24-08-2025

5301CMD303029250013 MD

PHYSICS

1) If AB is incident wavefront. Then, refracted wavefront is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of incidence of 60° and the reflected beam is
completely plane polarised. The refractive index of the glass is :-

(1) 1.5
(2)
(3)
(4) (3/2)

3) Figure shows plane waves refracted form air to water using Huygen's principle. a, b, c, d, e are
lengths on the diagram. The refractive index of water w.r.t. air is the ratio :–
(1) a/e
(2) b/e
(3) b/d
(4) d/b

4) Consider an interference pattern between two coherent sources. If I1 and I2 be intensities at

points where the phase difference are and respectively, then the intensity at maxima is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two beams of light having intensities Ι and 4Ι interferring to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.

The phase difference between the beam is at point A and 2π at point B. Then find out the
difference between the resultant intensities at B and A.

(1) 2Ι
(2) 5Ι
(3) Ι
(4) 4Ι

6) If ratio of amplitude of two interferring source is 3 : 5. Then ratio of intensity of maxima and
minima in interference pattern will be :-

(1) 25 : 16
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 25 : 9

7) A mixture of light consisting of wavelength 590 nm and an unknown wavelength illuminates

Young's double slit and gives rise to two overlapping interference patterns on the screen. The
central maximum of both lights coincide. Further, it is observed that the third bright fringe of known
light coincides with the 4th bright fringe of unknown light. From this data, the wavelength of
unknown light is :-
(1) 885.0 nm
(2) 442.5 nm
(3) 776.8 nm
(4) 393.4 nm

8) In a Young's double slit experiment, the angular width of fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1
radian. Find the distance between the two slits, if wavelength of light used is 6000 Å.

(1) 12 µm
(2) 3 µm
(3) 6 µm
(4) 601 µm

9) Assertion :- In the figure shown zero order maxima will be above point "O".

Reason :- Zero order maxima means a point where the path difference is
zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct

(2) Only Assertion is correct
(3) Only Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

10) Assertion :- If a glass slab is placed in front of one of the slits, then fringe width will decrease.
Reason :- Glass slab will produce no path difference.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct

(2) Only Assertion is correct
(3) Only Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

11) In a Young's double slit experiment the intensity at a point is I where the corresponding path
difference is one sixth of the wavelength of light used. If I0 denotes the maximum intensity, the ratio

is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) In a YDSE with two identical slits, when the upper slit is covered with a thin, perfectly
transparent sheet of mica, the intensity at the centre of screen reduces to 75% of the initial value.
Second minima is observed to be above this point and third maxima below it. Which of the following
cannot be a possible value of phase difference caused by the mica sheet

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A thin mica sheet of thickness 2 × 10–6 m and refractive index (µ = 1.5) is introduced in the path
of the upper wave. The wavelength of the wave used in 5000Å. The central bright maximum will shift
:

(1) 2 fringes upward

(2) 2 fringes downward
(3) 10 fringes upward
(4) None of these

14) A Young's double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the interference
fringes formed on a screen is :

(1) Straight line

(2) Parabola
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Circle

15) In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal widths, one slit is made twice as wide
as the other. Then, in the interference pattern :

(1) the intensities of both the maxima and the minima increases
(2) the intensity of the maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity.
(3) the intensity of the maxima decreases and that of the minima increases
(4) the intensity of the maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity.

16) In Y.D.S.E., 12 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain segment of the screen when light
of wavelength 600nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400nm, number of fringes
observed in the same segment of the screen is :-

(1) 24
(2) 18
(3) 12
(4) 6

17) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000Å gets diffracted by a single-slit-width 0.3mm. The
angular position of the first minima of diffracted light is :-

(1) 6 × 10–3 rad

(2) 1.8 × 10–3 rad
(3) 3.2 × 10–3 rad
(4) 2 × 10–3 rad

18) In case of diffraction at single slit if the wavelength of light becomes equal to the aperture of slit,
on the screen we shall observe :-

(1) Image of slit

(2) Multiple diffraction bands
(3) Uniform illumination
(4) Nonuniform illumination

19) The distance between the first and the sixth minima in the diffraction pattern of a single slit is
0.5mm. The screen is 0.5m away from the slit. If the wavelength of light used is 5000 Å, then the slit
width will be.

(1) 5 mm
(2) 2.5 mm
(3) 1.25 mm
(4) 1.0 mm

20) A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent
screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of
the following statements is correct ?

(1) The angular width of central maximum will be unaffacted.

(2) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons.
(3) The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase.
(4) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.

21) Assertion : Diffraction occur in sound but do not occur in light waves. Reason : Wavelength of
light wave is less than the wavelength of sound.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

22) Assertion :- If three polarisers are arranged such that the axis of any two successive polarisers
make equal angle with each other. If unpolarised light of intensity I0 incident on first polariser then
intensity of emergent light after 3rd polariser is , if angle between them is 45°. Reason :- Each
time intensity becomes 50%.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct

(2) Only Assertion is correct
(3) Only Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

23) A beam of light is incident on a glass plate at an angle of incidence 60°. The reflected ray is
polarised. What is the angle of refraction when angle of incidence is 45° ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) λa and λm are the wavelengths of a beam of light in air and medium respectively. If θ is the
polarising angle when light is incident from air, the correct relation between λa, λm and θ is :-

2
(1) λa = λm tan θ
2
(2) λm = λa tan θ
(3) λa = λm cot θ
(4) λm = λa cot θ

25) Assertion :- The unpolarised light and polarized light can be distinguished from each other by
using polaroid.
Reason :- A polaroid is not capable of producing plane-polarized beam of light.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

26) Assertion (A) :- In telescopes objective is taken of large diameter or aperture. Reason (R) :-
Larger aperture remove spherical aberration.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
27) An astronomical telescope has objective and eye-piece lenses of power 0.5D and 20D,
respectively. What will be its magnifying power?

(1) 30
(2) 10
(3) 40
(4) 20

28) The distance between the objective lens and the eye lens of an astronomical telescope when
adjusted for parallel light is 100 cm. The measured value of the magnification is 19. The focal
lengths of the lenses are :

(1) 85 and 15 cm
(2) 82 and 18 cm
(3) 95 and 5 cm
(4) 50 and 50 cm

29) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
separation between the objective and the eye- piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at
infinity. The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye- piece are -

(1) f0 = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm
(2) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(3) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(4) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm

30) A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a
coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The
current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the
coil is 10π2Ω. the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is :-

(1) 16 μC
(2) 32 μC
(3) 16 π μC
(4) 32 π μC

31) An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of
electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, induced in the coil ?

(1) No current induced

(2) abcd
(3) adcb
(4) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil

32) A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of Wb/m2 in such way
that its axis makes an angle of 60° with . The magnetic flux linked with the disc is :-

(1) 0.08 Wb
(2) 0.01 Wb
(3) 0.02 Wb
(4) 0.06 Wb

33) A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular to a uniform field of induction B. A small cut
is made in the ring and a galvanometer is connected across the ends such that the total resistance of
the circuit is R. When the ring is suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge flowing through the
galvanometer is

(1)

(2)

(3) ABR

(4)

34) A straight wire of length L is bent into a semicircle. It is moved in a uniform magnetic field with
speed v with diameter perpendicular to the field. The induced emf between the ends of the wire is :-

(1) BLv
(2) 2BLv
(3) 2πBLv

(4)

35) A conducting loop of radius R is present in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane
of the ring. If radius R varies as a function of time t, as R = R0 + t. The emf induced in the loop is :-
(1) 2π (R0 + t)B clockwise
(2) π (R0 + t)B clockwise
(3) 2π (R0 + t)B anticlockwise
(4) Zero

36) A current I = 3.36 (1 + 2t) × 10–2 A increases at a steady state in a long straight wire. A small
circular loop of radius 10–3 m has its plane parallel to the wire and is placed at a distance of 1 m from
the wire. The resistance of loop is 8.4 × 10–4 Ω. Find the approximate value of induced current in the
loop :-

(1) 5.024 × 10–11A

(2) 3.8 × 10–11A
(3) 2.75 × 10–11A
(4) 1.23 × 10–11A

37) A square loop PQRS of area 20 cm2 and resistance 5Ω is rotated in a magnetic field B = 2T
through 180° in 0.01 sec. then find induced current

(1) 0.016 A
(2) 0.16 A
(3) 0.32 A
(4) 0.032 A

38) The magnetic flux through a coil varies with times as ϕ = 5t2 + 6t + 9. The ratio of emf at t = 3
sec t0 t = 0 sec will be

(1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 6
(3) 6 : 1
(4) 9 : 1

39) A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to
the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes with time as shown figure. The induced emf in
the coil is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length l = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform magnetic
field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane of loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2Ω. Two resistors of
6Ω and 3Ω are connected as shown in figure. The external force required to keep the connector

moving with a constant velocity v = 2 m/s is

(1) 6 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 1 N

41) When the current changes from +2 A to –2 A in 0.05 second, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil.
The coefficient of self-induction of the coil is :

(1) 0.2 H
(2) 0.4 H
(3) 0.8 H
(4) 0.1 H

42) Two coils of self-inductances 1/8mH and 32 mH are placed so close together that flux in one coil
is completely linked to another. The mutual inductance between coils is

(1) 6mH
(2) 2 mH
(3) 16 mH
(4) 10 mH

43) A small square loop of wire of side ℓ is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L (>> ℓ).
The loops are coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) For the given circuit the current i through the battery when the key in closed and the steady

state has been reached is_________.

