.

BIOLOGY

1. The muscle fluid of an athlete (d) commensalism

was tested immediately after a 4. Ultra-filtration in the kidney
100m race and was found to takes place in the__
contain a high concentration of (a) Bowman‘s capsule
lactic acid. Explain what could (b) Pelvis
have caused this? The (c) Pyramid
(a) athlete must have eaten food (d) Loop of Henle
containing lactic acid
(b) athlete must have injected 5. The producers in a food chain
lactic acid into his blood just in an aquatic environment are__
before the race (a) zooplankton
(c) athlete must have carried out (b) phytoplankton
anaerobic respiration during the (c) birds
race (d) fishes
(d) athlete must have inhaled
lactic acid from the environment 6. The process of anaerobic
during the race respiration of yeast in sugar
solution is known as__
2. When a spirogyra cell is (a) oxidation
immersed in a salt solution more (b) tissue respiration
concentrated than its cell sap, it (c) fermentation
(a) remains unchanged (d) decomposition
(b) takes up water and bursts
(c) absorbs a little water 7. Which of the following tissues
(d) loses water and shrivels is not found in the stem and root
of monocotyledons?
3. Which of the following is an (a) cortex
autotrophic mode of nutrition? (b) xylem
(a) saprophytism (c) cambium
(b) parasitism (d) pith
(c) chemosynthesis

1
8. Which of the following (c) environment
organelles is used for locomotion (d) community
in paramecium?
(a) contractile vacuole 13. The ability of organisms to
(b) trichocyst maintain a constant internal
(c) cilium environment is known as
(d) pseudopodium (a) diuresis
(b) endosmosis
9. The process by which fruits (c) plasmolysis
develop without fertilization is (d) homeostasis
called
(a) layering 14. Which of the following can be
(b) pathology considered as a direct evidence
(c) parthenocarpy of evolution?
(d) hermaphroditism (a) comparative embryology
(b) classification
10. When a man who is Rh- (c) comparative anatomy
positive marries a woman who is (d) fossil record
Rh-negative, there will be
incidence of 15. The relationship between an
(a) still birth herbivore and the bacteria which
(b) sicklers live in their caecum is known as
(c) albinos (a) parasitism
(d) living children (b) mutualism
(c) commensalism
11. Sudan (III) solution is used to (d) saprophytism
test for___
(a) carbohydrate 16. Loam is best type of soil for
(b) lipid crop production because ___
(c) protein (a) it has percentage of clay
(d) vitamin which prevent leaching
(b) it has high humus content
12. A group of interacting (c) it is porous and has good
populations in a particular habitat water retention capacity
is known as__ (d) gravels which obstructs
(a) biosphere implements are absent from it
(b) ecosystem

2
17. An organism which operates (d) pumping action of the heart to
at cellular level of organization move blood round the body
carries out its physiological
activities by using its___ 21. Which of the following is an
(a) cell membrane example of reproductive
(b) cell size adaptation?
(c) cytoplasm (a) changing colour of
(d) organelles chameleon
(b) possession of spines by
18. A typical plant cell is mainly desert plants
distinguished from an animal cell (c) neck colouration in agama
by the possession of___ lizard
(a) chloroplast and nucleus (d) leaf-shedding in trees
(b) cell wall and cytoplasm
(c) chloroplast and cell wall 22. Blood in mammals transports
(d) cell wall and mitochondria oxygen because it contains the
pigment called
19. Excretion in Paramecium (a) melanin
spp. Is by diffusion because____ (b) haemocyanin
(a) its habitat is water and moist (c) haemoglobin
places (d) chlorophyll
(b) it has simple, small and few
organelles 23. Which of the following is
(c) it has large surface area to responsible for controlling the
volume ratio body temperature and regulation
(d) it has a large efficient mega of water balance in mammals?
nucleus (a) thymus
(b) kidney
20. A pulse is best described (c) hypothalamus
as_____ (d) adrenal gland
(a) contraction of arteries to let
out blood 24. The upward movement of the
(b) contraction of veins to allow sap in the xylem vessel is
blood into them brought about by
(c) dilation of arteries to (a) osmosis
accommodate blood rushing (b) cohesion
through (c) transpiration

3
(d) capillarity (b) from the small intestine to the
liver
25. The precondition for (c) directly from the heart
transfusion of blood to accident (d) from liver to the heart
victim is____
(a) curing the donor of any 29. The body temperature of
disease traced in the blood mammal has to be maintained at
(b) rewarding the donor with food a fairly constant level because
and money (a) their body temperature is
(c) ascertaining the religious always higher than that of the
belief of the victim environment
(d) cross-matching the blood (b) metabolic activities function
group of the donor with that of best at certain temperature
the accident victim (c) evaporation of sweat cools
the body
26. The deficiency of vitamin D (d) excessive heat is continually
and calcium ions in the diet of a lost by the body to the
human causes____ environment
(a) anaemia
(b) night blindness 30. Which hormonal deficiency is
(c) rickets likely to cause an accumulation
(d) kwashiorkor of reducing sugar in the urine?
(a) testosterone
27. Which of the following glands (b) insulin
secretes a substance into the (c) thyroxin
blood stream of a frightened (d) secretin
person?
(a) gastric gland 31. The respiratory organ found
(b) parathyroid gland in arachnids is___
(c) adrenal gland (a) book lung
(d) salivary gland (b) air sac
(c) spiracle
28. The hepatic portal vein is (d) gill
often heavily loaded with food
nutrients because it carries blood 32. Which of the following organs
(a) from the liver to join the is associated with deamination of
posterior vena cava protein?

4
(a) kidney (b) has the ability to replicate
(b) liver (c) is made up of nucleotides
(c) stomach (d) is made up of a sugar, an
(d) lungs acid and a base

33. The group of sensory cells 37. Enzymes are produced

found on the upper surface of the by___
tongue are called __ (a) microorganisms
(a) ampullae (b) animals
(b) taste bud (c) plants
(c) nerve cells (d) all of the above
(d) somatic cells

34. A mother is likely to be able 38. Carbon (IV) oxide is removed

to distinguish between her from the atmosphere by__
identical twin daughter because photolysis
of__ photosynthesis
(a) physiological variations evaporation
(b) morphological variations chemosynthesis
(c) character variations 39. The ability of an organism to
(d) genetic variations live and survive in a particular
environment is known as___
35. Which of the following factors adaptive features
does not contribute to variation in adaptation
living organisms? survival
(a) mitosis reproduction
(b) meiosis
(c) mutation 40. A concept that is not yet
(d) environment verified but that if true would
explain certain facts or
36. Deoxyribonucleic acid is phenomena is called__
most suitable for transmission of law
information from generation to theory
generation through hypothesis
chromosomes because it__ principle
(a) is made up of anti-parallel
chain

5
41. The association between two 45. Congenital diseases are___
organisms in which one derive its (a) diseases present at birth
livelihood from the other and also (b) deficiency disease
causes harm to it is called__ (c) occur during life
(a) symbiosis (d) spread from one individual
(b) parasitism to another
(c) commensalism
(d) saprophytism 46. A collective term to define all
(e) the organized essential chemical
42. Air-borne infections are changes that occur in a living cell
transmitted mainly by__ is ___
(a) aerosols from person to (a) Metabolism
person (b) Catabolism
(b) inhaling spores or hyphal (c) Anabolism
fragments from soil (d) Glycolysis.
(c) drinking contaminated water
(d) objects such as 47. The distribution of organisms
handkerchiefs that are in a freshwater habitat like
contaminated with respiratory stream and pond is determined
secretions by the following factors except__
(a) pH of the soil
43. An experiment began with 4 (b) light penetration
cells and ended with 128 cells. (c) rainfall
How many generations did the (d) temperature
cells go through?
(a) 64 48. Renewal natural resources of
(b) 32 the environment that can be
(c) 6 conserved include the following
(d) 5 except
(a) wildlife
44. HIV/AIDS cutting short the (b) soil
lives of young people worldwide? (c) water
(a) outbreak (d) petroleum
(b) epidemic
(c) endemic 49. The following are
(d) pandemic greenhouse gases except__
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
6
(c) methane 54. Thunderstorm can be
(d) chlorofluorocarbon beneficial to plant because it__
(a) adds lime to the soil
50. The parameter of size, (b) makes rain water available
height, weight and colour in a (c) adds nitrates to the soil
population of living things are (d) kills the pests that attack
examples of __ crops
(a) environmental variations
(b) non-heritable variations 55. Breathing movement in
(c) continuous variations mammals is accompanied by
(d) discontinuous variations regular movement of the
diaphragm and the__
51. Thrombocytes are blood cells (a) clavicles
responsible for initiating (b) vertebral column
(a) synthesis of ribosomes (c) floating ribs
(b) removal of carbon dioxide (d) intercostal muscles
from tissues 56. Gaseous exchange takes
(c) phagocytosis place in the adult toad through
(d) clotting of the blood the__
(a) buccal cavity, bladder and
52. Which of the following is not lungs
a way of reducing air pollution? (b) tympanic membrane, lungs
(a) building tall factory chimneys and gills
(b) siting factories and power (c) buccal cavity, skin and lungs
stations away from residential (d) none of the above
areas
(c) recycling tins, cars and 57. Water vapour is lost in plants
bottles during transpiration through___
(d) using lead-free petrol in cars (a) sclerenchyma
(b) xylem and stomata
53. Which of the following is not (c) stomata and lenticels
a nitrogen-fixing bacterium? (d) parenchyma and lenticels
(a) Nitrobacter 58. Fingerprints are useful in
(b) Rhizobium crime detection because__
(c) Clostridium (a) the police have sophisticated
(d) Azotobacter fingerprint machines

7
(b) thieves may leave their prints (a) narrow wall
at the scene of a crime (b) stiff walls
(c) no two people have the same (c) fragile membrane
fingerprints (d) thick elastic walls
(d) fingerprints are easy to make
59. A man heterozygous for 63. The biochemical substance
albino gene marries a woman which regulates the conversion
who is also heterozygous for the of glycogen to glucose, thereby
gene. Both have normal skin increasing blood sugar is__
colour. The probability that they (a) glucagon
would have an albino child is __ (b) bilirubin
(c) insulin
(a)
(d) pepsin
(b)
64. The persistent presence of
(c) glucose in a person indicates
malfunctioning of the__
(d) (a) pancreases
(b) heart
60. Which of the following is not (c) bladder
a constituent of the DNA? (d) stomach
(a) phosphate
(b) cytosine 65. Primary growth in plants is
(c) deoxyribose brought about by the activity of
(d) uracil the__
(a) endodermis
61. The role of dead organic (b) mesophyll
matter in the soil is to__ (c) epidermis
(a) provide food for all living (d) meristem
organisms
(b) increase the acidity of soil 66. Plant hormones include the
(c) make the soil more porous following except__
(d) increase the soil nutrient (a) insulin
content (b) auxin
62. Which of the following adapts (c) gibberellin
the aorta to the high pressure of (d) cytokinin
the blood from the heart?

8
67. The part of the brain which
controls and coordinates body 72. A flower with both gynoecium
posture is the__ and androecium is called__
(a) pons varolii (a) dioecious flower
(b) medulla oblongata (b) perfect flower
(c) hypothalamus (c) imperfect flower
(d) cerebellum (d) unisexual flower

68. Which of the following is an 73. Which of the following water

effect of carbon monoxide on pollutants may contain
man? organisms that cause dysentery?
(a) reducing oxygen carrying (a) Industrial wastes
capacity of blood (b) crude oil
(b) causing gene mutation (c) pesticides
(c) irritating the skin (d) sewage
(d) destroying white blood cells
74. In which of the following
69. In flowers, pistil with a single processes is carbon dioxide not
carpel is said to be__ given out?
(a) apocarpous (a) burning of fuel
(b) monocarpous (b) respiration in plants
(c) polycarpous (c) photosynthesis
(d) syncarpous (d) burning of organic matter
75. The following are necessary
70. A unisexual flower posses__ for photosynthesis to take place
(a) one reproductive part except__
(b) two reproductive part (a) light
(c) three reproductive parts (b) water
(d) none of the above (c) carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen
71. A flower in which one or 76. Which of the following group
more of its floral parts are absent of bacteria reduces nitrates in the
is called__ soil to gaseous nitrogen?
(a) perfect flower (a) putrefying bacteria
(b) imperfect flower (b) nitrifying bacteria
(c) complete flower (c) denitrifying bacteria
(d) incomplete flower (d) saprophytic bacteria

9
77. What part of the brain is 81. Which of the following is the
concerned with the regulation of male part of a flower?
the heartbeat, blood pressure (a) androecium
and breathing rate? (b) gynoecium
(a) cortex (c) calyx
(b) olfactory lobe (d) petal
(c) cerebrum
(d) medulla oblongata 82. Which of the following are the
two coats of pollen grains?
78. Which of the following is not (a) exine and endotine
correct about blood platelets? (b) exine and intine
(a) have no nucleus (c) exine and cellulose
(b) are formed in the bone (d) none of the above
marrow
(c) neutralizes the toxins in the 83. A substance present in the
blood glomerular filtrate in the
(d) are also known as mammalian kidney is__
thrombocytes (a) glucose
79. Oxygenated blood from the (b) fibrinogen
lungs is carried to the left auricle (c) albumen
of the heart through the__ (d) blood platelets
(a) pulmonary artery
(b) pulmonary vein 84. Which of the following
(c) aorta conditions would result in a
(d) vena cava decrease in the production of
antidiuretic hormone?
80. Agglutination occurs in blood (a) abnormal high blood sugar
transfusion when the__ level
(a) donor and the recipient (b) period of strenuous exercise
belong to the same blood group (c) drinking large quantity of
(b) recipient is not a universal water
recipient (d) increase in osmotic pressure
(c) donor and the recipient of the blood
belong to different races 85. Which of the following
(d) antigen and antibody in the structure is not essential in a
donor and the recipient react wind pollinated flower?
(a) petal
10
(b) stigma 89. Which of the following is not
(c) ovary a characteristic of wind-
(d) anther dispersed fruits and seeds?
(a) light weight
86. Reabsorption of the (b) sticky juice
metabolic products along the (c) floss
kidney tubules is made possible (d) parachute
by the__
(a) presence of network of 90. Which of the following
capillaries around the convoluted structures transports water from
tubules the roots to the leaves?
(b) presence of convoluted (a) cortex
tubules in the medulla (b) xylem
(c) joining of the main collecting (c) phloem
tubules to the kidney tubules (d) cambium
(d) none of the above 91. The essential parts of a
flower are___
87. Which of the following is not (a) anther and filament
a function of insulin? (b) petals and sepals
(a) stimulates muscles to oxidize (c) androecium and gynoecium
glucose (d) petals and pistil
(b) promotes the uptake of
glucose by tissues 92. The sepals of a flower are
(c) regulates the amount of said to be polysepalous if they
glucose in the blood are__
(d) accelerates the absorption of (a) fused together
glucose at the glomerulus (b) connected by a style
(c) separated from one another
88. Hormones are transported (d) joined together to form a cup
around the mammalian body
by__ 93. The petals of a flower
(a) electrical impulse collectively form the___
(b) blood (a) stamen
(c) osmosis (b) sepals
(d) diffusion (c) corolla
(d) carpels

11
94. The sepals in flower are (b) snail
collectively called___ (c) rat
(a) calyx (d) snake
(b) stamen
(c) pistil 99. During digestion of food,
(d) corolla passage of chyme through the
duodenum enables it to become
95. Flowers with petals which are a watery liquid called___
separated are said to be__ (a) soluble food
(a) monopetalous (b) chyle
(b) dipetalous (c) dissolved food
(c) polypetalous (d) chymatic product
(d) none of the above
100. Ovary is to female
96. If a piece of abandoned reproductive system as __is to
farmland went through a series male reproductive system
of floral and fauna changes and (a) penis
becomes established with a (b) epididymis
permanent plant and animal (c) testis
population, it could be said to (d) prostate gland
have undergone__
(a) evolution 101. Emulsification of fat and oils
(b) succession is caused by___
(c) transformation (a) Lipase
(d) competition (b) Ptyalin
(c) Trypsin
97. The theory of evolution by (d) Bile
natural selection was first put
forward by___ 102. Every mammal has____
(a) Linnaeus (a) One Kidney
(b) Aristotle (b) Two pairs of Kidneys
(c) Boyle (c) One pair of Kidneys
(d) Darwin (d) None of the above

98. Compound eyes are found in 103. Faeces is removed from

which of these animals? the body in a process called____
(a) ant (a) Digestion

12
(b) Egestion (d) Homeostasis
(c) Elimination
(d) Excretion 109. Open circulatory system is
found in ___
104. Glomerulus is found in (a) Lizard
the_____ (b) Toad
(a) Ovary (c) Fish
(b) Brain (d) Insect
(c) Stomach
(d) Kidney 110. Possession of pinna is a
characteristic feature of ____
105. In the respiratory system of (a) Mammals
man, diffusion of gases takes (b) Reptiles
place in ___ (c) Fishes
(a) Trachea (d) Amphibians
(b) Bronchi
(c) Alveoli 111. Tadpoles respire with ____
(d) Bronchioles (a) Lungs
(b) Nostril
106. Incisors are used for ___ (c) Gills
(a) Tearing food (d) Spiracles
(b) Cutting food
(c) Grinding food 112. The excretory organ in the
(d) Crushing food earthworm is____
(a) Malpighian tubule
107. Nematocysts are produced (b) Stoma
by special cells found in _____ (c) Flame cells
(a) Cnidarians/Coelenterates (d) Nephridium
(b) Nematodes 113. The nerves that connect the
(c) Annelids eyes to the brain are called___
(d) Platyhelminthes (a) Optic nerves
(b) Optical nerves
108. One of the following is not a (c) Olfactory nerves
function of the skin? (d) Cranial nerves
(a) Excretion
(b) Reproduction 114. The parasympathetic
(c) Protection nervous system is involved in___

13
(a) Dilation of pupil of the eye (d) Lion
(b) Control the activities of
smooth muscles 119. Which of the structures
(c) Dilatation of the skin below is found in reptiles and
(d) Controls thinking in mammals birds.
(a) Scales
115. The part of the alimentary (b) Claws
system of a bird where grinding (c) Beaks
of food occurs is __ (d) All of the above
(a) Cloaca
(b) Crop 120. Which of these animals is
(c) Stomach photosynthetic?
(d) Gizzard (a) Paramecium sp.
(b) Amoeba sp.
116. The part of the ear that (c) Euglena sp.
contains receptors that convert (d) Hydra sp.
the fluid motion into action
potential is 121. Which of these organs
called__ regulate the amount of sugar in
(a) Cochlea the blood?
(b) Semicircular canals (a) Liver
(c) Ossicles (b) Kidney
(d) Auditory nerve (c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas
117. The thoracic region of the
vertebral column is made up of 122. The basis for growth and
___vertebrae. asexual reproduction is __
(a) 4 (a) meiosis
(b) 5 (b) cytokinesis
(c) 7 (c) mitosis
(d) 12 (d) Cytogenesis

118. Which of the animal below 123. The process which ensures
is poikilothermic? that the chromosome number for
(a) Toad each species of organism remain
(b) Chicken constant from generation to
(c) Bat generation is __

14
(a) fission (d) Obelia sp.
(b) meiosis
(c) oogenesis 129. __level is the highest level
(d) mitosis of organization in animals.
124. Which of the following is a (a) Cellular
major factor in variation among (b) Tissue
organisms? (c) System
(a) Inbreeding (d) Organ
(b) Backcrossing
(c) Test crossing 130. Crocodiles are ____
(d) Sexual reproduction (a) Fishes
(b) Amphibians
125. ___is an example of an (c) Mammals
invertebrate (d) None of the above
(a) Millipede
(b) Fish 131. The mutation theory of
(c) Toad organic evolution was
(d) Snake propounded by__
(a) Jean Lamarck
126. ____ is the odd one in the (b) Gregor Mendel
list below (c) Hugo de Vrics
(a) Beetle (d) Charles Darwin
(b) Bee
(c) Moth 132. The theory of natural
(d) Tick selection was developed by___
(a) Lamarck and Darwin
127. ___are flatworms (b) Darwin and Wallace
(a) Platyhelminthes (c) Wallace and Mendel
(b) Annelida (d) Mendel and Lamarck
(c) Nematoda
(d) Chilopoda 133. Which is the odd animal in
the list below?
128. ___is an example of a (a) Lizards
unicellular organism (b) Snakes
(a) Amoeba sp. (c) Turtles
(b) Hydra sp. (d) Toad
(c) Taenia sp.

15
134. Which of the following 139. The living part of phloem
sources is not an evidence of tissue is __
evolution? (a) sieve plate
(a) Fossil records (b) sieve element
(b) Comparative anatomy (c) companion cell
(c) Comparative embryology (d) cytoplasm
(d) Human behavior
140. Which of the following
135. ___ is an endoparasite tissues are made up of dead
(a) Earthworm cells
(b) Tapeworm (a) meristems
(c) Mosquito (b) xylem vessels
(d) Tsetse fly (c) cambium
(d) mesophyll
136. The causative agent of bird
flu is a ___ 141. A plant vacuole contains
(a) Virus ___
(b) Bacteria (a) dissolved chemicals, sugars,
(c) Fungus salts, pigments and crystals
(d) Protozoan (b) waste products of
metabolism, DNA, RNA and
137. In lower plants like mosses, crystals
the structure which performs the (c) pigments, crystals, DNA and
functions of roots of higher plants waste products of metabolism
is called ___ (d) RNA, DNA, sugars and salts
(a) root hairs
(b) rootlets 142. Excessive water is lost from
(c) hyphae plants through the process called
(d) rhizoids ___
(a) Osmosis
138. An example of vascular (b) Osmoregulation
tissues is__ (c) Transpiration
(a) Trichome (d) Excretion
(b) Xylem
(c) Stomata 143. Starch granules in plants is
(d) Parenchyma equivalent to __granules in
animals

16
(a) Food 148. The feeding pattern in an
(b) Chromatin ecosystem is called___
(c) Lysosome (a) Pyramid of energy
(d) Glycogen (b) Food web
(c) Food chain
144. Which of the following is a (d) Pyramid of number
plant excretory product?
(a) Oil 149. The sign + is used to
(b) Cytokinin indicate an association where an
(c) Resin organism gains, while 0 is used
(d) gibberellins where an organism is unaffected.
An association indicated as +0 is
145. A plant which grows on known as___
another without causing harm to (a) predation
the host plant is called__ (b) commensalism
(a) a parasite (c) parasitism
(b) a saprophyte (d) amensalism
(c) an epiphyte
(d) a predator 150. The sum total of all the
roles an organism plays in a
146. Plants which can survive in habitat is referred to as __
places where water supply is (a) ecology
limited are ___ (b) ecosystem
(a) bryophytes (c) habit
(b) hydrophytes (d) niche
(c) xerophytes
(d) mesophytes 151. Which of the following
factors does not control
147. Puddles, Ponds, Rivers, population growth?
Seas and Oceans are grouped (a) Emigration
together as –– (b) Abundance of food
(a) Ecosystem (c) Predation
(b) Biosphere (d) Food shortage
(c) Aquatic habitat
(d) Terrestrial habitat 152. Which of the following
statements best describe an
ecosystem?

17
 (a) The interactions between (a) Reservoir
living organism in a habitat and (b) Paramylon granule
the non-living part of the (c) Chloroplast
environment. (d) Pellicle
(b) A place where living
organisms can live successfully 156. A heart with four chambers
(c) The interactions between is found in___
living organism in a habitat and (a) Fishes
the non-living part of the (b) Insects
environment. (c) Snails
(d) A biological association (d) Rats
between a plant and an animal. 157. Animal cell does not have a
____
153. Which of these represents a (a) Food vacuole
correct food chain in nature? (b) Cell membrane
(a) Crustacea → diatom →fish → (c) Cell wall
man (d) Nucleolus
(b) Diatom → crustacea → fish
→ man 158. Beriberi is caused by
(c) Fish → crustacea → man → deficiency of vitamin____
diatom (a) A
(d) Diatom → fish → crustacea (b) B
→ man (c) D
(d) E
154. ___is involved in the
mechanism of expelling water 159. Dental formula of man
from the protozoans during the consists of
process of___ (a) i 2/2, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3
(a) Contractile vacuole, (b) i1/1, c2/2, pm2/2, m3/3
Osmoregulation (c) i2/2, c1/1, pm3/3, m2/2
(b) Contractile vacuole, (d) i2/2, c1/1, pm2/2, m3/3
Phagocytosis
(c) Cell membrane, Pinocytosis 160. ____is an end product of
(d) Food vacuole, Pinocytosis digestion of fat.
(a) Glucose
155. ______ is used for (b) Fatty acid
photosynthesis in Euglena sp. (c) Amino acid

18
(d) Fructose (d) Trypsin

161. Asexual reproduction in 166. Which is the enzyme that

Hydra sp. is commonly by ____ begins digestion of starch in the
(a) Binary fission mouth?
(b) Fragmentation (a) Maltase
(c) Budding (b) Sucrase
(d) Regeneration (c) Lactase
(d) Ptyalin
162. Benedict‘s solution is used
to test for ___ 167. A habitat can be defined as
(a) Reducing sugar ___
(b) Lipid (a) a group of animals and plants
(c) Protein living within a common boundary
(d) Starch (b) a place in which plants and
animals live.
163. Pepsin is an enzyme that (c) a community living together in
digests ___ the same place
(a) Starch (d) different areas, with a
(b) Lipid common animal and plant
(c) Fat population
(d) Protein
168. An instrument used in
164. The breakdown of large measuring the speed of wind is
organic molecules into smaller __
simpler soluble molecules is (a) a barometer
called –– (b) a wind gauge
(a) Ingestion (c) a wind vane
(b) Digestion (d) an anemometer
(c) Absorption
(d) Assimilation 169. At times hyenas feed on
remains of animals killed by
165. The enzyme that curdles other animals. At other times,
milk is_____ hyenas
(a) Pepsin themselves kill animals for food.
(b) Ptyalin Therefore, hyenas may best be
(c) Renin described as ––

19
(a) scavengers and herbivores (d) mutualism
(b) scavengers and parasites
(c) scavengers and predators 174. If three 30cm lengths of
(d) herbivores and predators glass tubing are tightly packed
with clay, sand and loamy soils
170. Autecology is defined as the respectively and then stood in a
study of interrelationship of beaker of water for one week,
(a) same species of organisms the level of water will be
and their environment (a) Lowest in the tube with clay
(b) many species of organisms (b) Lowest in the tube with loamy
and their environment soil
(c) organisms in the atmosphere (c) Lowest in the tube with sandy
(d) organisms under the earth‘s soil
surface (d) The same in all the tubes

171. Autotrophs are also 175. In a community, bacteria

described as –– and fungi are referred to as ––
(a) Producers (a) producers
(b) Consumers (b) consumers
(c) Carnivores (c) scavengers
(d) Decomposers (d) decomposers

172. A symbiotic relationship in 176. One common feature of

which one organism is fungi, algae, mosses and ferns is
completely dependent on that they are __
another organism is called ____ (a) photosynthetic
(a) Parasitism (b) show alternation of
(b) Commensalisms generation
(c) Mutualism (c) can survive harsh weather
(d) Saprophytism conditions
(d) have no seeds
173. An association between two
organisms where both members 177. The following are major
benefit is known as ___ groups of the plant kingdom
(a) amensalism except__
(b) symbiosis (a) Bryophyta
(c) commensalism (b) Chlorophyta

20
(c) Pteridophyta (a) Bacteria → ferns → algae →
(d) Thallophyta mosses → seed plants
(b) Bacteria → ferns → mosses
178. _____is a form of sexual → algae → seed plants
reproduction (c) Bacteria → algae → mosses
(a) Grafting → ferns → seed plants
(b) Budding (d) Bacteria → mosses → algae
(c) Fission → ferns → seed plants
(d) Conjugation
183. _____is not part of the
179. Sexual reproduction in whorls of a flower.
Spirogyra is called ___ (a) calyx
(a) Fertilization (b) corolla
(b) Conjugation (c) androecium
(c) Multiple fission (d) antheridium
(d) Fragmentation 184. A dry fruit which can break
into several parts each
180. The carrier of the containing one seed is a
hereditary characters in plants is (a) schizocarp
the (b) caryopsis
(a) Gene (c) aggregate fruit
(b) Chromosome (d) legume
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cell 185. A dry indehiscent, winged
fruit formed from one carpel is
181. Growing yam tendrils climb known as a
for support. This growth (a) Caryopsis
response is (b) Follicle
(a) geotropism (c) Samara
(b) haptotropism (d) Schizocarp
(c) phototropism
(d) chemotropism 186. A true fruit is formed
from_____
182. Which is the correct order in (a) a fertilized ovary
an evolutionary sequence for the (b) a fertilized ovary and calyx
following plant groups? (c) fertilized ovary and other
floral parts

21
(d) an unfertilized ovary and
other floral parts 192. Which of the following is not
regarded as a micro-nutrients or
187. Irish potato is a ___ trace element for plants growth?
(a) bulb (a) molybdenum
(b) rhizome (b) phosphorus
(c) stem tuber (c) silicon
(d) root tuber (d) zinc
188. One major difference
between an Angiosperm and a 193. In cellular respiration,
Gymnosperm is that seeds in energy is stored in the form
Gymnosperms are borne in ___ of___
(a) Cones (a) Heat energy
(b) fruits (b) Adenosine monophosphate
(c) ovary (AMP)
(d) ovule (c) Adenosine diphosphate
(ADP)
189. Reserved food material in (d) Adenosine triphosphate
the seed is stored in the (ATP)
(a) epicarp 194. Which of these plants has
(b) endocarp an emerginate apex?
(c) endosperm (a) Bauhinia
(d) endosperm (b) Pistia
(c) Terminalia
190. What type of fruit is a (d) Ixora
mango fruit? 195. Which plant stores food in
(a) Berry its roots?
(b) Hesperidium (a) onion
(c) Drupe (b) yam
(d) Nut (c) cassava
(d) cocoyam
191. Which of the following
species exhibit an aerial root? 196. The axial skeleton is
(a) Ficus composed of the___
(b) Centrosema (a) radius and ulna
(c) Dahlia (b) skull and vertebral column
(d) Lantana (c) atlas and axis

22
(d) limbs and girdles

197. The brain and the spinal

cord make up the___
(a) automatic nervous system
(b) sympathetic nervous system
(c) central nervous system
(d) somatic nervous system

198. During prolonged exercise,

glucose in the muscle is
converted to__
(a) ethanol
(b) lactic acid
(c) pyruvic acid
(d) acetyl coA

199. Which of the following

processes does not contribute
towards growth?
(a) cell division
(b) cell differentiation
(c) cell differentiation
(d) cell plasmolysis

200. The amount of energy

p`assed from trophic level to the
next decreases because___
(a) many organisms are present
at the first trophic level
(b) many organisms occur at the
higher trophic level
(c) more energy is conserved at
lower trophic level
(d) parts of the organisms remain
unutilized at each trophic level.

