17-08-2025

5001CMD303004250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Assertion (A) : Number of significant figure in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 are three. Reason
(R) : This is because zero are not significant figure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

2)

[ML2T–3] represents the dimensions of :-

(1) pressure
(2) energy
(3) power
(4) force

3) Light year is a unit of :-

(1) Time
(2) Mass
(3) Distance
(4) Energy

4) One nanometre is equal to :-

(1) 109 mm
(2) 10–6 cm
(3) 10–7 cm
(4) 10–9 cm

5) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

6) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-
(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) one fourth
(4) remain unaffected

7) Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by

F = AsinCt + BcosDx

Then the dimensions of and are given by:-

0 0
(1) MLT–2, M L T–1
0 0
(2) MLT–2, M L–1T
0 0 0 0
(3) M L T , M L1T–1
0 0 0 0
(4) M L1T–1, M L T

8) Assertion :- If the sum of the two unit vectors is also a unit vector, then magnitude of their
difference is root of three. Reason :- Magnitude of difference of two vectors can never be greater
than magnitude of their sum.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) A force of magnitude 25N is acting along x-axis, find out its y-component :-

(1) 25 N

(2)

(3)
(4) 0

10) If then find out projection of on y-axis :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 0
(4) None

11) If force and displacement then the work done is :-

(1) 40
(2) 44
(3) 12
(4) 48
12) The angle between the two vectors and will be :

(1) Zero
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

13) If and
then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) What is the angle between and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

15) A particle moves from (1, 1, 1) to (3, 4, 5). Then it's displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) The expression is a :-

(1) Unit vector

(2) Null vector
(3) Vector of magnitude
(4) Scalar

17) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

18) Which of the following physical quantities is not an axial vector?

(1) angular velocity

(2) angular momentum
(3) velocity
(4) torque

19) Statement-I: For a moving object, |displacement|≤ distance.

Statement-II: instantaneous speed is equal to the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

20) Assertion : In a projectile motion, the vertical velocity of the particle is continuously decreased
during its ascending motion.
Reason : In projectile motion downward constant acceleration is present in vertical direction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21) A car moves a distance of 200 m. It covers the first half of the distance at speed 40 km/h and the
second half of distance at speed v. The average speed is 48 km/h. Find the value of v.

(1) 56 km/h
(2) 60 km/h
(3) 50 km/h
(4) 48 km/h

22) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-

(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.
23) A particle moves in east with velocity of 15 m/s for 2 sec. then moves northward with 5 m/s for 8
sec, then average velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 7 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

24) A car moves for half of its time at 80 km/h and for rest half of time at 10 km/h. Total distance
covered is 60 km. What is the average speed of the car-

(1) 60 km/h
(2) 45 km/h
(3) 120 km/h
(4) 180 km/h

25) The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time passed. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the body, is-

(1) Increasing with the time

(2) Decreasing with time
(3) Constant but not zero
(4) Zero

26) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

27) The distances travelled by a body under constant acceleration from rest in the first, second and
third seconds are in the ratio :–

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 3 : 5
(4) None of these

28) The relation t = describes the position of a particle where 'x' is in meters and 't' is in
seconds. The acceleration of the particle is :

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) None of these

29) If x denotes displacement in time t and x = b sint where b is constant, then velocity is :

(1) b sint
(2) b cost
(3) b2 sint
(4) b2 cost

30) Figure shows the path followed by a particle. Its velocity is shown at points A and B. Which of
the vector in the given options best represents the average acceleration of the particle for its motion

from A to B?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 km/hr. If the resultant velocity of boat is 10
km/hr, then velocity of the river is :

(1) 10 km/hr
(2) 8 km/hr
(3) 6 km/hr
(4) 4 km/hr

32) A projectile is thrown at an angle of 40° with the horizontal and its range is R1. Another
projectile is thrown at an angle 40° with the verticle and its range is R2. What is the relation between
R1 and R2 ?

(1) R1 = R2
(2) R1 = 2R2
(3) R2 = 2R1

(4)

33) A body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. Which of the following graph
represents its motion :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) V-t graph for a particle is shown. The distance travelled in 4s is :-

(1) 12 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 24 m

35) A ball is thrown from a point with a speed υ0 at an angle of projection θ. From the same point
and at the same instant a person starts runing with a constant speed υ0/2 to catch the ball. Will the
person be able to catch the ball ? If yes, what should be the angle of projection ?

(1) Yes, 60°

(2) Yes, 30°
(3) No
(4) Yes, 45°

36) The maximum range of a gun horizontal terrain is 16 km, if g = 10 m/s2. What must be the
muzzle velocity of the shell ?

(1) 200 m/s

(2) 100 m/s
(3) 400 m/s
(4) 300 m/s

37) The fig. shows the position time graph of a particle moving on a straight line path. What is the
magnitude of average velocity of the particle over 10 seconds ?

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

38) A ball is dropped from the top of a tower. During the last second of its fall it travels a distance
of 55 m. The height of the tower is :

(1) 180 m
(2) 160 m
(3) 125 m
(4) None of these

39) A car accelerates from rest at constant rate of 2m/s2 for some time. Then, it retards at constant
rate of 4 m/s2 and comes to rest. If the total time for which it remains in motion is 3 seconds, what is
the total distance travelled ?

(1) 2 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 6 m

40)

The position of a particle is given as :-

x = 2 – 5t + 6t2. What is the initial velocity of the particle ?

(1) –5 m/s
(2) –3 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

41) At the uppermost point of a projectile its velocity and acceleration are at an angle of :–

(1) 180°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°
42) A ball is projected from the ground with 50 m/s. At the maximum height its velocity is 30 m/s.
Calculate the time after which it will reach to the ground again.

(1) 4s
(2) 8s
(3) 2s
(4) 16s

43) The graph is a plot of position versus time. For which labeled region is the velocity positive and

the acceleration negative?

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

44) The velocity time graph of a body is shown in Figure. It implies that at point B :-

(1) The acceleration is zero

(2) There is a acceleration towards motion
(3) There is a acceleration which opposes motion
(4) None of the above

45) An athlete completes one round of circular track of radius R in 40 seconds. What will be the ratio
of distance and magnitude of displacement at the end of 1 minute 40 second?