(1) 6 A
(2) 25 A
(3) 10 A
(4) 0 A

45) The time constant of an inductive coil is 2.0 × 10–3 sec. When 90Ω resistance is added in series,
the time const. reduces to 0.5 × 10–3 sec. The inductance of the coil will be :-

(1) 60 mH
(2) 120 mH
(3) 50 mH
(4) 20 mH
 CHEMISTRY

1)

Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P° =
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles of each, is –

(1) 0·57
(2) 0·25
(3) 0·60
(4) 0·40

2) Which gas does not follow "Henry's law"?

(1) HCl
(2) He
(3) O2
(4) H2

3) The Henry's law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole
fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298
K and 5 atm pressure will be

(1) 4.0 × 10–4

(2) 4.0 × 10–5
(3) 5.0 × 10–4
(4) 4.0 × 10–6

4) The vapour pressure of a aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction
of solute is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In a closed vessel at 300K the vapour pressure of pure water is 0.4 atmosphere. If the volume of
the vessel is doubled then vapour pressure would become :-

(1) 0.8 atm

(2) 0.2 atm
(3) 0.4 atm
(4) 0.6 atm

6) How many kilograms of wet NaOH containing 12% water are required to prepare 60 litres of 0.50
N solution ?

(1) 1.36 kg
(2) 1.50 kg
(3) 2.40 gm
(4) 3.16 kg

7) The osmotic pressure of 1 M solution of a non-electrolyte solute at 27°C is :-

(1) 2.46 atm

(2) 24.6 atm
(3) 1.21 atm
(4) 12.1 atm

8) If α is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4. The Van't Hoff factor used for the calculation of
molecular mass ?

(1) i = 1 + 2α
(2) i = 1 – 2α
(3) i = 1 + α
(4) i = 1 – α

9) Which of the following solutions has the highest b.p. ?

(1) 0.1 M NaCl

(2) 0.1 M urea
(3) 0.1 M BaCl2
(4) 0.1 M glucose

10) Vapour pressure of methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol solution is represented by P = 115XA + 140

where XA is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol. The value of is :-

(1) 255
(2) 115
(3) 140
(4) 135

11) Depression in freezing point is 6K for NaCl solution. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kgmol–1, moles of
NaCl dissolved in 1 kg of water is :-

(1) 3.42
(2) 1.612
(3) 3.2
(4) 1.71

12) If, πobs = Observed colligative property

πcal = Calculated colligative property
Van’t Hoff factor (i) is given by :-

(1) i = πobs × πcal

2
(2) i = πobs (πcal)
(3) i = πobs – πcal

(4)

13) If van't Hoff factor, i=1 then :-

(1) It is dissociation
(2) It is association
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Neither dissociation nor association

14) The relation between molarity (M) and molality (m) is given by : (ρ = density of solution (g/mL),
M1 = molecular weight of solute) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which of the following will form an ideal solution?

(1) C2H5OH and water

(2) HNO3 and water
(3) CHCl3 and CH3COCH3
(4) C6H6 and C6H5CH3

16)

A 15 volume strength of H2O2 solution is equivalent to :-

(1) 5.3 N
(2) 1.77 N
(3) 2.68 N
(4) 7.50 N

17) On the basis of information given below mark the correct option. (I) In bromoethane and
chloroethane mixture, intermolecular interactions of A-A and B-B type are nearly same as A-B type
interactions.
(II) In ethanol and acetone mixture A-A or B -B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A-
B type interactions.
(III) In chloroform and acetone mixture A-A or B-B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than
A-B type interactions.

(1) Solution II and III will follow Raoult's law

(2) Solution I will follow Raoult's law
(3) Solution II will show negative deviation from Raoult's law
(4) Solution III will show positive deviation from Raoult's law

18) Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A ( = 150 torr) and 2 mol B ( = 240 torr) is 200
torr. In this case :-

(1) there is positive deviation from Raoult's law

(2) there is negative deviation from Raoult's law
(3) there is no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) molecular masses of A and B are also required for calculating the deviation

19) What is the most likely boiling point of an equimolar mixture of hexane, (B.P = 69°C) and
heptane (B.P = 98°C) :-

(1) below 69°C

(2) between 69°C and 98°C
(3) above 98°C
(4) Any of these

20) Assertion : The solutions which show large positive deviation from Raoult's Law form maximum
boiling azeotropes.
Reason : 95% (by volume) aqueous solution of ethanol is maximum boiling azeotrope.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Assertion : Separation of azeotrope is not possible by fractional distillation.

Reason : Colligative properties depend on number of solute particles not on nature of solute.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
22) Consider 0.1 M solutions of two solutes X and Y. The solute X behaves as a univalent electrolyte
while the solute Y dimerises in solution. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
these solutions ?
(A) The boiling point of the solution of X will be higher than that of Y
(B) The osmotic pressure of the solution of Y will be lower than that of X
(C) The freezing point of the solution of X will be lower than that of Y
(D) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of both the solutions will be the same
Select the correct answer from the option given below :

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

23) Statement I: Isotonic solutions must have the same molar concentration.
Statement II: Solutions which have the same osmotic pressure are known as isotonic solution.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

24) Statement-1 :- Kf depends on nature of solute.

Statement-2 :- Kf is depression in freezing point of 1 molal solution.

(1) Statement 1 and 2 both are correct

(2) Statement 1 and 2 both are incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is correct & statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect & Statement 2 is correct

25) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- The decrease in the vapour pressure of solvent depends on the quantity of non-
volatile solute present in the solution.
Statement-II :- Relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

26) For the reaction

C6H12O6(g) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) if 20 ml of O2 is consumed then vol. of CO2 produced is:-

(1) 120 ml
(2) 20 ml
(3) 10 ml
(4) 100 ml

27) 0.59 g of the silver salt of an organic acid (Molar mass = 210) on ignition gave 0.36 g of pure
silver. The basicity of the acid is :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

28) 12 moles of each A and B are allowed to react as given 3A + 2B → C + D. If 60 gm of D is

produced then, calculate the atomic mass of D :-

(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 15

29) What number of moles of O2 is needed to produce 14.2 g of P4O10 from P?

(Molecular weight P4O10 = 284) :-

(1) 0.0500 mole

(2) 0.125 mole
(3) 0.250 mole
(4) 0.500 mole

30) In the reaction H2 + O2 → H2O. If 6g of H2 combines with 64g of O2. Find mass of Excess reagent
Left ?

(1) 32 g
(2) 48 g
(3) 16 g
(4) None

31) Specific heat of a metal is 0.015 cal per degree per gram and its equivalent weight is 207.2.
Calculate exact atomic weight of the metal :-

(1) 207.2
(2) 103.6
(3) 414.4
(4) None of these

32) The chloride of a metal contains 71% chlorine by weight and the vapour density of it is 50. the
atomic weight of the metal will be :

(1) 29
(2) 58
(3) 35.5
(4) 71

33) When an element forms an oxide in which oxygen is 20% of the oxide by mass, the equivalent
mass of the element will be –

(1) 32
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 128

34) STATEMENT-1 : Gram molecular mass of O2 is 32 g.

