1.

Wheel camber limitation are

a. 3 to 5 degree
b. 2 to 4 degree
c. 3 to 4 degree
d. 2 to 5 degree

2. Toe-in limitations are

a. 0” to .10”
b. 0” to .20”
c. 0” to .16”
d. 0” to .15”

3. Mark the correct statement

a. Never Turn the nose wheel more than 25 degree
b. Never turn the nose wheel more than 15 degree
c. Never turn the nose wheel more than 30 degree
d. Both A & B are correct

4. Corresponding points on both upper door sills used for

a. Level the aircraft vertically
b. Level the aircraft laterally
c. Level the aircraft longitudinally
d. None of the above

5. Flyable storage is defined as

a. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a Maximum of 30 days
b. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a maximum of 90 days
c. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a maximum of 60 days

6. Temporary storage is defined as

a. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a Maximum of 30 days
b. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a maximum of 90 days
c. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a maximum of 60 days

7. Aircraft is constructed of
a. Aluminum
b. Corrosion resistant alclad aluminum
c. Corrosion resistant steel
d. As in A & are subjected to oxidation

8. Indefinite storage is defined as

a. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a Maximum of 30 days
b. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a maximum of 90 days
c. The aircraft is in a nonoperational status for a maximum of 120 days
d. None of the above
9. Fuel tanks should be filled immediately after flight to
a. Avoid tank collapsing
b. Lessen moisture condensation
c. Avoid tank contamination
d. All of the above

10. Ethylene glycol monomethyl ether mixed with fuel should not
a. Exceed 0.10% by volume
b. Exceed 0.15% by volume
c. Exceed 0.20% by weight
d. Exceed 0.15% by weight

11. Use of excessive fuel additive than recommended can cause

a. Deterioration of protective primer of fuel tanks
b. Deterioration of sealants
c. Deterioration of O-rings
d. All of the above

12. Fuel drains are located in the

a. Fuel line drain tee
b. Fuel strainer
c. Carburetor
d. All of the above

13. Change central air filter element at every

a. 500 hrs
b. As in A & when it becomes clogged to cause suction gage reading to drop below 4.6” of
mercury
c. As in A & when it becomes clogged to cause suction gage reading to drop below 4.5” of
mercury
d. Only A is correct

14. Electrolyte & corrosion can be neutralized by

a. Bicarbonate of soda
b. Rejuvenators
c. Water
d. Both A & C

15. Inflate strut to

a. 25 psi
b. 30 psi
c. 20 psi
d. 35 psi

16. Cabin door release handle pull should be a maximum of

a. 30 lbs
b. 45 lbs
 c. 50 lbs
d. 40 lbs

17. For soundproofing aircraft is insulated with

a. Spun glass mat-type
b. Sound deadener compound
c. Both A & B are correct
d. Only B is correct

18. Mark the incorrect statement

a. Inertia reel allows free movement for the seat occupant
b. It will lock when subjected to a sudden load
c. All of the above is correct
d. None of the above is correct

19. Replace seat rail when

a. Any web or lower flange is cracked
b. No. of cracks on any 1 rail exceeds 5 or any 2 cracks are closer than 2 inch
c. Any cracks in crown of rail is in any direction other than parallel to length of rail
d. All of the above

20. Wing heavy condition can be corrected by

a. Decreasing the angle of incidence
b. Increasing the angle of incidence
c. None of the above are correct

21. Mark the correct statement

a. Rotate the eccentric bushing simultaneously
b. Rotating them separately will destroy alignment
c. As in B & cause damage to the hole in the wing spar fitting
d. All of the above

22. If the thick portion of the eccentric bushing is down it will

a. Increase angle of incidence
b. Decrease angle of incidence
c. As in A & thus decreases wing heaviness
d. As in B & thus increases wing heaviness

23. Wing strut should be replace if the groove is

a. Deeper than 40% of the original material thickness
b. Deeper than 75% of the original material thickness
c. Deeper than 50% of the original material thickness
d. Deeper than 60% of the original material thickness

24. Fin tips are of

a. ABS
b. Glass fiber
c. Acrylic
d. Both A & B are correct
25. Torque value of stabilizer attaching bolts is
a. 70-100 lb-in
b. 100-120 lb-in
c. 120-150lb-in
d. 150-180 lb-in