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Assertion : CO2 has more number of molecule in its 88 g than number of molecule of H2O in its
72 g.
Reason : Both have 4 mole of molecules.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

2) Assertion : Pure water obtained from different states of India always contains hydrogen &
oxygen in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass.
Reason : Total mass of reactants & products during chemical change is always the same.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

3) Assertion (A) :- Combustion of 16g methane gives 18g of water.

Reason (R) :- In the combustion of methane, water is one of the product.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

4) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) 11 g of CO2 (P) 0.05 mol

22
3.01 × 10
(B) (Q) 0.25 mol
molecules of CO2

(C) 2.24 L of CO2 at STP (R) 0.5 mol

3.01 × 1023 atoms

(D) (S) 0.1 mol
of N
(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(P); (D)–(Q)
(2) (A)–(Q); (B)–(R); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)
(3) (A)–(Q); (B)–(S); (C)–(P); (D)–(R)
(4) (A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(R)

5) Match the following Column-I to Column-II (Volume at STP).

Column-I Column-II

(A) 14 g of nitrogen gas (P) 22.4 L

6.02 × 1022
(B) (Q) 4.48 L
molecules of NH3
 (C) 1 mole of SO2 (R) 11.2 L

(D) 0.2 mole of O3 (S) 2.24 L

(1) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(Q)
(2) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(S); (D)–(P)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(S); (C)–(P); (D)–(Q)
(4) (A)–(Q); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(S)

6) Statement-I: 1g each of O2 and O3 contains atoms respectively.

Statement-II: 1g each of O2 and O3 contains same number of molecules.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct

7) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: 2A + 3B → C

moles of 'C' are produced when 3 moles of 'A' and 4 moles of 'B' are added.
Statement-II : 'A' is limiting reagent for the given data.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct

8) Which of the orbital is pictorial representation of ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All of these

9) Statement type question:

Statement-I: According to Thomson model of atom the mass of atom is assumed to be uniformly
distributed over the atom.
Statement-II: Thomson model of atom failed to explain -particle Scattering experiment.

(1) Statement-I is true only

(2) Statement-II is true only
(3) Both Statements are true
(4) Both Statements are false

10) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(quantum number) (Subshell)

(a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (i) 2s

(b) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (ii) 3s

(c) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (iii) 2p

(d) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (iv) 3d
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

11) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th Bohr orbit is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Which of the following statements is incorrect for anode rays?

(1) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

(2) Their e/m ratio depends on the gas in the discharge tube used to produce the anode rays.
(3) The e/m ratio of anode rays is constant.
(4) They are produced by the ionisation of the gas in the discharge tube.

13) How much energy would be required by an electron while moving from ground state to 3rd
excited state of He+ ion.

(1) 40.8 eV
(2) 10.2 eV
(3) 51 eV
(4) 48.35 eV

14) The maximum number of such electrons in an atom with quantum number n = 3, ℓ = 2 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 10
(4) 16

15) Isotone of is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both

16) The radius of nucleus of an element is if its nucleus has 62 proton and 63 neutron :-

1/3
(1) Ro (125)
1/3
(2) Ro(63)
1/3
(3) Ro(62)
1/3
(4) Ro(62 × 63)

17) What is the ratio of radius of first orbit of hydrogen, He+ and Li+2

(1) 6 : 3 : 2
(2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 3 : 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 2 : 1

18) Number of Photon emitted by a 100 watt source at wavelength 560 nm in 1.0 second is–

(1) 2.8 × 1018

(2) 2.8 × 1020
(3) 1.1 × 1020
(4) 1.1 × 1018

19) Which of the following grouping constitute isoelectronic species :

(1) Cl–, Ar, K+

(2) F, Cl, B
(3) Na, K, Li
(4) C, N, O

20) What will be the angular momentum of electron in R-shell of Be+3 ion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following sets of quantum number belong to highest energy :-

(1)
n = 4, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(2)
n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +

(3)
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = +

22) The quantum number 'm' of a free gaseous atom is associated with :-

(1) The effective volume of the orbital

(2) The shape of the orbital
(3) The spatial orientation of the orbital
(4) The energy of the orbital in the absence of a magnetic field

23) At the room temperature if all the ultravoilet to infrared wavelength's radiations pass into the
hydrogen gas then absorbed lines are :-

(1) Lyman, Balmer, Paschan

(2) Lyman, Paschen
(3) Lyman series
(4) Balmer series
24) The correct order of wavelength of Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2) and Tritium (1H3) moving
with same kinetic energy is

(1) λH > λD > λT

(2) λH = λD = λT
(3) λH < λD < λT
(4) λH < λD > λT

25) How many maximum number of electrons in 3p orbital have spin quantum number ?

(1) 0
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

26) What are the values of the orbital angular momentum of an electron in the orbitals 1s, 3s, 3d and
2p ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Number of angular nodes present in 3d orbital is

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 0

28) In three moles of ethane which of the following is correct?

(1) 6 gram atom of carbon is present

(2) 18 gram atom of hydrogen is present
(3) 3NA molecules of C2H6 is present
(4) All of these

29) 14 g nitrogen reacts with 6 g of hydrogen the amount of ammonia formed will be :

(1) 34 g
(2) 17 g
(3) 1.7 g
(4) 3.4 g

30) The total number of ions present in 1 mL of 0.1 M barium nitrate Ba(NO3)2 Solution is -

(1) 6.02 × 1018

(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 3.0 × 6.02 × 1019
(4) 3.0 × 6.02 × 1018

31) In a compound C, H, N atoms are present in 9: 1:3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of compound is
108, it’s molecular formula is -

(1) C3H4N
(2) C2H6N2
(3) C6H8N2
(4) C9H12N3

32) The pair of species having same percentage of carbon is-

(1) CH3COOH and C2H5OH

(2) CH3COOH and C6H12O6
(3) HCOOCH3 and C12H22O11
(4) C6H12O6 and C12H22O11

33) A compound was found to contain 5.37% nitrogen by mass. What is the minimum molecular
weight of compound-

(1) 26.07
(2) 2.607
(3) 260.7
(4) 520 gm

34) Vapour density of gas is 11.2, volume occupied by 2.4 g of this at STP will be:

(1) 11.2 L
(2) 2.24 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 2.4 L

35) Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1gm cm–3) is :-

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3
36) Volume of a gas at STP is 1.12 × 10–7 cc. Calculate the no. of molecules in it

(1) 3.01 × 1020

(2) 3.01 × 1012
(3) 3.01 × 1023
(4) 3.01 × 1024

37) A sample of AlF3 contains 3 × 1025 F– ions. The number of Al3+ in the sample would be :-

(1) 3 × 1025
(2) 1 × 1025
(3) 1.5 × 1025
(4) 2 × 1025

38) What mass of copper will contain 3.22 × 1024 atoms of copper ? (Atomic mass of copper = 63.54
amu)

(1) 170 g
(2) 180 g
(3) 340 g
(4) 380 g

39) A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4 contains 3.18 mol of H atoms. The number of moles
of O atoms in the sample is :

(1) 0.265
(2) 0.795
(3) 1.06
(4) 3.18

40) Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms ?

