C (பசி அறியாதவர்க்கு

D) அறிமுகமானவர்க்கும் பசி அறியாதவர்க்கும்
 II. இன்றுள்ள புதிய விருந்து முறறக்கு எது அடிப்பறடயாக உள்ளது?

A( புகறழ எதிர்பார்த்தல் B (தன்னல அடிப்பறட

C (பாராட்றட எதிர்பார்த்தல் D) மபயறர எதிர்பார்த்தல்
III. இத்தறகய விருந்தில் யாருக்கு இடம் இல்றல?

A( மசல்வம் இல்லாதவர்க்கு B (மசல்வாக்கு இல்லாதவர்க்கு

C (மசல்வமும் மசல்வாக்கும் இல்லாதவர்க்கு D) மசல்வந்தர்க்கு
IV. விருந்பதாம்பறல எப்பபாது மசய்ய பவண்டும் என்கிறார் திருவள்ளுவர்?
A( நாள்பதாறும் B (விழா நாள்களில் C (பண்டிறக நாள்களில்
D) பிறந்த நாளில்
V. திருவள்ளுவர் பபாற்றிய விருந்பதாம்பல் யாருக்கானது?

A( உறவினர்களுக்கானது B (நண்பர்களுக்கானது
C (அண்றட வட்டாருக்கானது
ீ D) புதியவர்களுக்கானது

2. பின்வரும் பத்திரைப் படித்து அதரனத் கதொைர்ந்து வரும்

வினொக்களுக்கு உரிை விரைகரை எழுதுக. (5×1=5)

வலுவான வரலாற்று ஆதாரங்கறளக்மகாண்டிருக்கும்

சமூகத்தினர் நாம். சங்கஇலக்கியம் உறரத்த வரலாற்றுச் சான்றுகறளக் கீ ழடிச்
சான்றுகள் உறுதிப்படுத்துகின்றன இரண்டாயிரம்ஆண்டுகளுக்கு முன்பப கீ றழ
மற்றும் பமறலநாடுகளுடன் வாணிபத் மதாடர்றபத் தமிழர்கள்
பமற்மகாண்டிருந்தனர் என்று சிலப்பதிகாரம், பரிபாடல், மதுறரக்காஞ்சி
பபான்ற பண்றடய தமிழ்இலக்கியங்கள் பறறசாற்றிவந்தன. இந்த வரலாற்று
உண்றமறய அறிவியல் முறறயில் உறுதிப்படுத்தும் விதத்தில்,மதால்லியல்
அகழாய்வுகளில் கரிம மாதிரிகள் கிறடத்துள்ளன .அமமரிக்காவின் மியாமி
நகரில்அறமந்துள்ள பீட்டா பகுப்பாய்வு ஆய்வகத்திற்கு அனுப்பப்பட்டு.காலக்
கணக்கீ டு மசய்யப்பட்டுள்ளது.

ஆதிச்சநல்லூரில் கிறடத்த முதுமக்கள் தாழி கி.மு.எட்டாம்

நூற்றாண்டுக்கும் ஆறாம் நூற்றாண்டுக்கும் இறடப்பட்டது . கீ ழடியில்
கிறடத்த எச்சங்கள் 2500ஆண்டுகளுக்கு முன்பப தமிழர்கள் எழுத்தறிவு
மபற்றிருந்தறதக் கணிக்க உதவின. சிவகறள அகழாய்வில்கிறடக்கப்மபற்ற
மநல்மணிகறளக் கரிமப்பகுப்பாய்வுக்கு உட்படுத்தியபபாது அதன் வயது கி.மு.
1,155 என்று உறுதிப்படுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது. மகாற்றக அகழாய்வில்
கிறடக்கப்மபற்ற பமற்கத்திய நாட்டுப் பாறன ஓடுகளும், மவள்ளிக் காசுகளும்
பண்றடக்காலத்திபலபய பன்னாட்டு வணிகம் நறடமபற்றறமக்குச் சான்று
பகர்கின்றன.,.மதாடரும் ஆய்வுகள் நம்முறடய மதான்றமறய மட்டும்
அல்லாது வரலாற்று பமன்றமறயயும் மவளிப்படுத்துகின்றன!

Uண்றடய தமிழ் அரசுகள் 2000 ஆண்டுகளுக்கு முன்னபர

மாமபரும் கடல்வல்லரசுகளாகவும் இருந்துள்ளன. இமயவரம்பன்
மநடுஞ்பசரலாதனும், பசரன் மசங்குட்டுவனும் தம் கடற்பறட மூலம்
கடம்பக்மகாள்றளயர்கறள அழித்தனர் எனப் பதிற்றுப்பத்து குறிப்பிடுகிறது

வினொக்கள்
I. பமறலநாடுகளுடன் தமிழர்கள் மகாண்டிருந்த வாணிபத் மதாடர்றபக்
கூறும் இலக்கியங்கள் யாறவ?
II. வரலாற்று உண்றமறய அறிவியல் முறறயில் உறுதிப்படுத்த
ஆய்வாளர்கள் மசய்வன யாறவ?
III. பதிற்றுப்பத்து குறிப்பிடும் வரலாற்றுச் மசய்தி யாது ?
IV. தமிழர்கள் எத்தறன ஆண்டுகளுக்கு முன் எழுத்தறிவு மபற்றிருந்தனர்?
V. சிவகறள மநல்மணி கூறும் மசய்தி யாது ?

பகுதி – ஆ (இலக்கணப்பகுதி)

Grammar-12 Marks

3. ெொன்று தருக :(எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும்) (3x1=3)

I. மதாடர்மமாழி
. A) படித்தான் B). அறம் மவல்க C) றக D) இறசத்தாய்
II. உருபும் பயனும் உடன் மதாக்கத் மதாறக
A( வானவில் B (குறள் படி C (மாதவி மகள்
D).மறல ஏறினான்
III. மரபு வழாநிறல
A) மதன்னஞ்மசடி B) மதன்றன இறல C) மாவிறல
D) கரும்பு ஓறல
IV. விறனமுற்றுத் மதாடர்
A) மசன்ற பகாறத B) நல்ல மாணவன்
C) படித்தான் பாரி D) வாய்றமபய மவல்லும்
V. மசய்யுளிறச அளமபறட
A( உரனறசஇ B (மகடுப்பதூஉம் C (ஆஅளிய D) உடுப்பதும்
4. யகொடிட்ை இைங்கரை நிைப்புக: (மூன்று மட்டும் ) (3x1=3)

I. மபாருள்பகாள் _________________வறகப்படும்.
A) ஆறு B) ஏழு C) எட்டு D) ஒன்பது
II. ஐந்மதாறககளின் புறத்பத பவறு சில மறறந்துவரும் மதாறக ____
A) பவற்றுறமத்மதாறக B) உவறமத்மதாறக
C) உம்றமத்மதாறக D) அன்மமாழித்மதாறக
III. முதுபவனில் காலத்றதப் மபாழுதாக உறடய திறணகள்
A) குறிஞ்சி,முல்றல,மருதம் B) முல்றல, மருதம்,மநய்தல்
இ) மருதம் ,மநய்தல்,குறிஞ்சி D) மருதம், மநய்தல் பாறல
IV. மவளிப்பறட விறடகள் ……………………… ஆகிய மூன்றும்ஆகும்.
A) சுட்டு ,ஏவல், மறற B) சுட்டு , மறற,பநர்
C) சுட்டு , மறற,இனமமாழி D) சுட்டு , வினா ,பநர்
V. விறனறயக் குறிக்காமல் விறன மசய்தவறனக் குறிப்பது ________
A(. மதாழிற்மபயர் B (பண்புப்மபயர்
C (விறனயாலறணயும் D).படர்க்றகப் மபயர்

5. இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு எழுதுக. (எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும்)