23
 BIOLOGY ANSWERS

1. C 35. A 70. A
36. B 71. D
2. D
37. D 72. B
3. C
38. B 73. D
4. A
39. B 74. C
5. B
40. C 75. D
6. C
41. B 76. C
7. C
42. A 77. D
8. C
43. D 78. C
9. C
44. D 79. B
10. A
45. A 80. D
11. B
46. A 81. A
12. D
47. A 82. B
13. D
48. D 83. A
14. A
49. A 84. C
15. B
50. C 85. A
16. B
51. D 86. A
17. D
52. C 87. A
18. C
53. A 88. B
19. C
54. C 89. B
20. C
55. D 90. B
21. C
56. C 91. C
22. C
57. C 92. C
23. C
58. C 93. C
24. D
59. C 94. A
25. D
60. D 95. C
26. C
61. D 96. B
27. C
62. D 97. D
28. B
63. A 98. A
29. B
64. A 99. B
30. B
65. D 100. C
31. A
66. A 101. D
32. B
67. D 102. C
33. B
68. A 103. B
34. D
69. B 104. D

24
105. C 137. D 169. C
106. B 138. B 170. A
107. A 139. C 171. A
108. B 140. B 172. A
109. D 141. A 173. D
110. A 142. C 174. C
111. C 143. D 175. D
112. D 144. C 176. D
113. A 145. C 177. B
114. B 146. C 178. D
115. D 147. C 179. B
116. A 148. B 180. A
117. D 149. B 181. B
118. A 150. D 182. C
119. A 151. B 183. D
120. C 152. A 184. A
121. D 153. B 185. C
122. C 154. A 186. A
123. B 155. C 187. D
124. D 156. D 188. A
125. A 157. C 189. C
126. D 158. B 190. C
127. A 159. D 191. A
128. A 160. B 192. B
129. C 161. C 193. D
130. D 162. A 194. A
131. D 163. D 195. C
132. B 164. B 196. B
133. D 165. C 197. C
134. D 166. D 198. B
135. B 167. B 199. D
136. A 168. D 200.C

25
 PHYSICS

1) The position of a point in a (A) chemical compositions of

plane can be determined by its matter
(B) matter and its relation to
(A) distance and direction from a
energy
reference point
(C) biological compositions of
(B) mass and direction from a
matter
reference point
(D) all of the above
(C) weight and direction from a
reference point
5) A fixed mass of gas of volume
(D) momentum and direction
600 cm3 at a temperature of 27
from a reference point
0C is cooled at constant
.
pressure to a temperature of 0
2) Which of these is the correct
0C. What is the change in
relationship between Fahrenheit
volume?
(F) and Celsius (C) temperature
(A) 54 cm3
scales.
(B) 273cm3
(A) (C) 300cm3
(B) (D) 546cm3

(C) 6) The energy of a body due to

(D) its position is called
(A) kinetic energy
(B) potential energy
3) Calculate the heat produced in (C) higher energy
an electric coil of resistance 15 Ω (D) latent energy
when a current of 5 A flows
through it for 30 minutes. 7) Which of the following units is
(A) 5.25 x 103 J equivalent to the unit of electric
(B) 6.75 x 105 J current?
(C) 2.15 x 105 J (A) Cs-1
(D) 4.85 x 103 J (B) Ks-1
(C) Js-1
4) Physics is the branch of (D) Ns-1
natural science which study

26
8) A mass of 10 kg is moving in a 11) A force of 0.8N stretches an
circular path radius 2m with a elastic spring by 2 cm. calculate
uniform speed of 50 m/s. the elastic constant of the spring.
Calculate the centripetal (A) 40 N/m
acceleration. (B) 1.6 N/m
(A) 10 ms-2 (C) 4 N/m
(B) 100 ms-2 (D) 10 N/m
(C) 150 ms-2
(D) 1250 ms-2 12) The breaking up of positive
columns in a discharge tube into
9) Which of these is correct alternating bright and dark
about the distance S, between segment is
two points (A) thermionic emission
on a (B) wave
Cartesian plane? (C) field emission
(A) (D) striation

(B) 13) A mass of 10 kg is moving in

a circular path radius 2m with a
uniform speed of 50 m/s.
(C)
Calculate the centripetal force.
(A) 15.0 kN
(D)
(B) 10.0 kN
(C) 12.5 kN
(D) 50 kN
10) A heater marked 60 W
evaporates 0.006 kg of water in 14) In an isolated or closed
60 seconds. What is the specific system, the total amount of
latent heat of vaporization of energy is always constant,
water in J/Kg? although such energy may be
(A) changed from one form to
(B) another. This is the law of
(C) (A) usable energy
(D) (B) unchangeble energy
(C) constant energy
(D) conservation of energy

27
15) A force of 2 N stretches an
elastic material by 30 mm. What 19) A car travels at an average
additional force will stretch the speed of 100 kmh-1. What
material 35 mm assuming that distance does it cover in 5
the elastic limit is not exceeded? minutes?
(A) 1.55 N (A) 8.3 m
(B) 2.33 N (B) 8300 m
(C) 0.33 N (C) 5000 m
(D) 5.80N (D) 5.0 m

16) If two vectors are at right 20) Which of these is a correct

angles to each other, their formula of power P.
resultant is obtained by (A) P = Force x velocity
(A) applying Pythagoras theorem (B) P = Force x displacement
(B) adding the vectors (C) P = Force x time
(C) subtracting the smaller one (D) P = Force x acceleration
from the bigger one
(D) applying product theorem 21) A ball is released from a
height above the ground. Find its
17) If two vectors act in opposite velocity after 5 seconds. Take g
directions, the angle between as 10 m/s
them is (A) 50 m/s
(A) 0o (B) 10 m/s
(B) 360o (C) 6.8 m/s
(C) 90o (D) 24.5 m/s
(D) 180o
22) A machine with a velocity
18) A ball is swung in a ratio of 30 moves a load of 3000
horizontal circle of centre O with N when an effort of 200N is
a constant speed. Where will the applied. What is the force ratio of
restoring force of the moving the machine?
object be directed? (A) 5
(A) Away from O (B) 10
(B) Along the Circumference of (C) 15
the circle (D) 20
(C) Toward centre O
(D) Along a tangent to the circle

28
23) As a positively charged rod is
brought nearer to the top of a
positively charged gold leaf
electroscope, the divergence of Fv
the leaves will F
(A) increase to zero
(B) steadily increase Ѳ
O FH
(C) remain constant
(D) decrease to zero
(A) Fv - FH
(B) F
24) Which of these is NOT an (C) Fv = F sinѲ
example of work? (D) Fv = F cosѲ
(A) A boy lifting a heavy box from
the floor to the top of a table. 27) Which of the following
(B) A girl pushing a wheelbarrow statements is an effect of
along a level road. compressing gas molecules at
(C) A car climbing a hill. constant temperature?
(D) A man carrying a block (A) The pressure on the
standing in a place a catapult or molecules decreases.
rubber band (B). The molecules gain more
kinetic energy.
25) A car is moving at a constant (C) The molecules make more
speed of 20 m/s. The force impact per second on the walls
retarding its motion is 500 N. of the container.
Calculate the engine power of (D) The molecules increase in
the car required to maintain the size.
motion.
(A) 1.0 kW 28) A plane inclined at an angle
(B) 10 kW of 300 to the horizontal has an
(C) 100 kW efficiency of 50%. The force
(D) 50 kW parallel to the plane required to
26) A force, F is inclined at an push a load of 120 N uniformly
angle  to the horizontal as up the plane is
shown below, what is the vertical (A) N
component of the force? (B) 60 N
(C) 120 N

29
(D) 200 N
33) A body moving with an initial
29) Which of these is considered velocity of 30 m/s accelerates
as negative acceleration? uniformly at a rate of 10 m/s until
(A) speed it attains a velocity of 50 m/s.
(B) velocity What is the distance covered
(C) retardation during this period?
(D) moment (A) 80m
(B) 40m
30) A thermometer with an (C) 20m
arbitrary scale, S, of equal (D) 10m
divisions registers -300S at the
ice point and +900S at the steam 34) Find the resistance of a wire
point. Calculate the Celsius of length 0.65m, radius 0.2mm
temperature corresponding to and resistivity 3 x 10-6 Ωm.
600S. (A) 15.5 Ω
(A) 250C (B) 8.5 Ω
(B) 500C (C) 30.0 Ω
(C) 66.70C (D) 22.8 Ω
(D) 750C

31) A 24V battery of internal 35) The slope of the

resistance of 0.75Ω delivers displacement-time graph gives
current through an external load the
of 1.25Ω. What is the power (A) distance covered
supplied? (B) acceleration
(A) 12.0W (C) velocity
(B) 28.8W (D) work done
(C) 180W
(D) 72.0W 36) A radio station broadcasts at
a frequency of 600 KHz. If the
32) The energy of a body on speed of light in air is 3 x 108
account of its motion is called m/s, calculate the wavelength of
(A) kinetic energy the radio wave.
(B) potential energy (A) 22,000 m
(C) higher energy (B) 500 m
(D) latent energy (C) 500,000 m

30
(D) none of the above 41) A plane inclined at an angle
of 300 to the horizontal has an
efficiency of 50%. Calculate the
37) The gradient of the velocity- mechanical advantage of the
time graph gives the machine.
(A) distance covered (A) 0.5
(B) acceleration (B) 1.0
(C) velocity (C) 2.0
(D) work done (D) 5.0

38) A body starts from rest and 42) If an object is thrown

accelerates uniformly at 5ms-2 upwards from the ground, the
until it attains a velocity 25ms-1. acceleration is
Calculate the time taken to attain (A) zero
this velocity. (B) negative
(A) 2.5 seconds (C) equal to one
(B) 5.0 seconds (D) positive
(C) 10.0 seconds
(D) 125.0 seconds 43) Determine the velocity ratio
of an inclined plane used to lift
39) Which of the following 2kg of block if the angle of the
phenomena cannot be explained inclined plane is 300 to the
by molecular theory of matter? horizontal.
(A) Expansion (A) 0.5
(B) Convection (B) 60.0
(C) Conduction (C) 2.0
(D) Radiation (D) 5.0

40) The area under the 44) Which of the following

displacement-time graph gives colours of light will give white
the light on mixing?
(A) distance covered (A) Red and Yellow
(B) acceleration (B) Yellow or Green
(C) velocity (C) red and Magenta
(D) work done (D) Magenta and Green

31
45) An aeroplane initially at rest 49) A Nurse that weighs 50kg
undergoes a constant runs up a set of steps of total
acceleration of 2.5 m/s2 down height 3.0m. Find the work done
the runaway for 30s before it lifts against gravity.
off. How far does it travel the (A) 1500 J
down the runaway before taking (B) 700 J
off? (C) 900 J
(A) 1.125km (D) 300 J
(B) 2.55km
(C) 0.125km 50) The point at which the
(D) 4.583km resultant magnetic flux density is
46) If an object is dropped from a zero is called _______---
height, the acceleration is (A) neutral point
(A) zero (B) magnetic point
(B) negative (C) zero point
(C) equal to one (D) flux point
(D) positive
51) A ball is thrown vertically
47) A carton loaded with normal upwards with an initial velocity of
saline infusion of total mass 40 m/s. Determine its velocity
100kg falls down from a lorry of after 3 seconds.
2.0m high. Calculate the work (A) 2.5 m/s
done by gravity on the loaded (B) 5.0 m/s
carton. (C) 10.0 m/s
(A) 600 J (D) 20.0 m/s
(B) 2000 J
(C) 1000 J 52) A body can be said too be in
(D) 500 J equilibrium when
(A) the resultant force acting on a
48) For an object that is thrown body is zero
upwards, the velocity at (B) the resultant force acting on a
maximum height is body is maximum
(A) zero (C) when the body continues to
(B) maximum accelerate
(C) minimum (D) the resultant force acting on
(D) unity a body is 100N

32
53) A current of 2A passes 57) When water is boiling, it
through a wire of resistance __________-
4Ω for 3 minutes. Calculate the (A) increases in mass
energy lost. (B) change to steam
(A) 960J (C) decrease in mass
(B) 1440J (D) gets hotter
(C) 2880J
(D) 48J 58) A handball is thrown
vertically upwards with an initial
54) A body of mass 20kg moves velocity of 40 m/s. Calculate the
in a horizontal circular path of maximum height attained.
radius 10m with a speed of 5m/s. (A) 400m
What is the centripetal force (B) 40m
acting on the body? (C) 80m
(A) 200 N (D) 50m
(B) 100 N
(C) 50 N 59) _____________ is a single
(D) 20 N force which balances or cancels
55) A single force which acting out the effect of the two or more
alone would produce the same forces to keep them in
effect in magnitude and direction equilibrium.
as two or more forces acting (A) resultant
together is called (B) equilibrant
(A) moment (C) moment
(B) upthrust (D) couple
(C) resultant
(D)momentum 60) Which of the following
statements about the universal
56) Calculate the work done gravitational constant, G, is
when a force of 10N displaces an true?
object through 5 meters. (A) It is fundamental quantity.
(A) 10 J (B) It has dimension M L3 T-2.
(B) 50 J (C) Its S.I. unit is Nm2/kg2
(C) 5 J (D) It is a vector quantity
(D) 100 J
61) If the electrical resistance of
a platinum wire at is and

33
 at . Calculate the (D) couple
temperature when the resistance Ans : (C )
is assuming that the change
in the electrical resistance of the 64) The electrical resistance of a
conductor is proportional to the platinum wire at lower fixed point
change in temperature. is and at upper fixed
(A) 19.66°C point. Calculate the temperature
(B) 29.61°C when the resistance is
(C) 29. 64°C assuming that the change in the
(D) 29.63°C electrical resistance of the
conductor is proportional to the
62) Which of the following change in temperature.
statements is correct about the (A) 0.5°C
earth‘s magnetic field? (B) 50.5°C
(A) the angle of declination is the (C) 50.0°C
angle between the magnetic (D) 0.55°C
meridian and geographic
meridian 65) The air in the stem of a
(B) the angle of inclination is the mercury in glass thermometer
difference between the angle of should be expelled before
dip and the angle of declination introducing mercury so that
(C) the angle of declination is the (A) the mercury rise in the tube
angle which magnetic compass may not be subjected to varying
makes with the magnetic air pressure
meridian (B) the glass of the bulb may not
(D) the angle of dip is the angle crack if the mercury expands to
which freely suspended magnet compress the air
makes with the vertical (C) the mercury may not
evaporate
63) The product of the force and (D) enough mercury may enter
the perpendicular distance from the bulb
the point to the line of action of
the force is ______________ of 66) A cricket is thrown vertically
the force about the point. upwards with an initial velocity of
(A) resultant 40 m/s. Determine the time taken
(B) equilibrant to reach the maximum height.
(C) moment (g=10m/s2)

34
(A) 20s 71) Find the potential energy of a
(B) 10s baby of mass 20kg standing on a
(C) 40s hospital bed 5 meters above
(D) 4s ground level ( ).
(A) 2000 J
67)A system of two equal but (B) 500 J
oppositely directed parallel (C) 1500 J
forces not acting along the same (D) 1000 J
straight line is known as.
(A) momentum 72) The temperature equivalent
(B) equilibrant of 256K in Celsius is?
(C) moment (A) 17°C
(D) couple (B) -17°C
(C) 529°C
68) A man covered a distance of (D) -529°C
10m. What is the time it took him
if his power is 200 W and force is 73)A radio set draws a current of
5N? 0.036 ampere for 15minutes.
(A) 1.0 sec Calculate the amount of electric
(B) 0.25sec charge that flows through the
(C) 1.2 sec circuit.
(D) 0.5 sec (A) 3.24C
(B) 32.4C
69) Which of these is NOT a type (C) 5.4C
of equilibrium a body can be in? (D) 0.54C
(A) neutral equilibrium
(B) unstable equilibrium 74) In alternating current theory,
(C) stable equilibrium the units of impedance, r.m.s.
(D) forced equilibrium voltage and resonance frequency
are respectively equal to
70) The unit of momentum is (A) Volt, Ampere and Hertz
__________ (B) Watt, Ohm and Radian
(A) Js-1 (C) Ohm, Hertz and Joule
(B) Ns-1 (D) Ohm, Volt and Hertz
(C) Ns
(D) Nms 75) Which equilibrium is
possessed by a body if when it is

35
slight displaced or tilted, it tends 79) Carbon particles are used in
to rest in its new position? carbon microphones because
(A) neutral equilibrium (A) they amplify the sound
(B) stable equilibrium (B) their resistance changes with
(C) unstable equilibrium temperature
(D) all of the above (C) their resistance changes with
pressure
76) A patient walks a total (D) they are good conductors
distance of 32km in 6 hours.
Calculate his average speed for 80) A body is said to be in a
the whole journey in kilometers position of __________
per hour. equilibrium, if when slightly
(A) 8.5 km/hr displaced, it tends to move
(B) 6.2 km/hr further away from its original
(C) 5.3 km/hr position.
(D) 2.5 km/hr (A) minimum
(B) stable
77) When a body tends to return (C) neutral
to its original position after (D) unstable
receiving a slight displacement,
the body id said to be in 81) A young man of mass 20kg
____________ equilibrium. climbs up 10 steps each of
(A) stable height 0.5m in 30 seconds.
(B) neutral Calculate the power of the young
(C) unstable man.
(D) maximum (A) 20.5 W
(B) 27.4 W
78) Calculate the time in minutes (C) 33.3 W
required to suck a baby using a (D) 41.7 W
suction machine that draws a
current of 5A with 600C of 82) Which of the following give
electric charge flowing through it. rise to stationary wave?
(A) 120 mins I. Two plane progressive waves
(B) 50 mins travelling in opposite directions
(C) 2 mins II. Two plane progressive waves
(D) 3 mins travelling in the same direction

36
III. Waves of the same amplitude 86) Find the force of attraction
and frequency between two equal but oppose
IV. Waves which interfere charge of 2 x 10-6 C. If the
(A) II, III and IV only distance between them is 25cm.
(B) II and IV only (Take k = 9 x 109 Nm2/C2).
(C) I and II only (A) 0.567N
(D) I, III and IV only (B) 0.445N
(C) 0.576N
83) A body slides down an (D) 0.0576N
inclined plane which makes an
angle of 30o with the horizontal. 87) In a projectile motion, the
Neglecting friction, determine the maximum height H attained by
velocity of the body after sliding the object is given by
10m from rest
(A)
(A) 0.1 m/s
(B) 10 m/s
(B)
(C) 0.5 m/s
(D) 5 m/s
(C)
84) The time required for a
projectile to return to the level
(D)
from which it was projected is
termed ________ 88) Which of the following
(A) time of landing instruments in its normal use
(B) time of flight serves as a first class lever?
(C) time of movement (A) pair of scissors
(D) time of return (B) a bottle opener
(C) a pair of sugar tongs
85) An atom is usually electrically (D) a knife
neutral because it contains equal
numbers of 89) The dimension of force is
(A) protons and electrons (A) MLT-2
(B) photons and protons (B) ML2T-1
(C) protons and neutrons (C) ML2T-3
(D) neutrons and electrons (D) ML-1T

37
90) For a projectile to attain
maximum range, it must be 94) Calculate the potential
projected at an angle of _______ difference of a battery whose
to the horizontal. resistance is 5Ω if the current
(A) 30o flowing through it is 0.6A.
(B) 45o (A) 0.12V
(C) 60o (B) 0.3V
(D) 75o (C) 3.0V
(D) 8.33V
91) Which of the following
devices in their common form will 95) What is the reading accuracy
not function on a steady direct of a vernier caliper?
current? (A) 1.0cm
(A) transformer (B) 0.1cm
(B) electric bell (C) 0.01cm
(C) electric heating element (D) 0.001cm
(D) filament lamp
96) The time taken for a particle
92) A wheel chair of mass 15kg performing simple harmonic
is been pushed at a constant motion to make one complete
velocity of 10 m/s. Calculate its oscillation is called ___________
kinetic energy. (A) period
(A) 1500 J (B) frequency
(B) 750 J (C) amplitude
(C) 1000 J (D) range
(D) 150 J
97) A force of 0.8N stretches an
93) The periodic motion of a elastic spring by 2cm. Find the
particle whose acceleration is elastic constant of the spring.
directed towards a fixed point (A) 0.4 Nm-1
and is directly proportional to its (B) 0.04 Nm-1
displacement from that point is (C) 4 Nm-1
called ________. (D) 40 Nm-1
(A) periodic motion
(B) accelerated motion 98) Which of these is correct?
(C) upthrust motion
(D) simple harmonic motion

38
(A) both distance and (D) 5.0 Nm-2
displacement are scalar
quantities 102) Which of the following is
(B) both distance and NOT a fundamental quantity?
displacement are vector (A) weight
quantities (B) mass
(C) distance is a vector quantity (C) amount of substance
while displacement is a scalar (D) electric current
quantity
(D) distance is a scalar quantity 103) The maximum displacement
while displacement is a vector of a particle performing simple
quantity harmonic motion from its rest is
(A) period
(B) frequency
99) To measure the thickness of (C) amplitude
a piece of paper, the best (D) range
instrument to use is
(A) tape 104) The interval between two
(B) meter rule events is called
(C) vernier caliper (A) period
(D) micrometer screw gauge (B) time
(C) mass
100) _____________ is defined (D) frequency
as the number of complete
vibrations made by an oscillating 105) If the strain on a body is 5
body per unit time. calculate the initial length of the
(A) period body if its elongation is 300m.
(B) frequency (A) 60m
(C) amplitude (B) 1500m
(D) range (C) 6m
(D) 600m
101) Calculate the tensile stress
on a body exerting a force of 50N 106) The gradual reduction in the
through a distance of 5m. amplitude and the eventual
(A) 10.0 Nm-2 stopping of an oscillation is
(B) 2.0 Nm-2 called
(C) 250 Nm-2 (A) stoppage

39
(B) reduction parallel to the surface of a
(C) damping horizontal table is just sufficient
(D) retardation to make a block dish of mass
12kg move on the table?
107) A drip giving set of mass [ ].
3.6 kg fell from a height 4.2 m (A) 4.0
above the ground. Calculate the (B) 12
potential energy before it fell off. (C) 25
( ) (D) 2.5
(A) 360.5 J
(B) 151.2 J 111) A body that moves in a
(C) 263.8 J circular path about an axis or
(D) 214.8 J fixed point is said to exhibit
(A) rotational motion
108) The motion that involves the (B) translational motion
whole-body movement of an (C) random motion
object from one point to another (D) oscillatory motion
is
(A) rotational 112) The product of the mass
(B) translational and velocity of a body is its
(C) random (A) momentum
(D) oscillatory (B) inertia
(C) power
109) The phenomenon where the (D) moment
frequency of an external forcing
body coincides with the natural
frequency of an oscillating body 113) A car is moving at a
making it to vibrate with a constant speed of 50m/ s. The
relatively larger amplitude is force retarding its motion is
known as 100N. Calculate the engine
(A) resonance power of the car required to
(B) damping maintain the motion.
(C) work function (A) 4 x 104 W
(D) amplitude (B) 3 x 105 W
(C) 5 x 103 W
110)What is the coefficient of (D) 4 x 105 W
friction if a force of 300N applied

40
114) For a 50kg body at rest, its 118) A body of mass 1000g
momentum is travels with a velocity of 30m/s .
(A) maximum Calculate its momentum.
(B) zero (A) 30 kgm/s
(C) 50 kgm/s (B) 30000 kgm/s
(D) 100 kgm/s (C) 1000 kgm/s
(D) 0.3 kgm/s
115) The motion of the prongs of
a sounding tuning fork is 119) The product of a large force
(A) rotational motion and the small time it acts on a
(B) translational motion body is known as
(C) random motion (A) impulse
(D) oscillatory motion (B) momentum
(C) moment
116) An oxygen cylinder of mass (D) inertia
15kg rests on a table. What force
is required to just make the 120) A body slides down an
oxygen cylinder move when it is inclined plane which makes an
pulled horizontally? [Coefficient angle of 30o with the horizontal.
of friction = 0.6; ]. Neglecting friction, calculate the
(A) 50N time taken to slide 10m distance.
(B) 150N (A) 2s
(C) 120N (B) 5s
(D) 90N (C) 10s
(D) 4s
117) Starting from rest, a car of
mass 1000kg accelerates 121) Which of the following is a
steadily to 200ms—1 in 10s. The statement of Newton‘s third law
average power developed in the of motion
time period is (A) the rate of change of
(A) 20 kW momentum of a body with time is
(B) 0.2 kW directly proportional to the
(C) 10 kW applied force and takes place in
(D) 15 kW the direction with which the force
acts.
(B) a body will continue in its
present state of rest or, if it is in

41
motion, will continue to move suffered by the ray in water (nw =
with uniform speed in a straight 1.33)
line unless it acted upon by an (A) 15.7o
external force. (B) 19.5o
(C) to every action there is equal (C) 8.0o
and opposite reaction (D) 15.0o
(D) force is a measure of the
mass and acceleration of an 125) Which of the following is
object true in inelastic collision?
I. momentum is conserved
II. kinetic energy is conserved
III. colliding bodies stick together
122) Which of the following and move as a unit after collision
quantities is not an example of
force? (A) I and II only
(A) Mass (B) II and III only
(B) Tension (C) II only
(C) Weight (D) I and III only
(D) Friction

123) In an elastic collision, which 126) In a machine, the ratio of

of the following is true about the load to the effort is termed
momentum and kinetic energy? (A) mechanical advantage
(A) momentum is conserved (B) efficiency
while kinetic energy is not (C) velocity ratio
conserved (D) machine friction
(B) momentum is not conserved
while kinetic energy is conserved 127) The main reason why the
(C) both momentum and kinetic efficiency of a machine can not
energy are conserved be 100% because
(D) neither momentum nor (A) a machine does big work
kinetic energy is conserved (B) a machine is very
complicated
124) A ray of light is incident on (C) the load of a machine is
the surface of water at an angle greater than the energy supplied
of 30o. Calculate the devbiation to the machine

42
(D) part of the energy supplied to (B) cosѲ
the machine is spent in doing (C) 1/cosѲ
work against friction (D) 1/sinѲ

128) The reason for laminating 133) Which of the following is

the soft iron core of a true in static and dynamic
transformer is to? friction?
(A) reduce eddy current. (A) static friction is usually
(B) reduce magnetic flux. greater than dynamic friction
(C) increase the magnetic flux. (B) static friction is usually less
(D) reduce its efficiency. than dynamic friction
(C) static friction is usually equal
129) In a block and tackle to dynamic friction
system of pulleys, the velocity (D) Static and dynamic fiction
ratio is equal to helps to attain 100% efficiency
(A) zero
(B) double the number of pulleys 134) The major striking peculiar
(C) half the number of pulleys feature of the clinical
(D) the number of pulleys thermometer is that
(A) it is a good conductor
130) The motion of gas (B) it is not opaque
molecules is an example of (C) possesses constriction
(A) rotational motion (D) it expands uniformly
(B) translational motion
(C) random motion 135) The quantity of heat energy
(D) oscillatory motion required to change the
temperature of a unit mass of a
131) The SI unit of force is body by 1oC or 1K is called
(A) kgms2 (A) heat capacity
(B) kgms-2 (B) specific heat capacity
(C) kgm-1s (C) latent heat
(D) kgm2s (D) specific latent heat

132) The velocity ratio of an 136) Formation of hydrogen

inclined planed raised to angle Ѳ bubbles at the copper plate of
is given by a primary cell is called?
(A) sinѲ (A) polarization.