(1) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

(2) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
(3) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(4) 1 g of O2(s) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

41)

Number of neutrons present in 14 mg of 6C14 is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
42) In a compound, A (Atomic weight = 12.5) is 25% and B (Atomic weight = 37.5) is 75% by weight.
The Empirical formula of the compound is :-

(1) AB
(2) A2B
(3) A2B2
(4) A2B3

43) Which of the following pair of compound illustrate the law of multiple proportion?

(1) H2O, Na2O

(2) MgO, Na2O
(3) SnCl2, SnCl4
(4) Na2O, BaO

44) Two flasks A and B of equal capacity of volume contain NH3 and SO2 gas respectively under
similar conditions. Which flask has more number of moles?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) Both have same no. of moles
(4) None

45) Weight of oxygen in 32.2g Na2SO4.10H2O is:

(1) 20.8 g
(2) 22.4 g
(3) 2.24 g
(4) 2.08 g

BIOLOGY

1) Recognise the figure and find out the correct lebelling :-

‘a’-unicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal ‘b’-multicellular

(1)
glandular epithelium like salivary gland
 ‘a’-unicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland ‘b’-multicellular glandular epithelium like
(2)
goblet cells of alimentary canal
‘a’-multicellular glandular epithelium like salivary gland ‘b’-unicellular glandular epithelium like
(3)
goblet cells of alimentary canal
‘a’-multicellular glandular epithelium like goblet cells of alimentary canal ‘b’-unicellular
(4)
glandular epithelium like salivary gland

2) Fill in the blank A to D with the correct combination :- I. The cells of adipose tissue are specialised
to store ___(A)___. II. ___(B)___ is fibrous protein. III. Histamines are secreted by ___(C)___.
IV. Tendons and ligaments are specialised type of ___(D)___.

(1) (A) – lipids, (B) – bone, (C) – fibroblasts, (D) – muscular tissue
(2) (A) – fats, (B) – collagen, (C) – mast cells, (D) – connective tissue
(3) (A) – protein, (B) – cartilage, (C) – macrophages, (D) – epithelial tissue
(4) (A) – vitamin, (B) – elastin, (C) – serotonin, (D) – connective tissue

3) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. malpighian tubules :-

(1) 100-150 in number and yellow coloured

(2) Present at the junction of midgut and hindgut
(3) They do not play any role in osmoregulation
(4) These remove the waste from haemocoel

4) How many pairs of segmental ganglia are present on the ventral nerve cord in abdominal part of
cockroach ?

(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Eight
(4) Nine

5) Consider the statements regarding the blood vascular system of Periplaneta and select the correct
statements :-
(A) Blood vascular system is open type
(B) Blood vessels are well developed
(C) Haemolymph is composed of coloured plasma and hematocytes
(D) Heart is 13-chambered

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

6) Which of the following is not a part of male reproductive system in cockroach ?

(1) Ejaculatory duct

(2) Spermatheca
(3) Conglobate gland
(4) Mushroom gland

7) Match the following column-I with column-II regarding cockroach.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Alary muscles (1) For storing food

Accessory
Malpighian
(B) (2) reproductive
tubules
gland

Mushroom
(C) (3) Excretion
gland

(D) Crop (4) Blood circulation

A B C D

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 4 2 1 3

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 4 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Find out the incorrect pair for cockroach –

(1) A pair of testis – 4th – 6th abdominal segment

(2) Mushroom gland – 6th – 7th abdominal segment
(3) Titillator – Left phallomere
(4) Spermatheca – 2nd - 4th segment

9) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along–

(1) Mid ventral line of thorax

(2) Mid ventral line of abdomen
(3) Lateral to the alimentary canal
(4) Mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen

10) Read the following statement and choose correct statement

Statement – I : In both sexes, 9 segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure called anal
cerci.
Statement – II : Male bears a pair of short, thread like anal style which are absent in female.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

11) Sclerite of dorsal side in cockroach is called

(1) Tergum
(2) Sternum
(3) Pleuron
(4) Frons

12) Which of the following statement is incorrect about cockroach?

(a) Body is about 34-53 mm long.
(b) Hardened plates of exoskeleton called as sclerites
(c) Sclerites joined to each other by a thick and flexible articular membrane
(d) Cockroaches are included in class insecta of phylum arthropoda.

(1) a and b
(2) b, c and d
(3) c and d
(4) only c

13) Which of the following is correct for cockroach?

(1) Nocturnal, Omnivorsous, Monoecious, Coelomate

(2) Nocturnal,Omnivorous, Dioecious
(3) Omnivorous, Acoelomate, Nocturnal
(4) Omnivorous, Coelomate, Diurnal

14) In female cockroach, brood pouch contain

(1) Female gonopore, spermathecal pores and collaterial glands.

(2) Female gonopore, phallic duct and collaterial glands
(3) Female gonopore, spermathecal pores and mushroom glands
(4) Spermathecal pores, anal styles and spermatophores.

15) Identify the correctly matched pair w.r.t Periplaneta

(1) Metathoracic wings - Hindwings that are opaque, dark and leathery
(2) Circulatory system - Haemolymph composed of colourless plasma and Haematocyte
(3) Excretory system - Malpighian tubules drain urea into hindgut
(4) Respiratory system - Trachea opens through ten paris of tracheoles

16) Common salivary duct of cockroach open at the base of :-

(1) Labrum
(2) Labium
(3) Hypopharynx
(4) Oesophagus

17) Mandibles of cockroach are :

(1) Short with grinding teeth

(2) Long and pointed
(3) short without teeth
(4) long and coiled

18) Mouth part of cockroach are suited for :

(1) Piercing
(2) Absorbing
(3) Cutting & chewing
(4) Drinking

19) Nocturnal, omniovorus, resident of human homes, serious pest, vector of several diseases, live in
damp place, chitinous exoskeleton, piercing and sucking mouth parts.
How many of above characters are applicable to Periplaneta americana

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 2

20) Head of cockroach is ____ in shape.