(3x1=3)
I. யாபனா அரசன்
A( .இறடச்மசால் மதாடர் B(. விறனத் மதாடர்
C (உரிச்மசால் மதாடர் D) எழுவாய்த் மதாடர்
II. நிலா நிலா ஓடிவா
A( மரபு வழு B (திறண வழு C (காலவழு
D) .மரபு வழுவறமதி
III. சாணம் மமழுகினாள்
A. இரண்டாம் பவற்றுறமத்மதாறக
B. மூன்றாம் பவற்றுறமத்மதாகாநிறல
C. இரண்டாம் பவற்றுறமத்மதாகாநிறல
D. மூன்றாம் பவற்றுறமத்மதாறக
IV. எங்ங்கிறறவன்
A( மமய்யளமபறட B (ஒற்றளமபறட C (உயிரளமபறட
D) ஆய்தக்குறுக்கம்
 V. புலி வில் கயல்
A) பவற்றுறமத்மதாறக B) உவறமத்மதாறக
C (உம்றமத்மதாறக D) உம்றம விரி

6. கூறிைவொறு கெய்க (எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும்) (3x1=3)

I. சுடு மண் (மபயமரச்சத் மதாடராக்குக)
A) மண் சுடும் B) சுடுகின்ற மண் C) சூடுகின்ற மண்
D) மண் சுடுமா?
II. உணவு உண்டாயா? (இக்பகள்விக்கு உற்றது உறரத்தல் விறட
எழுதுக)
A) வயிறு வலிக்கும் B) பால் குடித்பதன்
C) உண்ணவில்றல D) வயிறு வலித்தது
III. எலிறயப் பிடிக்கும் மபாறி ( உருபும் பயனும் உடன்மதாக்கத்
மதாறகயாக்குக )
A) எலியது மபாறி B) எலியினது மபாறி
C) எலிக்குப் மபாறி D) எலிப்மபாறி
IV. மபாய்றக (மநய்தலுக்கு உரிய நீர்நிறல ஆக்குக )
A) அருவி நீர் B) உவர்க்கழி C) காட்டாறு ஈ. சுறனநீர்
V. எள்றள உண் (மபாதுமமாழி ஆக்குக)
A( எள் B (எட்டு C (எள் உண் D) எள் து

பகுதி – இ -(இலக்கிைம்)

Main course book -31 Marks

7. பின்வரும் யகொடிட்ை இைங்கரைத் திருக்குறள் ெீர்கைொல் நிைப்புக
[3x1=3).
I. எப்மபாருள் எத்தன்றமத் தாயினும் அப்மபாருள்

மமய்ப்மபாருள் ............ தறிவு

A) அறிவ B) உணர்வ C) காண்ப D) மதரிவ
II. நாள்பதாறும் நாடி முறறமசய்யா _____________
நாள்பதாறும் நாடு மகடும்
A) பவந்தன் B) மன்னவன் C) அரசன் D) மக்கள்
III. குற்றம் இலனாய்க் குடிமசய்து _____________
 சுற்றமாய்ச் சுற்றும் உலகு
A) பசர்வாறனச் B) வாழ்வாறனச் C) நிற்பாறனச்
D) உயர்வாறனச்

8. பின்வரும் கெய்யுள் பகுதிரைத் கதொைர்ந்துள்ை பலவுள்கதரிவு

கெய். வினொக்களுக்கு ஏற்ற விரை எழுதுக. [5x1= 5]

”உறங்கு கின்ற கும்ப கன்ன வுங்கண் மொை வொழ்கவலொம்

இறங்கு கின்ற தின்று கொகண ழுந்தி ைொகை ழுந்திைொய்
கறங்கு யபொல விற்பி டித்த கொல தூதர் ரகைியல
உறங்கு வொயு றங்கு வொைி னிக்கி ைந்து றங்குவொய்”

வினொக்கள்

I. இச்மசய்யுள் இடம் மபற்றுள்ள நூலின் மபயர் என்ன?

A) பதம் பாவணி B) கம்பராமாயணம்
C) சீ வகசிந்தாமணி D) திருவாசகம்
II. இந்நூலின் ஆசிரியர் யார்?
A) உமறுப்புலவர் B) பசக்கிழார் C) வரமாமுனிவர்
ீ
D) கம்பர்
III. இச்மசய்யுள் இடம் மபற்றுள்ள படலத்தின் மபயர் என்ன?
A) நாட்டுப்படலம் B) ஆற்றுப்படலம்
(இ) கங்றகப்படலம் D) கும்பகர்ணன் வறதப்படலம்
IV. கறங்கு என்ற மசால்லின் மபாருள் என்ன?
A) எமன் B) காற்றாடி C) வில் D) அம்பு
V. இச்மசய்யுளில் அறமந்த சந்தம் எறதப்பபான்று உள்ளது ?
A( கடப்பாறரயால் இடிப்பது பபான்ற சந்தம்
B) உலக்றகயால் இடிப்பது பபான்ற சந்தம்
C) அம்மியில் அறரப்பது பபான்ற சந்தம்
D) சிங்கம் முழங்குவது பபான்ற சந்தம்

9. பின்வரும் கெய்யுள் வினொக்களுள் எரவயைனும் இைண்ைனுக்கு

விரை தருக (2x4=8)
 I. தமிழன்றனறய வாழ்த்துவதற்கான காரணங்களாகப்

பாவலபரறு சுட்டுவன யாறவ?.

II. முல்றலப்பாட்டு காட்டும் கார்காலச் மசய்திகறள விவரி

III. திருவித்துவக்பகாட்டு அம்மாறன குலபசகரர் வாழ்த்துவது

எப்படி?

IV. முயற்சியின் சிறப்பு குறித்து திருக்குறள் மமாழிவன யாறவ?

10. எரவயைனும் மூன்று உரைநரை வினொக்களுக்கு விரைைைி

(3x5=15 )

I. காற்று எவ்வாமறல்லாம் ஆற்றலாகத் திகழ்கிறது

II. வறுறமயிலும் விருந்பதாம்பினர் தமிழர்- விளக்குக.

III. மமய்நிகர் உதவியாளர் குறித்து விவரி

IV. தமிழ்மமாழி மபாருள்வளம் உறடயது என்பறத விளக்குக

V.

பகுதி – ஈ ( துரணப்பொைம்)

Section –D Non-detail-10 Marks

11. பின்வருவனவற்றுள் ஏயதனும் ஒரு துரணப்பொைக் கட்டுரை

எழுது
1x10=10
I. புயலிபல ஒரு பதாணி
II. புதிய நம்பிக்றக
III. பாய்ச்சல் சிறுகறதச் சுருக்கம்
 பகுதி – உ (பரைப்பொற்றல்)

Section -E Creative Writing-17 Marks

12. . அ.கீ ழ்க்கொணும் கொட்ெிரைக் கண்டு கவினுற எழுதுக. (3)

ஆ. பார்றவத்திறன் பாதிக்கப்பட்ட மாற்றுத்திறனாளி மாணவர்கள்

மட்டும் எழுத பவண்டிய வினா.

பின்வரும் பழகமொழிகரைத் கதொைரில் அரமத்து எழுதுக. (3)

I. எருது புண் காக்றக அறியுமா ?

II. ஏட்டுச் சுறரக்காய் கறிக்கு உதவாது.

13. கடிதம் எழுதுக (1x8=8)

I. வருமானச் சான்றிதழ் பவண்டி வட்டாட்சியர்க்கு விண்ணப்பக்

கடிதம் எழுதுக
II. அல்லது
III. மனவளத்றத வளர்த்துக் மகாள்ளும் முறற குறித்து அயலூர்
நண்பனுக்குக் கடிதம் எழுதுக.

[இரண்டு கடிதங்களிலும் உன் முகவரி: அ, அறவொழி /அ.நறுமுரக

10. சுைர் குடிைிருப்பு , அண்ணொநகர் யமற்கு , கென்ரன-600040
எனக்மகாள்க]
14. ஏயதனும் ஒரு பகுதிைின் குறிப்புகரைப் பைன்படுத்திக்
கட்டுரை ஒன்று எழுதுக. 1x6=6

I. முன்னுறர – தகவல் ஊடகங்கள் –ஊடக வறககள் – மசய்தித்தாள்

வாமனாலி,மதாறலக்காட்சி ,சமூக வறலத்தளங்கள் ––

ஊடகத்தால் ஏற்படும் நன்றமகள் – எதிர்மறற விறளவுகள்-

முடிவுறர.