43
(B) back e.m.f. (D) 1000J
(C) electrolysis.
(D) local action. 141) Which of the following is
true about evaporation?
137) The main agent that causes I. It occurs at a specific
change of state of a body at rest temperature
or the uniform motion of a body II. It involves the entire body of
is the substance
(A) weight III. It involves only the surface of
(B) acceleration the substances
(C) mass (A) III only
(D) force (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
138) The rate of displacement (D) II and III only
with time is
(A) acceleration 142) Which of these is NOT a
(B) work contact force
(C) speed (A) gravitational force
(D) velocity (B) surface tension
(C) upthrust
139) The heat needed to bring (D) reaction
about change of state of a
substance without a change in 143) The velocity ratio of wheel
temperature is called and axle machine with radius of
(A) heat capacity wheel R and radius of axle r, is
(B) latent heat given by
(C) expansion heat (A) r/R
(D)contraction heat (B) 2r/R
(C) 2R/r
140) How much heat is required (D) R/r
to change 2Kg of ice at 0o C to
water at the same temperature? 144) Which of the following is
(specific latent heat (SLH) of correct for boiling?
fusion of ice 3.6 × 102 J/Kg). I. Boiling takes place throughout
(A) 720 J the entire volume of the liquid
(B) 360J II. Boiling takes place at all
(C) 180 J temperatures

44
III. Boiling causes cooling. (D) surface tension force
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only 149) The process of a solid
(C) I only substance turning directly in gas
(D) I and III only without passing through the
liquid state is
145) An example of a non- (A) evaporation
contact force is (B) sublimation
(A) surface tension (C) vapourization
(B) electric force (D) melting
(C) push force
(D) upthrust force 150) A heat sensitive resistor
made of a semiconductor is
146) Opening in the eye through called?
which light passes to the retina is (A) thermometer.
called the? (B) thermostat.
(A) pupil (C) thermistor
(B) cornea. (D) thermopile.
(C) iris
(D) optic nerve.
151) The force that needs to be
overcome to enable a body move
147) An impurity in a liquid over another is
(A) lowers the boiling point of the (A) dynamic friction
liquid (B) overcoming force
(B) maintain the boiling point of (C) stationary force
the liquid at a constant value (D) upthrust force
(C) have no effect on the boiling
point of the liquid 152) The temperature at which
(D) raises the boiling point of the the vapour pressure in the air is
liquid just sufficient to saturate it is its
148) The force that acts between (A) boiling point
the surface of two objects and (B) saturation point
that opposes the motion is called (C) dew point
(A) oppositional force (D) melting point
(B) frictional force
(C) magnetic force 153) For a body in motion

45
(A) dynamic friction is less than limiting friction between the
static friction surfaces
(B) dynamic friction is equal to (D) none of the above
static friction
(C) dynamic friction is greater to 157) Which of these type of
static friction eclipse occurs when the moon
(D) dynamic friction is zero comes between the sun and the
earth?
154) Which of the following (A) earth eclipse
factors does not necessarily (B) solar eclipse
affect the rate of evaporation? (C) annular eclipse
(A) volume (D) moon eclipse
(B) temperature
(C) pressure 158) A boy of mass 10 kg climbs
(D) area of liquid exposed up10 steps each of height 0.2m
155) ___________ law states in 20 seconds. Calculate the
that the pressure of a given (or power of the boy.
fixed) mass of a gas is inversely (A) 2W
proportional to its volume (B) 5W
provided that the temperature (C) 10W
remains constant. (D) 50W
(A) Boyle‘s 159) ____________ is a
(B) Charles‘ disturbance that transfers energy
(C) Pressure from one point to the other in a
(D) Dalton‘s medium without any transfer of
156)For a body to slide over the particles of the medium itself
another, between these points.
(A) the horizontal force applied (A) wave
must be equal to the static or (B) current
limiting friction between the (C) resonance
surfaces (D) damping
(B) the horizontal force applied
must be less than the static or 160) ____________ is when an
limiting friction between the applied force causes a body to
surfaces move.
(C) the horizontal force applied (A) work
must be greater than the static or (B) energy

46
(C) frictional force 165) Which of the following is
(D) power true about scalars and vectors?
161) Which of these waves is (A) Scalars have magnitude and
NOT a mechanical wave? direction
(A) radio waves (B) Both scalars and vectors
(B) water waves have direction
(C) sound waves (C) vectors have magnitude but
(D) waves in strings no direction
(D) Both scalars and vectors
162) The gradient of a have magnitude
displacement-time graph at any
point represents 166) Which of these is NOT an
(A) instantaneous velocity electromagnetic wave?
(B) instantaneous acceleration (A) light waves
(C) instantaneous work (B) radio waves
(D) instantaneous pressure (C) sound waves
(D) x-rays
163) The phenomenon where a
heated body emits energy in 167) ___________ is a circuit
discrete packets known as that has one or more input
(A) photoelectric emission signals but only one output
(B) energy quantization signal.
(C) energy emission (A) logic gate
(D) energy absorption (B) correct circuit
(C) complete gate
164) Electric motor primarily (D) transformer
converts? 168) Quantities that have only
(A) electrical energy to chemical magnitude are said to be
energy. (A) incomplete quantities
(B) kinetic energy to potential (B) scalar quantities
energy (C) fundamental quantities
(C) electrical energy to (D) vector quantities
mechanical energy
(D) electrical energy to heat 169) Waves in which the
energy. direction of travel of the wave is
perpendicular to the direction of

47
the vibration of the medium are (B) becomes a different isotope
termed of the element.
(A) transverse waves (C) daughter with increased
(B) electromagnetic waves mass.
(C) longitudinal waves (D) becomes a daughter of a
(D) mechanical waves different element always.

170) Which of these is NOT a 174) Which of these is NOT an

scalar quantity? example of vector quantity?
(A) velocity (A) velocity
(B) time (B) momentum
(C) speed (C) force
(D) energy (D) energy

171) Which of these is an 175) 2. An object of mass 10kg is

example of potential energy moving at a constant velocity of
seen? 15 m/s. Calculate its kinetic
(A) a student running a race. energy.
(B) an object falling freely under (A) 2.25 kJ
gravity. (B) 1.50 kJ
(C) a mango fruit on a tree (C) 2.0 kJ
(D) Wind or air in motion. (D) 1.125 kJ

172) ______________ are 176) Which of these is an

waves in which the direction of example of longitudinal waves?
travel of the wave is the same as (A) sound waves
the direction of the vibration of (B) water waves
the medium. (C) light waves
(A) transverse waves (D) radio waves
(B) electromagnetic waves
(C) longitudinal waves 177) The maximum displacement
(D) mechanical waves of a wave particle from its rest
position is termed
173) An atom that emits an α- (A) frequency
particle? (B) amplitude
(A) may become a different (C) period
element. (D) wavelength

48
 meters above ground level
178) Quantities that have ( ).
magnitude and direction are (A) 1.0 kJ
called (B) 10 kJ
(A) complete quantities (C) 100 kJ
(B) scalar quantities (D) 0.5 kJ
(C) fundamental quantities
(D) vector quantities 183) ___________ is the
distance between two successive
179) The number of complete troughs or crests of a transverse
oscillation made per second by a wave
wave is called (A) frequency
(A) frequency (B) amplitude
(B) amplitude (C) period
(C) period (D) wavelength
(D) wavelength
184) ______________ is the
180) The rate of change of frequency of the incident
velocity with time is radiation below which no
(A) acceleration photoelectrons can be emitted
(B) work from a given metal surface.
(C) speed (A) emission frequency
(D) velocity (B) metallic frequency
(C) threshold frequency
181) The actual time a wave (D) work function frequency
particle used to complete a cycle
about a reference point is known 185) A body of mass 20g is
as suspended from the end of a
(A) frequency spiral spring with force constant
(B) amplitude of 0.4 N/m. Calculate the period
(C) period of the motion
(D) wavelength (A) 2.55s
(B) 1.41s
182) Calculate the potential (C) 0.45s
energy of a boy of mass 10kg (D) 5.42s
standing on a building floor 10

49
186) The kinetic energy of wavelength that is incident on the
emitted electrons during surface is called
photoelectric effect depends on (A) thermionic emission
I. frequency of the incident light (B) photoelectric effect
II. wavelength of the incident light (C) incident effect
III. intensity of the incident light (D) all of the above
(A) I and II only
(B) II only 190) A body of mass 20g is
(C) II and III only suspended from the end of a
(D) III only spiral spring constant is 0.4 N/m.
the body is set into a simple
187) A body of mass 20g is harmonic motion with amplitude
suspended from the end of a 0.2m. Determine the maximum
spiral spring of force constant 0.4 velocity
N/m. The body is set into a (A) 0.45 m/s
simple harmonic motion with (B) 2.04 m/s
amplitude 0.2m. Evaluate the (C) 0.89 m/s
angular speed. (D) 1.88 m/s
(A) 4.46 rad/s
(B) 3.84 rad/s 191) The energy used to bind or
(C) 5.88 rad/s completely separate the
(D) 1.69 rad/s nucleons of an atom is
188) A body is suspended from (A) ground state energy
the end of a spiral spring with (B) excitation energy
force constant 0.4 N/m. If the (C) binding energy
body is set into a simple (D) ionization energy
harmonic motion with amplitude
0.2m, calculate the total energy 192) A body is suspended from
(A) 0.16J the end of a spiral spring. If the
(B) 0.08J body is set into a simple
(C) 0.008J harmonic motion with amplitude
(D) 2.55J 0.2m at angular speed of 4.46
rad/s, calculate the maximum
189) The emission of radiation acceleration.
from a metallic surface caused (A) 3.98 m/s2
by electromagnetic radiation of (B) 1.45 m/s2
appropriate frequency or (C) 5.92 m/s2

50
(D) 0.37 m/s2 197) The least energy of an atom
is the
193) An example of a non (A) ground state energy
luminous object is (B) excitation energy
(A) sun (C) binding energy
(B) star (D) ionization energy
(C) candle light
(D) moon 198) A beam of light where
different rays of light meet at a
194) The direction along which point is termed
light energy travels is known as (A) meeting beam
(A) ray (B) divergent beam
(B) beam (C) parallel beam
(C) pathway (D) convergent beam
(D) electric light
199) A body of mass 20g is
195) ___________ is the energy suspended from the end of a
required to raise the state of an spiral spring whose force
atom from its ground state to any constant is 0.4 N/m. If the body is
other allowed state. set into a simple harmonic
(A) ground state energy motion with amplitude 0.2m,
(B) excitation energy determine the frequency of the
(C) binding energy motion
(D) ionization energy (A) 1.76 Hz
(B) 8.22 Hz
196) A person with maximum (C) 1.41 Hz
distance of vision 10cm uses a (D) 0.71 Hz
diverging lens of focal length
15cm as a magnifying glass. 200) The minimum energy
What is the magnification when required to liberate an electron
the lens is held close to the eye? from a metal surface during
(A) photoelectric effect is called
(A) emission energy
(B) 1
(B) ionization energy
(C) (C) threshold function
(D) (D) work function

51
201) ________ is a shadow (B)
resulting from the obstruction of
light from the sun by either the
moon or the earth.
(A) ray
(B) blocked shadow
(C)
(C) beam
(D) eclipse (D)

202) ___________ states that

the pressure of a given mass of a 205) The rate of change of
gas is directly proportional to its distance with time is called
absolute temperature provided (A) acceleration
that the volume is kept constant. (B) work
(A) Boyle‘s (C) speed
(B) Charles‘ (D) velocity
(C) Pressure
(D) Dalton‘s

203) The size of energy quanta

emitted during energy
quantization depends on
(A) magnitude of radiation
(B) power of radiation
(C) material of radiation
(D) frequency of radiation

204) Which of these is a correct

representation of the
magnification in a pin hole
camera?
(A)

52
 PHYSICS ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS/EXPALANATIONS

1) Ans : (A)
The position of a point in a plane can be determined by its distance and direction
from a reference point. The reference point is called the origin and it is the point
where two perpendicular lines intersect each other. These perpendicular lines are
conventionally named the x axis and the y axis.

2) Ans: (A)
With knowledge of the fixed points in various temperature scales, conversion can
be done from one scale to another. Conversion from Celsius scale to Fahrenheit
can be done as follows:

212

32

3) Ans: (B)
H = I2 R t
= 52 x 15 x (30 x 60)
= 6.75 x 105 J

4) Ans: (B)
Explanation
Physics is the branch of natural science which study which study matter and its
relation to energy. It deals with both the macroscopic and the microscopic world in
its attempt to explain the laws governing the universe.
5) ANS = (A)
Using Charles law

53
Hence
But T1 = 27 + 273 = 300K
T2 = 0 + 273 = 273K
V1 = 600 cm3
Substituting
V2 = 546cm3
However, the change in volume will be given by = initial volume - final volume
= 600 – 546
= 54cm3 (A)

6) Ans: (B)
Potential energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position. It is
simply regarded as stored energy. Examples of potential energy; (i) gravitational
potential energy (Egp = mgh). (ii) A magnet at rest in a magnetic field (magnetic
potential energy). (iii) An electric charge at rest in an electric field (electric potential
energy). (iv) A coiled spring when stretched or compressed possesses elastic
potential energy. (v) Chemical potential energy is released when petrol, wood, and
other fuel sources burn.

7) Ans : (A)
Charge or quantity of current Q = It
I = Q/t
I=C/s
= Cs-1

8) Ans: (D)
centripetal acceleration a is given by

a = 1250 ms-2

9) Ans : (C)

54
The distance between two points is a measure of the separation between the two
points. Consider two points on a Cartesian plane. The
straight line distance between the two points can be calculated from the equation

If the plane of reference is an plane, the distance can be calculated from

10) ANS = (A)

First the heat produced H = power x time
= 60 x 60 = 3600J
But specific latent heat of vaporization L = H / m (from H = mL)
Where mass m = 0.006kg
Hence L = 3600/0.006
= 600000 = 6 x 105 (A)

11) Ans: (A)

The elastic spring = 2 cm = 0.02m

From Hooke‘s law
F = ke
Hence

k = 40 N/m

12) Ans : striation (D)

Striation is the breaking up of positive column in a discharge tube into alternating
bright and dark segments rather than filling the rest space of the discharge tube.

13) Ans: (C)

Solution
First the centripetal acceleration a is given by

55
a = 1250 ms-2
then the centripetal force F = mass x centripetal acceleration
F = 10 x 1250
F = 12500 N = 12.5 kN

14) Ans: (D)

The law of conservation of energy states that in an isolated or closed system, the
total amount of energy is always constant, although energy may be changed from
one form to another. By isolated or closed system, we mean a group of objects that
neither receives energy from or gives energy to objects outside the system. For
example, the whole universe because it cannot share energy with things outside it
as there is nothing outside the universe

15) Ans: (C)

The elastic spring = 30 mm = 0.03m
And 35 mm = 0.035m
From Hooke‘s law
F = ke
Hence

= 66.67m
Let the force stretching the material 35mm be F

F = 2.33 N
Additional force = 2.33 N - 2.00 N = 0.33N

16) Ans : (A)

If two vectors are at right angles, or are perpendicular, or normal, or orthogonal to
each other, their resultant is obtained by applying Pythagoras theorem.

If the two vectors are acting in the same direction, their resultant is obtained by
addition. The direction of the resultant is the same as that of the individual vectors.
If the two vectors are acting in opposite directions, their resultant is obtained
subtraction. The resultant acts in the direction of the vector with the greater
magnitude; but if they have equal magnitudes, their resultant is zero.

56
If the two vectors are acting at an acute angle (00<< 900) or an obtuse angle
(900<< 1800) to each other, their resultant is obtained by the parallelogram law.
The parallelogram law applies the law of sines and cosines

17) Ans : (D )
If two vectors act in opposite directions, the angle between them is 1800.
If two vectors act in the same direction, the angle between them is 00.
If two vectors are at right angle, or are perpendicular , or orthogonal or normal to
each other, the angle between them is 900.

18) Ans : (C)

Simple harmonic motion (SHM) is a special type of periodic motion where the
restoring force on the moving object is directly proportional to the magnitude of the
object's displacement and acts towards the object's equilibrium position.

19) Ans: (B)

100 km/h = km/min

distance = speed x time

hence distance =
distance = 8.3 km = 8300 m

20) Ans: (A)

The motion or speed of a body depends on its power. The greater the power of a
machine, the faster it moves. Power is related to speed of a moving object by;
Power = force × speed.
This is because power = work done/time, P = F × S/ t
Thus, P = Fv.

21) Ans: (A)

Final velocity v = u + at
v = 0 + (10 x 5)
v = 50 m/s

57
22) ANS = (C)
Force ratio = mechanical advantage (MA)
But MA = load / effort
MA = 3000/200
Hence MA = 15

23) Ans: steadily increase (B)

Since similar charges produce increase in divergence in a gold leaf electroscope.
The divergence increases as the rod gets nearer and nearer the cap.

24) Ans: (D)

For work to be done, force must move an object over a distance. Work done is
defined as the product of the force applied to a body and the displacement in the
direction of the force.

25) Ans: (B)

Engine power = work done by the car per second in overcoming the retarding
force
= force x distance moved per second
= 500 N x 20 m/s
= 10000 J/s = 10000 W = 10 kW
26) Ans : (C)
This involves the resolution of a force. This is the process of splitting a vector into
its components. The resolution of a vector is the opposite of finding the resultant of
two vectors.
The vertical component of the force is given by Fv = F sinѲ and the horizontal
component is given by Fv = F cosѲ. This can be obtained by completing the right
angled [Link] two components will produce the same effect at O as the force
F.

27) Ans : (C)

More collisions mean more force, so the pressure will increase. When the volume
decreases, the pressure increases. This shows that the pressure of a gas is
inversely proportional to its volume. This is shown by Boyle's law.

28) ANS = (C)

For an inclined plane
58
Velocity ratio V.R = 1/sinѲ
V.R = 1/sin30o
V.R = 2
But
But efficiency = 50%
Hence
M.A = 1.0
Then using
Effort = load/M.A
Effort = 120/1.0
Effort = 120N

29) Ans : (C)

Negative acceleration is sometimes called retardation. It is defined as the rate of
decrease in velocity with time. It is considered as negative acceleration and it has
the same unit as acceleration. A body is said to undergo a deceleration or
retardation if it slows down (velocity decreases).

30) ANS = (D)

The two temperature scales are drawn

120X = 90 x 100
X = 75oC

31) Ans: (C)

P = I2 R

Hence

59
= 180W

32) Ans: (A)

+90oS +100oC

+60oS X

– 30oS 0oC

Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion or speed.
K.E. = ½ mv2

33) Ans: (A)

v2 = u2 + 2as

s = 80 m

34) Ans: (A)

R = 15.5 Ω

35) Ans : (C )
If the graph of displacement is plotted on the vertical axis against time on the
horizontal axis, a displacement-time graph is obtained. The slope or gradient of the
displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the body.

36) ANS = (B)

60
Given V = 3 x 108 m/s
Frequency F = 600 kHz = 600000Hz
Velocity V = freq (F) x wavelength (λ)
that is, V = Fλ
3 x 108 m/s = 600000 x λ

Therefore, wavelength λ = 500m

37) Ans : (B )
If the graph of velocity is plotted on the vertical axis against time on the horizontal
axis, we obtain a velocity-time graph. This graph is more useful than the distance-
time graph and the displacement-time graph because it gives better information
than them. The gradient or slope of the velocity-time graph gives the uniform
acceleration or retardation of the given body

38) ANS = (B)

or V = U + at
Hence 25 = 0 + 5t
t = 25/5
t = 5s

39) Ans: (D)

Radiation is a method of heat transfer by an invisible electromagnetic wave. It is
not due to the movement of molecules or electrons as in conduction or the
movement of the body itself as in convection. Expansion is the increase in size of a
body when heated due to the increase in the amplitude of vibration of molecules.
Evaporation is the change from liquid to gas by the movement of high speed
molecules.

40) Ans : (A )
If the graph of velocity is plotted on the vertical axis against time on the horizontal
axis, we obtain a velocity-time graph. The area under the velocity-time graph gives
the total distance travelled by the body while the slope of the graph gives the
uniform acceleration or retardation of a given body
61
41) ANS = (A)
For an inclined plane
Velocity ratio V.R = 1/sinѲ
V.R = 1/sin30o
V.R = 2
But
But efficiency = 50%
Hence
M.A = 1.0

42) Ans : (B)

If an object is thrown upwards from the ground, the acceleration is negative
because it moves in a direction opposite to the gravitational pull of the earth (it
actually undergoes a retardation due to the earths pull).

43) ANS = (C)

For an inclined plane, the velocity ratio is simply given by
Velocity ratio V.R = 1/sinѲ
V.R = 1/sin30o
V.R = 2

44) Ans: (D)

White colour is produced by the mixture of red, blue and green. But the mixture of
red and blue will give magenta.
Hence, White = Magenta + Green = (red + blue) + (green)

45) Ans: (A)

Initial velocity u is zero
Using
S = (0 x 30) + ( ½ x 2.5 x 302)
S = 1125m = 1.125km

46) Ans : (D)

If an object is dropped from a height, the acceleration is positive because it moves
in a direction same as the direction of the gravitational attraction of the earth
(acceleration).

62
47) ANS = (B)
mass = 100kg
height = 2.0m
acceleration = g = 10m/s
work done = mgh
= 100 x 10 x 2.0
= 2000J
48) Ans : (A )
If an object is thrown upwards, its velocity at the maximum height (i.e. final velocity)
is zero (0) because it must come to rest before it course reverses.

49) Ans = (A)

m = 50kg
h = 3.0m
g = 10m/s
work done = mgh
= 50 x 3 x 10
= 1500J
50) Ans: (A)
Neutral point is the point with zero resultant magnetic flux density. Neutral point is
also the point with equal and opposite concentration of fields. The region with
greater concentration of fields in the same direction is called maximum density
point.

51) Ans: (C)

Initial velocity u = 40m/s
Acceleration a = – g = –10m/s2
Time t = 3 sec
Hence v = u + at
v = 40 + (–10 x 3)
= 40 – 30
= 10 m/s

52) Ans : (A)

When the forces acting on a body are unbalanced, the body will accelerate. When
balanced forces act on a body, the body will either remain at rest or it will move
with uniform velocity in a straight line.

63
Unbalanced forces are forces whose resultant is not zero. If the resultant force
acting on a body is zero, the body is said to be equilibrium. We can say that a body
is in equilibrium when it is under the influence of balanced forces.

53) Ans : (C)

Power P = I2 R
P = 22 x 4
P = 16W
But energy E = power P x time t
E =P x t
E = 16 x (3 x 60)
= 2880J

54) Ans = (C)

mass m = 20kg
Speed v = 5m/s
radius = 10m

Hence Fc = 50N

55) Ans : (C )
The resultant of two or more forces is a single force which acting alone would
produce the same effect in magnitude and direction as two or more forces acting
together.

56) Ans = (B)

Force F = 10N
Displacement d = 5m
Work done W = force x displacement
W = 10 x 5
W = 50J

57) Ans: (B)

64
When water is boiling that is, when it is at the boiling point, its temperature does
not change and its mass remains constant (since boiling is a physical change) but
it changes to steam (gaseous state).

58) Ans: (C)

Initial velocity u = 40m/s
Acceleration a = – g = –10m/s2
At maximum height, v = 0
Let the maximum height be h
Using v2 = u2 - 2gh
0 = 402 – (2 x 10 x h)
Hence
h = 80 m

59) Ans : (B )
The equilibrant of two or more forces is a single force which balances or cancels
out the effect of the two or more forces to keep them in equilibrium. It is equal in
magnitude to resultant but opposite in direction.

60) Ans : (B)

The universal Gravitational constant (G) is a scalar quantity as it is not in a
particular direction. It is a derived quantity. S.I. unit = Nm2/kg2
61) Ans = (A)
R0 = 0.7Ω
R100 = 99.5Ω
RѲ = 30Ω

Ѳ = 19.656 = 19.66oC

62) Ans: (A)

The angle of dip or inclination is the angle between the horizontal and the direction
of the magnetic field or the direction of a freely suspended needle in the magnetic
meridian. Angle of declination is the angle between the magnetic meridian and the
geographic meridian.

65
63) Ans : (C )
The moment of a force about a point is defined as the product of the force and the
perpendicular distance from the point to the line of action of the force. The moment
of the force F about the point 0 is given by: , where is the
perpendicular distance between and the point O.
NB: Since F is expressed in Newton (N) and d is expressed in metres (m), It
follows that the S.I unit of moment is Newton metre (Nm).

d
F

64) Ans = (C)

R0 = 9.8Ω
R100 = 11Ω
RѲ = 0.4Ω

Ѳ = 50.0oC

65) Ans: (D)

(i) the bulb is made for strong thermometric liquid e.g mercury
(ii) the liquid is filled in steps to eliminate the air inside and allow a large quantity of
liquid to move in. this is achieved by inverting, heating

66) Ans: (D)

For the time taken to reach maximum height t
At maximum height, v = 0
v = u - gt
0 = 40 – 10 x t
Hence t = 40/10 = 4 s

66
67) Ans : (D )
A couple is a system of two equal but oppositely directed parallel forces not acting
along the same straight line. When a couple acts on a body, they only succeed in
rotating the body and will not produce any linear motion.
For a couple, the resultant force is zero but the moment is not zero. The moment of
a couple is also termed torque because it produces rotation or torsion. The moment
of the couple is the product of one of the

forces and the perpendicular distance between the lines of action of the forces.

68) Ans = (C)

Power P = 200W
Distance s = 10m
Force F = 5N
Time t = ?

200t = 50
t = 50/200
t = 0.25s

69) Ans : (D)

The stability of an object is connected with the position of the centre of gravity of
the object.
An object can be in stable , unstable and neutral equilibrium depending on the
center of gravity of the object.

70) Ans: (C)

Recall : Momentum = mass x velocity = Kgms-1
Change in momentum = force x time
That is, ∆P = Ft
The unit of momentum = Ns

71) Ans = (D)

mass = 20kg
acc. a = g = 10m/s
height h = 5m
67
Potential energy (P.E) = mass x height x acceleration
P.E = 20 x 10 x 5
= 1000J

72) Ans = (B)

To convert Kelvin to Celsius, you subtract 273 from the given Kelvin temperature
oC = K – 273
= 256 – 273
= -17oC

73) Ans = (C)

Current I = 0.036A
Charge Q = 600C
Time t = 15 minutes = 15 x 60 = 900sec?
Q = It
Q = 0.036 x 900
Q = 32.4C

74) Ans: (D)

Impedance is measured in Ohm.
r.m.s. voltage is measured in volt
resonance frequency is measured in Hertz

75) Ans : (A)

A body is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if when slight displaced or tilted, it tends
to rest in its new position. Examples : A cone on its curved surface, as well as
orange or ball rolling on a horizontal surface are all in neutral equilibrium

76) Ans = (C)

distance d = 32km
time t = 6 hours
Average

Av. Speed = 5.33 = 5.3km/h

68
77) Ans : (A)
A body is said to be in stable equilibrium when it tends to return to its original
position after receiving a slight displacement. A body with a wide base and low
centre of gravity is usually stable e.g. a cone resting on its base

78) Ans = (C)

Current I = 5A
Electric charge Q = 600C
Time t = ?
Q = It
600 = 5 x t
t = 600/5
t = 120s
then convert to minutes by diving with 60 (NB: 60 seconds make 1 minutes)
t = 120/60
t = 2minutes

79) Ans: (C)

The electrical resistance of the carbon granules depends on the compression
(pressure exerted) on the granules. The carbon granules are compressed between
two carbon blocks when someone speaks and the sound vibrates the diaphragm.

80) Ans : (D)

A body is said to be in a position of unstable equilibrium, if when slight displaced, it
tends to move further away from its original position. A body with a small base and
high centre of gravity is usually unstable e.g. a cone resting on its vertex.

81) Ans = (C)

mass m = 20kg
acc a = g = 10m/s
height h = 0.5 x 10 steps = 5m
time t = 30s

The work done here is potential work

69
P = 33.3W

82) Ans: (D)

Stationary wave is due to the interference of two identical waves (the same
amplitude and frequency) which travel in opposite direction

83) Ans: (B)

Since motion is only along the plane, only the component of g parallel to the plane
can affect it.
Hence acceleration a = g sinϴ
Using v2 = u2 + 2as
= u2 + 2 (g sinϴ) s
= 0 + 2 x 10 x sin30o x 10
= 2 x 10 x 0.5 x 10
= 10 m/s

84) Ans : (B )
Time of flight T, is the time required for the projectile to return to the level from
which it was projected.
Its symbol is T and its unit is the second (s).
Mathematically,
U = Initial velocity or the velocity of projection.
 = Angle of projection as measured from the horizontal.

85) Ans: (A)

An atom is said to be electrical neutral because it contains equal number protons
(positive) and electrons (negative)

86) Ans = (C)

First charge q1 = 2 x 10-6C
Second charge q2 = 2 x 10-6C (since they are equal)
distance d = 25cm = 0.25m
K = 9 x 109 Nm2/C2

70
F = 0.036/0.0625
F = 0.576N

87) Ans : (C)

Maximum height is the highest vertical distance attained by the projectile as
measure from the horizontal projection plane.
Its symbol is H and its unit is the metre (m).
Mathematically, maximum height

88) Ans: (A)

A pair of scissor, claw hammer, crowbar and pliers are examples of first class
levers.
Nut cracker and wheelbarrow are examples of second class lever.
Tongs, bottle opener, knife, and forearm are examples of third class lever.