(1) Rectangular
(2) Quadrilateral
(3) Triangular
(4) Hexagonal

21)

Read the following statement carefully about frog :-

(A) The skin is smooth and slippery due to presence of mucus.
(B) Body is divisible into head, trunk and tail.
(C) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs are present only in male frog.
(D) Frogs do not exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(E) The Indian bull frog, Rana tigrina is the common frog found in India.

Find out correct option :-

(1) only A, C, D are correct statements
(2) only B, C, D are incorrect statements
(3) only A, E are incorrect statements
(4) All are correct statements

22) Right auricle of frog contains ___(A)___ blood and it receives the blood from ___(B)___. Identify A
and B :

(1) A – Oxygenated, B – Sinus venosus

(2) A – Deoxygenated, B – Conus arteriosus
(3) A – Oxygenated, B – Truncus arteriosus
(4) A – Deoxygenated, B – Sinus venosus

23) Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure.

(1) A–Vasa efferentia, B–Cloacal aperture, C–Adrenal gland, D–Urino genital duct, E–Fat bodies
(2) A–Urini genital duct, B–Vasa efferentia, C–Fat bodies, D–Clocal aperture, E–Adrenal gland
(3) A–Adrenal gland, B–Urino genital duct, C–Cloacal aperture, D–Vasa efferentia, E–Fat bodies
(4) A–Fat bodies, B–Adrenal gland, C–Cloacal aperture, D–Vasa efferentia, E–Urino genital duct

24) Bidder’s canal is found in–

(1) Testes of frog

(2) Ovary of mammal
(3) Kidney of frog
(4) Kidney of mammal

25) In frog, mesorchium is a thin fold of membrane extending between–

(1) Two testes

(2) Liver and kidneys
(3) Two kidneys
(4) Kidneys and testes

26) How many heart chambered found in Frog heart?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three

27) A thin - walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to heart of frog is known as :-

(1) Truncus arteriosus

(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Atrium
(4) Ventricle

28) Read the following statements and find the incorrect one:

(1) In male frog, cloaca is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperm to outside.
(2) There is no functional connection in ovaries and kidneys in female frog.
(3) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000 eggs at a time.
(4) In frog, fertilization is external and development is direct.

29) Assertion (A): Frogs are considered important for mankind.

Reason (R): They eat insects and protect the crops.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) isfalse: but (R) is true.

30) Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat of sometime.
Select the best option from the following statements.
I. Frog is a poikilotherm
II. Frog does not have any coronary circulation
III. Heart is myogenic in nature
IV. Heart is autoexcitable

(1) Only III

(2) Only IV
(3) I and II
(4) III and IV

31) These are disk like protein plates of plasma membrane of the two adjacent epithelial cells for
mechanical support. These are :-

(1) Microvilli
(2) Desmosomes
(3) Inter digitation
(4) Steriocilia

32) Hyaline cartilage is found in which structure?

(1) Costal cartilage
(2) Eustachian tube
(3) Inter vertebral disk
(4) Tip of nose

33)

Read the following :-

(A) It forms the lining of alveoli of the lungs.
(B) It forms the lining of wet surfaces like buccal cavity and oesophagus.
(C) It occurs in the ducts of sweat glands
(D) It forms secretory unit of salivary and sweat gland

Which of the above are associated with compound epithelial tissue ?

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) B and D

34) Find out the correct option where all the examples possess the membrane modification, shows in

the given figure :-

(1) Large intestine, small intestine, tongue

(2) Small intestine, Urinary bladder, PCT
(3) PCT, Gall bladder, fallopian tube
(4) Small intestine, Gall bladder, PCT

35) Find the incorrect statement related to simple columnar epithelium :-

(1) It is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells

(2) Their nuclei are located at the base
(3) They are found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption
(4) Free surface of cells always have microvilli and kinocilia

36) During an injury if Ear pinna gets damaged which cartilage is involved?

(1) Fibrous cartilage

(2) Hyaline cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage

37)
Which of the following is correct match of epithelial tissue ?

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

38) The dry surface of human skin is covered by :-

(1) Simple epithelium

(2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium

39) Matrix of _____ resists compression.

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Lymph

40) Which of the following is not a function of bones ?

(1) Protection of softer tissues

(2) Structural framework for body
(3) Formation of blood cells
(4) Secretion & absorption

41) Statement-1: The function of ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium.
Statement-2: The ciliated epitheliums are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
bronchioles and fallopian tubes.

(1) Both Statement-1 & Statement-2 are correct.

(2) Only Statement-1 is correct
(3) Only Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both Statement-1 & Statement-2 are incorrect.

42) Which structure comes out from 10th tergum of cockroach :-

(1) Anal style

(2) Anal cerci
(3) Stink glands
(4) Antenna

43) Which of the following epithelium covers the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal
cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic ducts?

(1) Pseudostratified epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium

44) Fibres and modified polysaccharides, which act as a matrix in connective tissue are secreted by
:-

(1) Osteoblasts
(2) Chondroclasts
(3) Chondrocytes
(4) Fibroblasts

45) In the given statements how many are correct regarding cellular junction ?
(a) Present in nearly all animal tissues
(b) Provides both structural and functional links between individual cells of tissue.
(c) Adhering junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(d) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

46) Assertion : Mitosis is the equational division.

Reason : In mitosis, chromosomes number of the parent is conserved in the daughter cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

47) Assertion: Centromere splits and chromatids separates during anaphase.