26. Torque value of fin attaching bolts is

a. 70-100 lb-in
b. 100-120 lb-in
c. 120-150lb-in
d. 150-180 lb-in

27. Mark the correct statement

a. Abrasion boots installed on horizontal stabilizer protect it from rocks thrown by propeller
b. MEK should not used to clean the inside surface of abrasion boots
c. Boots should not applied over epoxy primer
d. All of the above

28. Aircraft leans to one side

a. Incorrect tire inflation
b. Landing gear attaching parts too tight
c. Bent axles
d. All of the above

29. Tires wear excessively

a. Main wheel out of alignment
b. Bent axles
c. Wheel bearing excessively tight
d. All of the above

30. Wheel bounce evident on smooth surface

a. Out of balance condition
b. Landing gear spring excessively sprung
c. Incorrect tire inflation
d. All of the above

31. Dragging of brakes causes

a. Aircraft to lean one side
b. Excessive tire wear
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

32. Tubular strut is

a. Compression fit in the bushing in outboard landing gear forging
b. Press fit in the bushing in outboard landing gear forging
c. Tight fit in the bushing in outboard landing gear forging
d. None of the above
33. Mark the correct statement
a. Apply Dow corning compound DC-7 to approximately 11” on upper end of tubular strut
b. Avoid use of Dow corning DC-7 on surface to be painted
c. DC-7 contains silicon which is harmful to painted surfaces
d. All of the above

34. Mark the correct statement

a. Wheel fairing equipped with adjustable scrapper
b. Brake fairing is not attached with speed fairing
c. Speed fairing are attached to the axle
d. Both A & C

35. The clearance between tire & scraper should be

a. Min 0.20” to max 0.40”
b. Min 0.25” to max 0.50”
c. Min 0.15” to max 0.45”
d. Only A is correct

36. Bearing cups are attached with wheel halves by

a. Compression fit
b. Interference fit
c. Press fit
d. Tight fit

37. To remove bearing cups from wheel half

a. Heat the wheel half in boiling water for 30 min.
b. Heat wheel half in oven
c. As in B & temperature should not exceed to 250˚F
d. All of the above

38. Torque back plate mounting bolt to

a. 80 - 90 lb-in
b. 80 – 100 lb-in
c. 100 – 120 lb-in
d. 90 -110 lb-in

39. Prior to torquing nuts inflate tube with approximately

a. 10 – 15 psi
b. 15 – 20 psi
c. 10 – 20 psi
d. None of the above

40. Check scraper to tire clearance

a. After installing speed fairing
b. After tire has been changed
c. If scraper adjustment has been disturbed
d. All of the above
41. Mark the correct statement
a. Axles are bonded to struts by adhesive
b. Heat should not used to weakening the bond
c. Axles are attached with strut by bolts
d. None of the above

42. Measure Toe-in at

a. The edge of brake disk
b. The end of strut
c. The Edge of wheel flange
d. All of the above

43. Measure camber by reading protector level held

a. Horizontally against outboard flange of wheel
b. Horizontally against inboard flange of wheel
c. Vertically against outboard flange of wheel
d. Vertically against inboard flange of wheel

44. Nose wheel shimming is experienced its due to

a. Wheel bearing too loose
b. Loose torque link
c. Defective shimmy dampener
d. All of the above

45. If nose strut does not hold air pressure it is due to

a. Defective or loose air filler valve
b. Defective strut seal
c. All of the above

46. If Hydraulic fluid is leaking from nose strut probable cause is

a. Defective strut seal
b. Defective or loose air filler valve
c. Loose torque link
d. All of the above

47. Shock strut extension is

a. Min 3.69” -- max 4.17”
b. Min 3.49” – max 4.15”
c. Min 3.59” – max 4.27”
d. None of the above

48. Torque limitation of strut clamp bolts are

a. 100 ± 20 lb-in
b. 110  20 lb-in
c. 120 ± 20 lb-in
d. 130 ± 20 lb-in
49. Do not remove bolt attaching tow bar spacer unless
a. Strut has been completely removed
b. Strut has been completely deflated
c. Strut has been reinstalled
d. None of the above

50. Mark the correct statement

a. Torque link keep the lower strut aligned with the nose gear steering system
b. As in A but permit shock strut extension
c. Deflate the shock strut before removing torque link
d. All of the above

