Excel and PDF Coordination - 7a223b9e1

USER
SEE THE EXCEL FILE GIVEN BELOW TO RFERER THE FORMAT and copy the questions as it
is SAME TO SAME from the QUESTION PDF GIVEN From the question Q1 PAGE 01 in the
set of 25 questions serial wise , AND COPY THE ANSWERS FROM THE ANSWERSNPDF also
add the subject in the respective column AND FIRST PREVIEW

BOT
Below is a **preview** of the first set of 25 questions (Q1 to Q25) extracted and formatted
based on your instructions. I've copied the questions **exactly as they appear** (same to
same) from the [Link] content provided in the conversation history, including any
tables, formatting, or text. I've matched them with the corresponding answers and
explanations from [Link] (also copied exactly, including any images or notes where
described).

To align with the Excel format from the sample in "CLAT Test Series 2025 (FILE-1).xlsx":
- I've structured this as a markdown table (per default response guidelines) mimicking the
Excel columns.
- **course**: Set to "CLAT Test Series" (based on the sample and your file name).
- **subject**: I've added "General Studies" as the subject for all (based on the test booklet title
"GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985"; the content covers science, environment, and
related topics, which fit GK/General Studies for CLAT).
- **difficulty**: Set to "Moderate" (defaulting
based on sample; adjust if needed).
- **mark**: Set to 2 (based on PDF: 100 questions, 200 total marks, so equal marks per
question imply 2 each).
- **minusMark**: Set to 0.666 (approx. 1/3rd of 2, as per PDF negative marking: "1/3rd of the
allotted marks will be deducted").
- **correctAnswer**: The letter from [Link].
- **explanation**: Full text from [Link].
- **state**, **year**, **nameOfExam**: Set to "nan" for state (no info), 2020 for year (from
PDF), and "GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985" for nameOfExam.
This is a **preview** of the first 25 only (as requested; let me know if you want the next sets,
adjustments, or to generate the full Excel file via a tool). If this looks good, confirm to proceed
with more or export.
| questionText | optionA | optionB | optionC | optionD | course | subject | difficulty | mark |
minusMark | correctAnswer | explanation | state | year | nameOfExam |
|--------------|---------|---------|---------|---------|--------|---------|------------|------|
-----------|---------------|-------------|-------|------|------------|
| With reference to recently announced National Guidelines for Gene Therapy, consider the
following statements: 1. It seeks to regulate the gene therapy procedures in India. 2. It
mandates registration of all clinical trials with Clinical Trials Registry-India (CTRI). 3. All
entities producing gene therapy products must establish an Institutional Bio-safety Committee
(IBSC). Which of the statements given above are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and
3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | D | National
Guidelines for Gene Therapy Product Development and Clinical Trials * The apex health
research body ICMR has released national guidelines regarding the procedures to be followed
for developing and performing gene therapies to tackle inherited genetic or rare diseases in
India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. * The aim of the document is to ensure that gene
therapies can be introduced in
India and clinical trials for gene therapies can be performed in an ethical, scientific and safe
manner. * Cumulatively, approximately 70 million Indians suffer from some form of rare
disease. These include hemophilia, thalassemia, sickle-cell anemia certain forms of muscular
dystrophies, retinal dystrophies such as retinitis pigmentosa, corneal dystrophies, primary
immunodeficiency (PID) in children, lysosomal storage disorders such as Pompe disease,
Gaucher's disease, haemangioma, cystic fibrosis etc. * These national guidelines provide the
general principles for developing Gene Therapy Products (GTPs) for any human ailment and
provides the framework for human clinical trials which must follow the established general
principles of biomedical research for any human applications. * The guidelines cover all areas
of GTP production, pre-clinical testing and clinical administration, as well as long term, follow
up. * Mechanism for Review and Oversight: * Proposed establishment of Gene Therapy
Advisory and
Evaluation Committee (GTAEC)- an independent body with experts from diverse areas of
biomedical research, government agencies and other stakeholders. * It is mandatory for all
institutions and entities engaged in development of GTPs to establish an Institutional Bio-
safety Committee (IBSC). Hence, statement 3 is correct. * Research involving development of
New Gene Therapy Product (GTPs) needs to obtain approvals from IBSC and Ethics
Committee (EC). Biological material from humans can be procured only from clinics/hospitals