Reason: Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters during telophase.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

48) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(I) S phase (i) Most of organelles duplication
(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin Proteins are synthesised
(III) G0 phase (iii) DNA Replication
(IV) G2 phase (iv) Cells are no longer proliferatin
(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

49)

Match the stage of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and select the
correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

Pairing of homologous
a Pachytene i
chromosomes

Terminalisation
b Metaphase-I ii
of Chiasmata

Crossing over
c Diakinesis iii
takes place

Chromosomes align
d Zygotene iv
at equatorial plate
Codes :
a b c d
(1) ii iv iii i
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) i iv ii iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Read the following statements carefully- Statement A- Anaphase is the best stage to study
shape of chromosome
Statement B- Metaphase is the best stage to study morphology of chromosome

(1) A is correct, B is incorrect

(2) A is incorrect, B is correct
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Both A and B are correct

51) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) In animals cytokinesis occurs by constriction and furrow formation

(2) In cell plate golgi vesicles secret calcium and magnesium pectate
In plants, cytokinesis occurs in centripetal order (cell plate formation is from periphery to
(3)
center)
(4) Cytokinesis in plants takes place by cell plate formation

52) Arrange the following events of meiotic cell division diagram in correct order: -

(1) B → D → A → C
(2) B → A → D → C
(3) B → A → C → D
(4) A → C → B → D

53) Choose the correct option for the diagram given below :

Number of Number of Number of Number of

Chromosomes Chromatids Centromeres Kinetochores

(A) 4 8 8 8

(B) 4 4 4 8

(C) 4 16 8 4

(D) 4 8 4 8
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
54) The sequence of events, by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises other
constituents and eventually divides into daughter cells, is termed as :-

(1) Interphase
(2) M-phase
(3) Karyokinesis & cytokinesis
(4) Cell cycle

55) The duration of cell cycle can vary from :-

(1) Organism to organism

(2) Cell type to cell type
(3) Requirement of the organism
(4) Both (1) and (2)

56) Select the events that do not occur in interphase stage of cell cycle :-
(a) RNA and protein synthesis
(b) Cytoplasmic growth
(c) Polymerisation of spindle fiber protein
(d) Disappearance of golgi bodies and ER
(e) Condensation of chromatin

(1) c, d and e
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and c

57) The phase of cell cycle which marks duplication of centriole in cytoplasm also shows :

(1) Splitting of centromeres

(2) Synthesis of tubulin protein
(3) Replication of DNA
(4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane

58) The chromosomal material becomes untangled during the process of chromatin condensation.
This statement is correct for which stage :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

59) Centromere split and chromatid move to opposite poles in:

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

60) Two daughter nuclei in a cell are formed in which of the following phases?

(1) Telophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Interphase
(4) Prophase

61) The M phases starts with the nuclear division, corresponding to the separation of daughter
chromosome called ...a.... and usually ends with division of cytoplasm called .....b.....

(1) a–Cytokinesis, b–Karyokinesis

(2) a–Interkinesis, b–Cytokinesis
(3) a–Karyokinesis, b–Cytokinesis
(4) a–Interkinesis, b–Karyokinesis

62) Meiosis in diploid organisms results in :

(1) Production of gametes

(2) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(3) Introduction of variation
(4) All of the above

63) During Meiosis-I, in which stage synapsis takes place ?

(1) Pachytene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene

64) Bivalent align on equator during :-

(1) Metaphase I
(2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase I
(4) 1 & 2 both

65) Which of the following structure(s) is/are not reformed during telophase stage ?

(1) Nucleolus, ER
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Chromosomes

66) If the number of chromosomes in a gamete cell is 16 then how many chromosomes did mother
cell had at the end of Anaphase-I ?

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 16
(4) 48

67) If a cell has 20pg DNA in G1 stage, what will be the amount of DNA in G2 stage?

(1) 20 pg
(2) 10 pg
(3) 40 pg
(4) 60 pg

68)

Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Common
Genus Family
Name

1 Man Homo Hominidae

2 Housefly Musa Musaceae

3 Mango Mangifera Anacardiaceae

4 Wheat Triticum Poaceae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69) Match the column :

(1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)

(2) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
(3) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)
(4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D - (iv)

70) Which statement is/are correct.

(a) Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics.
(b) Each taxon in fact, represents a unit of classification. (c) Datura and Petunia belong to
solanaceae.

(1) 'a' only

(2) a,b,c
(3) a,c
(4) 'c' only

71) Which of the following options represents the correct classification for the given animal ?

Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species

(1) Chordata Vertebrata Chiroptera Felidae Canis tigris

(2) Chordata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera tigris

(3) Vertebrata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera tigris

(4) Mammalia Felidae Carnivora Feliaceae Panthera leo

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) The number of species that are known and described till now range between :-

(1) 1.7 - 1.8 lakh

(2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion
(3) 1.7 - 1.8 million
(4) 17 - 18 million

73) Ascending or descending arrangement of taxonomic categories is known as :-

(1) Classification
(2) Key
(3) Taxonomy
(4) Hierarchy

74) Which of the following order includes family Convolvulaceae?

(1) Sapindales
(2) Polymoniales
(3) Ranales
(4) Rhamnales

75) Sharing of characteristics among the members will be high in which of the following category?

(1) Genus
(2) Order
(3) Order
(4) Species

76) In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in descending order is correct in
case of animals ?

(1) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species

(2) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
(3) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
(4) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

77) Mayr proposed which type of concept of species:-

(1) Taxononic concept

(2) Biological concept
(3) Taxonomic and Biological concept
(4) Genetic concept

78) Solanum tuberosum, Solanum melongena and Solanum nigrum represents.

(1) They are different species of same genus

(2) They are different species of different genus
(3) They are member of same species
(4) Solanum is a name of species while nigrum, melongena and tuberosum represent variety.

79) The relation of potato and brinjal with solanaceae is similar to the relation occuring in:-

(1) Lion and Leopard with felidae

(2) Cat and dog with canidae
(3) Tiger and Leopard with canidae
(4) Petunia and Datura with convolvulaceae

80) The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchial
level in classification of plants

(1) Class
(2) Order
(3) Division
(4) Family
81) Poales and Sapindales represent

(1) Genus
(2) Class
(3) Order
(4) Species

82) Read the following names of organisms carefully.

Lion, Tiger, Mule, Monkey, Blue green algae, Datura.
How many biological species present in above set of organism?

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 3

83) Consider of following statements. Which of the following statements are related to universal
rules of nomenclature?
(a) Scientific nomenclature are generally in latin.
(b) The first word in a scientific nomenclature represents the generic name while the second
component denotes the specific epithet.
(c) Both the words in a scientific nomenclature (Botanical name), when handwritten, are separately
underlined, or printed in italics to indicates their latin origin.
(d) Generic name starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts with a small letter.

(1) Only b, c & d

(2) Only c & d
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) All a, b, c & d

84) Evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called

(1) Ontogeny
(2) Taxonomy
(3) Phylogeny
(4) Systematics

85) "G0" state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes :-

(1) Quiescent stage where cell cycle is suspended

(2) Pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a temporary delay
(3) Death of a cell
(4) Exit of cells from cell cycle permanently.

