Understanding Financial Accounting Standards
Understanding Financial Accounting Standards
FOR
Faculty:
M. Umar Munir
FCMA (Gold Medalist), MS Finance
Financial Accounting & Corporate Reporting ICMA Pakistan
SYLLABUS AT A GLANCE
PART A: Regulatory and Conceptual Framework 05%
1. The conceptual and Regulatory Framework of Financial Reporting
Asset/Liability Standards:
1. IAS 2 Inventories
2. IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets
Non-Current Standards:
3. IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment
4. IAS 23 Borrowing Costs
5. IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants & Disclosure of Government Assistance
6. IAS 38 Intangible Assets
7. IAS 40 Investment Property
8. IAS 36 Impairment of Assets
9. IFRS 16 Leases
Revenue Standards:
10. IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers
Disclosure Standards:
11. IAS 24 Related Party Disclosures
12. IFRS 5 Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations
13. IFRS 8 Operating Segments
14. IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors
15. IAS 10 Events After the Reporting Period
16. IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements
17. IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flows
Group Accounts
18. IFRS 3 Business Combinations.
19. IFRS 10 Consolidated Financial Statements
Group Accounts
20. IFRS 09 Financial Instruments.
21. IFRS 2 Share-based Payment.
MANAGERIAL LEVEL-2
M4 – FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING & CORPORATE REPORTING
INTRODUCTION Elucidate operating segments;
This course is designed to focus on preparing, Understand non-current assets held for sale and
analysing financial statements and developing reports discontinued operations;
thereon, for management decisions. The students are Identify the events after the reporting period;
expected to use knowledge and understanding of Comprehend provisions, contingent liabilities
more advanced financial accounting, for preparing and contingent assets;
and interpreting financial statements in context of Elucidate property, plant and equipment;
practice. Deal with government grants;
Understand borrowing cost;
OBJECTIVE
Identify and comprehend intangible assets and
To provide the students with an in-depth knowledge
impairment of assets;
of financial reporting enabling them to:
Record research and development expenditure
analyse and interpret financial statements and
cost;
prepare financial reports, and
Apply accounting treatment of goodwill and its
Submit recommendations to the management for
impairment;
taking decision.
Perform adequate accounting treatment of
LEARNING OUTCOMES leases;
On completion of this course, students will be able to: Prepare and interpret statement of cash flows;
Comprehend the structure and objectives of Prepare and present the financial statements
regulatory framework and setting of according to international Accounting Standards
international financial reporting standards; (IAS) and International Reporting Standards
Understand the meaning of conceptual (IFRS);
framework and GAAP; Identify accounting treatment of inventories and
Realize the ways in which IFRS can interact with WIP;
local regulatory frameworks: Learn accounting treatment for financial
Explicate the elements and qualitative instruments;
characteristics of financial statements; Apply the accounting rules for current and
Implement accounting policies changes in deferred taxation, including calculation of
accounting estimates and errors; deferred tax.
Learn the revenue recognition; ystems audit, control and security practices;
Explicate related party disclosure;
INDICATIVE GRID
PART SYLLABUS CONTENT AREA WEIGHTAGE
REGULATORY AND CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK
A 1 The regulatory framework 5%
2 The Conceptual Framework
SINGLE COMPANY FINANCIAL ACCOUNTS
3 IAS 1 (Revised) Presentation of Financial statements
4 Reporting Financial Performance
5 Other Reporting
6 Accounting for non-current assets
B 7 Intangible non-current assets 85%
8 Impairment of Assets
9 Leases
10 Statements of Cash Flows
11 IAS 2 Inventories and Short term WIP
12 Share Based Transactions and Financial instruments
ACCOUNTING FOR TAXATION
C 10%
13 IAS 12: Income taxes
TOTAL 100%
Note: The weightage shown against each section indicates, study time required for the topics in that section. This
weightage does not necessarily specify the number of marks to be allocated to that section in the examination.
DETAILED CONTENTS
PART – A The IASB’s Conceptual Framework
REGULATORY AND CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK Qualitative Characteristics of Financial
Statements
1. The regulatory framework
The elements of Financial Statements
The International Accounting Standard
Board (IASB) PART - B
Setting of International Financial Reporting SINGLE COMPANY FINANCIAL ACCOUNTS
Standards
3. IAS 1 (Revised) Presentation of Financial
2. The Conceptual Framework statements
Conceptual Framework and GAAP General Features
1
Study Scheme 2018
Structure and Detail Contents o Prepare and present simple
Preparation of Financial Statements consolidated statements of financial
position and simple consolidated
4. Reporting Financial Performance statement of comprehensive income
IFRS 5: Non-Current Assets held for Sale and involving a single subsidiary
discontinued operations.
o Scope and definitions : 8. Impairment of Assets
o Conditions of IFRs 5: IAS 36 Impairment of Assets
o Transfer from IAS 16 to IFRS 5 Cash Generating Units
IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Goodwill and the Impairment of Assets
Accounting Estimates and Errors Accounting treatment of an Impairment
IFRS 8 Operating Segments. Loss.
IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Reversal of impairment losses.
Customers.
o Five steps of Revenue Recognition. 9. Leases
o Construction contacts. Characteristics of Leases
IAS 24 Related Part Disclosures IFRS 16 Lease
Operating leases
5. Other Reporting Finance leases
IAS 10 Events after the Reporting Period
IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities 10. Statements of Cash Flows
and Contingent Assets IAS 7 Statement of Cash Flow
Preparing a Statement of Cash Flow
6. Accounting for non-current assets Interpretation of Statements of Cash Flows
IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment
o Scope and definitions 11. IAS 2 Inventories
o Cost of NCA: Definitions
o Cost model. Measurement of Inventories
o Disposal of NCA Inventory Valuation Method
o Exchange of NCA. Net Realizable Value
o Revaluation model. Recognition as an Expense
o Different movements in Revaluation. Disclosures
o Excess depreciation. 12. Share based Transactions and Financial
o Disposal of Revalued Assets. instruments
IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants Definitions
and Disclosure of Government Assistance. Types of Transaction
o Scope and definitions : Equity-Settled Share-Based Payment
o Government grants and assistance : Transactions Disclosures.
o Revenue grant: Financial Assets and Financial Liabilities:
o Treated as income o Scope and definitions of financial
o Deducted from respective expense assets and financial liabilities:
o Capital grants: o Financial liabilities (Short term, Long
o Treated as deferred income and term, Convertible loan notes)
deducted from Non-current assets IAS o Indicate for the following categories of
23 Borrowing Costs financial instruments how they should
IAS 40 Investment Properties. be measured and how any gains and
o Scope and definitions : losses from subsequent measurement
o Investment properties. should be treated in the financial
o Transfer from IAS 16 to IAS 40 statements:
7. Intangible non-current assets i . A m o r t i z ed c o s t
IAS 38 Intangible Assets. i i . Fa i r va l u e thr o ug h o the r
o Internally and externally generated comprehensive in c om e
intangibles. (including where an irrevocable
o Infinite and indefinite intangible election has been made for
Research & Development Cost e q u i t y i n s t r u m en t s t h a t a r e n o t
IFRS 3 Business Combinations h e l d f o r t r a d in g )
o Describe the concept of a group as a iii. Fair value through profit or loss
single economic unit PART - C
o Define subsidiary, parent and control ACCOUNTING FOR TAXATION
by identifying simple examples
o Describe situations when control is 13. IAS 12 Income taxes
presumed to exist Current Tax
o Identify and describe the Deferred Tax
circumstances in which an entity is Taxation in Company Accounts
required to prepare and present Presentation and Disclosure of Taxation
consolidated financial statements
Recommended Books:
CORE READINGS
Title Author Publisher
Gripping: IFRS Pakistan Edition Cathryune Sowden-Service ICAP / Lexis Nexis
Intermediate Accounting Donald E. Kieso / Jerry J. Weygandt & Terry D. Warfield John Willey & Sons.