STATEMENT-2 : Relative atomic mass of oxygen is 32 a.m.u.

If both the statements are TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
(1)
STATEMENT-1
If both the statements are TRUE but STATEMENT-2 is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
STATEMENT-1
(3) If STATEMENT-1 is TRUE and STATEMENT-2 is FALSE
(4) If STATEMENT-1 is FALSE and STATEMENT-2 is TRUE

35) Statement-I : The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Statement-II : The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

36) Calculate [Link], of sodium in sodium azide:-

(1) – 1
(2) + 1
(3) – 3
(4) Zero

37) Mass of KHC2O4(potassium acid oxalate) required to reduce 100 ml of 0.02 M KMnO4 in acidic
medium to Mn2+ is x gm and to neutralise 100 ml of 0.05 M Ca(OH)2 is y gm, then :-

(1) x = y
(2) 2x = y
(3) x = 2y
(4) None of these

38) If M4O5 compound is written as Mx(I) My(III)O5 then calculate the value of x & y :-
(1) 1, 5
(2) 2, 2
(3) 3, 1
(4) 1, 3

39) In the reaction,

2CuSO4 + 4KI —→ Cu2I2 + 2K2SO4 + I2
The ratio of equivalent mass of CuSO4 to its molecular mass is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

40) In the reaction :

4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) —→ 4Fe3+(aq) + 6O2–(aq)
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) A given reaction is a redox reaction

(2) Fe is reducing agent
(3) O2 is an oxidizing agent
(4) Fe is reduced to Fe3+

41) Br2 reacts with cold and dilute KOH then equivalent weight of Br2 will be :-

(1)

(2) M

(3)

(4)

42) Match the following Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Reaction) (Redox type)

Intermolecular
(A) (P)
Redox

Disproportionation
(B) (Q)
redox

Comproportionation
(C) (R)
redox
 Intramolecular
(D) (S)
redox
(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)
(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(Q); (D)–(R)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(Q); (D)–(S)

43) Match the following Column-I to Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
(Oxide of nitrogen) (Oxidation state of nitrogen)

(A) N2O (P) +4

(B) NO (Q) +2

(C) N2 O 5 (R) +5

(D) NO2 (S) +1

(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(Q); (C)–(R); (D)–(P)
(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(S); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(Q); (D)–(S)

44) Assertion :- The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to form water and oxygen is an example of
disproportionation reation
Reason :- The oxygen of peroxide is in - 1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero oxidation state in
O2 and –2 oxidation staten in H2O

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

45) Assertion (A) : HNO3 acts only as an oxidising agent, while HNO2 acts both as an oxidising
agent and a reducing agent.
Reason (R) : The oxidation number of N in HNO3 is maximum

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) If (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

BIOLOGY

1) The aim behind addition of chilled ethanol to the homogenised medium in which naked DNA is
present is to :
(1) remove proteins associated with DNA strands
(2) bring about precipitation of DNA threads
(3) fragment DNA threads into shorter segments
(4) make DNA threads visible as orange coloured bands

2) The following figure shows :-

(1) Elution
(2) Spooling
(3) Biolistics
(4) Downstream processing

3) Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
(a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal
(b) Agarose is synthetic polymer obtained from sea-weed.
(c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the distance it travels through it.
(d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation.
Choose correct answer from the options given below

(1) (a), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

4) How many of the following statement are incorrect :

(a) From over 230 strain of virus more than 900 restriction enzyme have been isolated.
(b) Different restriction enzyme may recognise similar recognition sequence.
(c) Overhang double stranded stretches are known as sticky end.
(d) In micro injection recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Given below is typical agarose gel block in which electrophoresis has been done.

Select the correct statement :-

(1) Lane-1 shows digested DNA fragments
(2) Lane-2 to 4 shows undigested set of DNA fragments.
(3) Sample was loaded in the wells which is placed towards positive electrode
(4) Sample was loaded in the wells which is placed towards negative electrode.

6) Identify the restriction enzyme used to cut the site X, Y respectively :

(1) Pvu-I, Pst-I

(2) Sal-I, [Link]
(3) Pvu-II, Pst-I
(4) BamHI, Sal-I

7) Choose the correct statement in accordance to PCR ?

(a) Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to check restriction enzyme digestion.
(b) A thermostable DNA polymerase Isolated from "Thermus aquaticus" is used.
(c) Multiple copies of gene of interest is synthesized using two sets of primers and enzyme DNA
polymerase
(d) The cut out gene of interest from source DNA and cut vector are mixed and DNA ligase is added

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

8) Following are the steps involved in the process of PCR.

A. Annealing
B. Amplification (~1 billion times)
C. Denaturation
D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and deoxynucleotides
E. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from the options given below :

(1) C → A →D →E → B
(2) A → B →E → D → C
(3) C → A →B→D → E
(4) D → B →E → C → A

9) Statement–1: Biolistics method of gene transfer is an example of direct gene transfer.

Statement–2: Plant cell are bombarded with high velocity macro-particle of gold or tungsten.

(1) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true.

(2) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true.
(3) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is false.
(4) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false.

10) Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a
correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell. B. Cutting of DNA at specific
location by restriction enzyme. C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment. D. Amplification of gene of
interest using PCR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C, A, B, D
(2) C, B, D, A
(3) B, D, A, C
(4) B, C, D, A

11) Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumifaciens?

(1) It is pathogen of a few dicot plant.

'Ti' plasmid from Agrobacterium tumifaciens used for gene transfer is not pathogenic to plant
(2)
cell.
(3) It transforms normal plant cells into tumor cells.
(4) It delivers 'T-DNA' into plant cell.

12) Assertion: Bacterial cells are treated with a specific concentration of a divalent cation.
Reason: It increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell
membrane.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both assertion and reason are false.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

13) In a gene transfer β-galactosidase gene was used as selectable marker. Host cells were cultured
in presence of chromogenic substrate. The scientist was able to identify the recombinant host cells
because colonies of these cells were:

(1) Colourless
(2) Blue
(3) Red
(4) Smooth and shinning

14) What is incorrect for selectable markers present in vector ?

(1) To get the foreign gene product it should always remain active
(2) Can be enzyme producing gene
(3) It help in screening of both transformants as well as recombinants
(4) None of these
15) Some foreign DNA fragment is attached to Cla I site of pBR 322. This recombinant vector in used
to transform Escherichia coli. Then on two different media, one containing ampicillin and the other
containing tetracycline. The transformed cells containing the recombinant vector will :-

(1) Grow on both, tetracycline and ampicillin containing media

(2) Not grow on either tetracycline containing or ampicillin containing media
(3) Grow on tetracycline but not on ampicillin containing medium
(4) Grow on ampicillin but not on tetracycline containing medium

16) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted in to plasmid PBR322 using enzyme Pvu-I or Pst-I ?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicilin
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b & d are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, c & e are correct
(4) b, d & e are correct

17) Assertion : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotic resistance gene is a

cumbersome procedure.
Reason : It requires simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Select the incorrect statement for continuous culture system :-

(1) Used medium is drained out from one side while fresh medium is added from other side.
(2) In this cells are maintained in their physiologically most active lag phase of growth.
(3) It produces larger biomass
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product.

19)

A typical bioreactor has

(a) An agitator system
(b) An gene delivery system
(c) A foam control system
(d) A temperature control system
(e) A pH control system
(f) Sampling ports

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, c, d, e and f

20) A stirred tank bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with curved base to facilitate the :-

(1) Mixing of the reactor contents

(2) Control the temperature of the reactor
(3) Control the pH of the reactor
(4) All of the above

21) Which of the following processes and techniques are included under biotechnology ?
(A) In vitro amplification of DNA
(B) Synthesizing gene and using it
(C) In vitro fertilisation
(D) Correcting a defective gene

(1) B and D only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B, C and D

22) Assertion :- Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes is required.