86) Assertion : Potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the genus Solanum.
Reason : Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in
comparison to species of other genera.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

87) How many are the correct statements from the following?
(A) Each taxonomic category is a unit of classification
(B) Taxonomic groups are distinct biological entities
(C) Genera are aggregates of closely related families
(D) Both vegetative and reproductive characters are used to characterise the families.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

88) Choose the correct from followings :-

(1) Mangifera, is a name of species

(2) Polymoniales, is a name of family
(3) Dicotyledonae, is a name of division
(4) Triticum, is a name of genus

89)

Bionomial nomenclature was given by

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Pliny
(3) Harvey
(4) Bentham and Hooker

90) Which of the following represent the family of mango ?

(1) Sapindales
(2) Anacardiaceae
(3) Poales
(4) Poaceae
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 1 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 1 2 2 4 4 4 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 3 4 4 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 4 3 4 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 1 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explain: in assertion (A) about the number of significant figures in two decimal numbers
and reason (R)
Concept: Significant figures.
Leading zeros (zeros to the left of the first non-zero digit) are not significant.
Trailing zeros in a number containing a decimal point are significant.
Calculation :
Assertion (A) :
0.005 : The leading zeros are not significant. The only significant digit is 5. Therefore, there is
one significant figure.
0.500 : The zero between the decimal point and 5 is not a leading zero.
The trailing zeros after the decimal point are significant. Therefore, there are three significant
figures.
Conclusion : Assertion (A) is true.
Reason R is false in general. Zeros can be significant, as demonstrated in 0.500. The
significance of depends on their position in the number.
Conclusion : Reason (R) is false

Final Answer : (3)

2)

= [ML2T–3]

3)

Conceptual.

4)

1 nanometer = 10–9 m = 10–7 cm

5) 1. Question Explanation:
We are asked to determine which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same
dimensions. We need to check the dimensional formulas of each pair and compare them.

2. Concept-Based:
The subtopic is Dimensional Analysis. Dimensional analysis helps us understand the
relationship between physical quantities by comparing their dimensions. The dimensions of
physical quantities are expressed in terms of fundamental quantities like mass (M), length (L),
 and time (T)

3. Formulas for Dimensional Analysis:

A. Force (F): The dimension of force is given by

B. Power (P): Power is the rate of doing work and its dimension is
C. Torque( ): Torque is the product of force and distance, so its dimension is
D. Energy (E): Energy is the work done, and its dimension is

4. Calculation:
Let's check the dimensions of each pain

A. Option 1 (Force and Power):

B. Force:
C. Power:
D. Not the same dimensions.
E. Option 2 (Torque and Energy):
F. Torque:
G. Energy:
H. Same dimensions.
I. Option 3 (Torque and Power):
J. Torque:
K. Power:
L. Not the same dimensions.
M. Option 4 (Force and Torque):
N. Force:
O. Torque:
P. Not the same dimensions.

Answer:
Option 2: Torque and Energy have the same dimensions .

6) P =

F→ ; v→

Then P →

7) F = A sin C t + B cos Dx
[Ct] = 1 ⇒ [C] = [T–1]
[A] = [F], [B] = [F] and [D]= [L–1]

⇒ and

8)

Let then using parallelogram law of vector, we have

1 = (12 + 12 + 2 × 1 × 1 × cosθ)1/2
or 1 = 2 (1 + cos θ)

or

or or θ = 120°
∴
Now, the angle between and = 180° – 120° = 60°
∴ The resultant of

= (12 + 12 + 2 × 1 × 1 cos 60°)1/2 =

9)

Component of a vector along its perpendicular direction is zero.

10) , y-component is zero is

11) W.D. =
W.D. = 12

12)

13)

14)

15) Question Explanation: To find displacement vector.

Concept: Subtraction of vector.
Formula: Displacement
Solution: A (1, 1, 1) & B (3, 4, 5)
Then displacement =
=
​

16)

Unit vector

17) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

18) 1. Asking About: Axial vector.

2. Concept: Types of vector
3. Soln/ Explanation: Vector's having there direction along the axis is called axial vector.

19)

Both the statement are correct

20)

Given Data:

A. Projectile motion: Motion of an object thrown with an initial velocity under the influence
of gravity.

C. Concept:

A. Projectile Motion:

A. Characterized by two independent motions:

A. Uniform horizontal motion

B. Uniformly accelerated vertical motion (due to gravity)

B. Acceleration due to Gravity (g): A constant downward acceleration acting on all

objects near the Earth's surface.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Vertical Motion:
 A. Can be described using the equation: v = u - gt

A. where:

A. v: final vertical velocity

B. u: initial vertical velocity

C. g: acceleration due to gravity

D. t: time

B. As time (t) increases during the upward motion, the term 'gt' increases, leading to
a decrease in the final vertical velocity (v).

E. Final Answer:

A. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. option 1

21)

conceptual

22) Concept: & Explanation

• The displacement-time graph represents how the position of a particle changes with time.
• The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the particle.

A. A positive slope indicates motion in the positive x-direction.

B. A horizontal segment (zero slope) means the particle is at rest.
C. A constant slope corresponds to uniform velocity.
D. A changing slope indicates varying velocity.

Analysis of the Given Graph:

A. From t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin with a positive slope.
B. This indicates that the particle is moving with a constant velocity in the positive x-direction.

B. From t = t0 onwards:

A. The graph becomes a horizontal line (zero slope).

B. This means the particle has stopped moving and is at rest.

Formula used:
The velocity v is the slope of the displacement-time graph:

Where:

A. is the change in displacement.

B. is the change in time.

Calculation:
[Link] t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The slope of the line is constant.

B. Let the displacement at t = 0 be [Link],

A. The particle moves with this constant velocity until t = t0.

2. For t > t0:

A. The graph is horizontal, so the velocity v = 0 The particle is at rest.

Final Answer:
The correct option is:
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.

23)

24)

Vavg =

=
= 45 km/h

25)

correct answer is

26)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

27)

Explain : find the ratio of distances traveled by an object undergoing constant acceleration,
starting from rest, during the first, second, and third seconds of its motion.
Concept : distance traveled in nth' seconds.