89) Ans: (A)

Force F = ma

Hence F = MLT-2

90) Ans : (B)

The Range of a projectile R, is the horizontal distance between the point of
projection and the point where the projectile hit the projection plane again. It can
also be defined as the horizontal distance covered by the projectile in the time of
flight.
Its symbol is R is its unit is the metre (m).
Mathematically, range
For a projectile to attain maximum range it must be projected at an angle of 450 to
the horizontal.
If  = 45, Sin 2 = Sin 900 = 1
Hence, Maximum range,

91) Ans: (A)

71
The working principle of a transformer can only be achieved on an A.C and not on
a D.C.

92) Ans = (B)

mass = 15kg
velocity v = 10m/s
kinetic energy K.E = ½ mv2
K.E = ½ x 15 x 102
Hence K.E = 750J

93) Ans : (D)

Simple harmonic motion is the periodic motion of a particle whose acceleration is
directed towards a fixed point and is directly proportional to its displacement from
that point. In simple harmonic motion, when the particle is displaced to one side, a
restoring force is set up which tends to bring the body back to its equilibrium or rest
position. It is thus the restoring force that causes the particle to go "to and fro" or
"back and front" past the equilibrium position. Examples are motion of a simple
pendulum, motion of the plucked string of a musical instrument e.g. guitar etc

94) ANS : (C)

Current I = 0.6A
Resistance R = 5Ω
Potential difference V = ??
V = IR
V = 0.65 x 5
= 3V

95) Ans: (C)

The Vernier calipers is an instrument that can measure length more accurately
than the metre rule. It is used to measure small lengths such as the thickness of a
metre rule, the internal and external diameters of a tube, the diameter of a rod, the
thickness of a thin converging or diverging lens, etc. The reading accuracy of the
Vernier callipers is 0.01cm or 0.001mm.

96) Ans : ( A)
The Period is defined as the time taken for a particle performing simple harmonic
motion to make one complete oscillation or vibration or cycle about a point of
reference. Its symbol is T and it has the same unit of time (i.e. Seconds).
72
 Mathematically
where t = time and n = number of cycles.

97) Ans = (D)

Force F = 0.8N
extension e = 2cm = 0.02m
force constant k = ?
Force F = ke
0.8N = k x 0.02m
k = 0.8/0.02
k = 40 N/m

98) Ans: (D)

Distance is a measure of the separation between two points while displacement is
the distance travelled in a specified direction. Hence, distance is a scalar quantity
while displacement is a vector quantity.

99) Ans: (D)

The micrometre screw gauge is a sensitive instrument used to measure smaller
lengths such as the diameter of thin wires, the diameter of a small ball or small
spherical object, the thickness of a piece of paper etc. its reading accuracy is
0.001cm or 0.01mm.

100) Ans : (B)

The Frequency is the number of complete oscillations made by a vibrating body in
one second. It can also be defined as the number of complete vibrations made by
an oscillating body per unit time. Its symbol is f and it is expressed in hertz (Hz).
Mathematically
where: n = number of oscillations and t = time taken
Period and frequency are related by the equation.

Frequency can also be expressed in cycles per second

101) Ans = (B)

Force F = 50N
Area A = 5 x 5 = 25m2
73
Tensile stress = 50 / 25
= 2.0 Nm-2

102) Ans: (A)

Fundamental quantities are the basic quantities that do not depend on other
quantities for their definition. They are the basic quantities upon which other
quantities depend. These quantities have been defined in some universally agreed
manner. Examples are length, mass, time, electric current, amount of substance,
absolute temperature, luminous intensity.

103) Ans : (C)

Amplitude is the maximum displacement of a particle performing simple harmonic
motion from its rest or mean or equilibrium or central position (or point). Its symbol
is A and it is expressed in units of metres.

104) Ans: (B)

Time is a measure of the interval between events. Time measuring devices are
standard and are independent of our feelings and emotions.

105) Ans = (A)

Elongation/extension = 300m
Strain = 5
Initial length L

Strain = 300/5
= 60m
106) Ans : (C)
The gradual reduction in the amplitude and the eventual stopping of the oscillation
is called damping. The corresponding motion is called damped oscillation. In the
absence of air friction which leads to damping, the vibrating body is said to be in
free oscillation and its total energy is always constant. As a result of damping, it is
difficult to maintain free oscillation and can be maintained by providing an external
periodic force..

74
107) Ans = (B)
mass = 3.6kg
g = 10m/s2
height h = 4.2m
potential energy P.E = mgh
P.E = 3.6 x 10 x 4.2
= 151.2J

108) Ans: (B)

Translational Motion is the whole-body movement of an object from one point to
another. It can also be called linear motion. Examples of objects in translational
motion are: a girl walking or running, an object freely falling from a height, a
car/bike moving along a straight road etc.

109) Ans : (A)

When the object is subjected to an external periodic force, the frequency of the
external force is known as the forcing frequency. If the forcing frequency coincides
with the natural frequency of the oscillating body, the system is set into vibration
with a relatively large amplitude. This phenomenon is known as resonance.
Resonance is said to occur, whenever a particular body is set into oscillation at its
own natural frequency as a result of impulses received from another body vibrating
at the same frequency thereby making the amplitude to be maximum.

110) Ans = (D)

Force F = 300N
mass m = 12kg
g = 10 m/s2
coefficient of friction = μ
F = μR = μmg (Normal reaction R = mg)
Substituting
300 = μ x 12 x 10
Hence μ = 300 / (12 x 10)
μ = 2.5

111) Ans: (A)

Rotational motion is the motion of a body in a circular path about an axis or point
fixed in the body. Examples are the wheels of a moving car/bicycle, the earth

75
spinning or rotating about its axis, the blades of a rotating ceiling fan, the hands of
a clock etc.

112) Ans : (A)

The momentum of a body is the product of its mass and its velocity.
Its symbol is p and its unit is .
Let m(Kg) be the mass of the body moving with a velocity of v(m/s), the momentum
of the body, p equals . Momentum can also be expressed in S.I units of
Newton - seconds ( ).

113) Ans = (C)

Force F = 100N
Speed s = 50m/s
Power P = Force F x speed S
P = 100 x 50
= 5000W
= 5 x 103 W

114) Ans : (B)

The momentum of a body is the product of its mass and its velocity.
Hence p = m x v = 50 x 0 = 0
From the definition of momentum, momentum is a property of moving objects only
because an object at rest has zero velocity and hence zero momentum.

115) Ans: (D)

Oscillatory or vibratory motion is a to and fro motion of a body from a rest position
at regular intervals of time. Examples are: the prongs of a sounding tuning fork, the
plucked string of a musical instrument, the balance wheel of a functioning watch, a
loaded test tube or hydrometer oscillating in a liquid, oscillating mass at the free
end of a spiral spring, motion of a child‘s swing, motion of a simple pendulum, etc.

116) Ans = (D)

Force F = ?
mass m = 15kg
g = 10 m/s2
coefficient of friction = μ = 0.6
F = μR = μmg (Normal reaction R = mg)
Substituting
76
F = 0.6 x 15 x 10
F = 90N

117) Ans: 20 kW (A)

Recall
But the energy here is kinetic energy K.E = ½ mv2

Hence = 20,000 W = 20kW

118) Ans : (A)

The mass of the body = 1000g = 1.0kg
Momentum p = m x v
= 1.0 x 30
= 30 kgm/s

119) Ans : (A)

Impulse is defined as the product of the average force acting on a particle and the
time during which the force acts. Its symbol is I and it has the same unit as
momentum. Impulse is usually associated with collisions. When a body collides
with another, each receives an impulse or blow which causes a change in their
momenta. Impulse consists of a large force acting for a very short time.
Mathematically,
Impulse is a vector quantity. It has the same direction of the force.

120) Ans: (A)

First calculate the final velocity v
Since motion is only along the plane, only the component of g parallel to the plane
can affect it.
Hence acceleration a = g sinϴ
Using v2 = u2 + 2as
= u2 + 2 (g sinϴ) s
= 0 + 2 x 10 x sin30o x 10
= 2 x 10 x 0.5 x 10
= 10 m/s
Then using v = u + at
10 = 0 + g sinϴ t (Note a = gsinϴ)
10 = 0 + 10 x sin30o x t
Hence t = 2 s

77
121) Ans : (C)
Newton's First Law Of Motion
The law states that a body will continue in its present state of rest or, if it is in
motion, will continue to move with uniform speed in a straight line unless it acted
upon by an external force.
Newton's Second Law Of Motion : The law states that the rate of change of
momentum of a body with time is directly proportional to the applied force and
takes place in the direction with which the force acts.
Newton's Third Law Of Motion : The law states that "to every action there is equal
and opposite reaction".

122) Ans : (A)

Mass is simply a measure of how much matter is in an object. It is not a measure of
force.

123) Ans : (C)

In an elastic collision, both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved and the
colliding bodies rebound and move off separately.
In inelastic collision, Only momentum is conserved.

124) Ans: (C)

the deviation suffered by the ray is d = i – r
NB: i > r (since it is traveling from a less dense medium, that is, air to a dense
medium such as water)
Recall

Hence sin r = 0.3759

r = sin-1 (0.3759)
r = 22.1o
d = i - r
d = 30o - 22.1o
d = 7.9 = 8.0o

78
125) Ans : (D)
In inelastic collision, only momentum is conserved. Kinetic energy is not conserved
but decreases. Also, the colliding bodies stick together and move as a unit after
collision

126) Ans : (A)

A machine is a device by means of which work can be done easily or conveniently.
The mechanical advantage (M.A) of a machine is defined as the ratio of load to
effort. Mathematically,

127) Ans : (D)

A machine is a device by means of which work can be done easily or conveniently.
The efficiency of a machine ε is defined as the ratio of the useful work done by the
machine to the work put into the machine as expressed in percentage.
Mathematically,

The efficiency of a machine cannot be 100% because part of the energy supplied
to the machine is spent in doing work against friction and in moving some parts of
the machine. Hence, the work supplied to the machine is always less than the
actual work done by the machine.

128) Ans : (A)

Laminated iron core means insulating layers glued compact. Now
the cores are laminated to reduce Eddy current.

129) Ans : (D)

In block and tackle system of pulleys In practice, simple pulleys can be combined
to form a system of pulleys used for lifting loads. They are used by builders for
hauling(lifting) heavy loads to high floors and for loading and unloading ships. The
aim of combining pulleys is to obtain a larger M.A and V.R. The V.R of a system of
pulleys equals the number of pulleys.
79
130) Ans: (C)
Random motion is the haphazard or zigzag motion of a body such that the direction
of the motion at any instant cannot be predicted. Examples include the motion of a
hawker in a crowded market, the motion of gas or liquid molecules, motion of dust
particles in a ray of light, etc.

131) Ans: (B)

Numerically, force is expressed as , where m, is mass in kg and , is
acceleration in . Hence, the unit of force is .

132) Ans : (D)

The inclined plane is a type of machine which is used to raise heavy loads such as
a drum of oil up a sloping plank to the high floors of lorries. The sloping plank is an
example of an inclined plane.

L
E
h
W
K 

Suppose a load of weight W is rolled steadily up an inclined plane by applying a

constant force (effort) which moves a distance L = the length of the inclined plane.
At the same time, the load is raised through a vertical height h = the height of the
plane.
The V.R of the plane is given by

133) Ans : (A)

Static friction is defined as the minimum force which must be overcome before a
body can just start to move over another. it is also known as limiting friction.
Dynamic friction is the force that must be overcome for a body to slide over another
with a constant speed. It is also known as kinetic friction. Static friction is usually
greater than dynamic friction.

134) Ans : (C)

The clinical thermometer is a modified liquid-in-glass thermometer which is used to
measure the temperature of the human body, which is about 37oC. It has a short
80
range and a constriction, which is a special feature of this thermometer. When the
thermometer is inserted in the armpit of a patient, the mercury expands, pushes
past the constriction and rises to indicate the body temperature of the patient.
When the thermometer is removed, the mercury column does not contract into the
bulb, but rather breaks at the constriction. The mercury thread above the
constriction remains in place and can be read at leisure. To return the mercury to
the bulb, the thermometer has to be shaken sharply

135) Ans : (B)

The specific heat capacity of a body is the quantity of heat energy required to
change the temperature of a unit mass (1kg) of the body by 10C or 1K. Its unit is
joules per kilogram per Kelvin written as or . The specific heat
capacity of a body depends on the nature of the body. It raises the temperature of
1kg of a body by 1K.

136) Ans : (A)

The hydrogen bubbles which are clinging over the surface of copper electrode
anode becomes a thin film of hydrogen over the copper electrode. This hydrogen
film increases the internal resistance and reduces the emf of the cell and hence the
cell soon becomes inactive. This effect is known as polarization

137) Ans: (C)

Force is an agent which can change the state of or uniform motion of body. An
object at rest will remain at rest unless an external agent (Force) acts on it.
Similarly, a moving body stops or changes direction only if it is acted upon by a
force. Force is therefore responsible for all forms of motion.

138) Ans: (D)

Velocity is defined as the rate of change of displacement with time.
.

139) Ans : (B)

Latent heat can be defined as the heat which is absorbed or given out during a
state of change of a substance without a corresponding change in temperature.
Latent heat cannot be detected by a thermometer because it does not manifest
itself as an increase or decrease in temperature. Liquids and gases have latent
heat stored in them in form of potential energy. Latent heat can be of fusion or of
81
vaporization. Latent heat of fusion is used to change a solid into liquid (used in
melting). Latent heat of vapourization is used to turn a liquid into gas (used in
vaporization).

140) Ans : (A)

Latent heat Q is given Q = ML
where Q = quantity of heat supplied or removed in joules, M = mass of substance
in kilogram and L = specific latent heat of fusion of the substance.
Hence M = 2 x 360
= 720 J
141) Ans : (A)
Evaporation is a process where a liquid turns spontaneously into vapour below the
boiling point. Evaporation takes place at all temperatures and different liquids
evaporate at different rates. It occurs at the surface of the substance only, hence it
involves only the surface (it is a surface phenononem)

142) Ans: (A)

Contact forces are forces which are in touch with the body to which they are
applied. Examples are: push, pull, tension, reaction, friction, surface tension, thrust,
up thrust.

143) Ans : (D)

The wheel and axle is a simple machine that can vary a rotary motion into a linear
motion and vice versa. It is used to draw out water from deep wells.

wheel

R
r
axle
E

It consists of an axle of radius r, fixed to a wheel of larger radius R, a long rope with
a free end where the effort is to be applied is wound round the wheel. The load to
be lowered or raised is tied to a rope wound round the axle in the opposite direction
to that of the wheel. Hence, the effort also rotates through a distance equal to the

82
circumference of the axle in the same time interval so,

144) Ans : (D)

Boiling takes place throughout the entire volume of the liquid. Boiling takes place at
a particular temperature for a given substance called the boiling point. Boiling
causes cooling. Wind has no effect on boiling. This is a change from liquid to
vapour at the boiling point

145) Ans: (B)

Non-Contact forces or field forces are forces whose sources are not in touch with
the body they affect. Field forces act at a distance from the bodies they affect.
Examples are electric force, magnetic force, gravitational force.

146) Ans : (A)

The function of the pupil is clearly that of controlling the amount of light entering the
eye, and hence the light reflex.

147) Ans : (D)

An impurity (or dissolved substance) in a liquid raises the boiling point of the liquid
but lowers its freezing point. For instance, salt water has a higher boiling point than
pure water. For this reason, food is cooked slightly more rapidly in salt water than
in pure water.
In the same way, an impurity in a liquid lowers the freezing point of the liquid. A
mixture of water and common salt freezes at a temperature lower than 0oC.

148) Ans: (B)

Friction acts at the surface of separation between two objects in contact and tends
to opposition which does not appear unless there is relative motion or a force
tending to produce motion. Friction occurs because bodies and surfaces are never
perfectly smooth. It occurs due to roughness of surfaces.

149) Ans : (B)

Under certain conditions, some substances like iodine crystals and dry ice can go
directly from solid to vapour or gaseous state without passing through the liquid
state. This process is called sublimation.

150) Ans : (C)

83
Thermistors act as a passive component in a circuit. They are an accurate, cheap,
and robust way to measure temperature.

151) Ans: (A)

Kinetic or dynamic friction is the force that must be overcome so that a body can
move with uniform speed over another body.

152) Ans : (C)

Air contains water vapour. If this air is cooled, a temperature will be reached when
the air becomes saturated with the water vapour present. This temperature is
called the dew point. If the air is further cooled, tiny droplets of water will condense
on any cold surface. The tiny condensed water is called dew. Dew point is defined
as the temperature at which the vapour pressure in the air is just sufficient to
saturate it. Dew point is dependent upon prevailing atmospheric conditions like
temperature, wind and the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere.
153) Ans: (A)
When a body starts moving, the dynamic friction is less than the static friction.
154) Ans : (A)
Factors affecting the rate of evaporation are temperature, pressure, area of liquid
exposed, Wind and dryness of the air, Nature of the liquid, Humidity.
The volume of the liquid does not affect that rate of evaporation but the area of the
liquid exposed to the surrounding.

155) Ans : (A)

Boyle's law states that the pressure of a given (or fixed) mass of a gas is inversely
proportional to its volume provided that the temperature remains constant.

156) Ans: (C)

Static friction is the maximum force that must be overcome before a body can just
start to move over another. For a body to slide over another, the horizontal force
applied must be greater than the static or limiting friction between the surfaces

157) Ans = (C)

Annular eclipse a type of eclipse that occurs when the moon comes between the
sun and the earth. This is different from a solar eclipse because during annular
eclipse, rays of light at the moon's edges intersect before reaching the earth which
causes a ring of light to be formed round the shadow of the moon.
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon comes between the sun and the earth while
An eclipse of the moon occurs when the earth is between the sun and the moon.
84
158) Ans: (C)
Total height climbed = 10 x 0.2m = 2m
Work done = mgh = 10 x 10 x 2 = 200 J
Time taken = 20 seconds
But
Power = 10W

159) Ans : (A)

A wave is a disturbance that transfers energy from one point to the other in a
medium without any transfer of the particles of the medium itself between these
points.
On the other hand, a wave motion is a process of transferring a disturbance in form
of kinetic energy from one point to the other in a medium without any transfer of the
particles of the medium itself.
Waves are encountered when small stones are dropped in succession on the same
spot in the middle of a pool or basin of water.

160) Ans: (A)

In physics, work is said to be done whenever a force is applied to cause a body to
move. However, for work to be done, movement must take place. When no
movement takes place after you have applied a force to a body, no work is done.
Work is said to be done whenever a force moves its point of application a distance
in the direction of the force.

161) Ans : (A)

Mechanical waves are waves that require a material medium for their propagation.
Examples include water waves, sound waves and waves generated in springs and
strings.
162) Ans: (A)
Thus, the slope (gradient) of a straight- line displacement-time graph represents
velocity.
Also, the slope of a straight- line distance-time graph represents speed

163) Ans: (B)

85
Planck in 1902 discovered that the energy from the heated body is emitted in
discrete packets known as energy quanta of the quantity where is the
frequency of the radiation and is Planck's constant. This idea or phenomenon is
known as energy Quantization. The size of the quanta depends on the frequency f
of the radiation

164) Ans : (C)

An electric motor is an electrical machine that converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy.

165) Ans : (D)

Scalar quantities are those quantities that have magnitude but no direction.
Examples of scalar quantities are: distance, mass, volume, density, time, speed,
temperature, energy, etc
Vector quantities are those quantities that have both magnitude and direction.
Examples are: displacement, velocity, acceleration, momentum, force, etc. Vector
are added by geometrical methods

166) Ans : (C)

Electromagnetic waves are waves that do not require a material medium for their
propagation. They can travel through a vacuum. Examples are light waves, radio
waves, X-rays, gamma rays, e.t.c

167) Ans: (A)

A logic gate is a circuit that has one or more input signals but only one output
signal. Logic gates are electronic circuits which make logic decisions. It has one
output signal and one or more input signals. The output signal appears only for
certain combinations of input signals. Logic gates are the basic building blocks
from which most of the digital systems are built up.

168) Ans: (B)

Scalar quantities are those quantities that have magnitude but no direction.
Examples of scalar quantities are: distance, mass, volume, density, time, speed,
temperature, energy, etc

169) Ans : (A)

86
Two types of waves can be distinguished based on the direction of particle
vibration with respect to the direction of travel of the wave. They are: Transverse
waves and longitudinal waves. Transverse waves are those waves in which the
direction of travel of the wave is perpendicular to the direction of the vibration of the
medium. Examples include water waves, waves generated by a string, light waves
and radio waves.

170) Ans: (A)

Scalar quantities are those quantities that have magnitude but no direction.
Examples of scalar quantities are: distance, mass, volume, density, time, speed,
temperature, energy, etc

171) Ans : (C)

Potential energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position. It is
simply regarded as stored energy.

172) Ans : (C)

Longitudinal waves are waves in which the direction of travel of the wave is the
same as the direction of the vibration of the medium. Sound waves are longitudinal
waves. In longitudinal waves, the vibrating particles behave like a spiral spring that
has series of compressed and spaced out regions travelling along it. These are
referred to as compressions and rarefactions.

173) Ans : (A)

Alpha decay or α-decay is a type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus
emits an alpha particle (helium nucleus) and thereby transforms or 'decays' into a
different atomic nucleus, with a mass number that is reduced by four and an atomic
number that is reduced by two.
174) Ans: (D)
Vector quantities are those quantities that have both magnitude and direction.
Examples are: displacement, velocity, acceleration, momentum, force, etc. Vector
are added by geometrical methods

175) Ans: (D)

Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion.
Kinetic energy K.E. = ½ mv2
K.E = ½ x 10 x 152 = 1125J = 1.125 kJ

176) Ans : (A)

87
Longitudinal waves are waves in which the direction of travel of the wave is the
same as the direction of the vibration of the medium. Sound wave is an example of
longitudinal wave. In longitudinal waves, the vibrating particles behave like a spiral
spring that has series of compressed and spaced out regions travelling along it.
These are referred to as compressions and rarefactions.
Transverse waves are those waves in which the direction of travel of the wave is
perpendicular to the direction of the vibration of the medium. Examples include
water waves, waves generated by a string, light waves and radio waves.

177) Ans : (B)

The amplitude of a wave is the maximum displacement of the wave particle from its
mean or rest or equilibrium position. Its symbol is A and its unit is the metre (m).

178) Ans: (D)

Vector quantities are those quantities that have both magnitude and direction.
Examples are: displacement, velocity, acceleration, momentum, force, etc. Vector
are added by geometrical methods

179) Ans : (A)

Frequency of a wave is the number of complete oscillations or vibrations or cycles
made by the wave particles per unit time (or in one second). Its symbol is f and its
unit is the Hertz (Hz). It can also be expressed in units of cycles per second. Some
multiples of the hertz are: 1KHz = 1000Hz, 1MHz = 106Hz, 1GHz = 109Hz.
Mathematically,

180) Ans: (A)

Acceleration is defined as the rate of increase in velocity with time.
.
V = final velocity, U = initial velocity, t = time.

181) Ans : (C)

The period of oscillation is the time taken for a wave particle to make one complete
cycle about a point of reference. Its symbol is T and it has the same unit as time.
Mathematically, . t = time and n = number of oscillations. The above
expression shows that period is the inverse or reciprocal of frequency. This gives
the relationship or connection between period and frequency which is expressed
mathematically as
88
182) Ans: (A)
Potential energy P.E = m x g x h
P.E. = 10 x 10 x 10 = 1000J = 1 kJ

183) Ans : (D)

The wavelength of a wave is the distance between two successive crests or
troughs of a transverse wave or two successive compressions or rarefactions of a
longitudinal wave. It is also defined as the distance travelled by the wave in one
complete cycle. Its symbol is  and its unit is the metre.

184) Ans: (C)

Threshold frequency (fo) is the frequency of incident radiation below which no
photoelectrons can be emitted from a given metallic surface. It is also the
frequency of light, which falling on a surface is just sufficient to liberate electrons
without giving them any additional kinetic energy.

185) Ans : (B)

Mass = 20g = 0.02kg
Period of oscillation T is given by

Hence

= 1.41s

186) Ans: (A)

The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depends on the frequency and
wavelength of the incident photons. The amount of photocurrent depends on
intensity of incident photons.

187) Ans : (A)

First the period and frequency is determined as follows
Period of oscillation T is

89
Hence

= 1.41s
Then frequency f is given below
f = 1/T
f = 1/1.41
f = 0.71 Hz
Finally the angular speed w = 2πf
w = 2π x 0.71
w = 4.46 rad/s

188) Ans : (C)

Amplitude A = 0.2
Force constant K = 0.4 N/m
Hence, Total energy E = ½ KA2
= ½ x 0.4 x (0.2)2
= 0.008J
189) Ans: (B)
Photoelectric effect is the process by which electromagnetic radiation of
appropriate frequency or wavelength is incident on a metallic surface and then
cause electrons to be emitted from the surface. The emission is instantaneous and
it is a surface phenomenon. The kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends on
the frequency and wavelength of the incident photons. The amount of photocurrent
depends on intensity of incident photons.

190) Ans : (C)

First, the total energy is determined
Amplitude A = 0.2m; Force constant K = 0.4 N/m; mass = 20g = 0.02kg
Hence, Total energy E = ½ KA2
= ½ x 0.4 x (0.2)2
= 0.008J
The maximum velocity vm occurs at the midpoint of motion
Since energy is conserved,
½ m vm2 = ½ KA2 = 0.008

Vm = 0.89 m/s

191) Ans: (C)

90
Binding energy is the energy required to bind or completely separate the nucleons
(protons and neutrons) of an atom. Binding energy is a measure of mass defect.

192) Ans : (A)

Maximum acceleration, a, occurs at the end of the path of motion where the
restoring force is a maximum.
Hence, maximum acceleration a = -w2 A
a = -4.462 x 0.02
a = 3.98 m/s2

193) Ans = (D)

There are numerous sources of light. These sources can be natural or artificial.
The sun, stars and fireflies are natural sources. Such sources emit light of their
own accord and are said to be luminous. Candle light, electric light, gas light e.t.c
are artificial sources of light. Non luminous bodies do not emit light of their own
accord rather they depend on luminous objects to illuminate them. One notable
example of a non luminous object is the moon.

194) Ans = (A)

A ray is a path or direction along which light energy travels. It is represented by a
straight line with an arrow head. The arrow head indicates the direction of
propagation of the ray. A collection of rays of light form a beam of light.

195) Ans: (B)

Excitation energy is the energy required to raise the state of an atom from its
ground state to any other allowed state. The excitation energy is quantized. An
atom is not allowed to stay in any point between excitation energy levels.

196) Ans: (A)

Image distance V = -10cm
Focal length f = -15 (for diverging lens)
But

Hence

91
And then

197) Ans: (A)

Ground state energy is the least energy of the atom. Atoms are most stable or
have the tendency to remain in this ground state.

198) Ans = (D)

A collection of rays of light form a beam of light. There are three types of beams
namely; Parallel beam, convergent beam and divergent beam. A parallel beam is a
collection of light rays which are parallel to one another. A convergent beam is one
in which the rays of light meet at a point. A convergent beam can be obtained by
placing a converging lens in the path of a parallel beam of light. A divergent beam
is one in which all the rays come from a point and diverge outwards

199) Ans : (D)

First determine the period
Mass = 20g = 0.02kg
Period of oscillation T is given by

Hence

= 1.41s
Then frequency f is calculated using the equation below
f = 1/T
f = 1/1.41
f = 0.71 Hz

200) Ans : (D)

Work function (W0) is the minimum energy required to liberate an electron from a
metal surface. These are electrons emitted from the surface of a metal when it is
illuminated by light of appropriate frequency.

201) Ans = (D)

An eclipse is a shadow resulting from the obstruction of light from the sun by either
the moon or the earth. When the Sun, Moon and Earth come into a straight line, an
92
eclipse occurs. This does not happen very often because the moon's orbit is
inclined to that of the earth. A Total eclipse occurs when all the moon or sun is
blotted out. A partial eclipse is when only a portion of the sun or moon is covered.

202)Ans : (C)
The pressure law states that the pressure of a given mass of a gas is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature provided that the volume is kept constant.
Mathematically,
Charles' law states that the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional
to the absolute temperature provided that the pressure is kept constant.
Mathematically,
Boyle's law states that the pressure of a given (or fixed) mass of a gas is inversely
proportional to its volume provided that the temperature remains constant.
Mathematically, P1V1 = P2V2

203) Ans: (D)

Planck in 1902 discovered that the energy from the heated body is emitted in
discrete packets known as energy quanta of the quantity where is the
frequency of the radiation and is Planck's constant. This idea or phenomenon is
known as energy Quantization. The size of the quanta depends on the frequency f
of the radiation

204) Ans = (D)

The magnification produced by the pinhole camera is defined as the ratio of the
size of the image to the size of the object.
mathematically,

205) Ans: (C)

The distance covered by a body per unit time is the speed. Speed is also defined
as the rate of change of distance with time.
.