IFRSs/IASs IASB IFRS Foundation
2
INSTITUTE OF COST AND MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTANTS OF PAKISTAN
EXAMINATION DEPARTMENT
Syllabus Composition
of Time
Weightage Marks Allocated
Part/ Section Allowed
% Questions
M u l t i p l e C h o i c e Q u e s t i o n s (MCQs)
NOTE:
(1) The weightage % shown against each section/ part does not necessarily specify the number or marks
to be allocated to that section in the examination.
(2) Composition of MCQs and Descriptive Questions: Number of questions/ their respective marks
may be varied as per the requirements of the question paper.
(3) Descriptive Questions may include definitions, concepts, principles, cases/ scenarios, analysis,
interpretation, reports, application of laws/ standards, etc.
(4) There will be no Extra Reading Time allowed in the paper.
Subject: [M4] Financial Accounting & Corporate Reporting Level: Managerial Level-2
1. Government grants related to assets, including non-monetary grants at fair value, shall be presented
in _______.
2. As per IFRS 16 ‘Leases’, which of the following information a lessee shall disclose for the reporting
period?
3. Raana Limited acquired office equipment worth Rs. 780,000 on January 01, 2018. The useful life of
equipment is estimated to be 6 years and the residual value is expected to be Rs. 150,000. The
company uses diminishing balance method of depreciation at the rate of 15% per annum. The
amount of depreciation of the office equipment for the year ended December 31, 2019 is _______.
A Rs. 117,000
B Rs. 99,450
C Rs. 94,500
D Rs. 80,325
A Rs.2,795,000
B Rs.2,640,000
C Rs. 2,000,000
D Rs. 2,715,000
5. A company enters into a contract to build a factory for one of its customers. The agreed price of the
project is Rs. 2 million with a specified completion date of December 31, 2019. However, the contract
also provided that the company will receive an additional incentive of Rs. 300,000, if the factory is
completed by November 30, 2019. The company estimated that there is a 30% probability of building
the factory by November 30, 2019 and 70% in December 2019. The expected value of transaction
price for the contract is ____________.
A Rs. 2,030,000
B Rs. 2,090,000
C Rs. 2,600,000
D Rs. 1,400,000
DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS:
6. Kashan Limited bought an equipment amounted to Rs. 3,750,000 on January 1, 2017. It had a useful
life of five years. On January 1, 2019 the asset was revalued to Rs. 4,500,000. The expected useful
life of the asset remained unchanged. In such scenario calculate the amount of revaluation surplus
for the equipment.
8. Conceptual framework defines the interrelated elements that most directly relate to measuring the
performance and financial status of a business enterprise. Enlist and explain those elements.
DISCLAIMER:
This is just an analysis of past exam papers conducted by the Institute. It does
not mean to identify what is important and what is not. Moreover, it does not
specify any trend in question frequency to be tested.
2. The net profit or loss for a particular period of time is reported on the
a. Income Statement
b. Balance Sheet
c. Trial Balance
d. Statement of Changes In Owner's Equity
7. Keeping the records of the business separate from the personal records of the owner of
the business is said to be adherence to which accounting principle or concept?
a. Continuing-concern concept
b. Business entity principle
c. Realization principle
d. Objectivity principle
8. Which of the following is a formal written promise to pay a definite sum of money on
demand or at a fixed or determinable future date?
a. Account payable
b. Account receivable
c. Note payable
d. Prepaid insurance policy
9. Peter Atli decided to pay himself a salary of Rs.3,000 per month for the work he performs
for his business, a single proprietorship. Each time a cheque is recorded for Rs.3,000,
which account should be increased?
a. Salaries Expense
b. Capital
c. Peter Atli, Withdrawals
d. Owner Salary Expense
10. The personal telephone bill of Junior Sample was paid by issuing a cheque from the
business chequing account. No business calls had been made from Junior's personal
phone. What account must be charged for this transaction?
a. Junior, Capital
b. Cash
c. Junior, Withdrawals
d. Telephone Expense
12. Assets total Rs.50,000 and Liabilities total Rs.10,000. The equity of the business must total
a. Rs.4,000
b. Rs.40,000
c. Rs.400
d. Rs.40
13. The resulting amount when total liabilities are subtracted from total assets is known as
a. owner's equity or net assets
b. net income or net loss
c. total expenses
d. total revenue
14. A broad rule adopted by the accounting profession as a guide in measuring, recording,
and reporting the financial affairs and activities of a business is known as
a. an accounting concept
b. an accounting principle
c. the basic accounting equation
d. objectivity principle
15. Using a sales invoice as the basis for recording a sale of merchandise is an example of
using which accounting principle or concept for recording transactions?
a. Recognition principle
b. Objectivity principle
c. Realization principle
d. Continuing-concern concept
17. Keith Manich deposited Rs.5,000 in a bank account he established for a pet store that he is
going to own and operate as KM's Pets. Recording the deposit will
a. increase an asset, increase a liability
b. decrease an asset, decrease a liability
c. increase an asset, increase owner's equity
d. decrease an asset, decrease owner's equity
18. Better-Cars Selection, a used car dealer, has total assets and liabilities of Rs.50,000 and
Rs.18,000, respectively. The firm constructed a shelter for its automobiles by promising to
pay the building contractor, upon completion of the building, Rs.500 per month for twenty-
four months. Upon completion, owner's equity will:
a. increase by Rs.12,000
b. remain unchanged
c. decrease by Rs.12,000
d. increase by Rs.500, each month
19. The owner of a computer services business was able to acquire a new computer, valued at
Rs.5,000, by establishing an account with the computer vendor, Com Pewters Unlimited.