Formula : Distance traveled in the nth second: Snth ​= u + a ​(2n−1)

Calculation : Since the body starts from rest, u=0 (starts from rest)

Snth ​ O + ​(2n−1)

Snth ∝ (2n –1)

Fatio of distances:
S1st : S2nd : S3rd = 1 : 3 : 5

Final Answer : (3)

28)
x=

v= 2 (t – 3)

a= 2 m/s2

29)

x = b sin t

V= = b cost

30)

Average acceleration =

31)
so 10 =
u = 6 m/s

32)

R is same for both θ and (90° – θ)

If angle w.r.t. vertical is 40° then w.r.t. horizontal direction it will be 90° – 40° = 50°.

33)

slope of v-t graph gives acceleration.

34)

distance = × 4 × 8 = 16 m

35)

cosθ =
θ = 60°

36)

U = 400m/sec

37) Displacement = Final position – Initial position

= 40 – 60 = –20m

38)

Let total time be 't'

=0+ [2t – 1]
⇒ 55 = 5 [2t – 1]
⇒ t = 6 sec

h = gt2 = = 180 m

39)

S=

2
40) X = 2 – 5t + 6t
at t = 0 ν = – 5 m/s

41)

∴ ∠α=90°

42)

∵u= , 50 =
∴ uy = 40 m/s

∵T= = 8 sec

43) In part (d), slope is positive and decreasing, so velocity is positive and decreasing. If
velocity is decreasing, then acceleration is negative.

44)
= (+ve) (-ve)
= –ve

45) 1. Question Explanation:

An athlete runs on a circular track with radius R and completes one round in 40 seconds. We
need to find the ratio of distance to displacement after 100 seconds.

2. Concept-Based Explanation:
Distance and displacement

3. Formula Used:
Number of laps:

Distance:
Distance = n × Circumference = η × 2πR
Displacement:
If n is an integer, displacement is zero.
If n is half-integer, displacement is the diameter 2R.

4. Calculation:
 • Given total time = 100 sec, time per lap = 40 sec

Distance:
2.5×2R 5R
Displacement:

Answer : (4)

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation: The assertion compares the number of molecules in 88g of
CO2 and 72g of H2O starting that CO2 has more molecules. The reason given is that both have 4
moles of molecules. We need to verify both the assertion and the reason.

Concept:
The number of moles is determined by dividing the mass of the substances by its molar mass.
The number of molecules in a sample is directly proportional to the number of moles.

Solution:
• The molar mass of CO2 is 44g/mol, so 88g of CO2 contains.

• 2 moles of CO2 molecules.

• The molar mass of H2O is 18g/mol, so 72g of H2O contains:

4 moles of H2O molecules.

Since CO2 has 2 moles of molecules and H2O has 4 moles of molecules, the assertion is
incorrect.
Additionally the reason starting that both have 4 moles of molecules is also incorrect.

Final Answer
Both the reason and the reason are incorrect
Correct option: (4)

47)

correct answer is (2)

48) Question Explanation:

The question asks whether the assertion about the combustion of methane producing 18g of
water is correct, and if the reason is a valid explanation.

Concept:
Combustion of methane produces water However the mass of water formed depends on the
stoichiometry of the reaction and 16g of methane doesn't yield exactly 18g of water.
Solution:
The assertion is incorrect because 16g of methane produces less than 18g of water based on
the stoichiometry. The reason is true but it doesn't explain the assertion.

Correct option: (4)

49)

correct answer is

50) Explanation :
We are given a matching-type question where we need to match quantities of gases column-I
with their respective volumes at STP (Column-II) stands for standard temperature and
pressure, where 1 mole of any ideal gas occupies 22.4 L of volume.
Concept :
• Molar volume at STP : 1 mole of gas = 22.4 L
• Volume at STP = Moles × 22.4 L
• Moles from mass = Given Mass = Molar Mass
• Moles from molecules = Given molecules = Avogadro's number (6.022 × 1025)
Calculation :
(A) 14 g of nitrogen gas (N2) : Molar mass = 28 g/mol – moles = 14 - 28 = 0.5 × 22.4 = 11.2 L
→ Match (A) – (R)
(B) 6.02 × 1022 molecules of NH3 : Moles = (6.02 × 1022) - (6.02 × 1023) = 0.1 → L → Match (B)
– (S)
(C) 1 moles of SO2 : Volume = 1 × 22.4 → Match (C) - (P)
(D) 0.2 moles of O3 : Volume = 0.2 × 22.4 → Match (D) - (Q)
Answer (A)–(R); (B)–(S); (C)–(P); (D)–(Q)

51)

correct answer is (3)

52)

correct answer is (2)

53)

correct answer is (2)

54) Thomson model of atom failed to explain -particle Scattering experiment, because He
thought positive charge is uniformly distributed.
 55)

List-I List-II
(quantum number) (Subshell)

(a) n = 2, ℓ = 1 (iii) 2p

(b) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (iv) 3d

(c) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (ii) 3s

(d) n = 2, ℓ = 0 (i) 2s

56)

correct answer is

57)

correct answer is

58)

correct answer is

59)

correct answer is

60)

correct answer is

61)

correct answer is

62)

correct answer is

63)

correct answer is

64)

correct answer is
65)

correct answer is

66)

Energy order is for given options -

3s < 3p < 4s < 3d

67)

correct answer is

68)

correct answer is

69)

70)

correct answer is

71) Orbital angular momentum of an electron =

Orbitals ℓ orbital angular momentum

1s 0 0

3s 0 0

3d 2

2p 1

72)

No of Angular nodes = l

For 3d l = 2

73)

3 moles ethane ≡ 3 (C2H6)

⇒ 6 mole C → 6 g atom carbon
⇒ 18 mole H → 18 g atom Hydrogen

& ⇒ 3 moles × NA = No. of molecules

∴ No. of molecules = 3NA

74)

correct answer is

75)

correct answer is

76)

correct answer is

77)

correct answer is

78)

correct answer is

79)

correct answer is

80)

correct answer is

81)

correct answer is

82)

correct answer is

83)

Explaining : -
 Concept : This question is based on

Solution : Number of atoms =

Final Answer : (3)

84)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on

Solution : = 1.06
Final Answer : (3)