93
 CHEMISTRY

1. ……. Is anything that has A.4

mass and occupies space B.3
[Link] C. 2
[Link] D. 1
C. Matter
D. Maths 6. An atom is
[Link] smallest particle of a
substance that can take part in
2. A physical change is the a chemical reaction
change that is [Link] smallest particle of an
[Link] irreversible element that can take part in a
[Link] new substance chemical reaction
C. Easily reversible C. The smallest particle of a
D. Forms new compounds compound that can take part in
a chemical reaction
3. Which of the following is a D. The smallest particle of a
chemical change lattice that can take part in a
[Link] of salt in water chemical reaction
[Link] of ice
C. Rusting of iron 7. The percentage of oxygen in
D. Separating a mixture by SO2 is
distillation A.5%
B.50%
4. which of the following C. 500%
substances is not a D. 25%
homogeneous mixture (S = 32, O = 16)
[Link] seawater
[Link] drink 8. The empirical formula of
C. Flood water C6H6 is
D. Writing ink A.C3H3
[Link]
5. The atomicity of Ozone is C. C6H6

94
D. 3CH
13. pH of 0.001 mol/dm3 acid
9. An element belongs to a is
period in the periodic table A.3
because of B.2
[Link] number of electrons in C. 1
its outer-most shell D. 0
[Link] shell number
C. The electronic 14. Water in crystalline salts
configuration of the azimuthal provides
quantum number [Link] and shape
D. The size of the atom [Link] and crystalline lattice
C. Colour and solubility
10. Which of these is the base
same in isotopes of an D. Colour and hydrated
element bonds
[Link] number
[Link] number 15. Which pH values
C. Number of neutron indicates a basic solution
D. Relative atomic mass A.9
B.7
11. Which element has an C. 6
electronic configuration of D. 3
1s22s22p63s1
[Link] 16. Ability of an element
[Link] existing in two or more
C. Chlorine physical states but maintaining
D. Nitrogen the same chemical
characteristics is called
12. Which of the three states [Link]
of matter has no fixed shape, [Link]
no fixed volume and least C. Defracting grating
dense D. Allotropy
[Link]
[Link]
C. Solid
D. Crystal

95
17. Elements in the same 21. What is the S.I. unit for
group of the periodic table molar mass?
have A.g mol-1
[Link] electronic [Link] dm-3
configurations C. mol
[Link] orbital configurations D. mol-1
C. The same number of
electrons 22. What quantity of
D. The same number of electricity is consumed when 1
valence electrons ampere was consumed in 1
hour during electrolysis?
18. It is dangerous to stay in A.3,600 C
a badly ventilated room which B.360 C
has a charcoal fire because of C. 7,200 C
the presence of D. 720 C
A.CO4
B.CO3 23. If the relative molecular
C. CO2 mass of CH2O is 60, calculate
D. CO its n value (C = 12, H = 1, O =
16)
19. The S-block elements of A.2
the periodic table are made up B.1
of C. 4
[Link] 1, 2, 3 D. 3
[Link] 3 and 7
C. Groups 3 24. Name the following
D. Groups 1 and 2 compound C(CH3)4
A.2,2-dimethylpropane
20. Which of the following B.2-dimethylbutane
decreases across the periodic, C. 2,2dimethylpentane
in the periodic table of D. 2,3-dimethylpropane
elements
A. Electron affinity 25. What is the formula for
[Link] the organic compound
C. Ionization energy Ethanoic acid
D. Atomic size A.CH3COOH
B.CH3CH3COH

96
C. HCOOH 31. ……….. are the
D. C2H3OOH examples of separation
techniques EXCEPT
26. Matter is anything that [Link]
has weight and occupies [Link]
space: C. Neutralization
[Link] D. Decantation
B. False
27. …………….. are physical 32. The following are Noble
properties of matter EXCEPT gases EXCEPT
[Link] [Link]
[Link] [Link]
C. mass C. He
D. electrical conductivity D. H

28. …………… is a chemical 33. The following are

change compounds EXCEPT
A. evaporation of water [Link]
B. rusting of metals [Link]
C. melting of margarine C. Air
D. boiling of water D. Acetic acid
29. 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO. The
following reaction is a chemical 34. The following are
change. examples of a mixture
[Link] EXCEPT
B. False [Link]
[Link]
30. …………… are chemical C. Crude oil
substances that are combined D. Alcohol
together physically
[Link] 35. A mixture of sand with
[Link] salt is known as
C. Molecules heterogeneous mixture?
D. Anions [Link]
B. False

97
36. The following is not a B.2
molecule C. 3
[Link] D. -2
[Link]
C. Mg 42. …………principle states
D. Al that the filling of electrons
should take place in
37. ……….. is not a diatomic accordance with the ascending
molecule order of energy of orbitals
[Link] [Link]‘s
[Link] [Link]‘s
C. NaI C. Hund‘s
D. NaBr D. Heisenberge‘s

38. The name of the 43. ……………. denotes the

following chemical substance, shell number of an electron
NH4NO3 is: [Link] quantum number
[Link] Nitrate [Link] quantum number
[Link](V) Nitrate C. The magnetic quantum
C. Ammonium (IV) Nitrate number
D. Ammonium (VI) Nitrate D. The spin quantum
number
39. The first scientific theory
of an atom was proposed by 44. The orbital electronic
[Link] configuration of potassium is
B.J.J. Thomson A.1s 22s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2
C. John Dalton B.1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
D. James Chadwick C. 1s 22s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
D. 1s 22s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
40. Mulliken discovered the
charge of an electron 45. 1s1 is the orbital
[Link] electronic configuration of
[Link] A.Al3+
B.Fe3+
41. Hydrogen has a mass C. Be3+
number of D. O3+
A.1

98
46. A base contains C. H2SO4
[Link] ion D. HNO3
[Link] ion
C. Basic ion 51. pH stands for
D. Acidic ion A. hydroxyl potential
B. hydroxyl protons
C. hydrogen potential
47. CaO and Ca(OH)2 are D. hydrogen protons.
respectively named
[Link] and slaked lime 52. Acids and bases react to
[Link] lime and quicklime produce salt and water in a
C. slaked lime and caustic reaction known as
soda [Link]
D. quicklime and caustic [Link]
soda C. neutralization
D. dilution
48. ………….. is the number  Identify the following
of protons in an atom types of salts on 53-56
[Link] Number
[Link] mass 53. NaCl
C. Mass Number [Link] salt
D. Proton number [Link] salt
C. Basic salt
49. …………….. is a D. double salt
commonly used scale to
measure the acidity or basicity 54. Ca(OH)Cl
of a substance [Link] salt
[Link] scale [Link] salt
[Link] scale C. Basic salt
C. pH tube D. double salt
D. Basicity meter.
55. KHSO4
50. The following are [Link] salt
examples of strong acids [Link] salt
EXCEPT C. Basic salt
[Link] D. double salt
B.CH3COOH

99
56. KAl(SO4)2.12H2O B. efflorescent substance
A. Acid salt C. hygroscopic substance
B. Normal salt D. general substance
C. Basic salt
D. double salt 62. CaCl2 is a
A. deliquescent substance
 What type of substance B. efflorescent substance
are the following on 57-62 C. hygroscopic substance
57. KOH is a D. general substance
A. deliquescent substance
B. efflorescent substance 63. Metals are brittle.
C. hygroscopic substance A True
D. general substance B. False
64. Metals are good
oxidizing agents.
A. True
58. NH4Cl is a B. False
A. deliquescent substance
B. efflorescent substance 65. Metals have low
C. hygroscopic substance densities
D. general substance A True
B. False

59. Na2SO4.10H2O is a 66. Metals are

A. deliquescent substance electronegative in nature
B. efflorescent substance A. True
C. hygroscopic substance B. False
D. general substance

60. ZnCl2 is a 67. Metals are not ductile

A. deliquescent substance A. True
B. efflorescent substance B. False
C. hygroscopic substance
D. general substance
68. Elements that exist in
61. NaCl is a two or more forms are known
A. deliquescent substance

100
as A. Isotopes B. Allotropes C. D. CH3CH2CH2OH
Isotones D. Isobars
69. The atmosphere consists  Indicate the chemical
of ……… of nitrogen gas formulae for the following
A. 70% elements in 74-77
B. 73% 74. Tungsten
C. 78% A. W
D. 75% B. Tu
C. Wu
70. The process of the D T.
dissociation of chemical
substances into ions is known 75. Argon
as A. Ar
A. dissociation B. A
B. distillation C. Ag
C. ionization D. Arg
D. precipitation

76. Titanium
71. Open chain compounds A. T
are known as aliphatic B. Ti
compounds C. Tt
A. True D. Ta
B. False
77. Vanadium
72. The functional group for A. V
aldehydes are B. Va
A. –COOH C. Vn
B. - COOR. D. Vd
C. - CHO
D. – COH 78. Acid turns red litmus
blue.
73. The following are primary A. True
alkanol EXCEPT B. False
A. CH3CHOHCH3
B. CH3CH2OH 79. Acid turns blue litmus
C. CH3OH red.

101
A. True 86. During an acid-base
B. False titration, a weak acid can be
titrated against a weak base
80. Base turns blue litmus using methyl orange
red A. True
A. True B. False
B. False
81. Base turns red litmus 87. The unit for molar
blue concentration is
A. True A. moldm3
B. False B. gmol-3
C. gdm-3
 Answer the following: An D. moldm-3
element with a chemical
symbol C, in the period table 88. Find the molar mass of
has the following properties, 0.02 mol/dm3 XOH, which has
82-85 a mass concentration of
2.5g/dm3 A. 0.05 g/mol
82. It is a solid B. 50 g/mol
A. True C. 125 g/mol
B. False D. 0.008 g/mol

83. It is a metal 89. Salts are use as

A. True fertilizers
B. False A. True
B. False
84. It has an orbital
electronic configuration of
1s22s22p3 90. What type of electric
A. True current is required in
B. False electrolysis
A. Direct current
85. It is found in living things B. Indirect Current
A. True C. Alternative current
B. False D. Stationary current

102
 Name the following A. 2-mehtylprop-1ene
organic substances, from B. 2,2-dimethylpropene
91-100 C. 3-methylpropene
D. 3-methylprop-3-ene
91. CH3CHO
A. methanol 97. CH3COOC2H5
B. methanal [Link] acid
C. ethanal [Link] ethanoic acid
D. ethanol C. Ethyl ethanoate
D. Ethyl methanoate
92. CH3OH
A. methanol 98. CH3CN
B. ethanol [Link] cyanide
C. ethanal [Link] cyanide
D. ethane C. Ethyl carbon nitride
D. Methyl carbon nitride
93. CH3C(CH3)3
A.2-mehtylbutane 99. CH2-C(CH2)=O
B.2,2-dimethylpropane [Link]
C. 2,3-dimethylpropane [Link]-2-one
D. 2,3-dimethylbutane C. Propan-3-one
D. Propane-2-ol

94. C(CH3)4 100. C12H22O11

A.2-mehtylbutane A. Fructose
B.2,2-dimethylpropane B. Glucose
C. 2,3-dimethylpropane C. Sucrose
D. 2,3-dimethylbutane D. Galactose

95. ClCH2-CH2-CH2OH 101. Calculate the relative

A.1-chloropropan-3-ol molecular mass (RMM) of
B.3-chloropropan-1-ol limestone, CaCO3 (Ca=40,
C. 1-chloropropanol C=12, O=16)
D. 3-chloropropanol 102. Calculate the RMM of
NaOH (Na=23, O=16, H=1)
96. CH2=C(CH3)2

103
103. The value for Avogadro‘s 110. How many moles are in
number (NA) is 10 g of Na2CO3? (Na=23,
A.6.02 ×1023. C=12, O=16)
B.6.02 ×1024 Hint: Use the calculation steps
C. 6.02 ×1025 in question 108
D. 6.02 ×1026
111. Calculate the percentage
104. How many atoms are by mass of sodium in Na2CO3
there in 5 g of carbon, C? (NA (Na=23, C=12, O=16)
= 6.02 ×1023, C=12) 112. Calculate the percentage
105. How many atoms are by mass of carbon in Na2CO3
there in 5 g of Na? (NA = 6.02 (Na=23, C=12, O=16)
×1023, Na=23) Hint: Hint: Use the calculation
Hint: Follow the calculation steps in question 111
steps of question 104
106. How many atoms are 113. Calculate the percentage
there in 5 g of NaOH? (NA = by mass of oxygen in Na2CO3
6.02 ×1023, Na=23, O=16, (Na=23, C=12, O=16)
H=1) Hint: Use the calculation steps
Hint: Follow the calculation in question 111
steps of question 104
What is the orbital electronic
107. …………. Is the configuration of the
combining power of element. following elements?
Ans: Valency 114. Is22s22p4
A.C
108. How many moles are in B.S
20 g of CaCO3? (Ca=40, C. O
C=12, O=16) D. He

109. How many moles are in 115. Is22s22p63s0

20 g of NaOH? (Na=23, O=16, A. C
H=1) B. S
Hint: Use the calculation steps C. O
in question 108 D. Ne

116. 1s22s22p1

104
 A. C 122. lectrovalent compounds
B. S have high melting and
C. B boiling point
D. Ne A. True
B. False
117. 1s22s22p63s23p2
A. C 123. The major reason why
B. S chemical reaction occur
C. Si among elements is that
D. B they have the tendency to
A. Attain the nearest noble
118. 1s22s22p63s23p6 gas structure
A. C B. Become a metal
B. S C. Become a non-metal
C. Si D. Become any noble
D. Ar element

119. 1s22p2 124. In electrovalency,

A. C2+ valence electron is
B. S4+ transferred and the ato,ic
C. Cl- number is
D. Zn2+ A. Unaffected
B. Reduced
120. 1s0 C. Stabilized
A. H1+ D. Destabilized
B. Li1+
C. Be2+ 125. Arrangement of ions in
D. O2- a regular pattern in a solid
E. crystal is called
121. 1s22s22p0 A. Configuration
A. B2+ B. Atomic structure
B. C2+ C. Buffer
C. Al3+ D. Lattice
D. Mg2+
126. The bond type between
sodium and chlorine
atoms in known as

105
 A. Covalent bond C. Triple covalent bond
B. Electrovalent bond D. Double ionic bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Coordinate covalent 131. The kelvin temperature
bond of 200oC is what
Convert to degree kelvin
127. The bond type between the following
hydrogen and chlorine temperatures, 132-135
atoms in known as
A. Covalent bond 132. -201oC.
B. Electrovalent bond
C. Metallic bond 133. -21oC.
D. Coordinate covalent
bond 134. 42oC.

128. The type of attractive 135. -273oC.

force responsible for the
liquefaction of gas
A. Metallic force 136. At 17oC, a sample of
B. Hydrogen force hydrogen gas occupies
C. Van der waals force 125 cm3. What will the
D. Covalent force volume be at 100 oC, if the
pressure remains
129. The type of bond/force constant?
responsible for the
formation of molecular 137. At 20oC, a sample of
lattices as in iodine and hydrogen gas occupies
naphthalene crystals are 130 cm3. What will the
A. Metallic force volume be at 273 oC, if the
B. Hydrogen force pressure remains
C. Van der waals force constant?
D. Ionic force Hint: Use the calculation
steps in question 136
130. The bond type in a
diatomic nitrogen gas is 138. At 0 oC, a sample of
A. Double covalent bond hydrogen gas occupies 10
B. Single covalent bond cm3. What will the volume

106
 be at -120 oC, if the B. Non-polar species
pressure remains C. Diatomic element
constant? D. Complex ion
Hint: Use the calculation
steps in question 136

139. How many orbitals are 143. Which of the following

contained in an atom scientists discovered the
which contains atomic neutron?
number of 14 A. Ernest Rutherford
A. 2 B. J.J. Thompson
B. 3 C. James Chadwick
C. 4 D. R.A. Millikan
D. 5
144. Atoms are electrically
140. How many electrons neutral because
are present in Be2+ A. They do not conduct
A. 1 electricity
B. 2 B. Contain equal number of
C. 3 protons and electrons
D. 4 C. Are composed of
neutrons
141. A mixture of kerosene D. Cannot be attracted by
and diesel can be electromagnetic field
separated by
A. Crystallization 145. A hydrogen atom which
B. Distillation has lost an electron
C. Precipitation contains
D. Sublimation A. One proton only
B. One neutron only
142. Hydrogen bonds are C. One proton and one
formed between neutron
molecules containing a D. One proton, one
hydrogen atom bonded to electron, one neutron
a
A. Strongly electronegative 146. An atom with 17
atom protons, 17 electrons and

107
 18 neutrons has a mass A. Covalent compound
number of B. Dative covalent
A. 17 compound
B. 18 C. Electrovalent compound
C. 34 D. Non-metal
D. 35
151. What will be the new
147. What is the mass volume (V) if the new
number of an element pressure is halved and the
having 20 neutrons, 15 initial pressure remain the
protons, and 15 electrons? same
A. 15 A. 2P1V1 = P2V2
B. 30 B. P1V1= 2P2V2
C. 35 C. P1V1/2 = P2V2/2
D. 50 D. P1V1 = P2V2/2

148. Which of the following 152. What is the unit of n in

methods can be used to the ideal equation; PV =
separate blood cells from nRT
plasma A. atm dm3
A. Centrifugation B. atm dm3 K-1
B. Filtration C. mols
C. Chromatography D. K-1 mol-1
D. Distillation
153. A certain amount of gas
149. Which of the following occupies 5.0 dm3 at 2 atm
scientists formulated the and 10 oC. Calculate the
law of conservation of number of moles present.
mass (R= 0.082 atm K-I mol-1)
A. Lavoisier
B. J. Dalton 154. How many atoms are
C. R. Boyle contained in 2 g of
D. J. Proust hydrogen gas. (H = 1)
A. 6.02 × 1023 atoms
150. A solid substance with B. 6.02 × 1023 molecules
high melting and boiling C. 12.04 × 1023 atoms
point is likely to be D. 12.04 × 1023 molecules

108
 A. Nitrogen and hydrogen
155. How many molecules B. Water and carbon (II)
of Oxygen gas are oxide
contained in 0.2 mole of C. Nitrogen and carbon (II)
Oxygen gas (O = 16, NA = oxide
6.02 × 1023 molecules) D. carbon (IV) oxide and
hydrogen
156. An oxonium ion is
A. H3O 161. Trioxocarbonate (IV)
B. H3O+ acid is a dibasic acid.
C. H3O3+ TRUE or FALSE
D. HO3+
162. CO2 gas turns lime
157. pH of 0.001 M acid is water milky. TRUE or
A. 1 FALSE
B. 2
C. 3 163. Which is the odd-man
D. 4 out?
A. Gold
158. Water gas is a mixture B. Silver
containing equal volumes C. Bronze
of D. Iron
A. Water and hydrogen
B. Water and carbon (II) 164. …………. Is the
oxide hardest substance known
C. carbon (II) oxide and A. Iron
hydrogen B. Stone
D. carbon (IV) oxide and C. Diamond
hydrogen D. Gold

159. carbon (IV) oxide is 165. The property of

used in the extraction of graphite that makes it a
metals from their ore. good lubricant is
TRUE OF FALSE A. Low melting point
B. Low density
160. Producer gas is a C. Softness
mixture of

109
 D. Planar molecular 173. These are volumetric
structure analysis tools except
A. Indicator
 In the periodic table, B. Deflagrating spoon
answer the following, C. White tile (white
from 166-172: background)
166. The atomic size D. Wash bottle
decreases across the
period. TRUE or FALSE 174. Filling the burette
during titration involves
167. The ionization energy the following except
(IE) decreases across the A. Wash with water
period. TRUE or FALSE B. Rinse with acid
C. Eject air bubbles
168. The electron affinity D. Read at eye level
(EA) decreases down the
group. TRUE or FALSE 175. In the acid-base
titration, averaging must
169. The noble gases are involve
found in the group 6 of the A. Rough reading
period table. TRUE or B. Concordant reading
FASLE C. Higher reading
D. All the titres obtained
170. The group one
elements are known as 176. What is the S.I. unit of
alkaline earth metals: molar mass?
TRUE or FASLE A. mol dm-3
B. g mol-1
171. Group 7 elements are C. mol-1
known as salt formers. D. mol
TRUE of FALSE
177. What is the mass of
172. Group 6 elements are anhydrous Na2CO3, is
known as halogens. TRUE present in 500 cm3 of 0.1
of FALSE mol dm-3? (Na= 23, C =12,
O=16)
A. 10.6 g

110
 B. 212 g 181. Which of these is not
C. 106 g necessary for metallic
D. 5.3 g corrosion
A. Water
178. This type of chemical B. Heat
reaction: H3O+ + OH- → C. Oxygen
2H2O D. Sulphur (IV) oxide
A. Hydrolysis
B. Direct combination 182. Water is temporarily
C. Neutralization hard because it contains
D. Oxonolysis A. CaSO4
B. MgSO4
C. Chlorine
179. What do we do to D. Ca(HCO3)2
increase the surface area
of reactants 183. The most abundant
A. Braking them into chips element on the earth is
B. Subjecting the reactants A. Nitrogen
to high pressure B. Hydrogen
C. Altering the direction of C. Oxygen
the reaction D. Helim
D. Using reactants to
different densities 184. Extraction of Sulphur
from the earth‘s crust is by
180. Factors affecting one of these processes
equilibrium reactions A. Solvay process
include the following B. Contact process
except C. Frasch process
A. Pressure (for solid D. Kiln process
systems)
B. Concentration 185. Hydrogen differs from
C. Temperature the rest of the common
D. Pressure (for gaseous non-metals because
systems) A. It is an electron acceptor
B. It is an electron donor
C. It appears in free state
D. It s monoatomic

111
 191. The name of
186. Group 1 metals are CH3(CH2)2COOH is
good reducing agents [Link]
because [Link] acid
A. They are soft C. Pentanoic acis
B. They are light D. Ethanoic acis
C. They easily form
unipositive ions 192. The name of
D. They have low melting CH3(CH2)2CONH2 is
point [Link] amine
[Link] amine
187. Group 2 elements have C. Butyl amide
2 valence protons. TRUE D. Urea
or FALSE
193. Esters are employed in
188. The following are the following
transition metals except [Link] perfumes
A. Cl [Link] cement
B. Fe C. Making paint
C. Ti D. Making tiles
D. Cr
194. Cellulose, starch,
189. Which of these fructose, and glucose are all
compounds exhibit [Link]
resonance [Link]
[Link] C. Alkanones
[Link] D. Carbohydrates
C. Butyne
D. Ethane  Which of these
properties belong to the
190. The functional group for various elements
the alkanols is 195. Belonging to period 3 in
A.CnH2n +[Link] the period table
B.CnH2n -2 [Link]
C. -COOH B.H
D. –OH C. Li
D. B

112
 C. Na
196. Belonging to group 8 D. Cl
[Link]
[Link] 199. Is a liquid at room
C. Zn temperature?
D. He A.I
B.F
197. Is a metal C. Cl
[Link] D. Br
[Link]
C. S 200. It has varying oxidation
D. C numbers
[Link]
198. Is a divalent element B. C
[Link] C. Al
[Link] D. F

113
 CHEMISTRY ANSWERS

1. Ans: C 19. Ans: D

2. Ans: B 20. Ans: A

3. Ans: C 21. Ans: A

4. Ans: C 22. Ans: A

5. Ans: B. 23. Ans: A

6. Ans: B 24. Ans:

7. Ans: B 25. Ans: B. Matter has mass

8. Ans: B 26. (not weight) and occupies

9. Ans: B space.

10. Ans: A 27. Ans: A

11. Ans: A 28. Ans: B

12. Ans: A 29. Ans: A

13. Ans: A 30. Ans: A

14. Ans: A 31. Ans: C

15. Ans: A 32. Ans: D

16. Ans: D 33. Ans: C

17. Ans: D 34. Ans: D

18. Ans: D 35. Ans: B

Ans: D 36. Ans: B

114
37. Ans: B 51. Ans: C

38. Ans: A 52. Ans: C

39. Ans: C 53. Ans: B

54. Ans: C. It is a basic salt due

to the presence of hydroxide

40. Ans: A 55. Ans: A

41. Ans: A 56. Ans: D

42. Ans: A 57. Ans: A. Deliquescent

43. Ans: A substances are those that absorb

44. Ans: B water from the atmosphere and

45. Ans: C. The Be ion lost 2 turn to a solution

electrons 58. Ans; A

46. Ans: A Hydroxide ion is OH- 59. Ans: B. efflorescent

47. Ans: A. CaO is quicklime substances lose their water of

and Ca(OH)2 is slaked lime crystallization when exposed to

48. Ans: A. the atmosphere

49. Ans: A 60. Ans: C. hygroscopic

50. Ans: B. This is because substances absorb water from the

CH3COOH (acetic acid) do not atmosphere and becomes sticky

ionize completely in water, while 61. Ans: C

other acids ionize completely in 62. Ans: A

water. 63. Ans: B

115
64. Ans: B 84. Ans: B. Its Orbital electronic

configuration is 1s22s22p2

85. Ans: A

65. Ans: B 86. Ans: B. This is because

66. Ans: B titration of a weak acid against a

67. Ans: B weak base has no suitable

68. Ans: B indicator for the titration

69. Ans: C 87. Ans: D. molar concentration

70. Ans: C deals with the number of moles of

71. Ans: A a substance in 1 dm3 of a

72. Ans: C solvent.

73. And: A 88. Ans: C.

74. Ans: A Soln:

75. Ans: A molar concentration = 0.02

76. Ans: B mol/dm3

77. Ans: A Mass concentration = 2.5 g/dm3

78. Ans: B Molar mass = ?

79. Ans: A Formula:

80. Ans: B

81. Ans: A

82. Ans: A

83. Ans: B
116
Therefore: 100. Ans: C.

= Sucrose is a disaccharide, unlike

the others that are

monosaccharides.
Ans = 125 g/mol (don‘t forget to
101. Ans: 100. Note that the
put the units)
relative molecular mass has no
89. Ans: A
unit
90. Ans: A.
Solution:

One molecule of CaCO3, has 1

91. Ans: C
Ca, 1 C and 3 O atoms.

Therefore, RMM of CaCO3

92. Ans: A
= 1× Ca + 1× C + 3 × O

= (1 × 40 + 1 × 12 + 3 × 16)
93. Ans: B
= 100

102. Ans: 40
94. Ans: B
23 + 16 + 1 = 40

95. Ans: B
103. Ans: A. Note: This number
96. Ans: A
represents particles, molecules,
97. Ans: C
atoms, depending which is
98. Ans: A
needed.
99. Ans: B
104. Ans: 2.508× 1023 atoms
117
Solution % by mass of sodium =

12 g of C = 6.02 ×1023 2(Na)/Na2CO3 ×100

Therefore, 5 g of C = (5 ×6.02 = 2 ×23/2(23)+12+3(16) ×100

×1023)/12 = 46/106 × 100

The number of atoms in 5 g of C =43.396%

= 2.508× 1023 atoms 112. Ans: 11.321%

105. Ans: 1.308 ×1023 113. Ans; 45.283%

106. Ans: 7.525 ×1022 114. Ans: C

107. Ans: Valency 115. Ans: D

108. Ans: 0.2 mole 116. Ans: C

Solution 117. Ans: C

Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40 + 12 118. Ans: D

+ 3(16) = 100 g 119. Ans: A

100 g of CaCO3 = 1 mole 120. Ans: A

Therefore 20 g of CacO3 = 20g 121. Ans: B

×1 mole/100 g 122. Ans: A

= 0.2 mole 123. Ans: A

109. Ans: 0.5 mole 124. Ans: A

110. Ans: 0.094 mole 125. Ans: D

111. Ans: 43.396% 126. Ans: B. this is because the

Solution electron from sodium is

transferred to the chlorine atom.