II. முன்னுறர – முன்பதான்றி மூத்த தமிழ் – இலக்கிய வளம்-

இலக்கணச்சிறப்பு- பழறமயும் புதுறமயும் – அறிவியல் தமிழ்

இறணயத் தமிழ் -முடிவுறர.

III. முன்னுறர – வரதட்சறண என்னும் தீய நறடமுறற –

மபண்களுக்கான அநீதி – அரசாங்கத்தின் முயற்சி- மபண்கள்

அறடயும் துயர் – சமநீதி காண்பபாம் - மகிழ்வான வாழ்வு –

முடிவுறர.

__________________
 பத்தாம் வகுப்பு மாதிரி வினாத்தாள், 2025-2026
Class X Marking Scheme
தமிழ் ( TAMIL 006)

கால அளவு: 3 மணி Time allowed : 3 Hrs

மமாத்த மதிப்மபண்கள்: 80 Maximum Marks : 80

பகுதி – அ (படித்தல் திறன்)

Unseen Passage-10 Marks

1. அ .பின்வரும் உரைநரைப் பகுதிரைப் படித்துக் ககொடுக்கப்பட்ை பலவுள்

கதரிவுகெய் வினொக்களுக்கு ஏற்ற விரை எழுதுக.. (5x1=5)

I. D) அறிமுகமானவர்க்கும் பசி அறியாதவர்க்கும்

II. B) தன்னல அடிப்படை
III. C) மசல்வமும் மசல்வாக்கும் இல்லாதவர்க்கு
IV. A) நாள்ததாறும்
V. D) புதியவர்களுக்கானது

2. பின்வரும் பத்திரைப் படித்து அதரனத் கதொைர்ந்து வரும்

வினொக்களுக்கு உரிை விரைகரை எழுதுக. (5×1=5)

1. ெிலப்பதிகொைம், பரிப்பொைல், மதுரைக்கொஞ்ெி

2. அமமரிக்காவின் மியாமி நகரில்அடமந்துள்ள பீட்ைா பகுப்பாய்வு

ஆய்வகத்திற்கு அனுப்பப்பட்டு.காலக் கணக்கீ டு மசய்யப்பட்டுள்ளது.

3. இமயவரம்பன் மநடுஞ்தசரலாதனும், தசரன் மசங்குட்டுவனும் தம் கைற்படை

மூலம் கைம்பக்மகாள்டளயர்கடள அழித்தனர் எனப் பதிற்றுப்பத்து

குறிப்பிடுகிறது

4. 2500

5. சிவகடள அகழாய்வில் கிடைக்கப்மபற்ற மநல்மணிகடளக்

கரிமப்பகுப்பாய்வுக்கு உட்படுத்தியதபாது அதன் வயது கி.மு. 1,155 என்று

உறுதிப்படுத்தப்பட்டுள்ளது.
 பகுதி – ஆ (இலக்கணப்பகுதி)

Grammar-12 Marks

3. ெொன்று தருக: (எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும்) (3x1=3)

I. B). அறம் மவல்க

II. A) வானவில்
III. C) மாவிடல
IV. C) படித்தான் பாரி
V. C) ஆஅளிய

4. கூறிைவொறு கெய்க ( எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும் ) 3X1 = 3

I. C) எட்டு
II. D) அன்மமாழித்மதாடக
III. D) மருதம், மநய்தல் பாடல
IV. B) சுட்டு , மடற,தநர்
V. C) விடனயாலடணயும்

5. இலக்கணக் குறிப்பு தருக (எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும் ) 3x1=3

I. A) .இடைச்மசால் மதாைர்
II. D) .மரபு வழுவடமதி
III. D) மூன்றாம் தவற்றுடமத்மதாடக
IV. B) ஒற்றளமபடை
V. C) உம்டமத்மதாடக

6. யகொடிட்ை இைத்ரத நிைப்புக. (எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும் )

3X1=3
I. B) சுடுகின்ற மண்
II. D) வயிறு வலித்தது
III. D) எலிப்மபாறி
IV. B) உவர்க்கழி
V. B) எட்டு
 பகுதி – இ - (இலக்கிைம்)

Main course book -31 Marks

7. பின்வரும் யகொடிட்ை இைங்கரைத் திருக்குறள் ெீர்கைொல் நிைப்புக
[3x1=3).
I. C) காண்பர்
II. B) மன்னவன்
III. B) வாழ்வாடனச்

8. பின்வரும் கெய்யுரைப் படித்து அதரனத் கதொைர்ந்து வரும் பலவுள்

கதரிவு வினொக்களுக்கு விரைைைி. 5x1=5

I. B) கம்பராமாயணம்
II. D) கம்பர்
III. D) கும்பகர்ணன் வடதப்பைலம்
IV. B) காற்றாடி
V. B) உலக்டகயால் இடிப்பது தபான்ற சந்தம்

9. பின்வரும் கெய்யுள் வினொக்கைில் எரவயைனும் இைண்ைனுக்கு

விரைைைி: 3x3=9

விடைகள் பிடழகள் இன்றி சரியாக இருந்தால் முழு மதிப்மபண்

வழங்கலாம்

10. பின்வரும் உரைநரை வினொக்கைில் எரவயைனும் மூன்றனுக்கு மட்டும்

விரைைைி: 3×5=15

விடைகள் பிடழகள் இன்றி சரியாக இருந்தால் முழு மதிப்மபண்

வழங்கலாம்

பகுதி – ஈ ( துரணப்பொைம்)

Section –D Non-detail-10 Marks

11. பின்வருவனவற்றுள் ஏயதனும் ஒரு துரணப்பொைக் கட்டுரை எழுது

1x10=10

முன்னுடர- 1 மதிப்மபண்
துடணத் தடலப்புகளுைன் கூடிய மபாருளுடர-8 மதிப்மபண்கள்
 முடிவுடர – 1 மதிப்மபண்.

பகுதி – உ (பரைப்பொற்றல்)

Section -E Creative Writing-17 Marks

12. கொட்ெிரைக் ககொண்டு கவினுற எழுதுக. 1×3=3

முப்பது மசாற்களுக்குக் குடறயாத அல்லது 5 மதாைர்களும் தடலப்புைன்

இருப்பின் முழு மதிப்மபண் வழங்குக.

13.. கடிதம் வரைக : 1×8=8

அலுவல் முரறக் கடிதம் V. உள்ளைக்கம் -3

VI. முடிப்பு -½
I. அனுப்புநர் - 1
VII. இைம்,தததி ½
II. மபறுநர் -1
VIII. உடறதமல்முகவரி-1
III. விளி -½
IV. மபாருள் -½
நட்பு/உறவு முரறக் கடிதம்

இைம்,தததி - 1 உள்ளைக்கம் -3½

விளி -½ முடிப்பு -1
நலம் தகட்ைல்- 1 உடறதமல்முகவரி-1

14. பின்வருவனவற்றுள் ஏயதனும் ஒரு பகுதிைின் குறிப்புகரைக்

ககொண்டு கட்டுரை வரைக. 1×6=6

தடலப்பு – ½
முன்னுடர – ½
உட்தடலப்புகளுைன் கூடிய மபாருளுடர – 4
முடிவுடர – ½
தமற்தகாள் – ½

கட்டுடர பிடழயின்றி எழுதியிருப்பின் முழுமதிப்மபண் வழங்கலாம்.

குடறந்த பட்சம் 4 மதிப்மபண் வழங்கலாம்.
 SQP-X

2025-2026

ARABIC (Code: 016)

)016 :‫) العربية الرمز‬

• Please check that this question paper contains…. printed pages.

• Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should
be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.

• Please check that this question paper contains …. Questions.

• Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting
it.

• 15-minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. During
this time the students will read the question paper only and will not
write any answer on answer-sheets.
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

‫ ثالث ساعات‬:‫الوقت الملسموح‬ 80 :‫أقىص العالمات‬

Note: Unless otherwise required in a question, answers may be written either

in Urdu or in English or in Arabic.
ّ ‫ز‬ ّ
‫ز‬
‫االنجليية او‬ ‫األردوية او‬ ‫ اذا لم تحدد لغة الجواب فيمكن أن تكتب األجوبة ّإما يف‬: ‫المالحظة‬
.‫الهندية او العربية – اكتب رقم التسلسل للسؤال قبل االجابة عليه‬

Section-A: Reading Skills (Unseen passage) - 10 Marks

1. Read the following passages carefully and attempt any two of them, by filling
the blanks with appropriate words given in the bracket, each questions carries
one mark. (10)

Page 1 of 8
 ‫ن‬
‫فقرتي منها فقط‪ ,‬بمأل الفراغ بالكلمات‬ ‫ن‬
‫التاليتي بعناية واجب عن أسئلة‬ ‫ن‬
‫الفقرتي‬ ‫اقرأ‬
‫ن‬
‫القوسي‪ .‬ويحمل كل سؤال عالمة واحدة‪.‬‬ ‫المناسبة من الكلمات الواردة ن‬
‫بي‬
‫(الف)‬
‫َ‬
‫اه ًرا‪َ .‬و ِلكن لم َي ِجد ف ْر َصة‬ ‫َ َ ََََ ى ْ ْ َ َ ً َ‬ ‫َ َ ََْ َ ْ ُ َْ ُ‬
‫كان عدنان يحلم لعب كرة القد ِم ويتم زّن أن يص ِبح َل ِعبا م ِ‬
‫َ‬ ‫ز َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ََْ َ‬ ‫َ َ َ َ ‪ .‬ز َ َ َ ْ ى َ َ‬
‫في ٍة ذه َب عدنان إَل َب ْي ِت خ ِال ِه يف الق ْر َي ِة ِلقض ِاء‬ ‫وف إجازٍة صي‬ ‫ِلتح ِقيق أم ِني ِت ِه ِبسب ِب بدان ِت ِه ِ ي‬
‫ْ َ‬ ‫ْ‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫ىأيام عطل ِت ِه َم َع ْاب ِن خ ِال ِه ف ْر َحان‪.‬‬
‫ُ َ‬ ‫َ ْ ُ َ َ َ ‪ َ َ َّ ُ .‬ى‬
‫قد َم َف َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫َ َ َ َ َ‬
‫رحان ِبالك َرة ش ىج َعه‬ ‫اهد لعب كرة القدم كلما ت‬ ‫س عدنان ِبج ِان ِب الميد ِان يش ِ‬
‫َ‬ ‫جل‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ َ َْ‬ ‫ُ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫َ ً ْ‬ ‫َ َ َْ‬ ‫ى‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫صفيق‪ .‬وكان قلبه ممت ِلئا ِبرغ َب ِة اإلن ِض َم ِام إَل ف ِريق ك َرة القدم‪ .‬انت َهت الم َب َاراة َو َحاز‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫الت‬ ‫ب‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ان‬ ‫دن‬ ‫ع‬
‫دف ْ ز‬‫َ َ‬ ‫َفريق َف َ‬
‫ي‪.‬‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ه‬ ‫ب‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ان‬ ‫رح‬ ‫ِ‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ْ َ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫ََََ ى‬
‫اه ًرا (َل ِعبون‪َ ,‬ل ِع َبة‪َ ,‬ل ِع ًبا)‬ ‫‪ .1‬ويتم زّن أن يص ِبح ‪ --------‬م ِ‬
‫ْ‬ ‫ْ َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫تح ِقيق ْأم ِن َي ِت ِه (لم َي ِجد‪َ ,‬ل َيجد‪ ,‬إن َيجد)‬ ‫‪َ .2‬ولكن ‪ -------‬ف ْر َصة ل ْ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫س)‬ ‫( َن َام‪َ ,‬ق َام‪َ ,‬ج َل َ‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫الميد ِان‬
‫َ َ‬
‫‪ -------- .3‬عدنان ِب َج ِان ِب‬
‫ى‬ ‫ى‬
‫التصفيق‪ِ ,‬بالت ْص ِفيق‪َ ,‬م َع الت ْص ِفيق)‬
‫ز‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫رحان ِبالك َرة ش ىج َعه عدنان‪ ( -------‬يف‬
‫ُ َ‬ ‫قد َم َف َ‬ ‫‪ َ.‬ى‬
‫‪ 4‬ت‬
‫ِ‬
‫ْ َ‬ ‫ز‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫دف ْ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫‪َ .5‬و َح َاز َفريق َف َ‬
‫اف)‬ ‫ٍ‬ ‫د‬ ‫أه‬ ‫ب‬ ‫‪,‬‬ ‫ي‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ه‬ ‫ب‬ ‫‪,‬‬
‫ٍ ِ‬‫ف‬ ‫د‬ ‫(به‬ ‫‪------‬‬ ‫ان‬ ‫رح‬ ‫ِ‬
‫(ب)‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫ى‬ ‫َ‬ ‫الط َعام َو َى َ‬ ‫ََ َ ‪ .‬ى‬ ‫ٌ‬ ‫ى‬
‫الح َيوانات‪ .‬كثي ِمن‬ ‫ات عال ِم‬ ‫الّشاب ِمن زضوري ِ‬ ‫الط َعام ِن ْع َمة من هللا تعاَل‬
‫َ َ‬ ‫َ ْ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َْ ى َ َ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ ً ز ْ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫ى‬
‫العال ِم ت ْح َت خ ّط الفقر والفاقة‪.‬‬ ‫الناس ي َو ِاجهون َمش ِاكل ع ِنيفة ِ يف أغ ِذ ِيت ِهم‪ .‬ت ِعيش أغل ِبية‬
‫َ ز‬ ‫ى َ‬ ‫ََ‬ ‫ََ‬ ‫َْ‬ ‫َ ً َ َ ِّ َ ً ز‬ ‫َ َ ىً‬ ‫َّ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫ّشفون يف‬ ‫سوف تكون ِقلة األغذية قضية مخيفة ومتحدية يف المستقبل‪ .‬ولكن نرى الناس ي ِ‬
‫َ ُ‬ ‫ون م ىما َأتاهم هللا س ْب َحانه َو َت َع َاَل زف َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ََ‬ ‫ُ َ‬
‫الخي َب ْل َي ْبخلون‪.‬‬
‫ِ‬ ‫يل‬ ‫ب‬
‫ي ِ‬‫س‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ق‬ ‫نف‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ي‬ ‫َل‬ ‫و‬ ‫ات‬ ‫والم َّش َ‬
‫وب‬ ‫وَلت َ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫المأك‬
‫ٌ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫الط َعام ‪ -------‬من هللا َت َع َاَل َ(ث َو ٌ‬ ‫‪ .‬ى‬
‫اب‪َ ,‬بركة‪ِ ,‬ن ْع َمة)‬ ‫‪1‬‬
‫ْ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫َ َ ً ز‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫‪ .2‬ي َو ِاجهون َمش ِاكل ع ِنيفة ِ يف ‪( -------‬أغ ِذ ِيت ِهم‪ ,‬أغ ِذ ِيت ِه‪ ,‬أغ ِذ ِيت ِه ىن)‬
‫َْ‬ ‫َْ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ َ َ َ ّ َ ْ‬ ‫َ‬
‫العال ِم ت ْحت خط الفقر (أق ىلية‪ ,‬أغل ِب ىية‪ ,‬أك َي)‬ ‫‪ .3‬ت ِعيش ‪-------‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫وَلت (تّشف‪ ,‬ن ْ‬ ‫ُ َ‬ ‫ز‬ ‫ى‬
‫الن َ‬ ‫‪َ .4‬ن َ‬
‫ّشفون)‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ي‬ ‫‪,‬‬‫ف‬ ‫ّش‬‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫المأك‬ ‫ف‬‫ي‬ ‫‪-------‬‬ ‫اس‬ ‫ى‬ ‫ر‬
‫َ ُ‬ ‫ز‬
‫الح َسن)‬ ‫الّش‪َ ,‬‬ ‫(الخي‪ِّ َ ,‬‬
‫ِ‬ ‫‪ .5‬يف َس ِبيل ‪َ ------‬ب ْل َي ْبخلون‬
‫‪Page 2 of 8‬‬
 ‫(ج)‬
‫الجار ب َ ْي َحاب َحار‪َ .‬‬
‫وب ْعد‬ ‫الجار َف ْ‬
‫اس َت ْق َب َله َ‬ ‫وأْس َع إَل َ‬ ‫التاجر َإَل َب َل ِد ِه ْ َ‬ ‫ى‬
‫اد‬
‫َ‬
‫ع‬ ‫من‬ ‫عد َقليل من ى‬
‫الز‬
‫َ َ‬
‫ب‬
‫ٍ‬ ‫ٍ‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ٍ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫اط‪.‬‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َْ َ َ ََ َ‬ ‫ى َ َ َ ى‬ ‫أع َطاه َ‬ ‫َ ى ‪ْ َ .‬‬ ‫َ َ َ ى‬
‫الجرة‪ .‬راح ِبها التاجر إَل بي ِت ِه ودلقها عىل ِبس ٍ‬ ‫الجار‬ ‫لب التاجر ِمنه جرته ف‬ ‫بره ٍة ط‬
‫ي‪َ .‬ي ً‬‫الجار‪َ :‬يا َس ِّيدي َأنا َبر ٌ‬ ‫ال َ‬ ‫حكمة‪َ .‬ق َ‬ ‫َ َ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ ُ ُّ َ َ ْ ٌ ‪ َ َ َ .‬ى‬
‫وما َجاء‬ ‫ِي‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫الم‬ ‫إَل‬ ‫األمر‬ ‫ا‬ ‫هذ‬ ‫اجر‬ ‫الت‬ ‫فإذا كلها زيتون رافع‬
‫ى َ َ ز َ َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫َ ى َ َ َ ى َ َْ ً َ ى َ َ‬
‫الج ىرة ذ َه ٌب‪.‬‬ ‫لما طل َب َرددت َها إل ْي ِه ف َيقول األن إنه كان يف‬ ‫التاجر ِبالجرِة وقال‪ :‬إن ِفيها زيتونا‪ .‬ف‬
‫ى‬
‫ى َ ى‬ ‫ى‬ ‫َ ََ‬ ‫َ‬
‫اجر)‬‫ِ‬ ‫الت‬ ‫‪,‬‬‫اجر‬ ‫الت‬ ‫‪,‬‬ ‫اجر‬ ‫الت‬‫(‬ ‫ه‬‫ِ‬ ‫د‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ل‬‫‪ .1‬عاد ‪ -------‬إَل ب‬
‫لب)‬‫(ط َل َبت‪َ ,‬ط َلبوا‪َ ,‬ط َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ى‬
‫وب ْعد بره ٍة ‪ -------‬التاجر ِمنه َج ىرته‬
‫َ‬ ‫‪َ .2‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫ى‬
‫‪َ .3‬ر َاح ِب َها التاجر إَل ‪(َ ------‬ب ْي ِت ِه‪َ ,‬ب ْي ِت ِه َما‪َ ,‬ب ْي ِت ِهم)‬
‫َ ٌ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ ِّ‬
‫مخلص‪ ,‬م ْح ِس ٌن)‬ ‫‪ .4‬يا سيدي أنا ‪( -------‬ب ِر يي‪ِ ,‬‬
‫ى‬ ‫َ‬ ‫التاجر ‪( ------‬ب َ‬ ‫ى‬ ‫‪َ .5‬ي ً‬
‫الج ىرِة‪ِ ,‬باإلن ِاء‪ِ ,‬بالط َع ِام)‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫وما َجاء‬

‫‪Section-B: Writing Skills -10 Marks‬‬

‫‪2. Write a paragraph in about 50 words in Arabic on any one of the‬‬
‫‪following topics:‬‬ ‫)‪(4‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ ُ‬ ‫ن‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ن‬ ‫ّ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫ُُْ‬
‫التالية ‪:‬‬ ‫اكتب ِفقرة بالعر ِبية ِ يف ‪ِ 50‬‬
‫كلمة يف موضوع من الموضوعات ِ‬
‫أ) زَي َارة َم َع ْ َ‬
‫األْسة‬ ‫ِ‬
‫ََْ َ ْ‬
‫المد َر َسة‬ ‫ب) مكتبة‬
‫َ‬
‫ج) ق ْر َي ِ َ يّن‬
‫أو‪OR /‬‬
‫‪Write a letter in Arabic to your friend requesting him to visit you during‬‬
‫‪holiday.‬‬
‫ن‬ ‫ُا ْكتب َ‬
‫رسالة يف اللغة العربية إىل صديقك طلبا لزيارتك خالل العطلة‬
‫‪3. Make two sentences with any two words of the following:‬‬ ‫)‪(2‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫الك ِل َم َت ْ ن‬ ‫َ ّ ُ ََْْ ن ْ ْ َ‬
‫التالية‬ ‫ي‬ ‫باستخد ِام‬ ‫كون جملتي‬
‫ى‬
‫أ) َمحطة‬
‫ب) َماء‬

‫‪Page 3 of 8‬‬
 ‫َ‬
‫ج) م ْزد ِحم‬
‫كرة‬‫د) َت ْذ َ‬
‫‪4. Fill any two of the following blanks:‬‬ ‫)‪(2‬‬
‫َ‬
‫ي ِمن األتي ن‬
‫تي ‪:‬‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ْامأل ْاث َنت ن‬
‫ْ‬ ‫َ‬
‫ِ‬
‫( ْأن َت‪َ ,‬ن ْحن ‪َ ِ ,‬‬
‫ه)‬
‫َ ٌ‬
‫اهرة‬
‫ي‬ ‫أ) ‪ ---------‬م ِ‬
‫هما‪ ,‬ه َو)‬
‫ي‪َ ,‬‬ ‫( ْأن َ زى‬ ‫ب) ‪ -------‬م َ‬
‫دير ِان‬
‫ي)‬ ‫(هم‪ ,‬هو ‪ْ ,‬ان َ زى‬ ‫ْ‬
‫ج) ‪ -------‬أز َواج‬
‫( َن ْحن‪َ ,‬أنا‪َ ِ ,‬‬
‫ه)‬
‫َ‬
‫د) ‪ ---------‬طالب‬
‫ي‬
‫‪5. Correct any two of the following sentences:‬‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫)‪(2‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫َص ِّحح اثنت ن‬
‫ْ‬
‫التالية ‪:‬‬ ‫ي ِمن ِ‬
‫َ ُ َ ى َ َ َ‬ ‫َ َ ى‬
‫المكت َبة‬ ‫أ) أخذ الدارسون كتبهن ِمن‬
‫ص‬ ‫ص‬ ‫ب) َك َت ْبت َخم َسة ق َ‬
‫ٍ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫ً‬
‫الجو َب ِاردة‬
‫ج) َص َار ُّ‬

‫المسجد‬ ‫وص َل الم َسافرات إَل‬ ‫د) َ‬

‫ِ‬
‫‪Section-C: Grammar & Translation - 20 Marks‬‬
‫‪6. Define and illustrate any one of the following with example:‬‬ ‫)‪(5‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ ِّ َ َ ِّ َ ً‬
‫األتية مع األمثلة ‪:‬‬
‫عرف ومثل واحدا ِمن ِ‬
‫الم ْعدود )‪(The number and the countable‬‬‫العدد َو َ‬
‫أ) َ‬