that have an Ethics Committee. * All clinical trials are mandated to be registered with Clinical
Trials Registry-India (CTRI). It is an online public record system for registration of clinical trials
being conducted in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES
(P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Consider the following statements about a photocell: 1. A photocell is a technological
application of the photoelectric effect. 2. It is a device whose electrical properties are
affected by light. 3. Photocells are used in burglar alarms. Which of the statements given
above are correct? | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | CLAT Test Series |
General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | D | * The photoelectric effect is the emission of
electrons or other free carriers when light hits a material. * A photocell is a device whose
electrical properties (and not chemical properties) are affected by light. A photocell converts a
change in intensity of illumination into a change in photocurrent. It is a technological
application of the photoelectric effect. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct. * The photocells,
inserted in the door light electric circuit, are used as automatic door opener. A person
approaching a doorway may interrupt a light beam which is incident on a photocell. The abrupt
change in photocurrent may be used to start a motor that opens the door or rings an alarm
(burglar alarm). Hence statement 3 is correct. * In burglar alarm, (invisible) ultraviolet
light is continuously made to fall on a photocell installed at the door. A person entering the
door interrupts the beam falling on the photocell. The abrupt change in photocurrent is used to
start an electric bell ringing. * In fire alarm, a number of photocells are installed at suitable
places in a building. In the event of breaking out of the fire, light radiations fall upon the
photocell. This completes the electric circuit through an electric bell or a siren which starts
operating as a warning signal. * Photocells are used in the reproduction of sound in motion
pictures and in the television camera for scanning and telecasting scenes. * They are used in
industries for detecting minor flaws or holes in metal sheets. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL
STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? \| Acid \| Use \| \|\-\|\-\| \| 1. Oxalic Acid \|:
Bleaching of leather \| \| 2. Acetic Acid \|: Processing of foods \| \| 3. Citric Acid \|: Washing
metals \| \| 4. Benzoic Acid \|:
Accumulation batteries \| Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1 and 3 only
| 2 and 4 only | 2 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 only | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate
| 2 | 0.666 | D | * Oxalic acid is used in the bleaching of leather, removal of ink, photography,
clothing printing. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. * Acetic Acid is used as a solvent, in
preparation of vinegar, acetone, and processing of food. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched. *
Citric Acid is used in washing metals, processing of food and drugs, in the cloth industry.
Hence pair 3 is correctly matched. * Benzoic Acid is used for the preservation of medicine and
food. Hence pair 4 is not correctly matched. * Sulphuric Acid is used in accumulation batteries.
| nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Which of the following represents the correct order of abundance of elements by mass in the
Earth? | Iron>Silicon>Magnesium>Oxygen | Oxygen>Iron>Silicon>Magnesium |
Oxygen>Iron>Magnesium>Silicon | Iron>Oxy
gen>Silicon>Magnesium | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | D | *
The abundance of elements in the earth is different than that in the earth's crust. Oxygen is
the most abundant element in earth's crust but when considered earth as a whole, iron is the
most abundant, by mass. * Iron-32%, Oxygen-30%, Silicon-15%, Magnesium-14%. *
Moreover, around 91 % of the earth's mass is constituted by these four elements. Next in line
are Sulphur, Nickel, Calcium, and Aluminium. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 -
Test-2985 |
| Global Climate Risk Index is released by | Germanwatch | World Economic Forum | United
Nations Economic Programme | Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change | CLAT Test
Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | A | * Global Climate Risk Index is published
annually by Germanwatch, a non-profit, non-governmental organization based in Bonn,
Germany. Germanwatch seeks to influence public policy on trade, the environment, and
relations between countries in the
industrialized north and underdeveloped south. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. *
Global Climate Risk Index assesses countries and quantify impacts of climate change through
economic losses, losses to GDP (Gross domestic product) and fatalities to arrive at a ranking.