There was no down payment. Recording the transaction will
a. increase an asset, increase a liability
b. decrease an asset, decrease a liability
c. increase an asset, increase owner's equity
d. decrease an asset, decrease owner's equity
20. A sole proprietor recorded the payment of an account payable to an office supplies store.
Recording the transaction will
a. increase an asset, increase a liability
b. decrease an asset, decrease a liability
c. increase an asset, increase owner's equity
d. decrease an asset, decrease owner's equity
21. If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs.5,000, and the owner's equity
increased by Rs.1,000, then the liabilities must have
a. increased by Rs.6,000
b. increased by Rs.4,000
c. decreased by Rs.4,000
d. decreased by Rs.6,000
22. If during the accounting period the assets increased by Rs.7,000, and the owner's equity
decreased by Rs.3,000, then the liabilities must have
a. increased by Rs.10,000
b. increased by Rs.4,000
c. decreased by Rs.4,000
d. decreased by Rs.10,000
23. One of the local fast-food outlets hired a first-year accounting student to oversee the cash-
collection procedures. When the firm pays the student her weekly wage, the transaction
will
a. increase an asset, increase a liability
b. decrease an asset, decrease a liability
c. increase an asset, increase owner's equity
d. decrease an asset, decrease owner's equity
24. The proprietor of a restaurant purchased a three-year insurance policy. Recording the
purchase of the policy requires
a. an asset to be debited, a liability to be credited
b. a liability to be debited, an asset to be credited
c. one asset to be debited, another asset to be credited
d. withdrawals to be debited, an asset to be credited
25. A business purchased equipment by issuing a one-year note payable. The entire amount
of the note is due at the end of one year. Recording the transaction requires
a. an asset to be debited, a liability to be credited
b. a liability to be debited, an asset to be credited
c. an asset to be debited, capital to be credited
d. withdrawals to be debited, an asset to be credited
26. Olivia, the proprietor, deposited Rs.40,000 in the company's bank account. She got the
money from selling all of her General Motors common stock. Recording the transaction on
the company books will require
a. an asset to be debited, a liability to be credited
b. a liability to be debited, an asset to be credited
c. an asset to be debited, capital to be credited
d. withdrawals to be debited, an asset to be credited
27. Solar Mow, makers and sellers of solar powered lawn mowers, paid the rent for the month
of January on January 1. Recording the transaction requires
a. an asset to be debited, a liability to be credited
b. a liability to be debited, an asset to be credited
c. an expense to be debited, an asset to be credited
d. an asset to be debited, a revenue to be credited
28. Solar Mow, makers and sellers of solar powered lawn mowers, determined that its chief
executive officer should attend a workshop on solar energy to be held on the beach at
Waikiki, Honolulu. The workshop cost Rs.2,000, including air fare, meals, and lodging. The
firm charged the cost of the trip with a local travel agency. Recording the transaction
requires
a. an asset to be debited, a liability to be credited
b. a liability to be debited, an asset to be credited
c. an expense to be debited, a liability to be credited
d. an asset to be debited, revenue to be credited
29. Peter Atli received Rs.5,000 for some excavation work to be done when the weather
permits. Peter figures it will be at least three weeks before he can start the job. Recording
the transaction requires
a. an asset to be debited, a liability to be credited
b. a liability to be debited, an asset to be credited
c. withdrawal to be debited, an asset to be credited
d. an asset to be debited, revenue to be credited
31. The personal telephone bill of Junior Sample was paid by issuing a cheque from the
business chequing account. No business calls had been made from Junior's personal
phone. What account must be debited for this transaction?
a. Junior, Capital
b. Cash
c. Junior, Withdrawals
d. Telephone Expense
33. At the end of the fiscal year, an adjusting entry was made for accrued salaries of Rs.500.
The salaries for one week, Rs.1,250, were paid on the first Friday of the new fiscal period.
The entry to record paying the salaries expense for the week would be a
a. Sal. Exp., dr., Rs.750; Salaries Payable, dr., Rs.500; Cash, cr., Rs.1,250
b. Sal. Exp., dr., Rs.500; Salaries Payable, dr., Rs.750; Cash, cr., Rs.1,250
c. Salaries Exp., dr., Rs.1,250; Cash, cr., Rs.1,250
d. Salaries Exp., dr., Rs.1,250; Salaries Payable, cr., Rs.1,250
34. The ________________ is the length of time into which the life of a business is divided for
the purpose of preparing periodic financial statements.
a. natural business year
b. calendar year
c. accounting period
d. interim period
35. The notion that the life of a business is divisible into equal time periods of equal length is
known as the
a. continuing concern principle
b. time-period principle
c. business entity principle
d. recognition principle
36. The adjusting process is based on two accounting principles. The two accounting
principles are
a. realization and recognition
b. revenue recognition and matching
c. cost and business entity
d. continuing-concern and realization
37. At the beginning of the year, a business had a two-year, Rs.1,200 insurance policy on its
office equipment. On July 1, it purchased a three-year, Rs.1,800 policy on a newly
constructed building. The December 31, year-end, adjusting entry would be
a. Insurance Expense, debit, Rs.3,000; Prepaid Insurance, credit, Rs.3,000
b. Insurance Expense, debit, Rs.1,200; Prepaid Insurance, credit, Rs.1,200
c. Insurance Expense, debit, Rs.1,000; Prepaid Insurance, credit, Rs.1,000
d. Insurance Expense, debit, Rs.900; Prepaid Insurance, credit, Rs.900
38. At the beginning of the year, a business had a two-year, Rs.1,200 insurance policy on its
office equipment. On July 1 it purchased a three-year, Rs.1,800 policy on a newly
constructed building. A December 31, year-end, adjusting entry was made for the policy on
the building but not for the policy on the office equipment. As a consequence of the
oversight
a. expenses are understated and assets are overstated
b. expenses are overstated and assets are understated
c. expenses are understated and assets are understated
d. expenses are overstated and assets are overstated
39. At the end of the accounting period, the business had Rs.450 of office supplies on hand,
which was a 50% increase over the beginning balance. If the business purchased Rs.1,200
of office supplies during the year, then Rs._____ of office supplies were used during the
year.
a. Rs.975
b. Rs.1,050
c. Rs.1,650
d. Rs.1,425
40. A tenant rented space in our companies office building on September 1 at Rs.450 per
month, paying six months' rent in advance. The bookkeeper recognized a current liability
of Rs.2,700. The December 31, year-end adjusting entry would be
a. Unearned Rent, dr., Rs.1,800; Rent Revenue, cr., Rs.1,800
b. Unearned Rent, dr., Rs.1,350; Rent Revenue, cr., Rs.1,350
c. Rent Revenue, dr., Rs.900; Unearned Rent, cr., Rs.900
d. Cash, dr., Rs.2,700; Rent Rev., cr., Rs.1,800; Unearned Rent, cr., Rs.900
41. A tenant rented space in an office building on October 1 at Rs.450 per month, paying six
months' rent in advance. The bookkeeper recorded the October entry with a debit to Cash
and a credit to Rent Revenue. The December 31, year-end adjusting entry would be
a. Unearned Rent, dr., Rs.1,800; Rent Revenue, cr., Rs.1,800
b. Unearned Rent, dr., Rs.1,350; Rent Revenue, cr., Rs.1,350
c. Rent Revenue, dr., Rs.1,350; Unearned Rent, cr., Rs.1,350
d. Cash, dr., Rs.2,700; Rent Rev. cr., Rs.1,350; Unearned Rent, cr., Rs.1,350
42. A tenant rented space in an office building on October 1, at Rs.450 per month, paying six
months' rent in advance. The bookkeeper recognized a current liability upon receipt of the
Rs.2,700. No year-end adjustment was recorded. As a consequence of overlooking the
required adjustment,
a. revenue was overstated and liabilities were understated
b. revenue was understated and liabilities were understated
c. revenue was overstated and liabilities were overstated
d. revenue was understated and liabilities were overstated
43. Dee Preciated rented an office space to Core Poration for three months at Rs.500 per
month, payable at the end of the third month, January 31. No year-end adjusting entry was
recorded on December 31. As a consequence of this oversight,
a. assets were overstated and revenue was overstated
b. assets were overstated and revenue was understated
c. assets were understated and revenue was overstated
d. assets were understated and revenue was understated
44. You have agreed to keep the accounting records for a business that has agreed to pay you
Rs.800 per month, beginning December 16. You use the accrual basis of accounting and
recorded adjusting entries on December 31. When you receive the Rs.800 on January 16,
you will record the following entry
a. Cash, dr., Rs.800; Acc. Rec., cr., Rs.400; Fees Earned, credit, Rs.400
b. Cash, dr., Rs.400; Acc. Rec., cr., Rs.400
c. Cash, dr., Rs.800; Fees Earned, cr., Rs.800
d. Acc. Rec., dr., Rs.800; Cash, cr., Rs.400; Fees Earned, cr., Rs.400
46. The subtotals of the Income Statement columns of the work sheet are Rs.3,500 and
Rs.4,900, respectively. If the subtotal of the Balance Sheet Debit column is Rs.9,600, then
the subtotal of the Balance Sheet Credit column should be
a. Rs.1,400
b. Rs.11,000
c. Rs.8,200
d. Rs.6,800
47. The subtotals of the Income Statement columns of the work sheet are Rs.6,200 and
Rs.4,900, respectively. If the subtotal of the Balance Sheet Debit column is Rs.19,000, then
the subtotal of the Balance Sheet Credit column should be
a. Rs.20,300
b. Rs.1,300
c. Rs.17,700
d. Rs.14,400
48. Revenue and expense accounts at the beginning and end of the accounting period should
have
a. a balance of zero
b. balances of cumulative amounts of activity during the period
c. a net balance (credits minus debits) equal to the capital account
d. a net balance equal to assets minus liabilities
50. After the closing procedure is complete, which of the documents proves the equality of
debits and credits?