51. Probable cause of dragging brakes are

a. Brakes pedal binding
b. Worn scored or warped brake disc
c. Parking brake linkage holding brake pedal down
d. All of the above

52. If Brakes fails to operate the probable cause are

a. Leak in system
b. Air in system
c. Defective master cylinder
d. All of the above

53. Mark the correct statement

a. Master brake cylinder filler plug must be vented
b. As in A & it is vented so pressure cannot build up in the reservoir during brake operation
c. If it not vented drill a 1/16” hole 45˚, from vertical
d. All of the above

54. Minimum thickness of wheel brake disk is

a. 0.175”
b. 0.195”
c. 0.190”
d. 0.180”

55. Mark the correct statement

a. Minimum thickness of brake lining is 3/32”
b. Minimum thickness can be determined by the shank end of a drill bit
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

56. Composition of brake lining pads are

a. Non- asbestos organic composition
b. Iron based metallic composition
c. Both A & B
57. Brake burn-in must be performed by a qualified person familiar with
a. Acceleration & stop distance
b. Aircraft
c. Brake system
d. All of the above

58. Mark the correct statement

a. light brake usage should generate enough heat to maintain the glaze throughout the life of
brake lining
b. normal brake usage can cause the glaze to wear off
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

59. Aileron drop limitations is

a. 1˚± 1/2˚ up from streamlined
b. 1˚± 1/2˚ down from streamlined
c. Only A is correct
d. Only B is correct

60. If control wheel lost motion probable cause are

a. Loose control cables
b. Sprung bellcrank
c. Loose chains
d. All of the above

61. If control wheel movement is hard probable cause are

a. Loose control cables
b. Push pull rod not adjusted correctly
c. Rusty chains or chain binding with sprocket
d. All of the above

62. If resistance is there in control wheel movements probable causes are

a. Cables too tight
b. Bellcrank distorted or damaged
c. Defective U-joints
d. All of the above

63. If control wheels are not level with aileron neutral

a. Improper adjustment of chains or cables
b. Improper adjustments of push-pull rod
c. Chains improperly adjusted
d. Only A & B

64. Dual control wheels are not coordinated with each other probable cause is
a. Improper adjustment of chains or cables
b. Push pull rod not adjusted properly
c. Chains improperly adjusted
 d. All of the above

65. If aileron travel is not correct probable cause are

a. Push- pull rod not adjusted properly
b. Worn or bellcrank stop bushing on bellcrank slots
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

66. The control “Y” is pivoted at lower end to operate

a. Elevator control system
b. Aileron control system
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

67. Flap rollers and tracks are inspected for

a. Binding
b. Defective parts
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

68. If both the flaps are fail to move probable cause are
a. Defective motor
b. Frayed cable
c. Flaps binding on tracks
d. All of the above

69. If both the flaps are fail to move probable cause are
a. Popped circuit breaker
b. Defective switch
c. Defective limit switch
d. All of the above

70. If binding in the flap system as it is raised or lowered probable cause are
a. Cables not riding on pulleys
b. Bind in drive pulleys
c. Broken or binding pulleys
d. All of the above

71. If left flaps fail to move probable cause are

a. Disconnected or broken cable
b. Disconnected push-pull rod
c. Broken or binding pulley
d. A & B are correct

72. If flap travel is incorrect then probable causes are

a. Incorrect rigging
b. Defective operating switch
c. A & B
d. None of the above
73. If flaps fail to retract then probable cause are
a. Defective operating switch
b. Defective or disconnected flaps up operating switch
c. Incorrect rigging
d. None of the above

74. In elevator system no response to control wheel fore & aft movement then probable cause are
a. Forward or aft end of push-pull tube disconnected
b. Cables disconnected
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

75. If binding or jumpy movement felt in movement of elevator system probable causes are
a. Cable slack
b. Clevis bolts too tight
c. Nylon grommet on instrument panel binding
d. All of the above

76. If elevator fails to attain prescribed travel probable cause are

a. Stops incorrectly set
b. Cable tightened unevenly
c. Interference at firewall or instrument panel
d. All of the above

77. If Trim tab control wheel move with excessive resistance probable cause are
a. Cable tension too tight
b. Cables not in place on pulleys
c. Trim tab hinge binding
d. All of the above

78. If there is loose in motion between control wheel and trim tab probable cause are
a. Cable tension too low
b. Broken pulley
c. Worn trim tab actuator
d. All of the above