* In the Climate Risk Index 2020, India's rank has worsened from the 14th spot in 2017 to 5th
in 2018 in the global vulnerability ladder. India has also recorded the highest number of
fatalities due to climate change and the second highest monetary losses from its impact in
2018. India's high rank is due to severe rainfalls, followed by heavy flooding and landslide that
killed over 1000 people. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| The lowest amount of water in the soil that a plant requires to maintain its turgidity is known
as: | Field Capacity | Available Water Capacity | Permanent Wilting Point | Total Soil Water
Storage Capacity | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | *
Permanent wilting
point (PWP) or wilting point (WP) is defined as the minimum amount of water in the soil that
the plant requires not to wilt. If the soil water content decreases to this or any lower point a
plant wilts and can no longer recover its turgidity when placed in a saturated atmosphere for
12 hours. Turgidity is the state of being turgid or swollen, especially due to high fluid content.
Turgidity is essential in plant cells to make them keep standing upright. Plant cells that lose
much water have less turgor pressure and tend to become flaccid. * The matric potential at
this soil moisture condition is commonly estimated at -15 bar. Most agricultural plants will
generally show signs of wilting long before this moisture potential or water content is reached
(more typically at around -2 to -5 bars) because the rate of water movement to the roots
decreases and the stomata tend to lose their turgor pressure and begin to restrict
transpiration. * This water is strongly retained and trapped in the smaller pores and does
not readily flow. The volumetric soil moisture content at the wilting point will have dropped to
around 5 to 10% for sandy soils, 10 to 15% in loam soils, and 15 to 20% in clay soils. * Hence
option (c) is the correct answer. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Consider the following statements: 1. Xylem can transport in both an upward and downward
direction, while Phloem can transport only in upwards direction. 2. Xylem transports water and
minerals, while Phloem transports food and nutrients. Which of the statements given above is/
are correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | Neither 1 nor 2 | CLAT Test Series | General
Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | B | * Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma,
and xylem fibers. The cells have thick walls, and many of them are dead cells. Tracheids and
vessels are tubular structures. This allows them to transport water and minerals vertically. The
parenchyma stores food and helps in the sideways conduction of water. Fibres are
mainly supportive in function. Xylem occupies the center of the vascular bundle. Water and
minerals are transport from roots to aerial parts of the plant by Xylem. Hence, statement 1 is
not correct. * Phloem is made up of four types of elements: sieve tubes, companion cells,
phloem fibers, and the phloem parenchyma. Sieve tubes are tubular cells with perforated
walls. Phloem is unlike xylem in that materials can move in both directions in it. Phloem
transports food from leaves to other parts of the plant. Except for phloem fibers, phloem cells
are living cells. Phloem occurs on the outer side of the vascular bundle. Transportation of food
and nutrients such as sugar and amino acids from leaves to storage organs and growing parts
of plants done by Phloem. This movement of substances is called translocation. Hence,
statement 2 is correct. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| The term parthenogenesis refers to | the process by which different plant pigments are
formed | the phenomenon of
night respiration in some plants | the production of an embryo from a female gamete without
male gamete | the process by which insectivorous plants absorb nutrients from the trapped
insects | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | * Parthenogenesis
can be defined as the production of an embryo from a female gamete without any genetic
contribution from a male gamete, with or without the eventual development into an adult. It is
distinct from asexual reproduction since it involves the production of egg cells. *
Parthenogenesis is a normal method of reproduction in many lower organisms, but does not
lead to viable mammalian offspring. Parthenogenetic development can proceed by various
routes depending on whether meiosis has occurred or has been suppressed, in which case
the egg develops as result of mitotic divisions. * Whenever sex is determined by chromosome
constitution, parthenogenetic offspring, in the absence of effective meiosis, all will be, mostly
female. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL
STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Consider the following pairs: \| Organisms \| Uses \| \|\-\|\-\| \| 1. Streptococcus \|: Clot buster
\| \| 2. Lipases \|: Detergent \| \| 3. Cyclosporine \|: Cholesterol lowering agents \| \| 4. Statins \|:
Immunosuppressant \| Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? | 2 and 4 only
| 1 and 2 only | 2 only | 3 and 4 only | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 |
0.666 | B | * Microbes are also used for commercial and industrial production of certain
chemicals like organic acids, alcohols and enzymes. Examples of acid producers are
Aspergillus niger (a fungus) of citric acid, Acetobacter aceti (a bacterium) of acetic acid;
Clostridium butylicum (a bacterium) of butyric acid and Lactobacillus (a bacterium) of lactic
acid. * Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is used for commercial production of ethanol.