a. Income Statement
b. Account form balance sheet
c. Post-Closing Trial Balance
d. Work Sheet
51. At the end of the fiscal year, an adjusting entry was made for accrued salaries of Rs.500.
On the first day of the new year the adjusting entry was reversed. The salaries for one
week, Rs.1,250, were paid on the first Friday. The entry to record paying the salaries
expense for the week would be a
a. Sal. Exp., dr., Rs.750; Salaries Payable, dr., Rs.500; Cash, cr., Rs.1,250
b. Sal. Exp., dr., Rs.500; Salaries Payable, dr., Rs.750; Cash, cr., Rs.1,250
c. Salaries Exp., dr., Rs.1,250; Cash, cr., Rs.1,250
d. Salaries Exp., dr., Rs.1,250; Salaries Payable, cr., Rs.1,250
52. Optional entries that transfer the balances in balance sheet accounts which arose as a
result of certain adjusting entries to income statement accounts is the definition for which
term below?
a. adjusting entries
b. reversing entries
c. closing entries
d. declarations of cash dividends
53. The last account listed on the post-closing trial balance for a corporation is the
a. Capital account
b. Withdrawals account
c. Retained Earnings account
d. Common Stock account
54. The last account listed on the post-closing trial balance for a single proprietorship
business is the
a. Capital account
b. Withdrawals account
c. Retained Earnings account
d. Common Stock account
56. The buyer received an invoice from the seller for merchandise with a list price of Rs.400
and credit terms of 2/10, n/60. The number 10 in the credit terms is the
a. credit period
b. cash discount allowed for early payment of the invoice
c. discount period
d. trade discount
57. The records for Uptown Pet Shop showed the following:
Sales Rs.75,000 Beginning merchandise inventory Rs.10,000
Purchases 45,000 Cost of goods sold 50,000
The ending merchandise inventory must have been
a. Rs.5,000
b. Rs.15,000
c. Rs.25,000
d. Rs.40,000
58. Under the periodic inventory system, the Purchases account is used to record
a. only cash purchases of merchandise inventory
b. purchases of any asset on account or note payable
c. only purchases of merchandise inventory on account
d. purchases of merchandise inventory for cash or on account
59. The Sun Set Shade Company purchased three pieces of office equipment for a total price
of Rs.2,100. One piece of equipment costing Rs.800 was damaged on delivery and was
returned to the vendor. The invoice has not been paid. The proper journal entry for the
return is
a. Merchandise Inventory, debit, Rs.800; Accounts Payable, credit, Rs.800
b. Acc. Payable, debit, Rs.800; Merchandise Inventory, credit, Rs.800
c. Accounts Payable, debit Rs.800; Office Equipment, credit, Rs.800
d. Accounts Payable, debit Rs.2,100; Purchases, credit, Rs.2,100
61. Which of the following is used to determine the cost of goods available for sale (periodic
inventory)?
a. beginning merchandise inventory + purchases + ending merchandise inventory
b. ending merchandise inventory + purchases - freight charges
c. beginning merchandise inventory + purchases - freight charges
d. beginning merchandise inventory + purchases - purchases discount + freight charges
62. Under a perpetual inventory system merchandise is purchased on account. The correct
journal entry for this purchase will be a
a. debit to Purchases and a credit to Cash
b. debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to Accounts Payable
c. debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to Cash
d. debit to Purchases Returns and a credit to Cost of Goods Sold
63. Under a perpetual inventory system part of the merchandise purchased on account at an
earlier time is now being returned. None of the goods have been paid for. The correct
journal entry for this return will be a
64. Under a perpetual inventory system supplies are purchased for cash. The correct journal
entry for this purchase will be a
a. debit to Purchases and a credit to Cash
b. debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to Cash
c. debit to Supplies and credit Cost of Goods Sold
d. debit to Supplies and a credit to Cash
65. An item of merchandise was sold with an invoice price of Rs.400 and credit terms of 2/10,
n/30. The entry to record the sale would include a credit to Sales of
a. Rs.400.00
b. Rs.396.00
c. Rs.408.00
d. Rs.392.00
66. An item of merchandise was sold for Rs.800 cash by a business using the perpetual
inventory system. The product sold cost the business Rs.600. After the sale entry has
been recorded, a second entry will
a. debit Cash and credit Sales for Rs.800
b. debit Sales and credit Merchandise Inventory for Rs.600
c. debit Cost of Goods Sold and credit Merchandise Inventory Rs.600
d. debit Merchandise Inventory and credit Cost of Goods Sold Rs.800
67. Under the periodic inventory system, which of the following is a correct closing entry?
a. Income Summary, debit; Sales, credit
b. Income Summary, credit; Sales Returns and Allowances, debit
c. Income Summary, debit; Merchandise Inventory (beginning), credit
d. Purchases, debit; Income Summary, credit
68. When ____________________________, the cost of goods sold will be the same as the cost
of purchases.
a. there is no beginning merchandise inventory (first year of business)
b. there is no ending merchandise inventory
c. purchases are equal to net sales
d. the beginning and ending merchandise inventory values are the same
69. An item of merchandise with a list price of Rs.100 was purchased with a trade discount of
40% and credit terms of 2/10, n/30. If the vendor is paid within the discount period, the
journal entry to record the payment would be
a. Purchases, dr., Rs.100.00; Purchase Discounts, cr., Rs.42.00; Cash, cr., Rs.58.00
b. Accounts Payable, dr., Rs.60.00; Purchase Discounts, cr., Rs.1.20; Cash, cr., Rs.58.80
c. Accounts Payable, dr., Rs.100.00; Purchase Discounts, cr., Rs.42.00; Cash, cr., Rs.58.00
d. Accounts Payable, dr., Rs.40.00; Purchase Discounts, cr., Rs..80; Cash, cr., Rs.39.20
70. If gross sales is Rs.40,000, sales returns and allowances Rs.1,000, sales discounts Rs.400,
and delivery expenses Rs.100, the net sales of the business will total
a. Rs.38,500
b. Rs.38,600
c. Rs.40,000
d. Rs.39,000
The End
ANSWERS:
1 b 21 b 41 c 61 d
2 a 22 a 42 d 62 b
3 b 23 d 43 d 63 c
4 c 24 c 44 a 64 d
5 b 25 a 45 c 65 a
6 b 26 c 46 c 66 c
7 b 27 c 47 a 67 c
8 c 28 c 48 a 68 d
9 c 29 a 49 c 69 b
10 c 30 a 50 c 70 b
11 b 31 c 51 c
12 b 32 b 52 b
13 a 33 a 53 c
14 b 34 c 54 a
15 b 35 b 55 b
16 c 36 b 56 c
17 c 37 d 57 a
18 b 38 a 58 d
19 a 39 b 59 c
20 b 40 a 60 c
Contents
ACCOUNTING – THE BASICS..................................................................................................................... 2
REGULATORY FRAMEWORK .................................................................................................................. 11
CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK ................................................................................................................... 15
IAS 01 – PRESENTATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS ...................................................................... 22
IAS 02 – INVENTORIES ............................................................................................................................. 25
IAS 16 – PROPERTY, PLANT AND EQUIPMENT ..................................................................................... 29
IAS 23 – BORROWING COSTS ................................................................................................................. 38
IAS 20 – GOVERNMENT GRANTS ........................................................................................................... 40
IAS 40 – INVESTMENT PROPERTY ......................................................................................................... 42
IAS 38 – INTANGIBLE ASSETS ................................................................................................................. 44
IAS 36 – IMPAIRMENT OF ASSETS ......................................................................................................... 49
IAS 37 – PROVISIONS & CONTINGENCIES ............................................................................................ 53
IAS 10 – EVENTS AFTER THE REPORTING PERIOD ............................................................................ 58
IFRS 15 – REVENUE FROM CONTRACTS WITH CUSTOMERS ............................................................ 61
IFRS 16 – LEASES ..................................................................................................................................... 72
IAS 12 – INCOME TAXES .......................................................................................................................... 81
IFRS 05 – NON-CURRENT ASSETS HFS AND DISCONTINUED OPERATIONS................................... 91
IAS 08 – ACCOUNTING POLICIES, CHANGE IN ACCOUNTING ESTIMATES & ERRORS .................. 94
IAS 24 – RELATED PARTY DISCLOSURES ............................................................................................. 98
IFRS 2 – SHARE-BASED PAYMENT ....................................................................................................... 100
IFRS – 08 OPERATING SEGMENTS ...................................................................................................... 103
FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS .................................................................................................................... 105
IAS 07 – STATEMENT OF CASH FLOWS............................................................................................... 112
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENT OF FINANCIAL POSITION................................................................... 123
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENT OF PROFIT OR LOSS ......................................................................... 139
TYPES OF BUSINESS:
Service: They provide professional skskills,
ills, expertise, advice, and other similar products.