118
127. Ans: A. This is because the 136. Ans: 161 cm3

electrons are shared between the Solution:

hydrogen and the chlorine atoms

128. Ans: C
V1 = 125 cm3, V2 = ?, T1 =
129. Ans: C
(17+273)K = 290 K, T2 =
130. Ans: C. This is because
(100+273)K = 373 K
diatomic Nitrogen gas has triple
Therefore = 125 ×
bond binding the two nitrogen
373/290
atoms together.
=161 cm3

137. Ans: 242.253 cm3

131. Ans: 473K
138. Ans: 5.604 cm3
Solution:
139. Ans: B
K = oC + 273
140. Ans: B. This is because the
Therefore, 200oC in Kelvin =
Be ion has lost 2 electrons
200oC + 273 = 473 K
141. Ans: B
132. Soln: -201 +273 = 72 K
142. Ans: A

143. Ans. B
133. Soln: -21 + 273 = 252 K
144. Ans: B

145. Ans: C
134. Soln: 42 +273 = 315 K
146. Ans: D
135. Soln: -273 + 273 = 0

119
147. Ans: C Therefore, n = 2 × 5.0/0.082 ×

283 = 0.431 mols

148. Ans: A

154. Ans: 6.02 × 1023 atoms

149. Ans: B Solution

Note: Hydrogen gas is written as

150. Ans: C H2

Therefore, 2 g of H2 = 6.02 ×

151. Ans: A 1023 atoms

155. Solution

152. Ans: mols. This is because 1 mole of Oxygen gas = 6.02 ×

n represents number of moles. 1023 molecules

Therefore 0.2 mole of Oxygen

153. Ans: 0.431 mols gas = 0.2 mole × 6.02 × 1023

Solution molecules/ 1 mole of Oxygen gas

From the ideal gas equation PV = Ans: 1.204 × 1023

nRT` 156. Ans: B

n = PV/RT, where P = 2 atm, V = 157. Ans: 3

5.0 dm3, T = 10 oC = 10 + 273 = Solution

283 K, R = 0.082 atm dm3 K-1 pH = -log [H+]

mol-1 pH = -log (0.001)

pH = -log (1×10-3)
120
pH = -log1010-3 166. Ans: True. The atomic size

pH = -(-3log1010) (moving -3 over decreases across the period and

behind log) increases down the group

Note: log1010 (log 10 base 10) = 167. Ans: False. The IE

1Therefore, pH = 3 (because the increases across the period and

minus sign will cancel out by decreases down the group

multiplication)

158. Ans: C 168. Ans: True. The EA

159. Ans: True increases across the period and

160. Ans: C decreases down the group

161. Ans: True. H2CO3 is a

trioxocarbonate(IV) acid, and it 169. Ans: False. The noble

contains 2 hydrogen atoms, gases are located in the group 8

making it a dibasic acid of the period table

162. Ans: True

163. Ans: C. This is because 170. Ans: False. The group one

Bronze is not an element like elemtns are known as the alkali

others. metals. It is the group two

164. Ans: C elements that are known as

165. Ans: D alkaline earth metals

171. Ans: True

121
172. Ans: False. The word Therefore, mass concentration of

halogen means salt former. So Na2CO3 = 10.6 gdm-3

both names mean the same thing. Now, if 1000 cm3 (1 dm3)

173. Ans: B solution contains 10.6 g of

174. Ans: A. washing with water Na2CO3

will lead to further dilution of the Therefore, 500 cm3 will contain =

acid in the burette 500 × 10.6/1000

175. Ans: B. Note that the titre Ans: 5.3 g

values to be used are only those 178. Ans: C. This reaction is the

ones whose values are close neutralization of an acid (oxonium

enough ion) with a base (hydroxyl ion)

176. Ans: C 179. Ans: A

177. Solution 180. Ans: A.

Molar concentration = mass 181. Ans: D

concentration/ molar mass 182. Ans: D

Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 2(23) + 183. Ans: A

12 + 3(16) = 106 g mol-1 184. Ans: C

Molar concentration of Na2CO3 = 185. Ans: A

0.1 moldm-3 186. Ans: C

Mass concentration = molar 187. Ans: False. They have 2

concentration × molar mass = 0.1 188. valence electrons, not

× 106 protons
122
189. Ans: A

190. Ans: B

191. Ans: D

192. Ans: B.

193. Ans: C

194. Ans: A

195. Ans: D

196. Ans: A

197. Ans: A

198. Ans: B

199. Ans: A

200. Ans: D. I is solid while Cl

and F are gases are room

temperature

201. Ans: C. this is because C

(Carbon) has oxidation numbers

of 2+ and 4+

123
 CURRENT AFFAIRS

1. Who formed the first political 6. Representative democracy is

party in Nigeria? best characterized by
a. Obasanjo [Link] elections and proper
b. Osama registers of voters
c. obi b.a politically educated electorate
d. Herbert Macaulay c. rule by the interest group
d. proper constituencies and a
2. What was the first political party real choice of candidates
in Nigeria?
a. APC 7. A popular principle of colonial
b. PDP administration in British west
c. NND Africa was
d. AD a. association
b. indirect rule
3. Who is the current president of c. paternalism
Nigeria? d. assimilation
a. Obasanjo
b. Saraki 8. The first governor-general of
c. Buhari colonial Nigeria was
d. Jonathan a. Sir, Hugh Clifford
b. sir James Robertson
4. Who is the current vice c. lord Lugard
president of Nigeria? d. sir Ralph moore.
a. Osinbanjo
b. Atiku 9. The first military government in
c. Peter obi Nigeria was headed by
d. Namadi sambo a. General Yakubu Gowon,
b. General Agunyi Ironsi
5. What does the eagle in the c. General M. Mohammed
Nigerian coat of arm represent? d. General O. Obasanjo.
[Link]
[Link] 10. The first general election in
[Link] Nigeria was held in
[Link] a. 1933

124
b. 1952 c. Justice Salihu Modibbo Alfa
c. 1955 Belgore
d. 1959 d. Justice Isa Mohammed

11. The supreme organ of the U.N 15. The British took over Nigeria
O is the through
a. general assembly a. Negotiation
b. secretary general b. Bargaining
c. world court c. War
d. world bank d. The Sea
[Link] military coup of July 25,
1975 which topped general 16. Which of the following courts
Yakubu Gowon from power served as the highest judicial
took place when he was attending organ for Nigeria up till
which important event? 1963?
a. OAU Summit in Kampala a. Supreme court
b. UN General Assembly in New b. Federal Court of Appeal
York c. Appellate court
c. Assembly of Heads of States of d. The privy council
ECOWAS in Monrovia
d. The Olympic Games
17. What was the primary purpose
[Link] of the following political of the Sir Henry Willinks
parties did not participate in the Commission of Inquiry?
1979 General a. To approve the independence
Elections in Nigeria? of Nigeria
a. Unity Party of Nigeria b. To allay the fears of minorities
b. National Party of Nigeria in Nigeria
c. Social Democratic Party c. To amalgamate Northern and
d. Action Congress Southern Nigeria.
d. To make Lagos a British colony
14. Alhaji Shehu Shagari was
sworn in as President of the 18. Into how many local
Federal republic of Nigeria in government areas is Nigeria
1979 by officially delineated?
a. Justice Fatai Williams a. 654
b. Justice Adetokunbo Ademola b. 650

125
c. 820 [Link] is the world‘s second-
d. 774 larget continent?

19. Laws made by State [Link] is the current ECOWAS

government are known as chairman?
a. Edicts
b. Bye law [Link] African country was the
c. Acts first to declare independence?
d. Decrease Liberia in 1847

20. The centenary anniversary of [Link] is Nigeria‘s current House

the amalgamation of Northern and of Representatives Speaker?
southern Nigeria
was celebrated in [Link] was the world‘s first
a.2060 English dictionary author?
b.2063
c.2014 [Link] was Nigeria‘s first
d.2007 president?

21. Which of these men [Link] was Africa‘s first

introduced an indirect rule in Archbishop?
Nigeria?
a. Mungo Park [Link] was the first Inspector
b. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe General of Police in Nigeria?
c. Lord Lugard
d. Sir James Robertson [Link] is the current Governor of
Nigeria‘s Central Bank?
22. In Nigeria, how many ethnic
groups are there? [Link] is Nigeria‘s Education
Minister?
[Link] now celebrate
Democracy Day on [Link] is Africa‘s tallest
mountain?
[Link] was the first female
psychiatrist in Nigeria? [Link] is Nigeria‘s current
Senate President?

126
[Link] did the Duke and [Link] is the NNPC‘s current
Duchess of Sussex step down managing director?
from the royal family?
[Link] is Nigeria‘s current Chief
[Link] did Nigerians start using Justice?
paper money?
[Link] was Nigeria‘s longest-
[Link] is the total number of serving Senate President?
Local Government Areas in
Nigeria? [Link] is the current Prime
Minister of the United Kingdom
[Link] is the total number of
nations that make up the [Link] is the current United
Economic Community of West Nations Secretary-General?
African States?
[Link] is Israel‘s longest-serving
41.A country composed of semi- Prime Minister?
autonomous entities is referred to
as. [Link] Nigerian state has the
fewest local government areas
[Link] what type of government (LGAs)?
does political power pass down
through the generations? [Link] year was the United
Nations founded?
[Link] is Nigeria‘s largest city?
[Link] is the current Chairman of
[Link] Yakubu Gowon INEC?
established how many states in
Nigeria in May 1967? [Link] was Nigeria‘s first female
Brigadier?
[Link] was Nigeria‘s first
Executive President? [Link] was Nelson Mandela
captured as an apartheid prisoner
[Link] year was Facebook and who released him?
created?

127
[Link] Nigerian state [Link] was Sokoto‘s first Sultan?
contributes the most to the
country‘s oil revenue? [Link] was the Nigerian
Airforce founded?
[Link] is Nigeria‘s national
motto? [Link] was the NNPC‘s first
managing director?
[Link] was Nigeria‘s first
refinery built? [Link] year did the First World
War begin?
[Link] was the name of Nigeria‘s
first military ruler? [Link] is the world‘s second
most populous country?
[Link] Nigeria, who was known as
the ―King of Afro Beat‖? [Link] did the Nigerian civil war
start?
[Link] was the United Nations
Organization established [Link] long did the Second
World War last?
[Link] was Nigeria‘s Central
Bank established [Link] does the Nigerian coat of
arms‘ red eagle represent?
[Link] was the 2023 Nigerian
presidential election conducted? [Link] was Nigeria officially
a. 25th February acknowledged as a country?
b. 27th February
c. 15th February [Link] is the total number of
d. 20th February continents in the world?

[Link] voting system did INEC [Link] is the name of Nigeria‘s

adopt from the electoral act for the current finance minister?
2023 elections?
a. BIVAS [Link] was the United Nations
b. VIBAS Organizations‘ first Secretary
c. SIVBA General?
d. IVBAS

128
[Link] Nigerian National [Link] is Nigeria‘s Vice
Assembly has a total of how many President?
senators?
[Link] did former President
[Link] many senate districts are Umaru Yar‘Adua pass away?
there in the 36 states?
[Link] is the Lander brothers‘
[Link] is the total number of most famous discovery?
members in Nigeria‘s House of
Representatives? [Link] was the first to explore
[Link] was the first member of the African continent?
the House of Representatives?
[Link] was the slave trade
[Link] is the world‘s tallest outlawed for the first time?
mountain?
[Link] was the first to invent the
[Link] were the first Europeans automobile?
to arrive in West Africa?
[Link] is the Solar System‘s
[Link] did the Civil War in the coldest planet?
United States of America begin?
[Link] was the first governor of
[Link] was the United States of Nigeria‘s Central Bank?
America‘s first president?
[Link] was the Nigerian
[Link] Africa is made up of Premier League established?
how many countries?
[Link] was Nigeria‘s first
[Link] Nigeria, where is the Kainji female professor?
Dam?
[Link] did GSM become
[Link] was the first female available in Nigeria?
Chairman of the NAFDAC?
[Link] of Nigeria‘s previous
[Link] was the first to invent the presidents is also recognized as a
light bulb? peace ambassador?

129
[Link] is the name of Nigeria‘s [Link] does the green color
transportation minister? signify in the Nigerian flag?

[Link] did the naira and kobo [Link] many geographical

become the official currencies of zones does Nigeria have?
Nigeria?
[Link] was Nigeria‘s first
[Link] was Google created? capital city?

[Link] did Donald Trump take [Link] is the current Deputy

office as President of the United Senate President of Nigeria?
States?
[Link] did the Nigerian
[Link] is Nigeria‘s most Golden Eaglets win the FIFA
common natural resource? World Cup for Under-17s?

[Link] place and year did the [Link] Nigerian universities, who
first modern Olympics take place? was the first female vice
chancellor?
[Link] was Africa‘s first
bishop? 120Who designed the Nigerian
flag?
[Link] is the current Chairman
of the EFCC (Economic and [Link] was the first lady in
Financial Crimes Commission)? Nigeria to own a car?

[Link] the Nigerian coat of arms, [Link] was Nigeria‘s first

what do the two horses television station?
represent?
123. Where was crude oil
[Link] does the Nigerian coat discovered in Nigeria for the first
of arms‘ black shield represent? time?

[Link] is the significance of the [Link] was the first Nigerian to

white color in the Nigerian flag? get the Nobel Peace Prize?

130
[Link] is the current Speaker of
the Nigerian House of [Link] is the Chief of Naval
Representatives? Staff of Nigeria?

[Link] is Nigeria‘s most [Link] is the Chief of Air Staff

prestigious university? of Nigeria?

[Link] is Nigeria‘s Minister of [Link] is the present Director-

Education? General of the NAFDAC?

[Link] did Nigeria get [Link] is the Nigerian State

independence from the United with the largest land mass?
Kingdom?
[Link] is the Nigerian State
[Link] did Nigeria become a with the greatest number of local
republic? government areas?

[Link] is the world‘s biggest [Link] is the headquarters of

continent? the African Union?

[Link] are the world‘s five [Link] is the headquarters of

oceans? ECOWAS?

[Link] is the current minister [Link] is the headquarters of

for labour and productivity the United Nations?

[Link] does UNICEF stand [Link] was the first governor of

for? the defunct Eastern Region?

[Link] Union Jack is the flag of [Link] town in Nigeria is

which country? famous for plywood production?

[Link] is the Chief of Defence [Link] country first won the

Staff of Nigeria? world cup?

[Link] is the Chief of Army [Link] is the African slave boy

Staff of Nigeria? that later became a bishop?

131
[Link] is the first Inspector- [Link] is the first Nigerian Navy
General of Police? Commodore?

[Link] is the first military head [Link] is the first indigenous

of state to die in office? governor of central bank?

[Link] state in Nigeria has the [Link] is the first female

least number of local government governor in Nigeria?
areas?
[Link] is the first female
[Link] state in Nigeria has speaker of the Federal House of
Food Basket of the Nation as her Representatives?
slogan?
[Link] is the first female
[Link] Nigerian Military Head elected senator in Nigeria?
Of State overthrew a
democratically elected [Link] is the first female
government in 1983? permanent secretary in Nigeria?

[Link] is the first and only [Link] is the first female Chief
prime minister of Nigeria? Justice of Nigeria?

[Link] is the first indigenous [Link] is the first female pilot in

lawyer in Nigeria? Nigeria?

[Link] is the first indigenous [Link] are the three tiers of

solicitor in Nigeria? government in Nigeria?

[Link] is the first indigenous [Link] continent is Nigeria

chartered accountant in Nigeria? located?

[Link] is the first indigenous [Link] stopped the killing of

medical doctor in Nigeria? twins in Nigeria?

[Link] is the first indigenous [Link] was Aba women riot?

Vice Chancellor in Nigeria?

132
[Link] is the first black [Link] –
president of South Africa?
[Link] –
[Link] is the first African
American president of the United [Link] –
States of America?
[Link] –
[Link] is the law making body
of the civilian government called? [Link] –

[Link] is the person who [Link] is the motto of Benue

represents the interest of his or State –
her country abroad abroad called?
[Link] is the motto of Kogi
[Link] is the official language State –
of Nigeria?
[Link] is the motto of Cross
[Link] is the name of the River State –
government organization that
maintains law and order in [Link] is the slogan of Delta
Nigeria? State –

[Link] Tome and Principe is a [Link] is the slogan of Edo

country in which continent? State –

[Link] is the meaning of the [Link] is the slogan of Rivers

national honour GCFR State –

[Link] is the meaning of [Link] is the meaning of

GCON – ASUU –

[Link] – 196. What is the meaning of

OPEC –
[Link] –
[Link] is the meaning of
[Link] – NAFDAC

133
[Link] is the meaning of 200. Who is the current president
PENGASSAN – of United State of America -
[Link] is the motor of Nigeria?
-

CURRENT AFFAIRS ANSWERS

1. Answer D 12. Answer A

2. Answer C 13. Answer C
3. Answer C 14. Answer B
4. Answer A 15. Answer D
5. Answer D 16. Answer D
6. Answer A 17. Answer B
7. Answer B 18. Answer D
8. Answer C 19. Answer A
9. Answer B 20. Answer C
10. Answer D 21. Answer C
11. Answer A
22. Answer: 250 ethnic groups. 26. Niger Republic President

23. Answer: The date is June Muhama don Issoufou is the

12th. answer.

24. Answer: Dr. Bertha 27. Liberia in 1847

Johnson. 28. Femi Gbajabiamila is the

25. Answer: Africa is the second answer.

continent after Asia 29. Mr. Samuel Johnson is the

correct answer.

134
30. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe, 43. Lagos is the answer.

October 1, 1960 – January 15, 44. 12 states

1966. 45. Alhaji Shehu Shagari is the

31. Benson Andrew Idahosa is answer.

the correct answer. 46. The date is February 4,

32. Mr. C. W. Duncan, from 2004.

1930 until 1935. 47. Maikanti Baru is the answer.

33. Godwin Emefiele is the 48. Ibrahim Tanko Muhammad

answer. is the answer.

34. Answer: Bauchi State‘s 49. David Mark is the answer.

Adamu Adamu. 50. Boris Johnson is the

35. Tanzania‘s Mount answer.

Kilimanjaro is the answer. 51. Antonio Guterres is the

36. Ahmed Ibrahim Lawan is answer.

the correct answer. 52. Benjamin Netanyahu is the

37. January 2020 is the correct answer.

answer. 53. With only seven LGAs, the

38. The year is 1918. answer is Abuja.

39. 774 is the answer. 54. The date is April 25, 1945.

40. Answer: 16. 55. Prof. Mahmood Yakubu is

41. A confederation the answer.

42. Monarchy is the answer. 56. Ronke Kale is the answer.

135
57. President Fredrick Declerk 71. India is the second most

is the correct answer. populous country after China.

58. Delta State is the answer. 72. The date is July 6, 1967.

59. Unity and faith, peace and 73. 1939-1945 is the correct

progress are the answers. answer.

60. The year is 1965. 74. Strength is the answer.

61. General Yakubu Gowon is 75. The date is October 1,

the answer. 1960.

62. Mr. Fela Anikulapo Kuti is 76. Seven continents.

the answer. 77. Zainab Ahmed of Kaduna

63. San Francisco, April 1945, State, Nigeria.

to be exact. 78. Tryg Velie of Norway.

64. The year is 1958. 79. 109 senators, to be exact.

65. Answer A 80. Three senatorial districts, to

66. Answer A be exact.

67. Shehu Usman Danfodio is 81. Answer: 360 members

the answer. 82. Sir Fredric Metcalfe is the

68. In 1964 answer.

69. Chief R.A. Marinho is the 83. Mount Everest, at 29,028

answer. feet, is the highest peak on the

70. 1914-1919 is the correct planet.

answer. 84. The answer is Portuguese.

136
85. 1848-1861 is the correct 98. R.A Feton is the answer.

answer. 99. The year is 1972.

86. George Washington is the 100. Elfrida Adeho is the answer.

correct answer. 101. The year is 2001.

87. Nine African countries 102. Dr. Goodluck Jonathan is

88. Niger State is the answer. the answer.

89. Prof. Dora Akunyili is the 103. Rotimi Amaechi is the

answer. answer.

90. Thoma Edison is the 104. The year was 1973, January

answer. 1st.

91. Oluyemi Osibanjo is the 105. The date is September 4,

answer. 1998.

92. The date is May 6, 2010. 106. The date is January 20th,

93. Finding the source of the 2017.

Niger River. 107. Petroleum is the answer.

94. Prince Henry, a Portuguese 108. Ans: Greece in 1896.

adventurer. 109. Bishop Samuel Ajayi

95. Ans: In 1803, Denmark and Crowther is the answer.

Norway joined forces. 110. Abdulrasheed Bawa is the

96. Karl Benz, 1885, is the answer.

answer. 111. Dignity is the answer.

97. Neptune is the answer.

137
112. Nigeria‘s rich soil is the 123. Oloibiri Oilfield is located in

answer. Oloibiri, Bayelsa State‘s Ogbia

113. Peace is the answer. LGA.

114. Nigeria‘s forests and vast 124. Wole Soyinka is the answer.

natural resources are the answer. 125. Femi Gbajabiamila is the

115. There are six (6) geopolitical answer.

zones, according to the answer. 126. Ibadan University is the

116. Calabar is the answer. correct answer.

117. Obarisi Ovie Omo-Agege is 127. Adamu, Adamu is the

the answer. answer.

118. 1985, 1993, 2007, and 2013 128. The date is October 1,

are the years. 1960.

119. [Link] Alele Williams is 129. The date is October 1,

the answer. 1963.

120. Michael Taiwo Akinkunmi is 130. Asia is the largest continent.

the answer. 131. Pacific Ocean, Atlantic

121. Funmilayo Ransome Kuti is Ocean, Indian Ocean, Southern

the answer. Ocean, Arctic Ocean.

122. In 1959, WNTV (Western 132. Dr. Chris Ngige.

Nigerian Government 133. United Nations Children

Broadcasting Corporation) was Education Fund is the answer.

established.
138
134. The United Kingdom is the 150. General J.T.U Aguiyi Ironsi

answer. 151. Bayelsa state( 8 LGAs)

135. General Abayomi Gabriel 152. Benue State

Olonishakin is the answer. 153. Major General Muhammadu

136. Lt-General T.Y. Buratai is Buhari

the answer. 154. Sir Abubakar Tafawa

137. Vice Admiral Ibok-Ete Ekwe Balewa

Ibas is the answer. 155. Chief Sapara Williams

138. Air Marshal Sadique 156. Chief Rotimi Williams

Abubakar is the correct answer. 157. Chief Akintola Williams

139. Mojisola Christianah 158. Prof. Eyitayo Lambo

Adeyeye is the correct answer. 159. Prof. Kenneth Dike

140. Niger 160. Joseph Edet Akinwale

141. Kano(44 LGAs) 161. Mallam Aliyu Bornu

142. Addis Ababa, Ethiopia 162. Dame Virgy Etiaba

143. Abuja, Nigeria 163. Mrs Patricia Ette

144. New York, USA142. 164. Senator Franca Afegbua

145. Francis Akanu Ibiam 165. Francisca Yetunde E

146. Sapele 166. Mariam Aloma Mukhtar

147. Uruguay 167. Chinyere Onyemauche

148. Samuel Ajayi Crowther 168. Federal, State and Local

149. Louis Edet Governments

139
169. Africa 185. Member Of The Order Of

170. Mary Slessor The Federal Republic

171. 1929 186. Member Of The Order Of

172. Dr. Nelson Mandela Niger

173. Barack Hussein Obama 187. Federal Republic Medal

174. Legislature 188. Order Of The Niger Medal

175. Ambassador 189. Food Basket The Nation

176. English 190. Confluence State

177. Police 191. The People's Paradise

178. Africa 192. The Big Heart

179. Grand Commander Of The 193. The Heartbeat Of The

Order Of The Federal Republic Nation

180. Grand Commander Of The 194. Treasure Base Of The

Order Of Niger Nation

181. Commander Of The Order 195. Academic Staff Union of

Of The Federal Republic Universities

182. Commander Of The Order 196. Organization of Petroleum

Of Niger Exporting Countries

183. Officer Of The Order Of The 197. National Agency for Food

Federal Republic and Drug Administration Control.

184. Officer Of The Order Of

Niger
140
198. Petroleum and Natural Gas 199. Unity & Faith, Peace an
Senior Staff Association of Progress
Nigeria.
200. Joe Biden

141
 USE OF ENGLISH

1. One of these is not a b. stative verbs

characteristic of the major parts c. dynamic verbs
of speech. d. modal auxiliary

a. open word classes

6. Intransitive verbs do take up
b. it cannot accept new words
objects
c. ostensive definition of the
a. true
word's meaning is possible
b. false
d. the meaning is lexical
c. nearly
d. almost
2. Open system mean
a. it is open for business
7. The teacher slapped the boy.
b. it does not admit new words
What is the function of the
c. it does admit new words
Bolden word?
d. all of the above
a. Noun as subject
b. Noun in apposition
3. . One of these is not part of
c. Object of preposition
the main parts of speech
d. Noun as direct object
a. noun
b. pronoun
8. Mr Obi, the principal, is here.
c. verb
What is the function of the
d. adverb
Bolden word?
a. Noun in apposition
4. . _________________ are
b. Nouns as subject
used to describe or modify nouns
c. Nouns as object
and pronouns
d. Subject complement
a. quantitative adjectives
b. possessive adjectives
9. Rev'd Lucky is a priest. What
c. descriptive adjectives
is the function of the Bolden
d. all of the above
words?
a. Object complement
5. . _____________ are the main
b. direct object
verbs in every sentence that
c. subject complement
represent actions or events
d. Noun in apposition
a. lexical verbs
142
10. The boy ___________ to 15. Lagos is a great
church every Sunday. ____________.
a. go a. cities
b. goes b. city
c. goed c. citys
d. going d. cityes

11. Mr Njoku is 16. Mr _____________ wife just

________________ than his walked in.
wife. a. Kola
a. wicked b. Kolas
b. wickedest c. Kola's
c. wickeder d. Kolas'
d. most wicked
17. The woman is the
12. Nouns are usually the subject ____________ of them all.
or objects of sentences wherever a. older
they are found. b. oldest
a. true c. old
b. false d. olderest
c. nearly
d. almost 18. ______________ describes
the quality of living and non-living
13. There are many things.
_________________ in Kano. a. possessive adjectives
a. Mosque b. qualitative adjectives
b. Mosques c. instructive adjectives
c. Mosquies d. non of the above
d. Mosquese
19. Finite verb is not the main
14. These ____________ are verb.
beautiful. a. true
a. Photos b. false
b. photo c. nearly
c. photso d. almost
d. photoe

143
20. I ______________ to school c. very two smart
every Monday. d. all of the above
a. go
b. goes
c. going 26. I bought __________
d. goed oranges.
21. The News ___________ a. great some big
good today. b. big great some
a. are c. some great big
b. is d. none of the above
c. be
d. none of the above 27. My uncle wore a ________ to
the wedding.
22. Ngozi had a ___________ in a. silk blue tie
her hair yesterday. b. tie blue silk
a. nice yellow bow c. blue silk tie
b. yellow nice bow d. all of the above
c. bow nice yellow
d. none of the above 28. Have you met that _______
next door?
23. She lost a ____________. a. cute boy new
a. small white cat b. cute new boy
b. cat small white c. new boy cute
c. white small cat d. none of the above
d. all of the above
29. She counted ___________
24. the clown was wearing a truck going by her window.
________ hat. a. three large red
a. big green-yellow b. large three red
b. big green and yellow c. red large three
c. yellow and green big d. red three large
d. none of the above
30. Jack‘s favourite toy is a
25. We met ________ people at _________ ball.
the conference. a. round big red
a. very smart two b. big red round
b. two very smart c. big round red

144
d. red round big d. threatening

From the option A-D choose 35. Tell Chike something

the one that is most nearly confidential and he makes it
opposite in meaning to the __________ the next minuite.
underlined word. a. public
b. personal
31. To encourage productivity we c. popular
must reward industry and d. private
________ laziness.
a. withhold 36. You will succeed fairly well
b. withdraw with adolescents if you coax
c. punish rather than ________ them.
d. oppose a. coerce
b. punish
32. I took the drug to relieve my c. pamper
headache only for it to d. curse
__________ my condition.
a. alleviate 37. While Ada is attentive to her
b. provoke duties, Kofi is _______.
c. abate a. curious
d. aggravate b. negligent
c. punctual
33. An optimist wears a smile d. realistic
most of the time but _____ goes
about with a long face. 38. Life has become a misery for
a. an occultist many due to the harsh economic
b. an activist conditions, but few are still able
c. a pacifist to live in ________.
d. a pessimist a. satisfaction
b. extravagance
34. You will make a good c. peace
counsellor by listening to your d. comfort
clients rather than _____ them.
a. offending 39. ―Hello Musa‖ is a ______
b. ignoring opening for a friendly letter, but it
c. mishandling

145
is inappropriate for a formal b. hold strong view on friendship
letter. and fashion
a. casual c. have clothes different from
b. serious their friends
c. happy d. hold different views about
d. suitable friendship and fashion

40. We blamed Obi for breaking 43. It is alleged that the

the door, but when Ade accountants doctored the
confessed that he did it, Obi was accounts of the company. This
_____. means that the accountants
a. rewarded a. called in the company doctor
b. exonerated b. falsified the accounts
c. released c. became sick on account of the
d. jailed bribe they received
Choose the interpretation that d. improved the accounts
you consider most appropriate
from the option A-D for each 44. He has been made the new
sentence. Chief Executive so he will need
sometime to learn the ropes.
41. I am sure you didn‘t know This means that with time he will
that the lady is light-fingered. a. fix new gadgets in the office
This means that the lady is b. clear the abandoned things on
a. careless in handling things the site
b. fair-skinned c. master the demands of his
c. prone to stealing new office
d. skilful with her hands d. learn the use of ropes in his
new office
42. Unfortunately nowadays
most young persons do not see 45. After the investigation many
eye to eye with their parents over of the workers were given their
matters of friendship and fashion. marching orders. This means
This means that parents and that the workers
their children a. were dismissed
a. can‘t look one another in the b. were ordered to march
face c. received flesh instructions
about their job

146
d. were given orders similar to c. is making more inventions
the first ones d. is competing with others

46. We left Kaduna one year ago 50. Mohammed Ali won the fight
to the day. This means that we hands down. This means that
left Kaduna Mohammed Ali won
a. exactly one year ago a. after a very tough fight
b. one year minus a day b. only narrowly
c. one year and a day c. without using his hands
d. about a year ago d. very easily

47. Tamuno‘s statement is true 51. The scientist has broken new
to a degree. This means that his ground in his research. This
statement is means that the scientist has
a. very true a. made a new discovery
b. very wrong b. taken a very tough fight
c. not yet proved c. changed his laboratory
d. partly true d. offered a new explanation for
his discovery
48. Both the doves and the
hawks agreed on this issue. This 52. The chief decided to obtain
means that there is agreement the land by hook or by crook.
by both This means that the chief
a. those who prefer peace and decided to get the land
those who want the use of force a. through negotiation
b. the poor and the rich b. by paying for it
c. the government side and the c. by any means possible
opposition d. through litigation
d. those supporting changes and
those against them 53. The lady swallowed the
whole story hook, line and sinker.
49. Japan has blazed a trail in This means that the lady
the production of electronics. a. totally disbelieved the story
This means that in the production b. totally believed the story
of electronics, Japan c. had her doubts about the story
a. has learnt a lot d. thoroughly enjoyed the story
b. is leading others

147
54. He went too far by insulting 57. The worker‘s strike was
the Director‘s wife. This means _________ as a result of the
that Director‘s intervention.
a. he went out with the Director‘s a. called back
wife and insulted her b. called in
b. he walked too long for the c. called off
Director‘s wife d. called out
c. he was too close to the
Director‘s wife 58. Mrs. Jallow has bought a
d. he should not have gone to _____________ bag.
the extent of insulting the a. black new leather
Director‘s wife b. new leather black
c. leather black new
55. The decision to dismiss the d. new black leather
night watchmen was taken in my
absence. This means that the 59. The breakdown of our
decision was marriage was no fault of
a. taken as I was leaving ________.
b. taken at my back a. me
c. taken without my knowledge b. my
d. not disclosed to the night d. mine
watchman d. I

Choose the word or group of 60. He did it but not _________

words that best completes in the way I had expected.
each of the following a. as
sentences from the option b. quite
lettered A-D c. hardly
d. so
56. Kate _________ tears of joy
when she heard about her 61. The driver ________ nearly
success. caused an accident.
a. broke into a. rather
b. broke out b. almost
c. broke up in c. very
d. broke with d. quite

148
62. The teachers are not likely 67. ―You won‘t tell Daddy,
________ promoted until next _______ you‖?
year. a. will
a. to be b. would
b. to have been c. can
c. to have d. shall
d. to being
68. Joe _________ graduated
63. Haven‘t you got a football from one of the best universities.
field in your school? ________ a. will have
we haven‘t. b. shall have
a. yes c. would have
b. no d. must have
c. so
d. never
69. The boys were fighting
64. I could not distinguish the ________ their sisters were
twins __________ each other. eating.
a. with a. until
b. to b. since
c. by c. while
d. from d. besides

65. He ______ be fat, but he still 70. Isn‘t it high time we

runs fast. _______?
a. could a. started eating
b. might b. start eating
c. may c. had started eating
d. can d. start to eat

66. ________ I come in, please? 71. The group is committed to

a. might ________ for international
b. may peace.
c. should a. work
d. must b. worked
c. working
d. be working

149
72. God always __________ us 77. The alphabet represents
when we pray. _________ phonetic symbols
a. bless a. 40
b. blessing b. 26
c. blessed c. 20
d. blesses d. 44

73. Since he failed the 78. In ________, we use letters

examination, he could not or alphabet.
_________ miss the admission. a. ontography
a. though b. ortography
b. but c. orthography
c. then d. orthongraphy
d. however

79. English sound system is

74. All the __________ are classified into ____________
holding an emergency meeting and _________.
behind closed doors. a. set/setting
a. Heads of States b. segment/segmental
b. Heads of State c. segmental/ultra-segmental
c. Head of States d. segmental/supra-segmental
d. Head of State
80. One of these is not part of
75. He eats ____________. the point of articulation of
a. quite rather fast consonants
b. rather too fast a. velar
c. rather very fast b. alveolar
d. quite very fast c. palata
d. labio-palata
76. The English Language has
_______ alphabet Choose the word that has the
a. 33 same consonant sound(s) as
b. 26 the one represented by
c. 23 letter(s) underlined from the
d. 24 options lettered A-D.