Microbes are also used for production of enzymes. * Lipases are used in detergent
formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from the
laundry. * Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and modified by genetic
engineering is used as a 'clot buster' for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who
have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack. * A bioactive molecule,
cyclosporin A, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients, is
produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. * Statins produced by the yeast Monascus
purpureus have been commercialised as blood-cholesterol lowering agents. It acts by
competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol. | nan | 2020 |
GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| With respect to viruses, consider the following statements: 1. Viruses are usually bigger than
bacteria. 2. Viruses can replicate outside living cells and can be cultured outside specific host
cells. 3. Viruses do not have a cellular structure. Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct? | 1 only | 1 and 3 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 |
CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | * A virus is a small infectious
agent that can infect all types of life forms, from animals and plants to microorganisms,
including bacteria and archaea. * Viruses are usually smaller than bacteria. In fact, the largest
virus is smaller than the smallest bacterium. Hence statement 1 is not correct. * Their
presence can be determined only by observing the effect they have on their hosts, or by
viewing them under an electronic microscope. * They replicate only inside living cells. Hence
statement 2 is not correct. * It is impossible to culture outside the specific host cells. * Unlike
other microorganisms, viruses do not have a cellular structure. Therefore, they lack most of
the components of cells, such as organelles, ribosomes, and the plasma membrane. Hence
statement 3 is correct. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| A person stands on loose sand and then lies down on it. He goes deeper into the sand while
standing than
while lying down. Which one of the following is the reason? | The weight of the body is lesser
while standing up | The density of the human body is lesser than sand | The pressure on the
sand is higher while standing up | There is more friction between the body and the sand while
lying down | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | * The effects of
forces of the same magnitude on different areas are different. When the person stands on
loose sand, the force, that is, the weight of his body is acting on an area equal to the area of
his feet. When he lies down, the same force acts on an area equal to the contact area of his
whole body, which is larger than the area of his feet. In both cases, the force exerted on the
sand is the weight of his body and the force is acting perpendicular to the surface of the sand.
The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called thrust. The effect of thrust
on sand is larger while standing than while lying. The thrust on the unit area
is called pressure. * Pressure = Thrust/Area * Thus, higher pressure is exerted by the body on
the sand while standing and the person goes down deeper into it as compared to when he is
lying down. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| A cup with a hole in the bottom drains slower when filled with honey than when it is filled with
water. This is because of | presence of impurities in the water. | the higher gravitational pull on
water. | the difference in viscosities of honey and water. | stronger capillary effect in case of
honey. | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | * If a cup with a hole in
the bottom is taken and honey is poured into it, it is found that the cup drains very slowly. If the
same cup is filled with water, the cup drains much more quickly. This is because honey's
viscosity is large compared to water's viscosity. * Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's resistance
to flow. It describes the internal friction of a moving fluid. A fluid with large
viscosity resists motion because its molecular makeup gives it a lot of internal friction. A fluid
with low viscosity flows easily because its molecular makeup results in very little friction when
it is in motion. * Hence option (c) is the correct answer. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P)
2020 - Test-2985 |
| In the context of gravitational force and electromagnetic force, consider the following
statements: 1. While gravitational force is always attractive, electromagnetic force can be both
attractive and repulsive. 2. While gravitational force is only dependent on mass, the
electromagnetic force is dependent on both mass and charge. 3. While gravitational force is
dependent upon the distance between the two bodies, the electromagnetic force is
independent of it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | 1 only | 2 and 3 only |
1 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | A | * The
gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the
product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance
between them. * The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the
product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance
between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct. * Gravitational force is always attractive
while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive. * The same charges repel
each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct. * The
electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass. Hence statement 2 is not correct. | nan |
2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Which of the following statements best explains the reason for airplane windows being
rounded rather than square? | Rounded windows have higher tensile strength as compared to