Examples of service businesses are: salons, repair shops, schools, banks, accounting
firms, and law firms.
Trading / This type of business purchases goods for the purpose of re
re-sale
sale without
witho significantly
Merchandising: changing its forms. Examples are: grocery stores, convenience stores, distributors,
and other resellers.
Manufacturing: A manufacturing business combines raw materials, labor, and factory overhead (other
expenses) in its production proces
process.s. The manufactured goods will then be sold to
customers. Examples are: cement factories, sugar mills, textile factories, beverage
companies etc.
ACCOUNTING – DEFINED:
Accounting is an information system that identifies, records and communicates information about a
business to users for making resource allocation decisions. Following are examples of some business
decisions:
TYPES OF ACCOUNTING:
ACCOUNTING CYCLE:
Required:
Illustrate the concept of accruals adjustments in two companies above and explain the effects of financial
performance and position.
[Answer: DIY]
In which section of the classified balance sheet would the following accounts appear?
1) Note Payable (due in 3 months) 2) Retained Earnings (ending)
3) Accumulated Depreciation 4) Rent Expense
5) Investment in Government Bonds 6) Unearned Revenues
7) Accounts Receivable 8) Income Summary
9) Accounts Payable 10) Equipment
11) Long-term Receivable From Employee 12) Revenues
13) Dividends 14) Prepaid Rent
15) Share Capital 16) Finance Cost
17) Patent 18) Retained Earnings (beginning)
19) Supplies 20) Loan Payable (due in 5 years)
Required:
Identify what adjusting entries were made.
Required:
Identify what adjusting entries were made.
REGULATORY FRAMEWORK
Need of Regulatory Framework:
A regulatory framework exists to ensure that the accounting standards are prepared to meet the needs of
users of accounting information.
In 2001, with the joining of US, IASC was renamed as IASCF (International Accounting Standard
Committee Foundation) and today, this body is called IFRS Foundation and formed a body called IASB
(International Accounting Standards Board) which is responsible for developing IFRS. The subordinated
bodies of IASC have are now subordinated to IASB. In the initial structural meetings, IASB has decided to
adopt all previously issued IASs and Interpretations as it is. Consequently, further standards will be called
as IFRS and Interpretations will be called IFRICs.
With the process of refinements, IASs and SICs will be converted into IFRSs and IFRICs.
Why IFRS:
Financial information is the lifeblood of financial markets. Cross-border transactions are increasing day
by day – increasing the need for efficient and effective information management. International investors
need financial information they can trust in making informed capital resource allocation decisions. IFRS
(International Financial Reporting Standards) provide the global language of financial reporting. Since
all decision making is relative (inter/intra), people need comparable information. Over 100 countries
require their corporations to use IFRS when reporting their financial position and performance. Investors
around the world trust IFRS because they bring three key benefits to the world economy:
Role of IASB:
The objectives of IASB as set out in its Constitution are as under:
a) Developing: To formulate and publish in the public interest a single set of high quality,
understandable and enforceable global accounting standards that require high quality, transparent
and comparable information in financial statement and other financial reporting to help participants in
the various capital markets of the world & other users of the information to make economic decisions.
b) Monitoring: To promote the use and rigorous application of those standards.
c) Coordinating: To work actively with national standard-setters to bring about convergence of national
accounting standards & IFRSs to high quality like Companies Act 2017, SBP Prudential Regulations.
Scope of IFRS:
1. IFRSs are applicable on material and essential financial information.
2. IFRSs are prospective in nature, unless otherwise specially mentioned as retrospective.
3. IFRS will only be applicable and enforceable if and only if local regulatory bodies adopt it and become
part of local laws. For example, section 225 of Companies Act, 2017 states that “The Companies that
intend to make unreserved compliance with IFRS issued by IASB for financial statements, will be
allowed to do so.”
NOTE:
• The regulatory framework for financial reporting of Pakistan is enforced by Companies Act 2017 and
SECP regulations. IFRS will become part of this framework upon adoption. Moreover, in case of
contradictions between local laws and IFRSs, local laws would prevail. For example, the companies
th th
have to follow the requirements of 4 /5 schedules of CA17 instead of IAS 01.
• Third Schedule of Companies Act 2017 outlines the applicable Accounting framework depending
upon the nature of company.
NOTE: Originally IFRS are published in English language but may be translated in other languages.
COMPONENTS OF IFRS:
1 2 3 4 5 6
CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK
EXAMPLE: ESTIMATES IN FINANCIAL REPORTING
To facilitate comparisons across companies (cross sectional analysis) and overtime for a single company
(time series analysis), it is important that accounting methods are comparable and consistently applied.
However, accounting standards must be flexible enough to recognize that differences exist in the
underlying economics between businesses.
Suppose two companies buy the same model of machinery to be used in their respective businesses.
The machine is expected to last for several years. Financial reporting standards typically require that both
companies account for this equipment by initially recording the cost of the machinery as an asset. Without
such a standard, the companies could report the purchase of the equipment differently. For example, one
company might record the purchase as an asset and the other might record the purchase as an expense.
An accounting standard ensures that both companies should record the transaction in a similar manner.
Accounting standards typically require the cost of the machine to be apportioned over the estimated
useful life of an asset as an expense called depreciation. Because the two companies may be operating
the machinery differently, financial reporting standards must retain some flexibility. One company might
operate the machinery only a few days per week, whereas the other company operates the equipment
continuously throughout the week. Given the difference in usage, it would not be appropriate to require
the two companies to report an identical amount of depreciation expense each period. Financial reporting
standards must allow for some discretion such that management can match their financial reporting
choices to the underlying economics of their business while ensuring that similar transactions are
recorded in a similar manner between companies.
Financial statements of two companies with identical transactions in the fiscal year, prepared in
accordance with the same set of financial reporting standards,
are most likely to be:
a) identical.
b) consistent.
c) comparable.
[Answer: “c”]
INTRODUCTION:
The IASB Framework provides the underlying rules, conventions and definitions that underpin the
preparation of all financial statements prepared under International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).