150
 87. count
81. hang a. civil
a. stingy b. pact
b. tinge c. cease
c. sing d. indict
d. hinge
88. wash
82. wither a. nation
a. healthy b. occasion
b. wealthy c. treasure
c. breath d. equation
d. feather
89. ten
83. find a. depot
a. handsome b. listen
b. sandwich c. attack
c. sandpaper d. Christmas
d. handkerchief
90. zebra
84. pain a. assign
a. coup b. design
b. report c. insist
c. corps d. persist
d. receipt
91. path
85. pleasure a. there
a. vision b. smooth
b. mansion c. warmth
c. regiment d. soothe
d. pressure
92. see
86. baker a. cats
a. debt b. clause
b. lamb c. wars
c. plumber d. boys
d. humble
93. loud

151
a. walk a. wretch
b. shoal b. park
c. yolk c. light
d. should d. surge

100. charge
94. plant a. nonchalant
a. price b. chagrin
b. pistle c. compulsion
c. riddle d. decision
d. couple
Choose the word that has the
95. marks same vowel as the one
a. exist represented by the letter(s)
b. exhaust underlined from the option A-
c. axe D.
d. masque
101. teeth
96. dim a. tilt
a. stopped b. mission
b. walked c. peace
c. shamed d. forfeit
d. asked
102. kid
97. post a. oblique
a. receipt b. courage
b. heap c. caprice
c. pneumonia d. prestige
d. psalm
103. cat
98. vase a. plait
a. off b. wand
b. ferry c. rather
c. of d. harder
d. leafy 104. car
a. plantain
99. rain b. massive

152
c. garment 112. shout
d. matter a. cough
105. bond b. dough
a. hound c. doubt
b. dove d. bought
c. mouth 113. foal
d. stop a. pull
106. could b. pool
a. bully c. pail
b. brush d. pole
c. rude 114. awe
d. poultry a. bale
107. cut b. bore
a. song c. low
b. pull d. bough
c. tongue 115. won
d. lock a. one
108. birth b. con
a. journal c. wan
b. armour d. clone
c. path 116. base
d. tour a. reign
109. share b. bust
a. hair c. chastity
b. clear d. bassoon
c. tier 117. wanted
d. ire a. elder
110. beer b. kid
a. wear c. showed
b. bear d. fed
c. pear 118. jealous
d. real a. admit
111. lose b. outside
a. wood c. mousse
b. wooed d. pout
c. stood 119. Pier
d. good a. liar

153
b. pie d. lazy
c. peers 127. queue
d. pears a. quit
120. lie b. chew
a. loin c. quest
b. python d. church
c. pantheon 128. market
d. sieve a. favourite
121. class b. seed
a. chat c. margarine
b. curse d. sell
c. last 129. many
d. claims a. marry
122. tourism b. said
a. poor c. lamb
b. bare d. money
c. doer 130. young
d. dear a. blood
123. west b. bound
a. mist c. found
b. feast d. loud
c. bait From the list of words lettered A-
d. jest D, choose the one that is most
124. mirth nearly opposite in meaning to
a. much the underlined word and that will
b. word at the same time, correctly fill the
c. myth gap in the sentence.
d. weird 131. At first we found life in the
125. cord town very exciting but soon it
a. fond became rather _______.
b. quote a. tiring
c. gaunt b. disturbing
d. quaint c. burdensome
126. vary d. boring
a. very 132. By working hard, Benjamin
b. veil outshone his elder brother
c. scarce instead of being _______.

154
a. overshadowed 137. Co-operating with teachers
b. defeated promotes learning, it does not
c. demoted help to be __________.
d. submerged a. destructive
133. When we were busy b. confrontational
discussing weighty matters, c. defensive
James introduced a _______ d. irrational
issue. 138. Only two months after the
a. light honour was conferred on the
b. meaningless Minister, his dishonesty made
c. common the Head of State ___________
d. trivial it.
134. The delegates found it a. recall
better to resort to consultation b. reverse
rather than __________. c. revoke
a. conflict d. reclaim
b. confrontation 139. Despite all my attempts to
c. reconciliation refute the charges against me,
d. consent my sister tried to _________
135. This house which was them.
sealed off years ago has now a. defend
been __________. b. prove
a. re-opened c. investigate
b. rebuilt d. maintain
c. re-roofed 140. The government's efforts to
d. restored improve the economy of the
136. The government has country rather _________ it.
decided that, from next year, a. destroyed
military service will no longer be b. spoilt
compulsory; it will be c. complicated
__________. d. worsened
a. free 141. Good teaching stimulates
b. optional the interest of students, whereas
c. open bad teaching __________ it.
d. conditional a. dampens
b. encourages
c. supersedes

155
d. retracts 146. I really like working in that
142. Some youths of this office; I found the ____________
generation are often hard- very friendly.
hearted compared to those of a. condition
past generations who were b. atmosphere
____________. c. air
a. indifferent d. situation
b. fastidious 147. Our teacher's main aim was
c. proficient to _______________ us with his
d. compassionate good work.
143. The doctor does not think a. impress
the patient will recover; the signs b. influence
are ominous rather than ______. c. instruct
a. encouraging d. improve
b. feasible 148. Problems in the city have
c. obvious multiplied with the __________
d. gloomy of people from the rural areas.
144. The purpose of education is a. entrance
to enhance progress and not to b. influx
______________ it. c. intrusion
a. proscribe d. admission
b. intercept 149. It was so hot in the house
c. impede that the boys rushed to the
d. confuse beach to enjoy the
145. The teacher gave him high _____________.
marks and wrote complimentary a. breath
remarks in the margin, which b. wind
surprisingly gave him c. breeze
___________ feelings. d. air
a. doubtful 150. The theif ran so fast that my
b. secret attempt to get him was in
c. unpleasant ____________.
d. serious a. failure
From the words lettered A-D, b. waste
choose the word that best c. futile
completes each of the following d. vain
sentences.

156
151. The hungry refugees had to meaning to the underlined word
queue for their _____________. as it is used in the sentence.
a. allowances 156. It was callous of you to have
b. needs turned down the poor man's
c. supplies request.
d. parcels a. heartless
152. This land is very dry; we b. stupid
have to _____________ the c. rude
plants. d. skilful
a. wet 157. After a long walk, the
b. sprinkle travellers suddenly saw light
c. shower blazing ahead.
d. water a. burning
153. It is not right for you to insult b. shining
your parents; you will just c. glowing
_________ trouble for yourself. d. beaming
a. invite 158. John said nothing during the
b. increase meeting; he just sat there fuming.
c. create a. thinking
d. produce b. lonely
154. The meeeting of the warring c. mumbling
factions ended on a d. angry
_______________ note. 159. The employees hated him
a. cautious because he often abused his
b. properous authority.
c. conciliatory a. insulted
d. definite b. misdirected
155. We cannot tell which of the c. misapplied
historian's ____________ is true. d. exaggerated
a. narrations 160. The minister abridged his
b. versions speech since he had to leave
c. comments early.
d. suggestions a. shortened
From the lettered A-D below, b. hurried
choose the word or group of c. abandoned
words that is nearest in d. stopped

157
161. For rescuing the boy, the a. bypass
policewoman was promoted for b. confront
her gallantry. c. oppose
a. generosity d. challenge
b. bravery 167. The company had satisfied
c. risk. itself that the project was feasible
d. duty before embarking on it.
162. Nora's goal was to become a. easy
a doctor. b. attractive
a. intention c. capable
b. vision d. practicable
c. ambition 168. Though there is no riot on
d. mission the campus, the students are
163. Our staff was very proud restive.
when the school clinched all the a. quiet
prizes. b. chaotic
a. took c. restless
b. won d. busy
c. possessed 169. Mamie complains that her
d. cornered husband often relegates her to
164. The government has the position of a housemaid.
approved a new salary structure a. compares
as an incentive for workers. b. relates
a. a reward c. forces
b. an encouragement d. reduces
c. a package 170. There is no vacancy, so the
d. an advance company no longer recruits staff.
165. The accident victim was a. position
bleeding profusely. b. opening
a. slowly c. room
b. excessively d. place
c. extremely From the word or group of words
d. abundantly lettered A to D, choose the word
166. They have tried to or group of words that best
circumvent the restriction on the completes each of the following
importation of scarce sentences.
commodities.

158
171. The police are committed to b. with
__________ safety of citizens. c. on
a. ensure d. through
b. have ensured 177. Funke's mother prefers
c. ensuring Jane ____________ Ama.
d. be ensuring a. for
172. No sooner had the thief b. than
seen the policemen c. from
______________ he escaped. d. to
a. then 178. You haven't shown any
b. when interest __________ providing
c. that for yourself.
d. than a. towards
173. Our teacher kept us b. for
kneeling ____________ the c. in
whole period. d. at
a. since 179. All workers are expected to
b. for be answerable __________ their
c. in bosses.
d. from a. for
174. I know you now; I b. to
_________ that you could be c. through
trusted. d. towards
a. am thinking 180. The hall was virtually empty;
b. think we had expected one hundred
c. had thought people at the very ________.
d. have been thinking a. lowest
175. The chief, together with his b. most
elders ___________ welcomed c. least
to the durbar. d. highest
a. was 181. We do not have a enough
b. is room; so daddy turned the
c. were garage _________ an additional
d. are bedroom.
176. Our car broke down so we a. into
had to do ___________ foot. b. as
a. by c. for

159
d. to a. me
182. I was looking forward to b. I
__________ from you. [Link]
a. hear d. mine
b. be hearing
c. have heard 188. Our mother asked whether
d. hearing we ____________ our meal.
183. Most governments sink a. will be having
large sum of money b. will have
____________ developing their c. have had
countries. d. had had
a. for
b. into 189. The coffee is still bitter; you
c. by have not added ____________
d. in sugar.
184. It was on Wednesday that a. plenty
we met in Accra ____________? b. some
a. wasn't it c. enough
b. didn't we d. much
c. haven't we
d. isn't it 190. You haven't seen them for a
185. We have waited for too long time, ______________?
long; its high time we a. have you
________________. b. did you
a. have left c. had you
b. leave d. isn't it
c. left 191. This is a bad case,
d. had left ____________ hard you try to
186. I don't believe Banjul is far defend the accused.
from here; it must be ten a. however
kilometres, ____________. b. whatever
a. more and less c. whichever
b. more or less d. whenever
c. more than less
d. less or more 192. ___________ pain has
187. You should not blame me; it been taken to make the party a
is no fault of ____________. success.

160
a. such d. broken down
b. much
c. every 197. ___________ who knows
d. many the times will not open his door
to strangers at night.
193. School children are advised a. somebody
to refrain _____________ b. nobody
smoking. c. anybody
a. with d. everybody
b. against
c. to 198. All the final year students
d. from will attend ______________
194. The principal, as well as the party.
teachers, __________ in school. a. tomorrow's
a. is b. tomorrows'
b. were c. tomorrows
c. all are d. tomorrow
d. are all
199. My friend's son stole the
195. Fatima ___________ come _________ briefcase.
to work today since she is still a. director's-general
sick. b. director-general's
a. needn't had c. dirrectors'-general
b. needn't have d. director-generals'
c. needn't has
d. needn't to 200. This isn't your ring; it is your
________________.
196. Aminita has ____________ a. daughter-in-law
her engagement to Sule. b. daughter-in-law's
a. broken off c. daughters-in-law
b. broken up d. daughter-in-laws
c. broken away

161
 USE OF ENGLISH ANSWERS

1. Ans: B 37. ANS: B

2. ANS: C 38. ANS: D
3. ANS: B 39. ANS: D
4. ANS: C 40. ANS: B
5. ANS: A 41. ANS: C
6. ANS: B 42. ANS: D
7. ANS: D 43. ANS: B
8. ANS: A 44. ANS: C
9. ANS: C 45. ANS: A
10. ANS: B 46. ANS: A
11. ANS: C 47. ANS: D
12. ANS: A 48. ANS: A
13. ANS: B 49. ANS: B
14. ANS: A 50. ANS: D
15. ANS: B 51. ANS: A
16. ANS: C 52. ANS: C
17. ANS: B 53. ANS: B
18. ANS: B 54. ANS: D
19. ANS: B 55. ANS: C
20. ANS: A 56. ANS: A
21. ANS: B 57. ANS: C
22. ANS: A 58. ANS: D
23. ANS: A 59. ANS: C
24. ANS: B 60. ANS: B
25. ANS: B 61. ANS: A
26. ANS: C 62. ANS: A
27. ANS: C 63. ANS: B
28. ANS: B 64. ANS: D
29. ANS: A 65. ANS: C
30. ANS: C 66. ANS: B
31. ANS: C 67. ANS: A
32. ANS: D 68. ANS: D
33. ANS: D 69. ANS: C
34. ANS: B 70. ANS: A
35. ANS: A 71. ANS: C
36. ANS: A 72. ANS: D
162
73. ANS: B 110. ANS:C
74. ANS: B 111. ANS:C
75. ANS: B 112. ANS:C
76. ANS: B 113. ANS:D
77. ANS: D 114. ANS:B
78. ANS: C 115. ANS:A
79. ANS: D 116. ANS:D
80. ANS: D 117. ANS:B
81. ANS: C 118. ANS:B
82. ANS: D 119. ANS:C
83. ANS: C 120. ANS:B
84. ANS: B 121. ANS:C
85. ANS: A 122. ANS:A
86. ANS: D 123. ANS:D
87. ANS: B 124. ANS:D
88. ANS: A 125. ANS:C
89. ANS: C 126. ANS:D
90. ANS: B 127. ANS: B
91. ANS: C 128. ANS:A
92. ANS: A 129. ANS:B
93. ANS: B 130. ANS:A
94. ANS: D 131. ANS:D
95. ANS: C 132. ANS:A
96. ANS: C 133. ANS:D
97. ANS: B 134. ANS:B
98. ANS: C 135. ANS:A
99. ANS: A 136. ANS:B
100. ANS: C 137. ANS:B
101. ANS:C 138. ANS: C
102. ANS:B 139. ANS: D
103. ANS:A 140. ANS: D
104. ANS:C 141. ANS: A
105. ANS:D 142. ANS: D
106. ANS:C 143. ANS: A
107. ANS:C 144. ANS: C
108. ANS:A 145. ANS: C
109. ANS:A 146. ANS: B

163
147. ANS: A 174. ANS: C
148. ANS: B 175. ANS: A
149. ANS: C 176. ANS: C
150. ANS: D 177. ANS: D
151. ANS: C 178. ANS: C
152. ANS: D 179. ANS: B
153. ANS: A 180. ANS: C
154. ANS: C 181. ANS: D
155. ANS: B 182. ANS: D
156. ANS: A 183. ANS: A
157. ANS: B 184. ANS: C
158. ANS: D 185. ANS: B
159. ANS: C 186. ANS: A
160. ANS: A 187. ANS: D
161. ANS: B 188. ANS: B
162. ANS: C 189. ANS: C
163. ANS: B 190. ANS: A
164. ANS. B 191. ANS:A
165. ANS.B 192. ANS:B
166. ANS.A 193. ANS:D
167. ANS.D 194. ANS:D
168. ANS.C 195. ANS:B
169. ANS: D 196. ANS:A
170. ANS: B 197. ANS:C
171. ANS: C 198. ANS:A
172. ANS: D 199. ANS:B
173. ANS: B 200. ANS:B

164
 MATHEMATICS

6. What is the area in cm2 of the

1. What is the average of first 150 shaded region in the diagram
natural numbers? below?
(A) 70
(B) 70.5
(C) 75
(D) 75.5

2. What is the average of the

numbers: 0, 0, 4, 10, 5, and 5 ?
(A) 2 (A) 6
(B) 3 (B) 7
(C) 4 (C) 8
(D) 5 (D) 9

3. What is the rate of discount if a 7. If A completes a particular work

car which price was $4,000 was in 8 days and B completes the
sold for $3,200 ? same work in 24 days. How many
(A) 14% days will it take if they work
(B) 16% together?
(C) 18% (A) 4
(D) 20% (B) 5
(C) 6
4. |–4| + |4| – 4 + 4 = ? (D) 7
(A) 0
(B) 2 8. What comes next in the
(C) 4 sequence: 1, 3, 11, 43, ____ ?
(D) 8 (A) 161
(B) 171
5. What is the value of x in the (C) 181
equation 3x – 15 – 6 = 0 ? (D) 191
(A) 7
(B) 8 9. What is the distance traveled by
(C) 9 a car which traveled at a speed of
(D) –9 80 km/hr for 3 hours and 30
minutes?
(A) 275 km
(B) 280 km 15. What comes next in the
(C) 285 km sequence: 2, 4, 10, 28, ___ ?
(D) 290 km (A) 64
(B) 70
10. In a class of 40 students 20% (C) 76
are girls. How many boys are (D) 82
there in the class?
(A) 26 16. What are the values of x and y
(B) 28 in the following pair of equations
(C) 30
(D) 32
(A) x = −2, y = −6
11. 2 + 2 − 2 × 2 ’ 2 = ? (B) x = 2, y = 6
(A) 0 (C) x = −3, y = −6
(B) 1 (D) x = 3, y = 6
(C) 2
(D) 4 17. How many feet there are in 5
meters? If 1 meter = 3.281 feet.
12. |2| + |–2| + (2)2 + (–2)2 = ? (A) 15.505
(A) 6 (B) 15.905
(B) 8 (C) 16.405
(C) 10 (D) 16.805
(D) 12
18. 0.003 × 0.0004 = ?
13. If x = –1, then what is the (A) 0.0012
value of the function (B) 0.00012
(C) 0.000012
(A) 7 (D) 0.0000012
(B) 9
(C) 11 19. What is average (Arithmetic
(D) 13 Mean) of the numbers: 2, 4, 5, 0,
9, 10, and 12?
14. If (A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
then x = ? 20.
(A) –2 (A) 4096
(B) –1 (B) 4046
(C) 1 (C ) 3096
(D) 2 (D) 3046
21. If A completes a particular (D) 28
work in 4 days and B completes (E) 30
the same work in 12 days. How
many days will it take if they work 26. What is the number, if 40% of
together? the number is 380?
(A) 1 (A) 930
(B) 2 (B) 935
(C) 3 (C) 940
(D) 4 (D) 945
(E) 5 (E) 950

22. In the total investment of 27. A boy sold his bicycle for
$500,000, B‘s share is 20%. While $2400 and earned 20% profit.
A‘s share is 40% of the B‘s. What What was the original price (the
is the share of A? price without the profit) of the
(A) $32,000 bicycle?
(B) $34,000 (A) $1940
(C) $36,000 (B) $1960
(D) $38,000 (C) $1980
(E) $40,000 (D) $2000
(E) $2020
23. If the cost of 12 eggs is $40.
What will be the cost of 3 eggs? 28. What comes next in the
(A) $9 sequence: 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, ____?
(B) $10 (A) 110
(C) $11 (B) 120
(D) $12 (C) 130
(E) $13 (D) 140
(E) 150
24. If the sum of two numbers is
16, and their product is 63. Then 29. What is the 81st number in the
the larger number is sequence: 1, 4, 7, 10, ………,
(A) 9 a81 = ?
(B) 10 (A) 237
(C) 11 (B) 241
(D) 12 (C) 245
(E) 13 (D) 249
(E) 253
25. The sum of three consecutive
even numbers is 78. What is the 30. Suppose Rs.1,000 is
largest number? deposited into a savings account
(A) 22 that earns Compounded interest at
(B) 24 a rate of 5%. How much will be in
(C) 26 the account after 2 years if the
interest is compounded annually? (B) –6
(A) Rs.1102.5 (C) –4
(B) Rs.1110.5 (D) –2
(C) Rs.1112.5
(D) Rs.1120.5 37. What is the sum of the
(E) Rs.1122.5 sequence: 2+4+6+ ….. +98+100 =
?
31. 1, 2, 5, 14, __________? (A) 2450
(A) 38 (B) 2500
(B) 39 (C) 2550
(C) 40 (D) 2600
(D) 41
38. What is the sum of the
32. The value of the numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, ….. 99, 100 ?
function at i (A) 5000
s? (B) 5050
(A) 1 (C) 5100
(B) –1 (D) 5150
(C) 2
(D) –2 39. In a class of 60 students the
ratio of boys to girls is 3:2. How
33. many girls are there in the class?
(A) 0 (A) 21
(B) 1 (B) 22
(C) 32 (C) 23
(D) –32 (D) 24

34. What is the sum of the first 12 40. What is the volume of a right-
numbers of the series: 2 , 6, 10, circular cylinder in cm² having
14, …. ? radius 2cm and height 7cm?
(A) 260 (A) 86 cm2
(B) 268 (B) 88 cm2
(C) 280 (C) 90 cm2
(D) 288 (D) 92 cm2

35. What is the inverse of the 41. What is the average of the
function numbers: 2, 5, 0, 10, 10, 12, 8 and
(A) 9?
(B) (A) 6
(C) (B) 7
(D) (C) 8
(D) 9
36.
(A) –8
42. If 75 percent of a number is y. internet connection, 15% use
And, 80 percent of y is 60, then PTCL internet service. How many
what is the number? people have internet service other
(A) 100 than PTCL?
(B) 110 (A) 3,000
(C) 120 (B) 7,000
(D) 130 (C) 12,000
(D) 17,000
43. The cost of an article is
Rs.160. What should be the 47. A car parking charges n
selling price in rupees to obtain a dollars for the first hour, and m
profit of 15 percent? pence for every additional hour.
(A) 180 What amount it will charge if a car
(B) 182 stayed for 5 hours?
(C) 184 (A) n + 5m
(D) 186 (B) n + 4m
(C) m + 4n
44. There are 20 Multiple Choice (D) m + 5n
Questions (MCQs) in an exam
with 4 options in every question. A 48. What is the value of x in the
student attempted the exam just equation: 0.2x − 0.03 = 0.4 × 0.05
on random guessing. How many ?
questions (according to (A) 0.20
probability) he will attempt (B) 0.02
correctly? (C) 0.25
(A) 4 (D) 0.025
(B) 5
(C) 6 49. Bilal‘s salary is 120% of
(D) 7 Ahmed salary. And, Saba‘s salary
is 60% of Ahmed‘s salary. The
45. A person preparing for total of all three salaries is
Olympics Games ran 9 km in 1 Rs.112,000. What is Saba‘s
hour and 20 minutes, and then 12 salary?
km in 1 hour and 40 minutes. (A) Rs.24,000
What is the average speed in (B) Rs.24,500
km/hr? (C) Rs.25,000
(A) 4 km/hr (D) Rs.25,500
(B) 5 km/hr
(C) 6 km/hr 50. What is the solution set of the
(D) 7 km/hr equation:
(A) {1, 3}
46. In a town of population (B) {–1, 3}
100,000, 20% have internet (C) {1, –3}
connection. And those who have (D) {–1, –3}
 MATHEMATICS ANSWERS NUMBERS 1-50

1. (D) 75.5

2. (C) 4
3. (D) 20%
4. (D) 8
5. (A) 7
6. (A) 6 26. (E) 950
7. (C) 6 27. (D) $2000
8. (B) 171 28. (B) 120
9. (B) 280 km 29. (B) 241
10. (D) 32 30. (A) Rs.1102.5
11. (C) 2 31. (D) 41
12. (D) 12 32. (B) –1
13. (A) 7 33. (A) 0
14. (B) –1 34. (D) 288
15. (D) 82 35. (D)
16. (D) x = 3, y = 6 36. (A) –8
17. (C) 16.405 37. (C) 2550
18. (D) 0.0000012 38. (B) 5050
19. (B) 6 39. (D) 24
20. (A) 4096 40. (B) 88 cm2
21. (C) 3 41. (B) 7
22. (E) $40,000 42. (A) 100
23. (B) $10 43. (C) 184
24. (A) 9 44. (B) 5
25. (D) 28 45. (D) 7 km/hr
21. (C) 3 46. (D) 17,000
22. (E) $40,000 47. (B) n + 4m
23. (B) $10 48. (C) 0.25
24. (A) 9 49. (A) Rs.24,000
25. (D) 28 50. (D) {–1, –3}
 MATHEMATICS SOLUTIONS NUMBERS 1-50

(1) D 7. (C)

(2) C
Here total numbers are 6. So,
add all the numbers and divide 8. (B)
by 6.

(3) D
9. (B)

10. (D)

(4) D

11. (C) Apply DMAS Rule (First

(5) A division, then multiplication, then
addition, and subtraction in the
last).

6. (A) Here, base of the triangle

is 4cm and its height is 3cm.
Hence, area of the triangle is

12. D
13. A

14. B

17. C

15. D 18. D

16. D 19. B

20. A
 24.

21.

22.
25.

23. If 12 eggs are of 40, then 1

egg = . So, 3 eggs =

26.
27. 32. B

33. A

34. D This is an arithmetic

28. sequence with common
difference of 4. The first element
is 2, and total elements are 12.
So, a1 = 1, d = 3 and n = 12. So,
by using the formula of nth term
of an arithmetic sequence, first
we will find the 12th term

29. This is arithmetic sequence

with common difference 3. The
first number is 1, and we have to
find 81st number. Using formula Now, by using the formula for the
for the nth number in an sum of n elements of an
arithmetic sequence, we have arithmetic sequence, we have

30. For solution, please see

Example 1(a)

31. D
35. D have

39. (D)

40. (B) Here, r=2 and h=7.