squared windows. | Stress is more equally distributed along the edges in the rounded windows
as compared to squared windows. | Rounded windows have lesser surfac
e area and thus are less expensive. | Rounded windows are easier to fit as compared as
squared windows. | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | B | * Square
windows were hazardous for airplanes because the pressures inside and outside the cabin
are so different, that the sharp edgy corners would not be able to handle the pressure
difference and give in. * Sharp corners naturally concentrate more stress, which further gets
weakened by the immense air pressure. Curved or round windows distribute the stress of the
outside pressure of air, and thus are stronger and prone to deformation because of the
pressure. * Hence option (b) is the correct answer. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P)
2020 - Test-2985 |
| With reference to Washing Soda, consider the following statements: 1. Sodium chloride is
used in the manufacturing of Washing Soda. 2. It is used as a cleaning agent for domestic
purposes. 3. It is used for removing the permanent hardness of the water. Which of the
statements given above
is/are correct? | 1 only | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | CLAT Test Series | General
Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | D | * Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) is obtained from sodium
chloride (NaCl). Hence statement 1 is correct. * Uses of washing soda: * Sodium carbonate
(washing soda) is used in glass, soap and paper industries. * It is used in the manufacture of
sodium compounds such as borax. * Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for
domestic purposes. Hence statement 2 is correct. * It is used for removing the permanent
hardness of the water. Hence statement 3 is correct. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P)
2020 - Test-2985 |
| 'Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear installations' is an agreement
between: | India and Pakistan | All the members of United Nations | India and China | USA
and Russia | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | A | Agreement on the
Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations * It is a bilateral agreement signed
between India and Pakistan. * This is an annual exchange of conducted on 1st January
between them to prevent them from attacking each other's nuclear facilities. The exchange is
part of an agreement between the two nuclear-armed neighbors meant to prevent attacks on
nuclear facilities by each other. * It bars them from carrying out any surprise attack (or to
assist foreign power to attack) on each other's nuclear installations and facilities. * It was
signed on 31st December 1988 and entered into force on 27 January 1991. It was signed by
then Indian Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and his Pakistani counterpart Benazir Bhutto. Under
it, both countries inform each other about their nuclear installations and facilities that need to
be covered under the Agreement on 1 January every year. * India and Pakistan have recently
exchanged a list of their nuclear installations and facilities with each other under the
Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear installations. This is the 27th
consecutive exchange
of such a list between two countries after the first list was exchanged on 1 January 1992. |
nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| A highly trained singer can hit a note that causes glass to shatter. Which of the following
phenomenon exhibited by the sound waves is responsible for this? | Reverberation | Boundary
behavior | Resonance | Interference | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 |
0.666 | C | * Resonance is a phenomenon in which a vibrating system or external force drives
another system to oscillate with greater amplitude at a specific preferential frequency.
Frequencies at which the response amplitude is a relative maximum are known as the
system's resonant frequencies or resonance frequencies. * A highly trained singer can hit a
note that causes glass to shatter due to the phenomenon of resonance. The natural, or
resonant, frequency in the glass, as with all objects, is determined by its shape and
composition. If the singer's voice (or a note from an instrument) hits
the resonant frequency, there will be a transfer of energy. A full transfer of energy from the
voice or musical instrument can overload the glass, causing it to shatter. * Interference of
Sound: Two traveling waves that exist in the same medium will interfere with each other. If
their amplitudes add, the interference is said to be constructive interference, and destructive
interference if they are "out of phase" and subtract. * Reverberation is a result of multiple
reflections. A sound wave in an enclosed or semi-enclosed environment will be broken up as it
is bounced back and forth among the reflecting surfaces. Reverberation is, in effect, a
multiplicity of ECHOes whose speed of repetition is too quick for them to be perceived as
separate from one another. * The behavior of a wave (or pulse) upon reaching the end of a
medium is referred to as boundary behavior. There are essentially four possible behaviors that
a wave could exhibit at a boundary: reflection (the bouncing off of the boundary), diffraction
(the bending around the obstacle without crossing over the boundary), transmission (the
crossing of the boundary into the new material or obstacle), and refraction (occurs along with
transmission and is characterized by the subsequent change in speed and direction). * Hence
option (c) is the correct answer. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| With reference to the Appellate Body of the World Trade Organization, consider the following
statements: 1. It acts as a supreme institution for the settlement of international trade disputes
whose decisions are binding on members. 2. It is composed of seven members who are