Reason :- Sterile environment enable growth of only the desired microbe to produce
biotechnological products.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Assertion :- Piece of DNA which is transferred into alien organism would not be able to multiply
itself in the organism.
Reason :- Multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism it needs to be a part of a
chromosome which has a specific sequence known as 'ori' site.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Assertion : Both passenger and vector DNAs are cleaved by using the same restriction
endonuclease enzyme.
Reason : If we use same restriction enzyme on both passenger and vehicle DNAs, they produce
complementary sticky ends.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Consider the following statements regarding restriction endonuclease enzyme:

(A) This enzyme cuts the sugar-nitrogen, N-Glycosidic bond at specific sites of DNA.
(B) This enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotides sequence in the DNA
(C) This enzyme is a part of defence system of bacteria.
(D) This enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts always only one strand of DNA.
Select the option with only true statements:

(1) A and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and C
(4) A, B and D

26) Select the correct statement

(1) Sexual reproduction preserves the genetic information

(2) Asexual reproduction permits variations
(3) The first restriction endonuclease was Hind-II
(4) All are correct

27)

Which of the following is incorrect for a plasmid ?

(1) Autonomously replicating

(2) Extra-chromosomal DNA
(3) Circular DNA
(4) Linear DNA

28) EcoRI cut the DNA between the bases

(1) G and T only

(2) G and C only
(3) G and A only
(4) A and T only

29) Read the statements carefully.

(a) Each plant part takes care of its own gas exchange needs
(b) Plants shows great gaseous demand for gas exchange
(c) In plants large volume of gases are exchanged only during respiration
(d) Plants show very little transport of gases from one part to another
How many of the above statement (a-d) are incorrect ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Identify the incorrect statement :

During photosynthesis, availability of O2 is not a problem in plant cells since O2 is released

(1)
within the cell
(2) Most cells of a plant have at least a part of their surface in contact with air
(3) In stems, the 'living' cells are organised in thin layers inside and beneath the bark
(4) The cells in the interior of stem are living.

31) How many statements are true about glycolysis :-

(A) Occur in the cytoplasm of the cell.
(B) Present in all living organism.
(C) In this process, glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two molecule of pyruvic acid.
(D) In aerobic organism, it is the only process in respiration.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

32) Which of the following statement is not correct about fermentation ?

(1) Many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes can perform fermentation

(2) NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+
(3) Less than seven percent of energy in glucose is released
(4) Glucose is completely oxidised

33) The total number of 4-carbon containing compound in krebs cycle :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

34) In mitochondrial matrix, when pyruvic acid undergoes oxidative decarboxylation catalysed by
pyruvate dehydrogenase, which of the following are the products of this process ?

(1) Ethanol, Lactic acid and CO2

+
(2) NADH + H , CO2 and Acetyl CoA
(3) Citric acid, FADH2 and H2O
+
(4) Acetyl CoA, NADH+H and FADH2

35) How many molecules of CO2 are released in Krebs cycle with respect to each glucose molecule?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six

36)

For aerobic respiration to take place within the mitochondria, the final product of glycolysis is
transported from cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The crucial events in aerobic respiration are :-
• The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the A leaving three molecules
of B .

• The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the C to D with simultaneous synthesis of
ATP.
A B C D

(1) Oxygen atoms CO2 Hydrogen atom Molecular oxygen

(2) Hydrogen atom CO2 Hydrogen atom Molecular oxygen

(3) CO2 H2O O2 Hydrogen atom

(4) CO2 O2 Hydrogen atom H2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) How many ATP produce during the conversion of one molecules of α-ketoglutaric acid into OAA
in kreb's cycle ?

(1) 18 ATP
(2) 9 ATP
(3) 19 ATP
(4) 7 ATP

38) Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats,
carbohydrates and proteins ?

(1) Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate

(2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Acetyl Co-A
(4) Glucose-6-phosphate

39) To make calculation of the net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidised there are certain
assumptions, find the assumption which one is not been taken :-

(1) The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transfered to mitochondria.

(2) Only glucose is being respired
 Carbon skeleton produced during respiration is used as precursor for biosynthesis of other
(3)
molecules in the cell.
(4) Glycolysis, TCA cycle and ETS pathway following one after another.

40)

Carefully read the following statements :-

(a) All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they used for respiration.
(b) If fatty acids were to be respired they would first be degraded to pyruvic acid.
(c) When the organism needs to synthesis fatty acids, acetyl CoA would be withdrawn from
respiratory pathway for it.
(d) The respiratory pathway is involved only in catabolism.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

41)

2(A) + 145O2 → 102 CO2 + nH2O + Energy

What is A and n in above reaction?

(1) A-C51H98O6, n-96

(2) A-C51H98O5, n-98
(3) A-C50H98O6, n-96
(4) A-C51H98O6, n-98

42) Assertion: In aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is vital.

Reason: Oxygen drive the whole process by removing hydrogen from system to maintain the proton
gradient across inner mitochondrial membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Continuity of kreb's cycle require continued replenishment of oxaloacetate. (B) For each ATP
produced during oxidative phosphorylation, 2H+ pass through F0 from the perimitochondrial space to
the mitochondrial matrix up the electrochemical proton gradient. (C) Ubiquinone is located within
inner mitochondrial membrane. (D) It is the energy of oxidation reduction reaction that is used for
creating proton gradient during anaerobic respiration How many of the above statements are
wrong ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

44) During respiration

(a) Breaking C–C bonds of complex compounds
(b) All energy released in single step
(c) Energy released in multiple steps
(d) Enzymes are involved
(e) Respiration is not only, breaking of molecules but also precursors for biosynthesis of other
molecules.

(1) b, d are wrong

(2) a, b, c are true
(3) All are true
(4) Only b is wrong

45) Which of the following is associated to complex IV in mitochondrial ETS?

(1) Cyt bc1 complex

(2) Cyt a, cyt c, UQ
(3) cyt a, a3 and two copper centers
(4) FMN, UQ

ZOOLOGY

1) The basic unit of ecological study is :-

(1) Population
(2) Organsim
(3) Biosphere
(4) Biome

2) Ecology at the level of organism tries to understand how different organisms are adapted to their
environment in terms of not only survival but also reproduction. Thus referred as :-

(1) Synecology
(2) Physiological ecology
(3) behavioural ecology
(4) developmental ecology

3) Which statement is/are correct ?

(a) Ecology is a subject which studies the interaction among organism and between the organisms
with its physical (abiotic) environment.
(b) Ecology is a subject which studies the interaction between the organism with its physical
(abiotic) environment only.
(c) Ecology is a subject which studies the interaction between the organism with its biotic
environment only.
(d) Ecology is a subject which studies the interaction between organisms and its biotic and physical
(abiotic) environment.

(1) Only d are correct

(2) Only a are correct
(3) a and d are correct
(4) a, b, c, d are correct

4) Group of organisms of different species in a geographical area is termed as?

(1) Population
(2) Community
(3) Ecosystem
(4) Metapopulation

5) A population growth becomes asymptote when population density :-

(1) is in log phase

(2) is in lag phase
(3) reaches carrying capacity
(4) crosses carrying capacity

6) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Immigration is the number of individuals of same species who left the habitat and
gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
Statement-II : Natality and emigration contribute to an increase in population density.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

7) Exponential growth or geometric growth is represented by :-

(1) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Given below are two statements:

Statement I- An equal number of pre-reproductive and reproductive individuals will constitute a
mature population or stable population.
Statement II- Developed countries have a steeper pyramid which represents nearly a stable
population.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I Statement II is false.

9) How many statements are correct?

(a) Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the population that are added to
the initial density.
(b) Mortality is the number of deaths in the population during a given period
(c) Immigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone
elsewhere during the time period under consideration.
(d) Emigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from
elsewhere during the time period under consideration.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

10)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Vertical distribution of different species occupying different level is called
stratification.
Statement II : Trees occupy top vertical strata or layer of a forest.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

11) Niche is :-

(1) All the abiotic factors in the organism's environment

(2) The physical space where an organism lives
(3) The range at temperature that the organism needs to live
(4) The functional role played by the organism where it live

12) Which of the following is not a characteristics of a community ?

(1) Stratification
(2) Dominance
(3) Natality
(4) Species diversity

13) Which of the following plant employs sexual deceit to get pollination?

(1) Yucca
(2) Fig
(3) Cuscuta
(4) Orchid

14) Select the incorrect match.

Both species are

1 Mutualism
benefited

Only one of the

2 Parasitism
species is benefited

Only one of the

species is benefited
3 Commensalism other is neither
benefited nor
harmed

Both the species are

4 Predation
harmed
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which type of population interaction have properties like co- evolution, co - extinction and co-
existence ?

(1) Mutualism
(2) Competition
(3) Predation
(4) Amensalism

16) Assertion : Obligate mutualism is a positive interaction between two species.