79. If trim indicator fails to indicate correct trim position probable cause are
a. Indicator incorrectly engaged on wheel track
b. Stop blocks loose or incorrectly adjusted
c. Actuator attachment loose
d. All of the above

80. If trim tab travel is incorrect probable cause are

a. Cable not in place on pulley
b. Rusty chains
c. Stop blocks loose or incorrectly adjusted
d. All of the above
81. If binding or jumpy movement of rudder pedal is experienced probable cause are
a. Defective rudder bar bearings
b. Clevis bolt too tight
c. Steering rod not adjusted properly
d. All of the above

82. If motion is lost in between rudder pedals and rudder the probable cause may be
a. Incorrect rigging
b. Broken or disconnected cables
c. Insufficient cable tension
d. All of the above

83. A cluster must be removed from panel to replace

a. All instruments
b. Individual gage
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

84. Static line sump is installed at source button to collect

a. Water
b. Dust
c. Condensation
d. All of the above

85. During leak test of static system leakage in one minute shall not exceed to
a. 150 feet of altitude loss as indicated on altimeter
b. 175 feet of altitude loss as indicated on altimeter
c. 100 feet of altitude loss as indicated on altimeter
d. None of the above

86. For clearing of the pitot line from obstruction

a. Disconnect line from airspeed indicator
b. As in A & using low pressure air
c. As in B & blow compress air from indicator end of line toward the pitot tube.
d. As in B & blow compress air through pitot line to indicator end of line.

87. If battery is not supply power to bus or is incapable of cranking the engine probable cause are
a. Open coil on contactor
b. Faulty contactor contacts
c. Faulty wiring between contactor & bus
d. All of the above

88. Mark the correct statement

a. Battery Electrolyte level should not be lower than bottom of the separator plates
b. Battery Electrolyte level should not be higher than top of split rings
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
 ˚
89. At 80 F electrolyte temperature hydrometer shows 1.280 specific gravity it indicates the batter
is charged
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%

90. Mark the correct statement

a. The alternator is very susceptible to reverse polarity current
b. As in A & because of the silicon diodes
c. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the diodes will offer no resistance to current flow
d. All of the above

91. Torque value of used alternator belt is

a. 7 – 9 ft lbs
b. 11 – 13 ft lbs
c. 9 – 11 ft lbs
d. 8 – 10 ft lbs

92. If alternator system will not keep the battery charged the probable causes are
a. Alternator field winding open
b. Alternator output voltage insufficient
c. Alternator belt is slipping
d. All of the above

93. If instrument lights is not light correctly or is dim then probable cause may be
a. Defective rheostat
b. Defective wiring
c. Short circuit in wiring
d. All of the above

94. Mark the correct statement

a. Left lamp is used for landing
b. Right lamp is used for taxiing
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

95. Mark the correct statement regarding landing & taxiing light adjustment
a. The aircraft should be parked 3 feet away from a wall or reflecting surface.
b. As in A & nose gear shock strut should be extended 2”
c. As in B & center of landing light beam on wall should be 31-3/8” above the floor
d. As in C & center of taxiing light beam on wall should be 29-5/8” above the floor

96. Mark the correct statement

a. ELT is designed to provide a broadcast tone
b. As in A & that is audio modulated in a swept manner
c. As in B & over the range of 1600 to 300 Hz in a distinct
 d. Only B is correct
97. ELT unit start transmitting emergency signals only after receiving
a. 2g impact force, for a duration of 11-16 milliseconds
b. 3g impact force, for a duration of 11-16 milliseconds
c. 4g impact force, for a duration of 11-16 milliseconds
d. 5g impact force, for a duration of 11-16 milliseconds

98. Mark the correct statement

a. Dynafocal type engine mount is used for engine mounting
b. Engine mount is constructed of chrome-molybdenum steel tubing
c. Nose gear shock strut is secured to the tubular engine mount
d. All of the above

99. Mark the correct statement

a. Engine mount member can be repaired by using a larger diameter replacement tube
b. Cracks adjacent to an engine attaching lug repaired by rewelding the support tube
c. Engine mount-to-fuselage attaching fittings must be replaced.
d. All of the above

100. Mark the correct statement

a. Firewall sheets may be repaired by removing the damaged material & splicing in a new
section
b. Wing assemblies are a semicantilever type employing semimonocoque type of structure
c. Both A & B