• Ensures standards developed within a conceptual framework. (consistent basis)
• Provide guidance on areas where no standard exists.
• Aids process to improve existing standards.
• Ensures financial statements contain information that is useful to users.
• Helps prevent creative accounting / fraudulent financial reporting.
OBJECTIVE OF FRAMEWORK:
It is a theoretical set of principles which provides the basis for the preparation of IFRS. It helps different
stakeholders as per their requirements as under:
1. IASB:
a. Developing new IFRSs.
b. Reviewing / improving existing IFRSs.
4. Auditors:
Helping auditors form an opinion on the following matters:
a. True / Fair View.
b. Free from Material Misstatement.
c. Compliance of IFRSs.
Disclaimer: This is NOT an IFRS. In case of conflict with any IFRS, the IFRS would prevail.
CONCEPT OF MATERIALITY:
Information is material if omitting, misstating or obscuring it (not clearly expressed or easily understood)
affects the judgment by the user.
- Nature: Covid-19, Relationship of parent and subsidiary.
Size: Monetary impact and classification.
Required:
Is this understatement material?
[Answer: DIY]
Required:
Is this omission material?
[Answer: DIY]
1. Going concern:
It is assumed that the entity has neither (a) the intention nor (b) the need to liquidate or curtail
materially the scale of its operations; if such an intention or need exists, the financial statements may
have to be prepared on a different basis and, if so, the basis used is disclosed in notes.
2. Accrual:
Accrual basis relate to recognition of revenues and expenses:
a) Revenues are reported on the income statement when they are earned. When the revenues are
earned but cash is not received, the asset accounts receivable will be recorded.
b) Expenses are reported on the income statement when they are incurred and matched-up with
the revenues being reported, or when a cost has no future benefit that can be measured. When
an expense occurs and cash has not yet been paid, a liability account will also be recorded
REPORTING ENTITY:
Reporting entity is an entity who must or chooses to prepare the financial statements. It can be:
• A single entity – for example, one company;
• A portion of an entity – for example, a division of one company;
• More than one entities – for example, a parent and its subsidiaries reporting as a group.
Revenue: Expense:
Increases in assets, or decreases in Decreases in assets, or increases in
liabilities, that result in increases in liabilities, that result in decreases in
equity, other than those relating to equity, other than those relating to
contributions from holders of equity distributions to holders of equity
FINANCIAL
claims. (Share Premium is NOT claims. (Dividend / drawings is NOT
PERFORMANCE
revenue). It includes revenues & an expense). It includes expenses &
gains. losses.
The price for goods sold and services The costs of goods and services used
rendered during a given accounting up in the process of earning revenue.
period.
Current Liabilities
- Held for trading.
- Expected to be settled within 12 months of the reporting period.
- The entity doesn’t have the unconditional right on the reporting date to defer the settlement beyond
12 months from reporting date. [Rescheduling of loan that is due within 12 months to 5 years].
All other liabilities are classified as “Non-Current”.
Measurement is process of determining the monetary amounts of the elements of financial statements.
S# BASIS ASSETS LIABILITIES
1. Historical The fair value of the consideration given There are two types of liabilities:
cost (cash, equity instrument, other asset With consideration
etc) to acquire an asset at the time of Fair value of the consideration like
transaction. creditors.
Without consideration
Value determined like penalty,
income taxes etc.
2. Current cost Replacement cost i.e. value of the asset Current settlement value i.e. the amount
with same specs can be obtained. to be paid today.
3. Fair Value Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a
(Exit price) liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date.
4. Realizable Fair value less cost to sell. Total consideration to be paid on
value agreed time period.
5. Present Discounted value of net cash inflows. Discounted value of net cash outflows.
value
NET ASSETS:
2. Physical capital: –
This is the productive capacity of the entity based on, for example, units of output per day. Here the
profit is earned if physical productive capacity increases during the period, after excluding the
movements with equity holders.
IAS 02 – INVENTORIES
Objective: The objective of this Standard is to prescribe the accounting treatment for inventories. A
primary issue in accounting for inventories is the amount of cost to be recognised as an
asset and carried forward until the related revenues are recognised. This Standard
provides guidance on the determination of cost and its subsequent recognition as an
expense, including any write-down to net realisable value. It also provides guidance on
the cost formulas that are used to assign costs to inventories.
Net realisable value is the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business
less the estimated costs of completion and the estimated costs necessary to make the
sale.
Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a
liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date. (IFRS 13 Fair Value Measurement.)
INITIAL RECOGNITION:
Inventory is initially measured at “cost”. Capitalized cost is the sum of the following:
a) Purchase Price / list price net of trade discounts and rebates. (Trade discount is allowed at the time
of transaction and cash discount (settlement) discount is allowed at the time of payment.)
b) Cost of conversion. (e.g. direct labor, direct expenses and FOH based on normal capacity)
c) Other – desired location and condition for sale (e.g. freight-in, borrowing costs as per IAS 23 and
non-refundable taxes, insurance in-transit)
SUBSEQUENT MEASUREMENT:
Due to the application of prudence concept, inventory is valued as LOWER of (a) cost and (b) NRV.
NOTES:
• Inventories are usually written down to net realizable value item by item.
• Re-assess at the end of each reporting period.
• Reversal of write-down is possible.
COST FORMULAS:
Interchangeable Goods Non-Interchangeable Goods
FIFO or Weighted Average (LIFO is not allowed) Specific Identification Methods
Normal
Cost per selling
Items Units
unit (Rs.) price per
unit (Rs.)
Toy cars 10,000 1,250 1,200
Doll houses 5,000 1,800 2,700
Stuffed toys 1,850 1,200 1,900
Minion costumes 870 1,500 2,500
Required:
Calculate the amount at which above inventory items should be carried as on 31 December 2017 in
accordance with IAS 2 – Inventories.
[Answer: Toy Cars Rs.10,650,000, Doll houses Rs.6,480,000, stuffed toys Rs.1,968,700 and Minion costumes Rs.1,200,600]
CONSISTENCY IN APPLICATION:
IAS 2 provides that an entity should use the same cost formula for all inventories having similar nature
and use to the entity.
RECOGNITION AS AN EXPENSE:
• When inventories are sold, the carrying amount of those inventories shall be recognized as an
expense in the period in which the related revenue is recognized.
• The amount of any write-down of inventories to net realizable value and all losses of inventories shall
be recognized as an expense in the period the write-down or loss occurs.
• The amount of any reversal of any write-down of inventories, arising from an increase in net
realizable value, shall be recognized as a reduction in the amount of inventories recognized as an
expense in the period in which the reversal occurs.
DISCLOSURES:
The financial statements shall disclose:
a) the accounting policies adopted in measuring inventories, including the cost formula used;
b) the total carrying amount of inventories and the carrying amount in classifications appropriate to the
entity;
c) the carrying amount of inventories carried at fair value less costs to sell;
d) the amount of inventories recognized as an expense during the period;
e) the amount of any write-down of inventories recognised as an expense in the period.
f) the amount of any reversal of any write-down that is recognized as a reduction in the amount of
inventories recognised as expense in the period.
g) the circumstances or events that led to the reversal of a write-down of inventories.
h) the carrying amount of inventories pledged as security for liabilities.
Scope: This Standard shall be applied in accounting for property, plant and equipment except
when another Standard requires or permits a different accounting treatment.
Carrying amount is the amount at which an asset is recognised after deducting any
accumulated depreciation and accumulated impairment losses.
Cost is the amount of cash or cash equivalents paid or the fair value of the other
consideration given to acquire an asset at the time of its acquisition or construction or,
where applicable, the amount attributed to that asset when initially recognised in
accordance with the specific requirements of other IFRSs, e.g. IFRS 2 Share-based
Payment.