Reason : Relationship between sea anemone and hermit crab is said to be an example of obligate
mutalism.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

17) Assertion (A) : Fig species can be pollinated only by its partner wasp species and no other
species.
Reason (R) : In many species fig trees, there is a tight one to one relationship (mutualism) with the
pollinator species of wasp.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

18)

Epizone are the example of :

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Proto cooperation

19) Sea anemone and clown fish shows which kind of community interaction -

(1) +/+
(2) +/–
(3) +/0
(4) –/0

20) How many association given below are commensalism?

Lichens, Barnacles-Whale,Orchid-Mango, Mycorrhiza, Orchid-Bee, Pilot fish-shark, Crocodile-bird.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

21) Non-obligatory relationship between two organism in which both are benefitted is called :

(1) Mutualism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Protocooperation
(4) Amensalism

22) Which of the following concept is correct about amensalism?

(1) Both species are benefitted

(2) One species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed
(3) One species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected
(4) One species is benefitted and the other is harmed

23) Match the following :-

 (a) Breeding once in life (i) Mammals

(b) Breeding several time in life (ii) Oysters

(c) Large number of small size offspring (iii) Most of birds

(d) Small number of large size offspring (iv) Salmon fish

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

24) The formula of population density is ...........

(1) Nt + l = Nt + [(B – I) – (D + E)]

(2) Nt + l = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(3) Nt + l = Nt + [(D + E) – (B + I)]
(4) Nt + l = Nt + [(B + I) – (D – E)]

25) Two populations which are interconnected by dispersing individual known as

(1) Local population

(2) Metal population
(3) Sister population
(4) None

26) k-selected species has :-

(1) High stability & low biotic potential

(2) Low stability & high biotic potential
(3) Short life time & high growth rate
(4) Long life time & high growth rate

27) Which of the following is a correct match ?

Column-I Column-II

(i) Carrying capacity A

(ii) Deceleration B

(iii) Asymptote C
 (iv) Acceleration D
Options :-
(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-C, (iv)-A
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-D, (iv)-A
(3) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-B
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-D, (iv)-A

28) Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle, they are :-

(1) Snail and Frog

(2) Snake and Fish
(3) Snail and Fish
(4) Snake and Frog

29) Which of the following is not a character of a population :

(1) Species diversity

(2) Birth Rate
(3) Death Rate
(4) Population density

30) In a month of January Siberian Cranes migrate from Russia to India for breeding. A survey was
done -
· Till December total population of Siberian Cranes = 1200
· Birth Rate = 400
· Mortality Rate = 200
· Number of Cranes immigrated = 600
· Number of cranes emigrated = 300
Calculate the total population :-

(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 2000
(4) 1700

31)
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to the above given figure ?

One petal of the flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female bumble bee in size, colour
(1)
and markings.
(2) The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination of the flower.
(3) The flower employs 'Sexual deceit' to get pollination done by a particular species of bumble bee.
(4) Male bumble pseudocopulates with the flower.

32)

Which one is not an example of Endemic species :

(1) Kiwi in New Zealand

(2) Meta sequoia in China valley
(3) Kangaroo in Australia
(4) Kangaroo rat in Desert

33) Which of the following example signifies a population?

(a) Rats in abandoned land
(b) Teak tree in a forest
(c) Bacteria is a culture plate
(d) Lotus plant in a pond
(e) All animals in a forest
(f) The cormorants in a wetland

(1) a, b, c, d and f
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) a, b, e and f
(4) Only b, c, d

34) Choose the incorrect one :

(1) B + I > D + E then population density increases

(2) B + I = D + E then population density becomes zero
(3) B + I < D + E then population density decreases
(4) B + I > D + E then growth rate is always +ve

35) Assertion : When a new habitat is just being colonized, immigration may contribute more
significantly to population growth than birth rates.
Reason : Under normal conditions, births and deaths are the most important factors
influencing population density.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

36) Assertion (A) :– Population size for any species is not a static parameter.
Reason (R) :– Population size keep changing with the time depending on various factors including
food availability, predation pressure, and reduced weather.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the
population is ___________ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1) 10
(2) 1.0
(3) zero
(4) 0.1

38) Assertion :- The logistic growth is more realistic than exponential growth.
Reason :- Resources for growth for most populations are finite and become limiting sooner or later.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

39) A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250,
average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is-

(1) 05
(2) zero
(3) 10
(4) 15

40) The ecological interaction in which co-existence, co-evolution and co-extinction occurs is/are :
(A) Mutualism (B) Predation
(C) Commensalism (D) Ammensalism

(1) A and B
(2) A and D
(3) B and C
(4) Only A

41) The exponential growth equation, dN/dt = rN, represents the growth pattern of a population
under :

(1) Limited resource conditions

(2) Carrying capacity conditions
(3) Unrestricted resource conditions
(4) Declining resource conditions
42) Statement-I :- Number of individuals of same species in an unit area is called population
density.
Statement-II :- Total number of deaths in a population in unit time with respect to initial population
is called as birth rate.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

43) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Expanding growth curve shows positive growth in near future

(2) Stable growth curve shows stable growth of population in future
(3) Declining growth curve shows negative growth of population in near future
(4) Number of pre reproductive individuals is higher than reproductive in declining growth curve

44) Two statements are given below :

Statement-I :- Species diversity depends on size of the area, type of area, type of soil altitude,
climate etc.
Statement-II :- The Highest number of organism of a species present in community is called as
dominant species.
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both the statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Both the statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

45) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Prof. R.D. Mishra is called as father of Indian ecology.
Statement-II :- Metapopulation is the basic unit of ecological study.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both the statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Both the statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 2 4 4 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 3 3 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 4 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 1 4 4 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 3 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 1 4 4 2 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

When ABC wavefront passes through glass, its velocity is reduced

vglass =

As, points A and C remain in glass for a short duration, they move for a larger distance and
B covers a small distance as it remains in glass for a longer duration (middle portion of glass is
thick) and finally A¢B¢C¢ is position of new wavefront. it is concave in shape.

2) 1. Problem Explanation :
Find the refractive index of a glass piece when light strikes it at 60° and the reflected beam is
completely plane-polarized.

2. Concept Used :
For complete plane polarization (Brewster's angle), the angle of incidence equals Brewster's
angle. The refractive index is given by Brewster's law :

Where iB is Brewster's angle.

3. Formula Used :

4. Calculation in Minimum Steps :

Given : iB = 60°

Final Answer :

3) By the Huygen's principle :–

Time for the path length (b) in air = Time for the path length (d) in water.

⇒ (Where c = speed of light in air, v = speed of light in water).

⇒ . From the definition of Refractive index, μw = .

4) Intensity,
If then

If , then

&
Therefore

5)

6) A1 = 3A and A2 = 5A

7) As 4th bright fringe of unknown wavelength λ' coincides with 3rd bright fringe of known
wavelength λ = 590 nm, therefore,

λ' = = 442.5 nm

8)

In YDSE

9) If slit is upward then zero order maxima will shift upward.

10) If slab is placed, fringe will shift but b will remain same.

0
11) I = I cos2
12) .

3I = 4I cos2

Δϕ = 60°

13) Shift =

=
i.e., 2 fringes upwards

14) The interference fringes for two slits are hyperbolic.

15) Imin =

I'min =

Imax =

I'min =
∴ I'max > Imax and
I'min > Imin

16) 12β1 = xβ2

12 × 600 × 10–9 × = x × 400 × 10–9

x = 18

17)

Given, λ= 6000Å = 6000 × 10–10 m, d = 0.3 mm

For minima, dsinθ = mλ (m = 1).

⇒ sinθ =
Angular position of 1st minima,

18) In case of diffraction at single slit, the closest angular position of minimum will be given by
:
 d sin θ = 1 × λ, i.e., θ = sin–1

If λ = d, θ → i.e. central maximum, will extend from –π/2 to π/2. So neither image of slit nor
pattern will be observed but the whole screen will be illuminated, with brightness gradually
decreasing on moving away from centre of screen.

19)

Distance between first and

sixth minima =

⇒ a = 2.5 mm

20) As speed of electrons is increased so wavelength of electrons will decreases. Therefore the
angular width (∝ λ) of the central maximum of diffrection pattern will decrease.