‫ب) الضمي متصل )‪(Attached Pronoun‬‬

‫َ‬
‫ج) كان وأخواتها )‪(Kaana and her Sisters‬‬
‫‪7. Choose any Five correct answers from the bracket:‬‬ ‫)‪(5‬‬
‫وس ْ ن‬ ‫ن َ‬
‫الق َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫األجو َبة َّ‬
‫ْ‬ ‫ْ َ‬
‫ي‪:‬‬ ‫الص ِحيحة بي‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِاخت أي خمسة من‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ َ ََ‬
‫كبي‪ِ ,‬ك َبار ‪,‬ك ِب َية)‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫(‬ ‫‪------------‬‬ ‫د‬‫ِ‬ ‫ل‬ ‫أ) ساعة الو‬
‫الم ْشه َ‬
‫ورة )‬ ‫ي‪َ ,‬‬‫ورَت ْ ز‬
‫َ ْ َ‬ ‫َ ْ ََ‬ ‫ب) َد َر ْست زف ال َم ْد َر َس َت ْ ز‬
‫( المشهورت ِان‪ ,‬المشه ِ‬ ‫ي ‪------‬‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِي‬
‫َ َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫َ ُ َ َ َ َْ‬
‫(ذهبوا ‪,‬ذه َب ‪,‬ذه َبت)‬ ‫المكتب‬ ‫ج) ‪ -----‬ع ِاملون إَل‬
‫ه ‪ ,‬ه ىن)‬ ‫( ْأن َت ‪َ ِ ,‬‬ ‫ة‬ ‫الد َر َ‬
‫اس‬
‫ْ ٌ ز ِّ‬
‫د) ‪ -----‬مخ ِلص ِ يف‬
‫ي‬
‫‪Page 4 of 8‬‬
 ‫ى‬
)‫ النظيف‬, ‫ظيف‬
‫ى‬ َ ‫ى‬ َ ٌ ُ َ َ
ِ ‫ الن‬, ‫ظيف ِة‬
ِ ‫ (الن‬--------‫ه) الحوض مملوء ِبالم ِاء‬
َ َ َ
)‫ موافق‬,‫ موافقات‬,‫ َم َعك (موافقون‬------ ‫و) أنا‬
8. Translate any five of the following into English: (5)
َّ ْ
‫َترجم خمسة من األتية إىل اإلن ن‬
َ َ َ َ ْ َ
: ‫جلتية‬ِ ِ ِ ِ
َ ‫افلة إَل‬ َ َ َ َ
‫الم ْيدان‬ ‫لت الح‬ِ ‫أ) وص‬
‫اب‬ َ ‫ب) ْأن َت َتق ُرأ الك َت‬
ِ
َ ‫َ ز‬
‫ج) َماذا ِ يف َج ْي ِبك ؟‬
َ َ
‫د) ن ْحن َر َج ْعنا َم َس ًاء‬
ٌ ‫ه) أبوه م‬
‫دير‬
َ َ
‫هذ ِه الغرفة ن ِظيفة‬
ِ )‫و‬
َ
‫ز) ه ْل هم ع ىمال ؟‬
ُ َ َ ‫ى‬ ََ
‫خمسة كتب‬ ‫ع) عىل الطاولة‬
9. Translate any five of the following into Arabic: (5)
َّ َ َ َ َ َ َ ْ َ َ
: ‫األتية إىل العر ِبية‬
ِ ‫ن‬ ‫م‬ِ ‫ة‬ ‫س‬ ‫م‬ ‫خ‬ ‫م‬ ‫رج‬
ِ ‫ت‬
1. They are our teachers
2. That is a wide library
3. Do you know them?
4. When is your holiday?
5. I bought a new bag
6. Where is your mother?
7. I like red car
8. Yes, you are my best friend

Section-D: Literature - 40 Marks

10. Translate any two of the following passages (10)
َ
: ‫ات الت ِالية‬ َ ْ
ِ ‫القطع‬
َ ‫َت ْرجم ِقطعت ن‬
ِ ‫ي ِمن‬
َ َ ْ
ِ ِ
)‫(أ‬

Page 5 of 8
 ‫َّ‬ ‫ى‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َْ ز َ َ َ َ ز ى َ َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َبعد َموعد ى‬
‫اح ذهب ن ِبيل إَل َمحطة سكة‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ب‬ ‫الص‬ ‫ف‬ ‫ي‬ ‫وم‬ ‫ي‬ ‫ات‬ ‫ذ‬‫و‬ ‫إجازة أسبوعي‪.‬‬ ‫يل‬ ‫ب‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ن‬ ‫أخذ‬ ‫فر‬ ‫الس‬ ‫ِ‬
‫ى‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ى َ َ َ َ َ َ‬ ‫ََ‬ ‫ز‬
‫بابيك َحجز التذاكر م ْزد ِح َمة ِبالناس‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ش‬ ‫ة‬ ‫اع‬ ‫ق‬ ‫ت‬ ‫ان‬ ‫ك‬ ‫‪.‬‬‫ر‬ ‫ف‬ ‫الس‬ ‫اكر‬ ‫ذ‬ ‫دهىل ِل َحجز ت‬ ‫الح ِديد يف نيو ي‬
‫َ‬
‫َ َ‬
‫في يف طوابي طويلة َأمام‬
‫زَ ز َ‬ ‫اسا َكثي َ‬
‫ين َو ِاق‬ ‫الب َنات‪َ .‬رأى َنبيل َأن ً‬ ‫واألوَلد َو َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫ساء‬
‫ِّ‬ ‫م َن ِّ َ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫الرجال والن ِ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫زَ ز‬ ‫َ‬ ‫الحديد ىية َو َ‬ ‫الد َّكات َ‬ ‫زَ َ ى‬ ‫التذاكر‪َ .‬بعضهم َكانوا َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫ي يف‬ ‫واق ِف‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫وا‬ ‫ان‬ ‫ك‬ ‫م‬ ‫ه‬ ‫عض‬ ‫ب‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫عىل‬ ‫سي‬ ‫ال‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ج‬ ‫ش َب ِابيك حجز‬
‫ً ز َ‬ ‫َ َ َ‬ ‫َ َ َ‬ ‫ورهم‪َ .‬ت َح ى‬ ‫ين َد َ‬ ‫الط َوابي منتظر َ‬ ‫ى‬
‫قضاء‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ور َو ِل‬
‫ٍ‬ ‫اب‬ ‫ط‬ ‫ف‬‫ي‬ ‫ا‬ ‫أيض‬ ‫يل‬ ‫ب‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ن‬ ‫ف‬ ‫وق‬ ‫‪.‬‬ ‫ة‬ ‫ٍ‬ ‫يئ‬ ‫ط‬‫ِ‬ ‫ب‬ ‫ة‬ ‫ع‬‫بّش‬ ‫الطوابي‬ ‫كت‬ ‫ر‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ِ ِ‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ى‬
‫الوقت َبدأ َي َت َحدث َم َع أخر َ‬
‫ين ز يف الغرفة‪.‬‬ ‫ِ‬
‫َ‬