Depreciable amount is the cost of an asset, or other amount substituted for cost,
less its residual value.
Entity-specific value is the present value of the cash flows an entity expects to arise
from the continuing use of an asset and from its disposal at the end of its useful life or
expects to incur when settling a liability.
Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a
liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date. (IFRS 13 Fair Value Measurement)
An impairment loss is the amount by which the carrying amount of an asset exceeds
its recoverable amount.
Recoverable amount is the higher of an asset’s fair value less costs to sell and its
value in use.
The residual value of an asset is the estimated amount that an entity would currently
obtain from disposal of the asset, after deducting the estimated costs of disposal, if
the asset were already of the age and in the condition expected at the end of its
useful life.
INITIAL RECOGNITION:
The cost of an item of PP&E at the initial recognition consists of three components:
1. Purchase Price Invoice price, import duties & non-refundable taxes. Trade / bulk discounts and
rebates are deducted. Settlement / cash discounts are not deducted.
2. Directly Any costs directly attributable to bringing the asset to the location and
attributable Costs condition necessary for it to be capable of operating in a manner intended by
management. E.g. Cost of employee benefits for construction, site preparation,
initial delivery / freight-in, installation and assembly, professional fees, and
borrowing costs (IAS-23), test runs (if inevitable).
List price of machine82,000, Import duty 1,500, Delivery fees 2,050, Electrical installation costs9,500,
Pre-production testing4,900, Purchase of a five-year maintenance contract with Plant7,000.
In addition to the above information Yucca Co was granted a trade discount of 10% on the initial list price
of the asset and a settlement discount of 5% if payment for the machine was received within one month
of purchase. Yucca Co paid for the plant on 25 March 2019.
Required:
How should the above information be accounted for in the financial statements?
[Answer: Cost Rs.91,750/-]
Required:
1. Assuming the interest rate of 8%, calculate the following
a) Amount to be capitalized as PP&E.
b) Annual depreciation charge and
c) Yearly unwinding of finance cost for three year.
2. Prepare journal entries for all three years.
[Answer: 1. (a) Rs.531,753, (b) Rs.177,251 (c) 2,540, 2,743 and 2,963 respectively.]
Required:
What is the total charge to the statement of profit or loss in respect of the decommissioning for the year
ended 30 June 2015?
[Answer: 725,760 ]
Purchase of the land 10,000, Costs of dismantling existing structures on the site 500, Purchase of
materials to construct the factory 6,000, Employment costs (Note 1) 1,800, Production overheads directly
related to the construction (Note 2) 1,200, Allocated general administrative overheads 600, Architects’
and consultants’ fees directly related to the construction 400, Costs of relocating staff who are to work at
the new factory 300, Costs relating to the formal opening of the factory 200, Interest on loan to partly
finance the construction of the factory (Note 3) 1,200.
Note 1: The factory was constructed in the eight months ended 31 May 2017. It was brought into use on
30 June 2017. The employment costs are for the nine months to 30 June 2017.
Note 2: The production overheads were incurred in the eight months ended 31 May 2017. They included
an abnormal cost of Rs.200,000, caused by the need to rectify damage resulting from a gas leak.
Note 3: Omega received the loan of Rs.12m on 1 October 2016. The loan carries a rate of interest of
10% per annum.
Note 4: The factory has an expected useful economic life of 20 years. At that time the factory will be
demolished and the site returned to its original condition. This is a legal obligation that arose on signing
the contract to purchase the land. The expected costs of fulfilling this obligation are Rs.2m. An
appropriate annual discount rate is 8%.
Required:
Compute the cost at initial recognition of the factory.
[Answer: Cost of Asset is Rs.20,729,000/-]
Required:
Record the acquisition and ultimate payment after two years.
[Answer: Rs.63,126, Interest Year 01 Rs.5,681 Year 02 Rs.6,193. Payment will be made Rs.75,000]
SUBSEQUENT EXPENDITURE
a) Depreciation is the systematic allocation of depreciable amount of an asset over its useful life.
b) Depreciation method reflects the pattern in which future economic benefits are expected to be
consumed. (Straight-line, Diminishing Balance Method, and Activity Based Method).
c) Depreciation starts when the assets are available for use till the asset is either classified as held for
sale (IFRS-5) or derecognized.
d) Depreciation is charged to profit or loss, unless it is included in the carrying amount of another asset.
e) The residual value, the useful life and the depreciation method of an asset are reviewed annually at
reporting date.
f) Each part of an asset with cost that is significant in relation to total cost of asset is depreciated
separately.
g) Useful life and asset’s residual value (input to depreciable amount) shall be reviewed at least at the
end of each financial year. If there is a change in the expectations comparing to previous estimates,
then change shall be accounted for as a change in an accounting estimate in line with IAS 8 (no
restatement of previous periods).
Required:
Prepare the extracts of the financial statements for the year ended 31 March 2013 under each case
separately:
a) Depreciation is charged using Straight-Line (SLN) method.
b) Depreciation is charged using reducing balance method.
[Answer: DIY]
Required:
Calculate the annual depreciation charge for the property for the year ended 31 March 2012.
[Answer: Total property depreciation Rs.3,850/-]
Required:
How should the asset be accounted for in the years ending 31 March 2012/2013/2014?
[Answer: Depreciation expense: 10,000, 10,000 and 17,000 respectively]
EXCHANGES
Required:
How would these newly acquired assets appear in financial statements of SkyBeings and Aviacs?
[Answer: For SkyBeings loss on disposal Rs.9,000 on high lifts and for Aviacs loss on disposal on luggage belts Rs.21,000 ]
REVALUATIONS
If the asset is carried under the revaluation model, the following must be applied:
a) Revaluations must subsequently be made with sufficient regularity to ensure that the carrying amount
does not differ materially from the fair value at each reporting date.
b) When an item of property, plant and equipment is revalued, the entire class of assets to which the
item belongs must be revalued.
Tip! Practically, land and building are carried at revaluation model while other assets are at cost model.
Revaluation Accounting:
Revalued assets are depreciated the same way as under the cost model. Depreciation is charged on the
revalued amount and over its remaining useful life.
b) Downward:
Debit P&L
Credit Asset
Subsequent Revaluation:
a) Upward:
Debit Asset
Credit Surplus on Revaluation or P&L
* in case of previous downward, reversal of any loss charged.
b) Downward:
Debit P&L or Surplus on Revaluation*
Credit Asset
* in case of previous upward, first loss is charged to surplus and remaining, if any, is charged in P&L.
TIP! Revaluation surplus is a capital reserve and is not permitted to be distributed to the shareholders.
Moreover, the entity could wait till the asset is derecognized before it realizes this surplus – this is pure a
policy matter and up to the discretion of management.
Required:
Record the revaluation under each case separately:
a) Fair value is Rs.120,000.
b) Fair Value is Rs.80,000.
[Answer: a) Surplus on revaluation Rs.25,000/-, b) Loss charged to P&L Rs.15,000]
Required:
What is the double entry to record the revaluation?
[Answer: Loss on revaluation Rs.13,000/-]
Required:
How will the property be accounted for in the year ended 31 March 2012?
[Answer: Incremental Depreciation Rs.200,000/-]
There is no change in useful life of the asset. The company policy is to transfer revaluation surplus to
retained earnings on account of extra depreciation.
Required:
Journalize the above transactions for all three years.
[Answer: 30-06-13 Surplus 5,250, 30-06-14 loss charged to P&L Rs.1,500, 30-06-16 Surplus 21,000]
3. DISPOSALS
• An item of PP&E is removed from the statement of financial position on disposal or when withdrawn
from use and no future economic benefits are expected from its disposal.