21) λsound > λlight

22)

After passing through first polariser intensity becomes half, so I1 = I0/2. For next two polariser
intensity I2 = I1 cos245° = I1/2.

I3 = I2 cos2 45° = I2/2 = =

I3 =

23) tan60° = μ
μ=

sin45° = sinr ⇒ sinr =

24) We know, λm = and μ = tan θ

∴ λm = = λa cot θ

25) When a Polaroid is rotated in the path of unpolarised light, the intensity of light coming
out from Polaroid remains undiminished because unpolarised light have vibrations in all
possible planes. While a Polaroid when rotated in path of plane polarized light, its intensity
will vary form maximum to minimum. Thus, using Polaroid, unpolarised light and polarized
light can be distinguished from each other.
 26)

Light gathering power, and resolution or resolving power depends on the area of the objective

With larger diameter fainter objects can be observed.

27) ; ;

28)

0
f + fe = 100 &
∴ 20fe = 100
⇒ fe = 5 cm

f0 = 95 cm

29)
f0 + fe = 36

30)

q = 32 µC

31) First current develops in direction of abcd but when electron moves away, then magnetic
field inside loop decreases & current will change its direction.

32) ϕ=BA cosθ= [π (0.2)2] cos60°=(0.2)2×

= 0.02 Wb

33) dq =

34) Induced emf e = Bvℓ ⇒ e = Bv (2R) =

35)
 Given, R = R0 + t
A = πR2 = π(R0 + t)2; = 2π(R0 + t)
Therefore, emf induced in the loop is

0
e=B = 2π(R + t)B

Since area is increasing, induced emf is in anticlockwise sense to oppose the change in flux.

36)

As the loop is very small the distance of every point in its plane can be taken to be equal to d =
1m

I = 3.36 (1 + 2t) × 10–2 ampere

= 2 × 3.36 × 10–2 m/sec

Magnetic induction at every point on the loop, B =

Magnetic flux linked with loop at any instant,

ϕ = BA = .πr2

Induced emf, e =

Induced emf, I =

=
= 5.024 × 10–11 amp

37) Let us take the area vector S perpendicular to plane of roop inwards. So, initially and
when it is rotated by 180° is anti parallel to B.

ϕi = BS cos 0° = (2) × (20 × 10–4) × 1 = 4.0 × 10–3 wb

Flux passing through the loop when it is rotated by 180°,
ϕf = BS cos 180° = 2(20 × 10–4) (–1) = –4 × 10–3 wb
Therefore, change in flux, ΔϕB = ϕf – ϕi
= –8.0 × 10–3 wb
Given Δt = 0.01 sec, R = 5Ω

|e| = = = = 0.8 V

i= = = 0.16 A

38) = 10t + 6
ε=– = – (10t + 6)
ε/t = 3 = –(10 × 3 + 6) = –36
ε/t = 0 = –(10 × 0 + 6) = –6

= =

39) =B (πr2) = 2πBr

i.e. e ∝ r

t = 0 – 1s, =0 so e=0

t = 1–2 s, = constant so e ∝ r

t > 2s, =0 so e=0

40) Motional emf e = Bvl ⇒ e = 2 × 2 × 1 = 4V

This acts as a cell of emf E = 4V and internal resistance r = 2Ω.
This simple circuit can be drawn as follows

Current through the connector i = = 1A

∴ magneitc force on connector Fm = Bil = 2×1×1=2N
(Towards left)

41)

e=–L

8=L

L= = 0.1H

42)

43) B due to outer loop =

=
Flux linked with smaller loop = B.A
(Assuming B as uniform since l <<<< L)
 ϕ=

ϕ = MI So M=

So M=

44)

In steady state, inductor behaves as a conducting wire.

So, equivalent circuit becomes

⇒ Req = 1W
⇒ Circuit becomes

45) As we know
τ = L/R = 2 × 10–3 ....(i)
when 90Ω added in series with R

......(ii)
by (i) & (ii) R = 30 & L = 60 mH

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation:
Mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is to be found.
Given data:
• Vapor pressure of pure benzene (P°benzene) = 200Torr
• Vapor pressure of pure benzene (P°toluene) = 150Torr
• Moles of benzene = 5
• Moles of toluene = 5
concept
Raoult'sLaw Law: The partial pressure of a component in the vapor phase is directly
proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
Dalton's Law: The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial
pressure of the individual gases.
Calculation
Xbenzene = moles of benzene / (moles of benzene + moles of toluene) = 5/(5+5) = 0.5
Pbenzene =Xbenzene (P°benzene) =0.5 ×200Torr = 100 Torr
Ptoluene = Xtoluene (P°toluene)
Xtoluene = 1 - Xbenzene = 0.5
Ptoluene = 0.5×150 Torr = 75 Torr
Ptotal = Pbenzene + Ptoluene
Ptotal = 100 Torr + 75 Torr = 175 Torr
Mole fraction of benzene in vapor phase (Ybenzene)
Ybenzene = Pbenzene/ Ptotal = 100Torr/ 175 Torr = 0.571
Final answer =The mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is approximately 0.57
correct option - 1

47)

Gasses that react with water like NH3, HCl etc, do not follow Henry’s law.
Correct Ans. 1

48)

49) SO XB

50) Concept:
Vapour pressure of H2O

Solution:
Vapour pressure of H2O is depends only on temperature not depends on solution of containing
V.P. of H2O remains 0.4 atm.

51)

Ans.-(1)

52) π = M × RT
 53) i = 1 – α + nα
= 1 – α + 3α ⇒ 1 + 2α

54)

Ans.-(3)

55)

Ans.-(3)

56)

Ans.-(2)

57)

Ans.-(4)

58)

Ans.-(4)

59)

Ans.-(4)

60) A. Question Explanation:

The question asks which pair of liquids will form an ideal solution. An ideal solution follows
Raoult's law, meaning that the vapor pressure of the solution is directly proportional to the
mole fraction of each component. In simpler terms, the interactions between the molecules of
the two liquids are similar to the interactions within each liquid itself.
B. Given Data:

A. Several pairs of liquids are given as options.

C. Concept:
Raoult's Law

Solution:
No calculations are strictly necessary. The key is to understand the nature of intermolecular forces.

A. Option 1 (C2H5OH and water): Ethanol (C2H5OH) and water form hydrogen bonds with each
other, which are stronger than the van der Waals forces in pure ethanol. This indicates a
significant interaction upon mixing, making it non-ideal.
B. Option 2 (HNO3 and water): Nitric acid (HNO3) and water react exothermically (strong
interaction) to form hydronium ions. This is a clear deviation from ideal behavior.
C. Option 3 (CHCI3 and CH CH3COCH3): Chloroform (CHCI3) and acetone (CH3COCH3) can
 form weak hydrogen bonds. These weak interactions mean that the solution isn't quite ideal.
D. Option 4 (C6H6 and C6H5CH3): Benzene (C6H6) and toluene (C6H5CH3) are both nonpolar
aromatic hydrocarbons. They interact through weak London dispersion forces. Since the
intermolecular forces in the pure liquids and the mixture are very similar, this combination is
closest to an ideal solution.

E. Final Answer:
C6H6 (benzene) and C6H5CH3 (toluene) will form an ideal solution. Option 4 is correct.

61)

Ans.-(3)

62)

Ans.-(2)

63)

Ps =

Ps = 150 × + 240 ×
Ps = 210 torr
Po < Ps so negative deviation solution
200 < 210

64)

Ans.-(2)

65)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks whether solutions that show a large positive deviation
from Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotropes, and whether a 95% aqueous ethanol
solution is an example of such a maximum boiling azeotrope. It seeks to know if both assertion
and reason are true and if the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Underlying Concept: Raoult's law describes the vapor pressure of ideal solutions. Deviations
from Raoult's law occur when intermolecular interactions differ from those in the pure
components. Positive deviation means weaker interactions, raising vapor pressure and
lowering boiling point, leading to minimum boiling azeotropes. Maximum boiling azeotropes
arise from negative deviations (stronger interactions), lowering vapor pressure and raising
boiling points.