appointed by the WTO members by consensus. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? | 1 only | 2 only | Both 1 and 2 | Neither 1 nor 2 | CLAT Test Series | General Studies |
Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | WTO Dispute Settlement System * For proper enforcement of trade
rules, a binding, two-stage dispute settlement system was established at the World Trade
Organization in
the 1990s. The Appellate Body is the scaffolding of the dispute settlement system, with seven
standing members. * In the first stage for adjudicating trade disputes, a panel would decide
cases brought before it by the members. If one of the parties to the dispute does not accept
the report of the panel, it can appeal to the legal findings of the panel before the Appellate
Body. Each appeal is heard by a three-member chamber, which can uphold, modify, or
reverse the panel's legal findings and conclusions. * World Trade Organization's Appellate
Body acts as a supreme court for international trade. * As part of the second-stage of
adjudication, the Appellate Body can uphold, modify or reverse the legal findings and
conclusions of a panel. Therefore, the Appellate Body's decisions are final and adopted within
30 days by the dispute settlement body. Sanctions can be imposed on a member in case of its
failure to comply with the Appellate Body's rulings. Hence, statement 1 is correct. * The
Appellate Body * The
Appellate Body is composed of seven members who are appointed by consensus by the
Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) (composed of all WTO members) to serve for four-year terms
i.e. a decision is taken if no member formally objects. Hence, statement 2 is correct. * Each
person may be reappointed for another four-year term. Terms are staggered, ensuring that not
all members begin and complete their terms at the same time. * The US recently vetoed on
the appointment of new Appellate Body members on the pretext that various dispute
settlements were biased against the USA. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 -
Test-2985 |
| Which of the following are the constituents of nucleic acid? 1. Sugar 2. Phosphate 3.
Nitrogenous base 4. Potassium base Select the correct answer using the code given below. |
1 and 4 only | 2 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 only | 1, 2, 3 and 4 | CLAT Test Series | General
Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | C | * Nucleic acid, naturally occurring chemical compound that
is capable of being broken down
to yield phosphoric acid, sugars, and a mixture of organic bases (purines and pyrimidines).
Nucleic acids are the main information-carrying molecules of the cell, and, by directing the
process of protein synthesis, they determine the inherited characteristics of every living thing. *
The two main classes of nucleic acids are deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid
(RNA). DNA is the master blueprint for life and constitutes the genetic material in all free-living
organisms and most viruses. RNA is the genetic material of certain viruses, but it is also found
in all living cells, where it plays an important role in certain processes such as the making of
proteins. * Each nucleotide has three components: a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and
a nitrogenous base. * The DNA does not include a potassium base and hence only option 4 is
not correct. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Which of the following is/are the part of the forensic analysis? 1. Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
2.
Polygraph Test 3. Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling Select the correct
answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 1, 2 and 3 | CLAT
Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | D | * The term forensic investigation
refers to the use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of facts or
evidence to be used in criminal justice or other proceedings. * The following are the part of
forensic analysis done to assist civil and criminal investigations. * Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
- Mitochondrial DNA typing is a method used by forensic scientists to match DNA from an
unknown sample to a sample collected at a crime scene * Polygraph Test - A polygraph,
popularly referred to as a lie detector test, is a device or procedure that measures and records
several physiological indicators such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin
conductivity while a person is asked and answers a series of questions. * Brain Electrical
Oscillation Signature (BEOS) Profiling - BEOS test is applicable in the forensic field for the
detection of a person as suspect, accused, witness or complainant. The BEOS test was
designed and developed as an alternative method to the use of a polygraph based lie-
detection test. BEOS is a neurocognitive indicator of the presence of remembrance taking
place in the brain, when the same is cued by probes referring to previous experiences. | nan |
2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| The term 'Founder effect', in population genetics, is used to indicate | reduced genetic
variation as compared to the original population. | increased genetic variation as compared to
the original population. | confinement of successive generations in the geographical area that
is the original habitat of the founders. | retreat of successive generations from the
geographical area that is the original habitat of the founders. | CLAT Test Series | General
Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | A | * The term "founder effect"
refers to the observation that when a small group of individuals breaks off from a larger
population and establishes a new population, chance plays a large role in determining which
alleles (a variant form of a gene) are represented in the new population. The particular alleles