85)

correct answer is

86)

correct answer is

87)

correct answer is

88)

correct answer is

89)

correct answer is

90)

correct answer is

BIOLOGY

91)

correct answer is
92)

correct answer is

93) NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

94) NCERT Pg # 114 para 7.4.2

95) NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

96) NCERT Pg # 114 para 7.4.2

98)

correct answer is

99)

correct answer is

100)

correct answer is

101)

correct answer is

102)

correct answer is

103)

correct answer is

104)

correct answer is

106)

correct answer is
107)

correct answer is

108)

correct answer is

110) [NCERT Pg.#112]

111) NCERT Pg.# 116,121

112) Module Pg.# 159

113) New NCERT Page # 83

114) New NCERT Page # 83

117) NCERT-XI page# 118

118) NCERT Pg. # 118, A-4

119)

correct answer is

120)

correct answer is

121)

correct answer is

124)

correct answer is

126)

correct answer is
 127)

correct answer is

128)

NCERT (Eng.) Pg. # 102, Para no. 8

129)

correct answer is

130)

correct answer is

131)

correct answer is

132)

correct answer is

133)

correct answer is

134)

Correct Answer:

4. Fibroblasts

Explanation
Fibroblasts are the main cells found in connective tissue proper.

A. They secrete fibres (like collagen and elastin) and modified polysaccharides that form
the ground substance or matrix.

B. This matrix provides structural support and plays a role in tissue repair.

135)

All four statements (a, b, c, and d) are correct regarding cellular junctions:
(a) Present in nearly all animal tissues: Cellular junctions are indeed found in virtually all
animal tissues, as they are essential for tissue structure and function.
(b) Provides both structural and functional links between individual cells of tissue:
This is a key function of cellular junctions. They provide structural support by holding cells
together and also facilitate communication and exchange of materials between cells.
(c) Adhering junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together:
Adhering junctions, such as desmosomes and adherens junctions, act like "cement" between
cells, providing mechanical strength and resisting separation.
(d) Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue: Tight
junctions, also known as occluding junctions, create a tight seal between cells, preventing or
reducing the passage of molecules and ions through the intercellular space.
The correct answer is option 1.

136) NCERT Pg. # 171

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 165-166 (10.2.3/4)

138)

NCERT Pg. # 163, 164

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

140)

Explanation

Anaphase: Chromosomes are pulled toward opposite poles, and their shape (e.g., metacentric,
submetacentric, acrocentric, telocentric) is clearly visible due to the tension on the
[Link]: Chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate in a highly
condensed state, making it the best stage to study their overall morphology, including size and
structure.

Correct answer: 4. Both A and B are correct

141)

NCERT XI pg no.166

142) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 169,170; Fig. 10.3,10.4

143)

NCERT Pg # 165

144) The sequence of events, by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises other
constituents and eventually divides into daughter cells, is termed as cell cycle.

145)

SOLUTION —
The duration of the cell cycle can vary from organism to organism and also from cell type to
cell type. Different organisms have different rates of cell division depending on their
complexity and size, and even within an organism, different cell types (like skin cells versus
nerve cells) can have varying cell cycle durations. Additionally, the cell cycle can be influenced
by environmental conditions and the needs of the organism.

The correct answer is: OPTION(4) Both (1) and (2)

146)

correct answer is

147)

Pg. No. 95 & 96 - XI NCERT

148) Question Explanation :

The question is asking during which stage of mitosis does the chromatin (loose DNA) condense
and become untangled, forming visible chromosomes ready for proper segregatioon.

Concept :
Cell cycle and cell division : Mitosis.

Solution :
In prophase, the chromatin fibers condense into discrete, visible chromosomes.
During this condensation, the chromosomal material untangles and organizes, which is
essential for accurate chromosome separation later in mitosis.

Final Answer:
Option (1)

149) Explanation
In anaphase (which occurs in both mitosis and meiosis II), the centromere splits, and the sister
chromatids (which were previously held together by the centromere) are separated and pulled
toward opposite poles of the cell. This ensures that each daughter cell will get an identical set
of chromosomes.

Correct Answer ✔ 1. Anaphase

150) NCERT XI(E) Pg. # 166(Topic-Telophase)

NCERT XI िहदी पे ज # 166(टाॅ िपक - अं यावथा)
151) NCERT Pg. # 163

152)

correct answer is

153)

Solution:
The second stage of prophase I is zygotene. During this stage chromosomes start pairing
together and this process of association is called synapsis. Such paired chromosomes are
called homologous chromosomes.

Hence,
Correct option: (2) Zygotene

154) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 168, Para - 10.4.1, Metaphase-I

155)

correct answer is

156) NCERT XI, Pg. # 167,168,169,170, Para-10.4

157) NCERT Page No. 163

158)

NCERT Pg. # 11

159)

correct answer is

160) NCERT XI Pg. # 7,8,9 Ans. (2) & (3)

162) NCERT XI Pg. # 3

163)

NCERT XI Pg.

164)
 The correct answer is Option 2: Polymoniales
Explanation:

A. The family Convolvulaceae (which includes plants like morning glories) is placed under the
order Polymoniales.

165)

The correct answer is: Option 4: Species

Explanation:

A. Species represents the most specific level of classification, and members of the same species
share the most characteristics in common. The level of shared characteristics is highest within
a species. In higher taxonomic categories (genus, order), the shared characteristics become
broader and less specific.

166)

The correct answer is:

4. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Explanation: In the taxonomic hierarchy, the correct ascending order for animals is:
Kingdom > Phylum > Class > Order> Family > Genus > Species.

167)

Explanation:

A. Ernst Mayr (1942) proposed the Biological Species Concept (BSC), which defines a
species as:
“A group of interbreeding natural populations that are reproductively isolated from
other such groups.”

B. This concept emphasizes reproductive isolation as the key criterion for defining species.

Correct Answer: 2. Biological concept

168)

correct answer is

169)

correct answer is

170)
 The question asks for the equivalent hierarchical level of the taxonomic unit Phylum in animal
classification when applied to plants.
Correct Answer: Division

Explanation: ln the classification hierarchy:

A. For animals, the sequence is: Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus →
Species.
B. For plants, the sequence is: Kingdom → Division → Class → Order → Family → Genus
→ Species.

171)

NCERT XI Page # 8

172)

correct answer is

173)

correct answer is

174)

correct answer is

175) NCERT Pg. # 164

176) NCERT Pg # 09

177)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 6,7

A,B & D are correct

178) NCERT-XI ; Page No # 129

179)

NCERT XI, Page # 4