‫(ب)‬
‫ُْ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ٌَ ز‬ ‫َ َ َ ٌ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َْ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ ْ‬
‫فس َها‪ .‬كنت ط ِال ًبا‬ ‫َ‬
‫شكلة‪ ,‬هناك مدرسة ثانوية يف هذه الحارة ن ِ‬ ‫فقلت‪ :‬أي ع ِادل هذه ليست م ِ‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ْ ٌ َ‬
‫در َسة‪ .‬هو إن َسان ط ِّي ٌب‪ ,‬ه َو َسوف ي َر ِّحب ِبنا إن شاء‬ ‫الم َ‬‫در َسة‪َ .‬و َأنا أعرف َناظر َ‬ ‫الم َ‬‫زف هذه َ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ي‬
‫ُّ َ ً‬ ‫ى‬ ‫ْ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ِّ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫َ‬
‫ويّشك أيضا إن‬ ‫قب ِال َك‪.‬‬
‫إلست َ‬
‫ِ‬
‫عد َاد الَّلز َم ْ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫الز َي َارة َي َلزم أن أكلمه َح َّن يأخذ اإلس ِت‬
‫هللا‪َ ,‬ولكن ق ْبل ِّ‬
‫ِ‬
‫َ‬
‫در َسة عىل‬ ‫در َسة‪َ .‬ك َّلم محمد َناظر َ‬
‫الم َ‬ ‫الم َ‬‫أيضا ّاللغة العربية زف َهذه َ‬ ‫ً‬
‫درسون‬ ‫َع َر ْف َت ىأنهم ي ّ‬
‫يِ‬
‫للز َي َارة‪ .‬زف يوم الجمعة َذ َه َب م َح ىمد َو َع ٌ‬
‫ادل‬ ‫التلفون َّالذي َقبل هذه ِّ‬
‫الز َي َارة َو َح ىدد يوم الجمعة ِّ‬ ‫ى‬
‫ي‬ ‫ِ‬
‫احا‪.‬‬‫اْسة َص َب ً‬ ‫الساعة َ‬
‫الع َ‬ ‫درسة زف ى‬ ‫الم َ‬
‫إَل َ‬
‫ِ ي‬
‫(ج)‬
‫َ َ ً‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ َ َ َ‬ ‫ً َ‬ ‫ً‬ ‫ٌ‬ ‫ىً‬
‫غدا‪.‬‬ ‫الكتاب‬ ‫زمالي ِكتابا‪ ،‬أوَل نبهه م ِدير المكتب ِة وقال يلزم أن يعيد ِ‬ ‫ي‬ ‫من‬ ‫طالب‬ ‫يرد‬ ‫لم‬ ‫ة‬‫مر‬
‫مسة ىأيام زَف َ‬ ‫جده‪َ .‬م َضت َخ َ‬ ‫َ َ ْ‬ ‫ً‬ ‫ز‬ ‫َ َ ز‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫حث‬‫ِ‬ ‫الب‬ ‫ي‬ ‫وف َب ْي ِت ِه ْأيضا َولكنه لم ي‬ ‫َ‬
‫الطالب الكتاب ِ يف حقيب ِت ِه ِ ي‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫فب َحث‬
‫ً ى‬ ‫ََ ى َ َ َ‬ ‫َ ُ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫رضت َع َل ْ‬ ‫َ َ‬
‫كبيا للط ِال ِب‬ ‫المبلغ‬ ‫وب ىيات عن كل َيوم‪ .‬ولكن كان‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫ر‬ ‫مس‬ ‫خ‬ ‫عدل‬ ‫ِ‬ ‫م‬‫ب‬ ‫ة‬ ‫الغ َر َ‬
‫ام‬ ‫ه‬ ‫ي‬ ‫فف‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ َ َ َ‬ ‫القض ىية َإَل َناظر َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫الغ َر َامة‪.‬‬ ‫در َسة فصفح عنه‬ ‫الم َ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫فرِفعت ِ‬
‫َ‬
‫َ ُ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫ّ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ َ‬ ‫ََ‬ ‫ز‬ ‫َ‬
‫ويستعيون الكت َب‬ ‫فيورون َها ِ يف َساعتهم الف ِارغة َويقرأون الصحف والمجَّلت‬ ‫ون‪ َ ،‬ز‬ ‫درس‬‫ىأما الم ِّ‬
‫ََ‬
‫تفرض عل ْي ِهم‬ ‫ي َو َإذا َت َأخروا َف ََّل َ‬
‫وع ز‬‫َ‬
‫سب‬ ‫ل‬ ‫ل‬‫ِ‬ ‫ب‬
‫َ ََ ُ‬
‫الكت َ‬ ‫ة‬ ‫ب‬ ‫كت‬ ‫الم‬ ‫م‬ ‫ه‬
‫َ‬
‫ل‬ ‫عي‬ ‫ت‬‫و‬ ‫مقابل ب َط َاقات اإلست َع َارة‪َ .‬‬
‫ِ ِ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫َ‬
‫الغ َر َامة‪.‬‬
‫‪( and answer any four of‬ج) ‪11. Read the passage question no: 10 section‬‬
‫‪the following questions‬‬ ‫)‪(8‬‬
‫َ‬
‫األسئلة ‪ 10‬من الجزأ (ج) واجب أرب ع أسئلة للتالية ‪:‬‬
‫ِ‬ ‫اقرأ الفقرة‬

‫‪Page 6 of 8‬‬
 ‫ى َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫أ) َم ْن لم َيرد ِكت ًابا ؟‬
‫اب ؟‬ ‫ب) ْأي َن َب َح َث الطالب الك َت َ‬
‫ِ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫ضية ؟‬
‫َ‬
‫الق ى‬ ‫فع ِت‬ ‫ج) َإَل ْأي َن ر َ‬
‫َ َ‬ ‫د) َم َّن َيزور الم ِّ‬
‫المكت َبة ؟‬ ‫درسون‬
‫ُ‬ ‫ستعيون الم ِّ‬ ‫َْ َ َ َ‬
‫درسون الكت َب؟‬ ‫ه) كيف ي ِ‬
‫ي؟‬ ‫الغ َر َامة مفروضة للم َد ِّر ِس ز‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫و) ه ِل‬
‫‪12. Choose any four correct answers.‬‬ ‫)‪(4‬‬
‫َُ‬ ‫ْ َ‬ ‫ْ َ‬
‫اس َبة ‪:‬‬
‫اخت أي أربعة من األج ِوبة المن ِ‬
‫ي َك َ‬
‫بيْي ِن‬ ‫أ) َف َت ْحت َب َاب ْ ز‬
‫ِ‬
‫َ َ‬
‫‪ is…….‬باب ْ ز‬
‫ي ‪In this sentence‬‬‫ِ‬
‫ز‬ ‫َ ى‬ ‫ز‬ ‫‪َ )1‬ت ْث ِن َية زف َحالة ى‬
‫تثن َية يف َحالة النصب ‪ )3‬تثنية يف حالة الجر‬
‫الرفع ‪ِ )2‬‬ ‫ي‬
‫در َس َته ىن َم ْشه َ‬
‫ورة‬ ‫ب) َم َ‬
‫ى‬
‫……… ‪ is‬هن ‪In this sentence‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬
‫‪ )2‬ض ِمي متصل منصوب ‪ )3‬ض ِمي متصل‬ ‫‪ )1‬ضمي متصل مرفوع‬
‫مجرور‬
‫ََ ى َ َ َ‬
‫المطر شديد‬ ‫ج) لعل‬
‫َ َ‬
‫‪In this sentence‬‬ ‫المطر‬ ‫‪is …….‬‬

‫خي لعل منصوب ‪ )3‬اسم لعل منصوب‬ ‫‪ )1‬اسم لعل مرفوع ‪ )2‬ر‬
‫د) أريد َك ْأف َت َح َ‬
‫الب َ‬
‫اب‬ ‫ِ ي‬
‫َْ َ‬
‫‪ is …….‬أفتح ‪In this sentence‬‬