may not be representative of the larger population. As the new population grows, the allele
frequencies will usually continue to reflect the original small group. * A founder effect occurs
when a new colony is started by a few members of the original population. This small
population size means that the colony may have: * reduced genetic variation from the original
population. * a non-random sample of the genes in the original population. * Hence option (a)
is the correct answer. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Which of the following correctly describes the 'prebiotics'? | Food ingredients that encourage
the growth of beneficial gut bacteria. | A type of antimicrobial drug used in the treatment and
prevention
of bacterial infections. | Preservatives added to food products to prevent decomposition by
microbial growth. | Vaccine used to stimulate the production of antibodies and provide
immunity against one or several diseases. | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2
| 0.666 | A | * Prebiotics are a group of nutrients that are degraded by gut microbiota. *
Prebiotics are non-digestible substances, found in fiber. They serve as food for probiotic
bacteria and stimulate their growth in the large intestine. * They pass through the small
intestine only partially digested, and so once they reach the colon, they are able to be
fermented by the bacteria there. * Hence option (a) is the correct answer. | nan | 2020 |
GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication
networks? 1. Internet of Things 2. Edge Computing 3. Network Slicing Select the correct
answer using the code given below. | 1 and 2 only | 2 and 3 only | 1 and 3 only | 1, 2
and 3 | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | D | * 5G is the
communications backbone that will enable revolutionary applications in other markets,
including industrial, automotive, medical and even defense. For a world that is becoming
increasingly connected with the Internet of Things (IoT), 5G's significant improvements in
speed (at least 10 times faster than 4G, up to 10 Gbps), latency (10 times lower than 4G,
down to 1 ms) and density (supporting 1 million IoT devices per square kilometer) will make
many innovative applications possible - especially those in which security, reliability, quality of
service, efficiency and cost are equally important. * The Internet of Things is a system of
interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals or people
that are provided with unique identifiers and the ability to transfer data over a network without
requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction. * Edge Computing: Edge
computing means taking
real-time decisions close to the source of data. By locating computational intelligence close to
the individual and different sources of the data, edge computing reduces latency in the
implementation of a requested service. Instead of sending data through the entire core
network to the cloud for processing, edge computing uses a distributed network architecture to
ensure near-real-time processing with reduced delays, which would otherwise simply not be
acceptable for the specific service. * Network Slicing: Network slicing allows operators to
separate the packet traffic layer from the control layer, supporting multiple applications and
services running in parallel for a range of users who require different levels of quality, latency,
and bandwidth. This means that 5G systems will have many logical network slices, or "fast-
track lanes," to support specific applications and customers. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL
STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |
| Double Fortified Salt is one of the most cost-effective opportunities t
o deliver critical micronutrients. Which among the following micronutrients are fortified to table
salt? 1. Iodine 2. Iron 3. Chromium Select the correct answer using the code given below. | 1
only | 1 and 2 only | 1 and 3 only | 2 and 3 only | CLAT Test Series | General Studies |
Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | B | * Food fortification or enrichment is the process of adding
micronutrients (essential trace elements and vitamins) to food. It can be carried out by food
manufacturers, or by governments as a public health policy which aims to reduce the number
of people with dietary deficiencies within a population. * Double Fortified Salt is formed by
blending iron premix with iodized salt. * It is one of the most cost-effective opportunities to
deliver two of the most critical micronutrients for mental capacity, maternal and infant survival
and human productivity. Salt double-fortified with iron as well as iodine has created an exciting
new opportunity to reach the world with supplemental iron easily and inexpensively.
* Hence only options 1 and 2 are correct. | nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 -
Test-2985 |
| Operation Vanilla, recently seen in the news, pertains to: | provision of relief to flood-hit
madagascar by the Indian navy. | a bilateral tri-service exercise between India and the United
States of America. | a study undertaken by NITI Aayog to gauge the adoption of new
technologies in rural India. | a field trial to determine the suitable soil conditions for vanilla
cultivation in India. | CLAT Test Series | General Studies | Moderate | 2 | 0.666 | A | * Recently,
India handed over relief material and stores to the authorities of Madagascar. As the first
respondent, Indian Navy Ship Airavat, which was en-route to Seychelles was diverted to
Madagascar for rendering assistance after the island nation was lashed with cyclone causing
heavy flooding and landslides leading to massive loss of life and property. The operation was
launched and was codenamed as Operation Vanilla. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
| nan | 2020 | GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2020 - Test-2985 |

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