Tips and Tricks: Recall the relationship between deviations from Raoult's law and the type of
azeotrope formed: Positive deviation → minimum boiling; Negative deviation → maximum
boiling.
Common Mistakes: Confusing positive deviation with maximum boiling instead of minimum
boiling azeotropes. Misidentifying the nature of the ethanol-water azeotrope as maximum
boiling rather than minimum boiling.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers stating that positive deviation solutions form
maximum boiling azeotropes are incorrect because positive deviation raises vapor pressure
and lowers boiling point. The ethanol-water azeotrope is minimum boiling, so classifying it as
maximum boiling is wrong.

66)

Ans.-(2)

67)

For x(i = 2) and Y(i = 1)

∴ (Tb)x > (Tb)x ; px > py ; (Tf)x < (Tf)y

68)

Let's analyze each statement to determine their correctness regarding isotonic solutions.

A. Question Explanation: We need to evaluate the relationship between isotonic solutions,

molar concentration, and osmotic pressure.

B. Given Data:

A. Statement I: Isotonic solutions must have the same molar concentration.

B. Statement II: Solutions which have the same osmotic pressure are known as isotonic
solutions.

C. Concept:

A. Isotonic Solutions: Solutions that have the same osmotic pressure.

B. Osmotic Pressure (π): The pressure that needs to be applied to a solution to prevent the
inward flow of solvent across a semipermeable membrane.

C. Osmotic Pressure Equation: π = iMRT, where

D. Mathematical Calculation:
 A. There are no direct mathematical calculations needed.

B. Statement I:

A. For isotonic solutions to have the same osmotic pressure (π), they must have the
same iMRT value.

B. If the solutions have different van't Hoff factors (i), they can have different molar
concentrations (M) and still have the same osmotic pressure.

C. Therefore, Statement I is not always correct.

C. Statement II:

A. By definition, isotonic solutions have the same osmotic pressure.

B. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

E. Final Answer: 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

69) Explanation :-
Kf (Cryoscopic constant):
It represents the depression in the freezing point of a solvent when 1 mole of a non-volatile
solute is dissolved in 1 kg of the solvent.
It is a property of the solvent, not the solute.
Therefore, Kf depends on the nature of the solvent.
Statement 1 :
Kf depends on the nature of the solute. This is incorrect. Kf depends on the nature of the
solvent.
Statement 2 :
Kf is the depression in freezing point of a 1 lolal solution. This is correct.
Answer Option 4, (statement 1 is incorrect & Statement 2 is correct.)

70)

Ans.-(2)

71)

Ans.-(2)

72)
Ans.-(1)

73)

Explanation: Question asks to find the atomic mass of D given moles of reactants, balanced
equation, and mass of product formed.

Given data :

A. 12 mol A

B. 12 mol B

C. Balanced equation: 3A + 2B → C + 1/2 D

D. Mass of D produced: 60 g

Concept: Limiting reactant, Stoichiometry

Calculation:

Limiting Reactant:

A. From the balanced equation, 3 moles of A react with 2 moles of B.

B. Given 12 moles of A and 12 moles of B:

A. A can react with (2/3) x 12 = 8 moles of B.

B. Since we have 12 moles of B, B is in excess and A is the limiting reactant.

Moles of D produced:

A. From the balanced equation, 3 moles of A produce 1/2 moles of D.

B. Therefore, 12 moles of A will produce 12/6 = 2 moles of D.

Atomic Mass of D:

A. Given that 60 g of D is produced and we know 2 moles are produced:

 B. Atomic mass of D = (60 g) / (2 mol) = 30 g/mol

Final Answer: 30 g/mol

Correct option - 1

74)

4P + 5 O2 → P4 O10

Moles

Moles of O2 required =
= 0.25 moles

75)

Question Explanation :
We are given 6 g of H2 and 64 g of O2 reacting to form water (H2O) and we need to find the
mass of excess reagent left after the reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on use the balanced chemical equation and molar masses to identify the
limiting reagent, then calculate how much of the excess reagent remains unreacted.

Solution :
Balanced equation : 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
Molar mass of H2 = 2 g/mol, so : 6 g H2 = 3 mol H2
Molar mass of O2 = 32 g/mol, so : 64 g O2 = 2 mol O2
From the equation : 2 mol H2 reacts with 1 mol O2

So, 3 mol H2 will need : = 1.5 mol O2

Available O2 = 2 mol so O2 is in excess :
Excess O2 = 2 – 1.5 = 0.5 mol
Mass of excess O2 = 0.5 × 32 = 16 g

Final Answer:
Option (3)

76) From Dulong & petit's law approx At. weight =

[Link]. of metal =

Valency =
Exact At. wt. of metal = 2 × 207.2 = 414.4
77)

Ans.-(1)

78)

Ans.-(1)

79)

Ans.-(3)

80)

Ethene is C2H4

81)

Ans.-(2)

82)

Ans.-(2)

83) M4O5
Mx(I) My(III) O5
x+y=4

y=3;x=1

84)

Ans.-(4)
85)

Ans.-(4)

86)

Ans.-(2)

87)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to match a set of chemical reactions (Column-I) with
their corresponding types of redox processes (Column-II). You need to identify whether each
reaction is an intramolecular redox, intermolecular redox, disproportionation, or
comproportionation reaction.

Underlying Concept: Redox reactions involve the transfer of electrons between species.
There are different types of redox reactions: - Intramolecular redox: Oxidation and reduction
occur within the same molecule. - Intermolecular redox: Oxidation and reduction occur
between different molecules or species. - Disproportionation: A single element undergoes both
oxidation and reduction to form two different products. - Comproportionation: Two different
oxidation states of the same element combine to form an intermediate oxidation state.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: - Disproportionation = same element -> both higher and lower
oxidation states. - Comproportionation = mixing species of different oxidation states to form
one intermediate. - Intramolecular redox usually happens within a compound breaking down. -
Intermolecular redox is a classic reaction between different elements or compounds.

Common Mistakes: Confusing disproportionation with comproportionation reactions.

Mistaking a reaction involving decomposition as intermolecular redox instead of
intramolecular. Misreading the oxidation states leading to incorrect matchings.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Incorrect options might swap the redox types, for
example assigning intermolecular redox to a reaction that is actually intramolecular or calling
a comproportionation reaction a disproportionation one. Identifying the direction of electron
transfer by oxidation states helps avoid these errors.

88)

Ans.-(1)

89)
 Ans.-(1)

90)

Ans.-(1)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg.#201

92) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201

93)

NCERT-XII, Page # 168

94) (a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from seaweed: This is true. Agarose is
derived from agar, a substance extracted from red algae (seaweed), and is commonly used in
gel electrophoresis. (b) The separation of DNA molecules in agarose-gel electrophoresis
depends on the size of DNA: This is correct. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments
are separated based on size. Smaller DNA fragments move faster through the gel matrix, while
larger fragments move more slowly. (c) The DNA migrates from negatively-charged
electrode to the positively-charged electrode: This is true. DNA is negatively charged due
to its phosphate backbone, so it migrates toward the positively charged electrode (anode)
when an electric field is applied. (d) The DNA migrates from positively-charged electrode
to the negatively-charged electrode: This statement is incorrect. Since DNA is negatively
charged, it moves toward the positively charged electrode. Thus, the correct choice is Option
2: (a), (b), and (c) only.

95)

NCERT XII Pg # 198

96) NCERT XIIth Pg.#199

97) NCERT Pg # 202, 203

98) NCERT 12th (E) Page No :- 172,173

NCERT 12th (H) Page No :- 188,189

99) NCERT XII Pg. # 201

100) Concept :
This question tests understanding of the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology.

Explanation: The correct sequence of steps is crucial for successful recombinant DNA
formation. Here's the breakdown:
Final Answer : option (4). B, C, D, A

101)

Question Explanation
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumifaciens

Explanation
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is primarily used for gene transfer into plant cells (eukaryotic
cells), not prokaryotic cells. It is not typically used for gene delivery in prokaryotes.

Final Answer (1)

102)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question presents an assertion and a reason related to bacterial
transformation, specifically the effect of a divalent cation on DNA entering bacterial cells. It
asks to identify the correctness of the assertion and the reason and their relationship.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves bacterial transformation, where DNA uptake
occurs through the cell wall and membrane. Divalent cations like Ca2+ are often used to
increase transformation efficiency by affecting the cell wall's permeability, enabling DNA entry
through pores in the cell wall, not directly through the cell membrane.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that divalent cations primarily increase permeability of the cell
wall rather than the cell membrane.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the cell membrane with the cell wall as the site of DNA entry;
assuming DNA passes directly through the membrane pores influenced by cations.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices suggesting the reason is true because DNA
enters through membrane pores are incorrect; DNA actually passes through pores in the cell
wall, not the membrane.