36. (A) Hence, by using formula for
finding volume of a right-circular
cylinder, we have

37. (C) This is an arithmetic

sequence with common
difference of 2. The first element 41. (B)
is 2, the last element is 100, and
total elements (from 2 to 100) are
50. So, a1 = 2, an = 100, d = 2
and n = 50. So, by using the
formula for the sum of n
elements of an arithmetic
sequence, we have
42. (A)

38. (B) These are the first 100

natural numbers (n=100). So, by
applying formula for the sum of
the first n natural numbers, we
43. (C) As we know that, Cost + 48. (C)
Profit = Selling Price. Hence,

44. (B) Out of 4 options only one 49. (A) Let Ahmed‘s salary = A,
is correct. So, Bilal‘s salary = 120% of A,
Saba‘s salary is 60% of A, and
total salaries = 112,000, then

45. (D) Total Distance = 9km +

12km = 21 km. And, Total Time =
1 hour 20 + 1 hour 40 = 3 hours.
Hence, Average Speed is

46. (D)

50. (D)

47. (B) First hour charges = n,

remaining 4 hour charges = 4m.
Total charges = n + 4m
 opening upward and has a vertex
on the x-axis. The graph of the
51. If Logx (1 / 8) = - 3 / 2, then
new function g defined by g(x) =
x is equal to
2 - f(x - 5) has a range defined by
A. - 4
the interval
B. 4
A. [ -5 , + infinity)
C. 1 / 4
B. [ 2 , + infinity)
D. 10
C. ( - infinity , 2]
D. ( - infinity , 0]
52. 20 % of 2 is equal to
A. 20
B. 4
56. f is a function such that f(x)
C. 0.4
< 0. The graph of the new
D. 0.04
function g defined by g(x) = | f(x)
| is a reflection of the graph of f
53. If Log 4 (x) = 12, then
A. on the y axis
log 2 (x / 4) is equal to
B. on the x axis
A. 11
C. on the line y = x
B. 48
D. on the line y = - x
C. -12
D. 22
57. If the graph of y = f(x) is
transformed into the graph of 2y -
54. The population of a country
6 = - 4 f(x - 3), point (a , b) on the
increased by an average of 2%
graph of y = f(x) becomes point
per year from 2000 to 2003. If
(A , B) on the graph of 2y - 6 = -
the population of this country
4 f(x - 3) where A and B are
was 2 000 000 on December 31,
given by
2003, then the population of this
A. A = a - 3, B = b
country on January 1, 2000, to
B. A = a - 3, B = b
the nearest thousand would have
C. A = a + 3, B = -2 b
been
D. A = a + 3, B = -2 b +3
A. 1 846 000
B. 1 852 000
58. When a parabola
C. 1 000 000
represented by the equation y -
D. 1 500 000
2x 2 = 8 x + 5 is translated 3
units to the left and 2 units up,
55. f is a quadratic function
the new parabola has its vertex
whose graph is a parabola
at 62. The three solutions of the
A. (-5 , -1) equation f(x) = 0 are -2, 0, and 3.
B. (-5 , -5) Therefore, the three solutions of
C. (-1 , -3) the equation f(x - 2) = 0 are
D. (-2 , -3) A. - 4, -2, and 1
B. -2, 0 and 3
59. The graphs of the two C. 4, 2, and 5
linear equations a x + b y = c and D. 0, 2 and 5
b x - a y = c, where none of the
coefficients a, b, c is equal to 63. The three solutions of the
zero, equation f(x) = 0 are - 4, 8, and
A. are parallel 11. Therefore, the three solutions
B. intersect at the point (0,0) of the equation f(2 x) = 0 are
C. intersect at two points A. - 2, 4, and 11/2
D. perpendicular B. - 8, 16 and 22
C. - 4, 8, and 11
60. The graphs of the two D. 2, 19 / 2 and 7 / 2
equations y = a x 2 + b x + c and
y = A x 2 + B x + C, such that a 64. A school committee
and A have different signs and consists of 2 teachers and 4
that the quantities b 2 - 4 a c and students. The number of different
B 2 - 4 A C are both negative, committees that can be formed
A. intersect at two points from 5 teachers and 10 students
B. intersect at one point is
C. do not intersect A. 10
D. none of the above B. 15
C. 2100
61. For x greater than or equal D. 8
to zero and less than or equal to
2 π, sin x and cos x are both 65. Five different books (A, B,
decreasing on the intervals C, D and E) are to be arranged
A. (0 , π/2) on a shelf. Books C and D are to
B. (π/2 , π) be arranged first and second
C. (π , 3 π / 2) starting from the right of the
D. (3 π / 2 , 2 π) shelf. The number of different
orders in which books A, B and E
may be arranged is
A. 5! C. neither odd nor even
B. 3! D. even and odd
C. 2!
D. 3! * 2! 69. The period of | sin (3x) | is
A. 2 π
66. The mean of a data set is B. 2 π / 3
equal to 10 and its standard C. π / 3
deviation is equal to 1. If we add D. 3 π
5 to each data value, then the
mean and standard deviation 70. When a metallic ball
become bearing is placed inside a
A. mean = 15 , standard cylindrical container, of radius 2
deviation = 6 cm, the height of the water,
B. mean = 10 , standard inside the container, increases
deviation = 6 by 0.6 cm. The radius, to the
C. mean = 15 , standard nearest tenth of a centimeter, of
deviation = 1 the ball bearing is
D. mean = 10 , standard A. 1 cm
deviation = 1 B. 1.2 cm
C. 2 cm
67. The exam scores of all 500 D. 0.6 cm
students were recorded and it
was determined that these 71. The period of 2 sin x cos x
scores were normally distributed. is
If Jane's score is 0.8 standard A. 4 π 2
deviation above the mean, then B. 2 π
how many, to the nearest unit, C. 4 π
students scored above Jane? D. π
A. 394
B. 250 72. The probability that an
C. 400 electronic device produced by a
D. 106 company does not function
properly is equal to 0.1. If 10
68. If f(x) is an odd function, devices are bought, then the
then | f(x) | is probability, to the nearest
A. an odd function thousandth, that 7 devices
B. an even function function properly is
A. 0.057 C. 0.001
B. 0.478 D. 0

ANSWERS FOR NUMBERS 51 TO 72

51. 1B 63. 13A

52. 2C 64. 14C
53. 3D 65. 15B
54. 4A 66. 16C
55. 5C 67. 17D
56. 6B 68. 18B
57. 7D 69. 19C
58. 8A 70. 20B
59. 9D 71. 21D
60. 10C 72. 22A
61. 11B
62. 12D
 SOLUTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS FOR NUMBERS 51 TO 72

51. x- 3 / 2 = 1 / 8
The above equation may be rewritten as
x - 3 / 2 = 1 / 23 = 2-3
(√x)-3 = 2-3
The above equation gives
√x = 2 or x = 4
20 % of 2 = (20 / 100) * 2 = 0.4

If Log 4 (x) = 12, then

x = 412
x / 4 = 411
Hence
log 2 (x / 4) = log 2 (411)
= log 2 ((22)11)
= log 2 (222)
= 22

A population of size P increasing at the rate of 2% may be modelled as follows

P = P0 e0.02 t , where t is the number of years after t = 0 and P0 is the population at
t = 0.
Let t = 0 corresponds to January 1, 2000 and therefore t = 4 corresponds to
December 31. But P is 2,000,000 when t = 4. Hence
2,000,000 = P0 e0.02*4
Solve the above for P0
P0 = 2,000,000 / e0.02*4 = 1 846 000 (rounded to the nearest thousand)
P0 is the population at t = 0 or on January 1, 2000.

If the graph of f is a parabola with vertex on x axis and opening up, then the range of
f is given by the interval
[0 , + infinity)
The graph of f(x - 5) is that of f(x) shifted 5 units to the right and therefore no change
to the range. However since the graph of - f(x - 5) is that of f(x - 5) reflected on the x
axis then the range of - f(x - 5) is given by
(- infinity , 0]
The graph g(x) = 2 - f(x - 5) is that of - f(x - 5) shifted up by 2 units; hence the range
of g(x) is given by
(- infinity , 2]

Note that since f(x) < 0 then

g(x) = | f(x) | = - f(x)
The graph of g(x) = - f(x) is therefore the reflection of the graph of f on the x axis.

We first solve 2y - 6 = - 4 f(x - 3) for y.

y = - 2 f(x - 3) + 3
The graph of y = - 2 f(x - 3) + 3 is that of y = f(x) shifted 3 units to the right, stretched
vertically by a factor of 2, reflected on the x axis and shifted up by 3 units. A point of
y = f(x) will undergo the same transforamtions. Hence
Point (a , b) on the graph of y = f(x)

Becomes (a + 3 , b) on the graph of y = f(x - 3) : shifted 3 units to the right

Becomes ( a + 3 , 2 b) on the graph of y = 2 f(x - 3) : stretched vertically by 2
Becomes ( a + 3 , - 2 b) on the graph of y = - 2 f(x - 3): reflected on x axis
Becomes ( a + 3 , - 2 b + 3) on the graph of y = - 2 f(x - 3) + 3 : shifted up 3 units

First rewrite y - 2x 2 = 8 x + 5 as
y = 2x 2 + 8 x + 5
Complete square and determine vertex.
y = 2(x 2 + 4x + 4) - 8 + 5
= 2(x + 2) 2 - 3
vertex at (- 2 , - 3)
If parabola is translated 3 units to the left and 2 units up its vertex is also translated
3 units to the right and 2 units up .
vertex after translations is at: (-2 - 3 , - 3 + 2) = (-5 , -1)

let us find the slopes of the two lines

a x + b y = c , slope m1 = - a / b
b x - a y = c , slope m2 = b / a
m1*m2 = (- a / b)(b / a) = - 1
The two lines are perpendicular

Since a and A have different signs the graphs of the two equations are parabolas
opening in diffent directions: If one opens up the other opens down. Also since b 2 -
4 a c and B 2 - 4 A C are both negative, none of the parabola cuts the x axis. This
means that each one of these parabolas is either above the x axis or below the x
axis and therefore do not intersect.

sin(0) = 0 and cos(0) = 1, and from x = 0 to x = pi/2, sin(x) increases from 0 to 1 and
cos(x) decreases from 1 to 0. From x = pi/2 to x = pi, sin(x) decreases from 1 to 0
and cos(x) decreases from 0 to -1. Hence both sin(x) and cos(x) decreases on the
interval (pi/2 , pi)

If f(x) = 0 at x = -2, 0 and 3 then f(x - 2) = 0 for

x - 2 = -2 , x - 2 = 0 and x - 2 = 3
Solve the above equations to find
x = 0 , x = 2 and x = 5

If f(x) = 0 at x = - 4, 8 and 11 then f(2x) = 0 for

2x = -4 , 2x = 8 and 2x = 11
Solve the above equations to find
x = -2 , x = 4 and x = 11/2

There are C(5,2) ways to select 2 teachers from 5 and C(10,4) ways to select 4
students from 10 where C(n,r) is the combinations of n items taken r at the time.
Using the multiplication counting principle, the number of different committees that
can be formed is given by
C(5,2)*C(10,4) = 2100

Since books C and D are arranged first and second, only books A, B and E will
change order. Therefore it is an arrangement problem involving 3 items and the
number of different order is given by
3! = 6

Since 5 is added to all data values, the mean will also increase by 5 and becomes
15. But the standard deviation which measure the "distance" between the mean and
the data values does not change.

Let m be the mean and s be the standard deviation and find the z score.
z = (x - m) /s = (0.8 s + m - m) / s = 0.8
The percentage of student who scored above Jane is (from table of normal
distribution).
1 - 0.7881 = 0.2119 = 21.19%
The number of student who scored above Jane is (from table of normal distribution).
21.19% 0f 500 = 106
Since f(x) is odd, we have
f(-x) = - f(x)
Let g(x) = |f(x)|.
g(- x) = |f(- x)| = |- f(x)) = |f(x)| = g(x)
|f(x)| is even.

The period of sin (3x) is given by

2 pi / 3
In order to graph |sin(3x)| given the graph of sin(3x), we need to reflect all neagtive
parts of the graph of sin(3x) which halves the period. Hence the peiod of |sin(3x)| is
given by
(2 pi / 3) / 2 = pi / 3

When the ball was put in water, the volume of water increased by.
pi*22*0.6 = 2.4 pi cubic cm
The above volume is equal to the volume of the ball with radius r to find. Hence
(4/3)*pi*r3 = 2.4 pi
Solve the above for r
r = 1.2 cm

According to trigonometric identities, 2 sin x cos x = sin(2x) and the period is given
by.
2 pi / 2 = pi

Let q being the probability a device does not function properly and p = 1 - q = 0.9 the
probability that a device functions properly. Since there are only two possible
results, it is a binomial distribution. The P probability that 7 out of 10 devices
function properly is given by
C(10,7)*0.9 7*0.1 3 , where C(10,7) is the number of ways that 7 items are selected
from 10 and is given by
P = C(10,7) = 10! / (7!3!)
A calculation of P gives
P = 0.057

73. Combine terms: 12a + 26b -4b – (d) 28a + 30b.

16a.

(a) 4a + 22b, Solution:

(b) -28a + 30b, 12a + 26b -4b – 16a.

(c) -4a + 22b,
= 12a – 16a + 26b – 4b.
= -4a + 22b. = 26.

Answer: (c) Answer: (b)

74. Simplify: (4 – 5) – (13 – 18 + 2). 76. Multiply: (x – 4)(x + 5)

(a) -1, (a) x2 + 5x - 20,

(b) –2, (b) x2 - 4x - 20,

(c) 1, (c) x2 - x - 20,

(d) 2. (d) x2 + x - 20.

Solution: Solution:

(4 – 5) – (13 – 18 + 2). (x – 4)(x + 5).

= -1-(13+2-18). = x(x + 5) -4(x + 5).

= -1-(15-18). = x2 + 5x – 4x – 20.

= -1-(-3). = x2 + x - 20.

= -1+3. Answer: (d)

= 2. 77. Factor: 5x2 – 15x – 20.

Answer: (d) (a) 5(x-4)(x+1),

75. What is |-26|? (b) -2(x-4)(x+5),

(a) -26, (c) -5(x+4)(x-1),

(b) 26, (d) 5(x+4)(x+1).

(c) 0,
Solution:
(d) 1
5x2 – 15x – 20.

Solution: = 5(x2 – 3x – 4).

|-26| = 5(x2 – 4x + x – 4).

= 5{x(x - 4) +1(x - 4)}. or, 5x = 4y + 24.

= 5(x-4)(x+1). or, x = (4y + 24)/5.

Answer: (a). Therefore, x = 4(y + 6)/5.

78. Factor: 3y(x – 3) -2(x – 3). Answer: (b).

(a) (x – 3)(x – 3), 80. Simplify:(4x2 - 2x) - (-5x2 - 8x).

(b) (x – 3)2,
Solution:
(c) (x – 3)(3y – 2),
(4x2 - 2x) - (-5x2 - 8x)
(d) 3y(x – 3).
Solution: = 4x2 - 2x + 5x2 + 8x.

3y(x – 3) -2(x – 3). = 4x2 + 5x2 - 2x + 8x.

= (x – 3)(3y – 2). = 9x2 + 6x.

Answer: (c). = 3x(3x + 2).

79. Solve for x: 2x – y = (3/4)x + 6. Answer: 3x(3x + 2)

(a) (y + 6)/5,
81. Find the value of 3 + 2 • (8 – 3)
(b) 4(y + 6)/5,
(a) 25,
(c) (y + 6),
(b) 13,
(d) 4(y - 6)/5.
(c) 17,

Solution: (d) 24,

2x – y = (3/4)x + 6. (e) 15.

or, 2x - (3/4)x = y + 6.
Solution:
or, (8x -3x)/4 = y + 6.
3 + 2 • (8 – 3)
or, 5x/4 = y + 6.
= 3 + 2 (5)
or, 5x = 4(y + 6).
=3+2×5 = w3(42 - ((u2)2).

= 3 + 10 = w3(4 + u2)(4 - u2).

= 13 = w3(4 + u2)(22 - u2).

Answer: (d) = w3(4 + u2)(2 + u)(2 - u).

82. Rice weighing 33/4 pounds was Answer: w3(4 + u2)(2 + u)(2 - u).
divided equally and placed in 4
containers. How many ounces of rice
were in each?
84. Factor: 3x4y3 – 48y3.

Solution:
Solution:
33/4 ÷ 4 pounds.
3x4y3– 48y3.
= (4 × 3 + 3)/4 ÷ 4 pounds.
= 3y3(x4 – 16).
= 15/4 ÷ 4 pounds.
= 3y3[(x2)2 - 42].
= 15/4 × 1/4 pounds.
= 3y3(x2 + 4)(x2 - 4).
= 15/16 pounds.
= 3y3(x2 + 4)(x2 - 22).
Now we know that, 1 pound = 16
ounces. = 3y3(x2 + 4)(x + 2)(x -2).

Therefore, 15/16 pounds = 15/16 × Answer: 3y3(x2 + 4)(x + 2)(x -2)

16 ounces.

= 15 ounces. 85. What is the radius of a circle that

has a circumference of 3.14 meters?
Answer: 15 ounces.

Solution:
83. Factor: 16w3 – u4w3
Circumference of a circle = 2πr.

Solution: Given, circumference = 3.14 meters.

16w3 – u4w3. Therefore,

= w3(16 – u4). 2πr = Circumference of a circle

or, 2πr = 3.14. 94. Who discovered the laws of the
lever and pulley?
or, 2 × 3.14r = 3.14,[Putting the value Answer: Archimedes
of pi (π) = 3.14].
95. Scientist who was born on Pi
or, 6.28r = 3.14. Day?
Answer: Albert Einstein
or, r = 3.14/6.28.
96. Who discovered Pythagoras
or, r = 0.5. Theorem?
Answer: Pythagoras of Samos
Answer: 0.5 meter.
97. Who discovered the Symbol
Infinity ―∞‖?
86. Who is the Father of Answer: John Wallis
Mathematics?
Answer: Archimedes 98. Father of Algebra?
Answer: Muhammad ibn Musa al-
87. Who discovered Zero (0)? Khwarizmi (Persian Mathematician)
Answer: Aryabhatta, AD 458
99. Who discovered Fibonacci
88. Explanation: Aryabhatta invented Sequence?
zero but he didn‘t give any symbol for Answer: Leonardo Pisano Bigollo
zero, Answer: Brahmagupta was the
first to give a symbol for zero and 100. First person to use the Greek
rules to compute with zero. letter pi (π) to denote the constant?
Answer: William Jones in 1706
89. What is the average of the first
50 natural numbers? 101. Who discovered Logarithms and
Answer: 25.5 the Decimal point?
Answer: John Napier
90. When is Pi Day celebrated
around the world? 102. Who invented the equals sign (=)
Answer: March 14 ?
Answer: Robert Recorde
91. The value of Pi?
Answer: 3.14159 103. Who invented the Slide rule?
Answer: William Oughtred
92. Value of cos 360°?
Answer: 1 104. Who invented Protractor?
Answer: Joseph Huddart
93. Angle greater than 180 degrees
but less than 360 degrees are called? 105. Who discovered the center of
Answer: Reflex Angles gravity?
Answer: Archimedes
106. Where was Abacus invented?
Answer: China 119. Write the next number of the
following Sequences 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8,
107. Who created the symbol ‗e‘ ? 13,_?
Answer: Leonhard Euler Answer: 21

108. Which Greek Mathematician was 120. Who invented Unit Vectors i, j, k
killed by Romans during the capture ?
of Syracuse? Answer: William Rowan Hamilton
Answer: Archimedes
121. Who created the BODMAS rule?
109. Who developed an easy method Answer: Achilles Reselfelt
to find out all the Prime Numbers?
Answer: Eratosthenes 122. Who discovered the Square Root
symbol √ ?
110. Euler‘s Formula? Answer: Christoph Rudolff
Answer: Euler discovered two
Important formulas 123. Who invented Statistical Graph?
1) F + V = E + 2 Answer: William Playfair
2) e ix = cos x + i sin x
124. 38. Who is considered as the
111. Father of Trigonometry? Father of Calculus?
Answer: Hipparchus Answer: Isaac Newton and Gottfried
Leibniz
112. Father of Science?
Answer: Galileo Galilei 125. Who is the Father of Analytic
Geometry?
113. Who discovered Line Graph, Bar Answer: René Descartes and Pierre
Chart, Circle Graph? de Fermat
Answer: William Playfair
126. Which numbers were believed to
114. Who discovered ∇ (delta)? Promote Love?
Answer: William Rowan Hamilton Answer: Amicable numbers

115. Who invented Boolean Algebra? 127. Who Developed Taylor

Answer: George Boole in 1847 series expansions of Trigonometric
Functions?
116. Who invented Unknown or Answer: Madhava of Sangamagrama
variable quantities x, y, z ?
Answer: René Descartes 128. Who discovered the Law of
gravity?
117. Who discovered Graph Theory? Answer: Sir Isaac Newton
Answer: Leonhard Euler
129. Who created ‖ i ‖ (√-1) as an
118. Value of Napier‘s constant ‗e‘ ? Imaginary Number?
Answer: e ≈ 2.71828 Answer: Leonhard Euler
 140. What do we call people who
130. Who discovered Multiplication? have a ―Fear of Numbers‖ ?
Answer: William Oughtred Answer: Numerophobia

131. Father of Geometry? 141. Name of the symbol ∇ ?

Answer: Euclid of Alexandria Answer: Nabla
(Commonly known as Euclid)
142. Who introduced the term
―function‖ in Mathematics?
132. Who constructed the first Answer: Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz
Trigonometric Table?
Answer: Hipparchus 143. Who introduced the notation for
a function y = f(x)?
133. Who discovered Hyperbolic Sine Answer: Leonhard Euler
and cosine ―Sinh and Cosh‖?
Answer: Vincenzo Riccati 144. Name of the symbol ≡ ?
Answer: Equivalence Relation and
[Link] device that has Modulus
Beads?
Answer: Abacus 145. Name of the Symbol ( ) ?
Answer: Parentheses
134. How many Zeros are there in
One Billion? 146. Name of the Symbol ⊥ ?
Answer: 9 (nine) Answer: Perpendicular

135. Who discovered Derivatives? 147. What is the other name of

Answer: Gottfried Leibniz Multiplication Sign ―X‖ ?
Answer: Times Sign

136. Who discovered Differential 148. Name of the Symbol ≜ ?

Equations dx ? Answer: Equal by definition
Answer: Gottfried Leibniz
149. Name of the Symbol ∑ ?
137. Who discovered Summation ∑ ? Answer: Sigma
Answer: Srinivasa Ramanujan
150. Name of the Symbol ∏ ?
138. Who discovered the Product Answer: Capital Pi
sign ∏ ?
Answer: Carl Friedrich Gauss 151. Name of the Symbol φ ?
Answer: Golden ratio

139. Which Symbol did Karl 152. Name of the Symbol ⇒ ?

Weierstrass Invent? Answer: Implies
Answer: |x|
153. Name of the Symbol ∴ ?
Answer: Therefore
154. The total number of dots on a 167. Who discovered + and – ?
dice? Answer: Johannes Widman
Answer: 21
168. Who discovered intersection ∩
155. What is the Number system of and union ∪ ?
these letters V, X, L, D, M ? Answer: Giuseppe Peano
Answer: Roman Numerals
169. What is the next Prime Number
156. Who discovered the empty after 13?
set sign ∅ (null)? Answer: 17
Answer: André Weil
170. Which is the only number that
157. Roman Number of 40? cannot be used as a Divisor?
Answer: XL Answer: Zero

158. What Number that is twice the 171. Who is known as the prince of
sum of their digits (other than zero)? Mathematics in India?
Answer: 18 Answer: Srinivasa Ramanujan

159. Which is the only even Prime 172. Who said the phrase ―Number
Number? rules the Universe‖?
Answer: 2 Answer: Pythagoras

160. Roman Number of 50? 173. Which number is Known as

Answer: L Ramanujan-Hardy Number?
Answer: 1729
161. Roman Number of 60?
Answer: LX 174. What is the name of the number
system with base 2?
162. Roman Number of 70? Answer: Binary
Answer: LXX
175. How many seconds are there in
163. Roman Number of 90? one hour?
Answer: XC Answer: 3600 Seconds

164. Roman Number of 100? 176. Who discovered the identity sign
Answer: C ≡ (for congruence relation)?
Answer: Carl Friedrich Gauss
165. Find the missing number in the
series 5, 10, 17, _, 37, 50, 65, 82? 177. Which number system does not
Answer: 26 have the symbol for zero?
Answer: Roman Numerals
166. Which is the smallest Perfect
Number? 178. Who discovered Number Line?
Answer: 6 Answer: John Wallis
179. Who discovered strict 190. What is the other name of the
inequality signs < and > ? Perimeter of a Circle?
Answer: Thomas Harriot Answer: Circumference

180. What number do we get when 191. Riya ranked 8th from the top &
we multiply all of the numbers on a 26th from the bottom in a class. How
Telephone Number Pad? many students are there in the class?
Answer: Zero Answer: 33

181. Who discovered the division sign 192. Who is the Father of
÷? Mathematics?
Answer: Johann Rahn Answer: Archimedes

182. Who discovered the ⌊x⌋ greatest 193. Who discovered Zero (0)?
integer ≤ x (floor) and ⌈x⌉ smallest Answer: Aryabhatta,
integer ≥ x (ceiling)?
Answer: Kenneth E. Iverson 194. What is the average of the first
50 natural numbers?
183. What is the name for the longest Answer: 25.5
side of a Right Angled Triangle?
Answer: Hypotenuse 195. When is Pi Day celebrated
around the world?
184. Which number does not have a Answer: March 14
Reciprocal?
Answer: zero 196. The value of Pi?
Answer: 3.14159
185. Who discovered Mathematical
Induction? 197. Value of cos 360°?
Answer: Giovanni Vacca Answer: 1

186. What Phobia is the fear of 198. Angle greater than 180 degrees
Numbers? but less than 360
Answer: Arithmophobia degrees are called?
Answer: Reflex Angles
187. How many zeros are there in
One Trillion? 199. The expression ax^2 + bx takes
Answer: 12 Zeros the value 6 when x = 1 and 10 when
(1,000,000,000,000) x = 2. Find its values when x = 5
a. 10
188. What comes after a Trillion?
Answer: Quadrillion b. 12

189. Name the Polygon that has 15 c. 6

Sides?
Answer: Pentadecagon
d. -10 203. If a√5 + b √2 is the square root
of 95-30√10, the values of a and b
ANSWER: A (10) are, respectively
200. The indefinite integral of xe^x, for
any real constant is a. 5, 2

a. C b. 2, -5

b. x + e^x + C c. -5, 3

c. x^2 + e^x + C d. 3, -5

d. e^x(x-1) + C ANSWER: D (3, -5)

ANSWER: D ( e^x(x-1) + C ) 204. Factorise completely 8p +

125py^3
201. A cone has a base radius of 4
cm and a height of 3 cm. The area of a. (2p+5y^2)(4+25py)
its curved surface is
b. (2+5y)(4-10y+25y^2)
a. 12 pi cm^2
c. (2p+5yx-10py+25y^2)
b. 20 pi cm^2
d. (2+5y)(4+10y+25y^2)
c. 24 pi cm^2
ANSWER: B (2+5y)(4-10y+25y^2)
d. 251 pi cm^2 205. Two fair dice are rolled. What is
the probability that both show up the
ANSWER: B (20 pi cm^2) same number of point?

202. 4The sum of the first five terms a. 1/36

0f the series 4+2+1… is
b. 7/36
a. 12
c. 1/2
b. -12
d. 1/6
c. -6
ANSWER: D (1/6)
d. 31/4
206. A bag contains 5 yellow balls, 6
ANSWER: D (31/4) green balls and 9 black balls. A ball is
drawn from the bag. What is the
probability that it is black or yellow b. -2, 1
ball
c. -2, -1
a. 37/160
d. 0, 1
b. 133/400
ANSWER: A ( -6, -9 )
C. 7/10
D. 133/800 210. The expression a^3+b^3 is equal
to
ANSWER: C (7/10)
a. (a^2+b)(a-ab+b^2)
207. If x = 1 is the root of the equation
x^3 -2x^2- 5x +6, find the other roots b. (a+b)(a^2-ab+b^2)

a. -3 and 2 c. (a-b)(a^2-ab+b)

b. 2 and 2 d. (a-b)(a^2+ab+b^2)

c. 3 and -2
ANSWER: B (a+b)(a^2-ab+b^2)
d. 1 and 3
211. The interior angles of a pentagon
ANSWER: C (3 and -2) are: 180 degrees, 118 degrees, 78
degrees, 84 degrees, and x. The
208. If 27^x = 9^(x-y), then the value of x is?
formula connecting x and y is
a. 75 degrees
a. x+2y = 0
b. 80 degrees
b. x-2y = 0
c. 120 degrees
c. x^2+2y^2 = 0
d. 134 degrees
d. x+2y = 1
ANSWER: B (80 degrees)
ANSWER: A ( x+2y = 0 )
212. Find the value of k which makes
209. The expression px^3+2qx^2+24 the expression y^2+2(k+1)y+k+3
has x-1 and x+2 as factors. The perfect square
values of p and q are respectively?
a. -1, 1
a. -6, -9
B. 2, -2
C. 1, -2 D. 3p

D. -1, 2 ANSWER: B (3p/2)

ANSWER: C (-2 or 1)
216. A binary operation * is
213. Two brothers, Peter and Paul defined by a*b = ab+a+b for any
owned a business in which the ratio real number a and b. if the identity
of shares is 5:3 respectively. Paul element is zero, find the inverse of
later sold 1/3 of his shares to Peter 2 under this operation.
15, 000 naira. Find the total value of
the business. A. 2/3

B. 1/2
a. 12000 naira
C. -1/2
b. 1200 naira
D. -2/3
c. 120000 naira
ANSWER: D ( -2/3) 3.
d. 1200000000 naira
217. A cone has a base radius
ANSWER: C (120,000 naira) of 4 cm and a height of 3 cm. The
area of its curved surface is
214. Express, correct to three
significant figures, 0.003597. A. 12 pi cm^20

B. 20 pi cm^2
a. 0.359
C. 24 pi cm^2
b. 0.004
D. 251 pi cm^2
c. 0.00360
ANSWER: B (20 pi cm^2)
d. 0.00359

215. The sum of two numbers is twice

their difference. If the difference of
the numbers is P, find the larger of
the two numbers

A. p/2

B. 3p/2

C. 5p/2