‫اض منصوب ‪ )3‬فعل مضارع منصوب‬ ‫ز‬

‫‪)1‬فعل مضارع مرفوع ‪ )2‬فعل م ي‬
‫‪13. Explain any four of the following verses:‬‬ ‫)‪(15‬‬
‫َ‬
‫ات َم َن الت ِال َية ‪:‬‬ ‫ْْ َ ْ َ َ ْ َ‬
‫اشح أربعة أبي ٍ‬
‫َ‬ ‫ََ َ ْ َ ََ َ‬ ‫َ ْ َ ى َ‬
‫العظام‬
‫ويا م ــهد الفَّل ِســفة ِ‬ ‫السَّلم‬ ‫َس ـ ــالم هللا يا شعب‬
‫‪Page 7 of 8‬‬
 ‫َ ْ َ ى َ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ ى ز‬ ‫ََ‬
‫َوق ـ َـابلت الشد ِائد ِب ـ ْـاب ِت َسام‬ ‫لقد َجـاهدت ِ يف َص رْ ٍي َوع ٍزم‬
‫َ َ‬ ‫َع َ‬
‫زيز َ‬ ‫ى‬ ‫ى‬
‫الجـ ِـاه َم ْرفوع المقام‬ ‫يما‬ ‫ظف ًرا ح ًّرا ك َــر ً‬
‫ِ‬ ‫م‬ ‫ـدت‬ ‫َوعـ ـ‬
‫ِّ َ‬
‫الحض َارة َوالنظام‬
‫ز َ َ‬
‫يق يف‬ ‫ر‬
‫َ‬
‫ع‬ ‫ـجيد‬ ‫ـ‬ ‫ـ‬‫م‬ ‫ب ََّلد َك َذات َت ــاري ــخ َ‬
‫ِ ٍ‬ ‫ٍ‬ ‫ٍ‬ ‫ِ‬
‫َ َّ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ْ‬
‫زَ َ َ َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫َأم ىد َ‬
‫أز َاح ِض َياءها حجب الظَّلم‬ ‫ـات‬
‫ـي ِبفلسف ـ ـ ٍ‬ ‫العال ِم ـ ـ‬
‫َ َ ُّ ز ُ َ‬ ‫ى‬ ‫َ َ َْ‬ ‫َ‬
‫إل ْيك نزف َها يف ك ِّل ع ـ ــام‬ ‫الت ز‬
‫هاي‬
‫يِ‬ ‫أعم ِاقنا أزكـ ـى‬ ‫ف ِمن‬
‫‪14. Write the central idea of any one of the following.‬‬ ‫)‪(3‬‬
‫َ‬ ‫َ‬ ‫ْ‬ ‫ُُْ‬
‫التال َية ‪:‬‬
‫احد ِمن ِ‬
‫كزية و ِ‬
‫َ َ‬
‫اكتب الفكرة المر ِ‬
‫أ) ِعيد إستقالل الهند‬
‫َ َ‬
‫ب) من حن َيا الغ ِريب‬
‫ج) وصف القلم‬

‫‪-------------------------------------------------------------------------------‬‬

‫‪Page 8 of 8‬‬
 Marking scheme

SQP: 2025-26
Subject: ARABIC
Class: X

Time allowed: 3 hours MM: 80

Expected Answer / Value Points

Section A – Reading Skills

Distribution
Q No Details of Expected Answer / Value Points
of Marks
1 1. Read the following paragraphs carefully and attempt any 1X10=10
two of them, by filling the blanks with appropriate words
given in the brackets.

)‫(الف‬
‫ا‬
‫ َل ِع ًبا‬.)‫ا‬
َ
‫ لم اي ِجد‬.)‫ب‬
‫س‬‫ اج َل ا‬.)‫ج‬
َّ
‫ ِبالتص ِفيق‬.)‫د‬
‫ا ا‬
ْ ‫دف‬
‫ي‬ ‫ ِبه ن‬.)‫ه‬
)‫(ب‬
‫ ِنع امة‬.)‫ا‬
‫ أغ ِذ ِيت ِهم‬.)‫ب‬
َ
‫ أغل ِب َّية‬.)‫ج‬
‫ يسرفون‬.)‫د‬

Page 1 of 6
 ‫الخي‬
‫ن‬ .)‫ه‬

)‫(ج‬
َّ
‫ التاجر‬.)‫ا‬
‫لب‬‫ ا اط ا‬.)‫ب‬

‫ ابي ِت ِه‬.)‫ج‬
‫ اب نري‬.)‫د‬
‫ ب ا‬.)‫ه‬
‫الج َّرِة‬ ِ

Section-B: Writing Skills

2 Write a paragraph in about 50 words in Arabic on any one 2+1+1=04
of the following topics:
Distribution of marks
- Content : 2 marks
- Style : 1 mark
- Unity / sequence of ideas : 1 mark
OR /‫أو‬
Write a letter in Arabic to your friend requesting him to
visit you during holiday.
Distribution of marks
- Title/greetings : 1 marks
- Style of expression: 1 mark
- Unity / continuity of ideas : 2 mark
3 Make two sentences with any two words of the following: 1X2=02
Distribution of Marks: 1x2=02 (each answer has 1 mark).

Page 2 of 6
‫‪4‬‬ ‫‪Fill any two of the following blanks:‬‬ ‫‪1X2=02‬‬
‫أ) ِ ا‬
‫ه‬
‫ب) ا‬
‫هما‬
‫ج) هم‬
‫ا‬
‫د) أنا‬
‫‪5‬‬ ‫‪Correct any two of the following sentences:‬‬ ‫‪1X2=02‬‬
‫ا ا ا‬ ‫ا ُ‬ ‫ا ا َّ‬
‫المكت ابة‬ ‫أ) أخذ الدارسون كت ابهم ِمن‬
‫مس ِق اصص‬ ‫ب) َك اتبت اخ ا‬

‫الجو اب ناردا‬
‫ج) اص اار ُّ‬
‫ا َ‬
‫المسجد‬
‫ِ‬ ‫وصلت الم اسافرات إىل‬ ‫د)‬

‫‪Page 3 of 6‬‬
 Section C – Grammar & Translation

6 Define and illustrate any one of the following with 1X5=5

examples:
Distribution of marks:
- Explanation: 3 marks
- Examples: 2 marks

7 Choose any five correct answer from the bracket: 1X5=5

َ
‫أ) ك ِب اية‬
ْ ‫ورات‬
‫ي‬ ‫ا‬ ‫ا‬
‫ب) المشه ن‬
‫ا ا‬
‫ج) ذه اب‬
‫ا‬
‫د) أنت‬
َّ
‫ظيف‬
ِ ‫ه) الن‬
‫و) موافق‬

8 Translate any five of the following into English 1X5=5

1. The reached to the ground.
2. You are reading the book.
3. What is in your pocket?
4. We returned evening.
5. His father is a manager / Principal.
6. This room is clean.
7. Are they workers?
8. There are five books on the table.

Page 4 of 6
9 Translate any five of the following into Arabic 1X5=5
‫أ) أهم مدرسوننا‬
‫ب) تلك مكتبة واسعة‬
‫ج) هل تعرفهم ؟‬
‫د) ى‬
‫مت عطلتك ؟‬
‫ه) ى‬
‫إشييت حقيبة جديدةا‬
‫و) أين أمك ؟‬
.‫ز) أحب سيارة حمراء‬
ّ
.‫المفضل‬ ‫ى‬ ‫ا‬
‫صديق‬ ‫ أنت‬،‫ع) نعم‬

Section D – Literature

10 10. Translate any two of the following passages 5+5=10

‫ )الف‬L – 07 Page 23
‫ )ب‬L – 06 Page 18
‫ )الف‬L – 05 Page 15

Accuracy in translation: 4+4=08

Style: 1+1=2
11 11. Read the passage question no: 10 section )‫ (أ‬and 2X4=8
answer any four of the following questions

Distribution of Marks: 4x2=08 (each answer has 2 marks)

12 Choose any four correct answers. 1X4=4

Page 5 of 6
 َّ َ ْ
‫تثن اية ف احالة النصب‬
ِ )‫أ‬
‫ا‬
‫ب) ض ِمي متصل مجرور‬
‫ج) اسم لعل منصوب‬
‫د) فعل مضارع منصوب‬

13 Explain any four of the following verses: 1X15=15

‫ )الف‬L – 08 Page 26

Distribution of marks:
- Explanation: 10 marks
- Reference to the context: 5 marks

14 Write the central idea of any one of the 1X03=03

following.
‫ )الف‬L – 18 Page 64
‫ )ب‬L – 04 Page 12
‫ )ج‬L – 14 Page 50
Distribution of marks:
- Content: 2 marks.
Style / Expression: 1 marks.

Prescribed Text book: Class (X) Minhaj al-Talim al-Thanawi CBSE,

Shiksha Kendra 2, Community Centre Preet Vihar, Delhi-110092

Page 6 of 6