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

104) NCERT XII Pg. # 199, 200

105) NCERT XII Page No. # 199

106) NCERT XII Pg. # 199

107) NCERT Pg. # 200

108) NCERT XII Pg # 203(E), 221(H)

109)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 174

110) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 174

111) (A) In vitro amplification of DNA (e.g., PCR) is a fundamental biotechnology technique.
(B) Synthesizing gene and using it involves genetic engineering, a key aspect of
biotechnology.
(C) Developing cDNA (complementary DNA) is part of biotechnology used to study gene
expression.
(D) Correcting a defective gene is a form of gene therapy, a biotechnology application aimed
at treating genetic disorders.

112) NCERT XII, Page # (E) 194, (H) 213

113) NCERT - Pg. # 194

114) NCERT Pg.# 196

115) NCERT XII, Pg. # 165

116)

Explaining the Question :- The question is asking about the correct

statement

Concept:- The first restriction endonuclease

Solution :- Sexual reproduction promotes genetic variation, it does not preserve genetic
information exactly.

Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information, with little variation.

The first restriction endonuclease discovered was HindII.

There are hundreds of known restriction enzymes, but the number is more than 230, so
option 4 is also somewhat correct but less specific.
Final Answer :- (3) The first restriction endonuclease was Hind-II
117)

NCERT Pg # 198

118)

NCERT Pg # 195

119) NCERT Pg.# 227

120) NCERT, Pg # 154-155

121)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 228

122) NCERT Pg.#230

123)

In krebs cycle 4C compound = Succinyl Co-A, Succinnic acid, Fumaric acid, malic acid,
Oxaloacetic acid.

124)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. (E) # 231 (Equation)

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

126) NCERT XI pg.# 231

127) Module-06 Pg. # 113

128)

NEET-I, 2016

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 234

130)
 NCERT Page # 235

131)

Certainly, let's analyze the given reaction and determine the values of A and n.
Balanced Reaction
The balanced equation for the complete oxidation of tripalmitin (a triglyceride) is:
2C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy

132) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 233

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 232,233

134) NCERT Page No. 227

135) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 227,228 para-3, para-1

ZOOLOGY

136)

Ans.-(2)

137)

Ans.-(2)

138)

Ans.-(3)

139)

Ans.-(2)

140)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks at which point in the population growth process the
population size stops increasing rapidly and instead levels off to form an asymptote, meaning
the population stabilizes and does not grow significantly anymore.

Underlying Concept: The key concept here is the carrying capacity in population ecology.
Carrying capacity is the maximum population size that the environment can sustain over time
without degrading the environment. When a population reaches this limit, growth slows and
the population size levels off, forming an asymptote on a population growth curve.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the population growth curve has different phases: lag phase
(slow growth), log phase (exponential growth), and stationary phase (growth levels off). The
asymptote corresponds to the stationary phase at carrying capacity.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the asymptote with the lag phase or log phase where
population is either just starting to grow or growing rapidly. Also, mistakenly thinking the
population can grow indefinitely beyond carrying capacity without leveling off.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: • 'is in log phase' is incorrect because in the log
phase the population grows exponentially, not leveling off. • 'is in lag phase' is wrong
because this is the initial slow growth period. • 'crosses carrying capacity' is incorrect as
populations typically cannot sustainably exceed carrying capacity for long; they usually
stabilize around it.

141)

Ans.-(1)

142)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which mathematical equation or expression

correctly represents exponential growth (also called geometric growth) in a population or
system. It provides several options and wants to identify the correct representation.

Underlying Concept: Exponential growth refers to a process where the quantity increases at
a rate proportional to its current size. In biology and other sciences, this models populations
that grow continuously without limiting factors. Geometric growth is similar but often refers to
discrete time steps. The key idea is that the rate of growth depends directly on the current
amount.

Relevant Formulas: The core formula for exponential growth is: \[ \frac{dN}{dt} = rN \]
where: - is the size of the population or quantity, - is time, - is the intrinsic growth rate (a
constant).
This expresses that the rate of change of with respect to time is proportional to itself.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that exponential growth involves multiplication or continuous
compounding, not simple addition or subtraction of births, deaths, immigrations, and
emigrations.

Common Mistakes: Mistaking linear population change models (which add or subtract
individuals) for exponential growth, which involves growth proportional to the existing
population.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The equation calculates
population size by adding births and immigration and subtracting deaths and emigration at
discrete intervals, representing linear growth, not exponential. It does not express growth as
proportional to the current population , so it is not exponential growth.

143)

Ans.-(3)

144)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking how many of the four given statements about
population terms-natality, mortality, immigration, and emigration-are correct. You need to
identify which definitions are accurate and which are swapped or incorrect.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves basic concepts from population ecology. Natality
refers to the number of births adding to a population, mortality is the number of deaths
reducing it, immigration is the arrival of individuals into a habitat, and emigration is the
departure of individuals from a habitat.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that 'immigration' means 'coming in' to a habitat and
'emigration' means 'exiting' or 'going out'. This directional clue helps distinguish these terms.

Common Mistakes: Confusing immigration and emigration by swapping their meanings is a

frequent error. Another mistake is to mix natality with immigration or mortality with
emigration.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Statements (c) and (d) have their definitions swapped:
(c) defines emigration but labels it as immigration, and (d) defines immigration but labels it as
emigration, which causes confusion.

145)

NCERT Pg # 242

146)

Ans.-(4)

147)

NCERT Pg. # 228(E)

148) NCERT XII Pg # 238

149)

Ans.-(4)

150)

Ans.-(1)

151) NCERT Page # 237

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 237

153)

Ans.-(2)

154)

Ans.-(3)

155)

Ans.-(2)

156) solution-
The correct answer is Option 3: Protocooperation.
Protocooperation refers to a non-obligatory (optional) relationship between two organisms
where both benefit, but the relationship is not essential for their survival.
• Mutualism also involves mutual benefit, but it is an obligatory relationship where both
organisms depend on each other for survival.
• Commensalism involves one organism benefiting while the other is neither helped nor
harmed.
• Amensalism refers to a relationship where one organism is harmed and the other is
unaffected.
So, the best fit for the description in the question is protocooperation.

157) Amensalism is a type of biological interaction in which one species is harmed, while the
other species remains unaffected.

158)

Ans.-(2)

159)
 Ans.-(2)

160)

Ans.-(3)

161)

Ans.-(1)

162)

NCERT Pg. # 194, 195

163)

Explain Question : The question asks for the two specific intermediate hosts that the human
liver fluke (Clonorchis sinensis) requires to complete its complex life cycle.

Concept : This question is based on Parasitism.

Solution : "The human liver fluke (e.g., Clonorchis sinensis) requires two intermediate hosts –
a snail and a fish – to complete its life cycle."

Final Answer : option (3)

164)

Explanation:

A. Species diversity refers to the variety of species in a community, not in a single

population. A population consists of individuals of the same species in a specific area.

165)

NCERT-XII Pg#193

166)

Question:
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the above-given figure?

Correct Answer: 2. The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination
of the flower.

Explanation:
A. Option 2 (The female bumble bee is a critical link species which helps in pollination of the
flower): This is incorrect. In the case of sexual deceit, it is typically male bumble bees that are
tricked into pollinating the flower, not the female bees. The male bee attempts to mate with
the flower, inadvertently transferring pollen.

167) Explaining the Question –

Identify which species is not restricted to a specific geographic area (not endemic).

Concept –
Endemic species

Solution –
Endemic species are found only in a particular region and nowhere else. Kangaroo rat –
Desert Found in multiple deserts (not limited to a single region), hence not endemic.

Final Answer :
Correct Option: (4) Kangaroo rat in Desert

168) Cormorants are bird found in wet lands.

169)

NCERT Pg # 229

170) NCERT XII Pg # 229

171) NCERT XII, Pg. # 228

172)

NCERT Pg. # 227 [E], 247 [H]

173) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 231

174)

NCERT Page no. 193

175)

NCERT page number 237

176)

NCERT XII Pg # 230

177) NCERT, Pg # 192

178) NCERT, Pg # 192

179) Module

180) NCERT-XII