• The gain or loss on disposal is the difference between the proceeds and the carrying amount and is
recognized in profit or loss. Any remaining surplus on the revaluation reserve is now considered to be
a ‘realized’ gain and therefore should be transferred to retained earnings.
The profit or loss on disposal of a revalued non-current asset should be calculated as the difference
between the net sale proceeds and the carrying amount.
There are two steps to disposing of a revalued asset:
1. It should be accounted for in the statement of profit or loss of the period in which the disposal occurs.
2. Any balance on the revaluation surplus relating to this asset should now be transferred to retained
earnings.
Required:
Record the disposal for the year ended 31 December 2016?
[Answer: Gain on disposal Rs.270,000, Surplus transferred to R/E Rs.135,000]
Required:
Prepare financial statements extract.
[Answer: Loss on disposal Rs.3,000 ]
COST MODEL:
• Increase or decrease in provision is adjusted to the cost of asset.
• In case of provision increase, increase in asset is subject to impairment review to ensure that new
carrying value should not exceed its recoverable amount.
• In case of provision decrease, the decrease in asset cannot be below its carrying value. Difference, if
any, is recorded in P&L.
REVALUATION MODEL:
In this model, asset is already reported as fair value; therefore, any increase or decrease in provision is
adjusted to the revaluation surplus.
Provision is INCREASED (Surplus to decrease) Provision is DECREASED (Surplus to Increase)
If no surplus available, entire amount is In case any deficit was charged to P&L due to
charged to P&L. downward revaluation, the deficit to be
If surplus is not sufficient, the difference is reversed up to the limit (carrying value would
charged to P&L. have been) and any further excess is recorded
The balance of surplus should also be adjusted for to Surplus.
any transfer in retained earnings on account of In case no deficit charged earlier, the entire
incremental depreciation. amount is recorded in Surplus.
EXERCISE # 19: IFRIC 01 – CHANGES IN SITE RESTORATION ESTIMATE (ICAP PAST PAPER)
Violet Power Limited is running a coal based power project in Pakistan. The Company has built its plant in
an area which contains large reserves of coal. The company has signed a 20 years agreement for sale of
power to the Government. The period of the agreement covers a significant portion of the useful life of the
plant. The company is liable to restore the site by dismantling and removing the plant and associated
facilities on the expiry of the agreement.
Following relevant information is available:
a) The plant commenced its production on July 1, 2007. It is the policy of the company to measure the
related assets using the cost model;
b) Initial cost of plant was Rs. 6,570 million including erection, installation and borrowing costs but does
not include any decommissioning cost;
c) Residual value of the plant is estimated at Rs. 320 million;
d) Initial estimate of amount required for dismantling of plant, at the time of installation of plant was Rs.
780 million. However, such estimate was reviewed as of June 30, 2008 and was revised to Rs. 1,021
million;
e) The Company follows straight line method of depreciation; and
f) Real risk-free interest rate prevailing in the market was 8% per annum when initial estimates of
decommissioning costs were made. However, at the end of the year such rate has dropped to 6% per
annum.
Required:
Work out the carrying value of plant and decommissioning liability as of June 30, 2008.
[Answer: Asset Rs.6,573, Provision Rs.337]
Scope: An entity shall apply this Standard in accounting for borrowing costs.
The Standard does not deal with the actual or imputed cost of equity, including preferred
capital not classified as a liability.
An entity is not required to apply the Standard to borrowing costs directly attributable to
the acquisition, construction or production of:
(a) a qualifying asset measured at fair value, for example a biological asset within the
scope of IAS 41 Agriculture; or
(b) inventories that are manufactured, or otherwise produced, in large quantities on a
repetitive basis.
Definitions: Borrowing costs are interest and other costs that an entity incurs in connection with
the borrowing of funds.
BASIC CRITERIA:
Borrowing costs on a qualifying asset must be capitalized over the period of construction because it is a
directly attributable item, as per IAS-16.
Capitalization is suspended:
When there is no active construction. (due to any reason e.g. strikes / lockouts etc.), excluding temporary
unavoidable delays.
Capitalization Rate:
Specific borrowings: Actual Rate of Interest minus any income on temporary investment. (for period)
General borrowings: Weighted Average Rate of Interest or Capitalization Rate (for period)
Prepared by: M. Umar Munir (Gold Medalist), FCMA, MS Finance
FACR – ICMAP ML2 (S-22) Page 39 of 143
Government grants (subsidies / subventions, premiums) are assistance by government in the form of
transfers of resources to an entity in return for past or future compliance with certain conditions relating to
the operating activities of the entity. They exclude those forms of government assistance which cannot
reasonably have a value placed upon them and transactions with government which cannot be
distinguished from the normal trading transactions of the entity. (Treatment: Accounted for)
RECOGNITION CRITERIA:
1. The entity will comply with any conditions attached to the grant. (Reliability)
2. The entity will actually receive the grant. (Probability)
Recognition should be made on accrual basis – systematic basis.
In case, where grant is treated as deferred income, the liability must be split into current and non-current.
TIP! Never ever credit the receipt of any grant directly in equity. This approach is NOT permitted in IFRS.
REPAYMENT OF GRANTS:
In some cases, grants may need to be repaid if the conditions of the grant are breached. If there is an
obligation to repay the grant and the repayment is probable, then it should be provided for in accordance
with the requirements of IAS 37.
• If the deferred income method for capital grants has been used, then the remaining grant would be
repaid to the government. Any amounts released to profit or loss may also need to be reversed,
depending on the level of repayment required.
• If the netting-off method for capital grants has been used, then the cost of the asset must be
increased to recognize the full cost of the asset without the grant. A liability will be set up for the grant
repayment. Cumulative effect of low depreciation is charged to current P&L.
Required:
Show possible treatments of the grant as on December 31, 2001.
[Answer: Rs.100,000 will be shown either as other income or deduced from related expenses.]
Required:
Show the statement of profit or loss and statement of financial position extracts in respect of the grant in
the first year under both methods.
[Answer: Net Basis: Depreciation Rs.17,000 and CV Rs.68,000, Gross Basis: Depreciation Rs.20,000, Realization of DI Rs.30,000,
Current DI 3,000 and Non-Current DI Rs.9,000]
Scope: This Standard shall be applied in the recognition, measurement and disclosure of
investment property.
Definitions: Carrying amount is the amount at which an asset is recognised in the statement of
financial position.
Cost is the amount of cash or cash equivalents paid or the fair value of other
consideration given to acquire an asset at the time of its acquisition or construction or,
where applicable, the amount attributed to that asset when initially recognised in
accordance with the specific requirements of other IFRSs, eg IFRS 2 Share-based
Payment.
Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a
liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date. (See IFRS 13 Fair Value Measurement).
If a building is rented by a subsidiary of the entity, then the building will be classed as an investment
property in the individual accounts, but will be classed as property, plant and equipment per IAS 16 in the
consolidated financial statements.
MEASUREMENT:
Initial Subsequent:
Fair value model: Cost model:
Investment properties should • The investment properties are • Continue to carry on costs
initially be measured at cost revalued to fair value at each same as per IAS-16.
i.e. purchase price plus directly reporting date. • The properties are
attributable costs. • Gains or losses on revaluation depreciated like any other
are recognised directly asset.
through P&L. • When fair value model is
• The properties are NOT impractical to apply.
depreciated.
IAS-40 encourages consistent application of adopted method to overall IP portfolio (not to specific
class). However, discourages change of method from fair value to cost model as it is highly unlikely that it
would result in fair presentation. As per IAS-08, voluntary change in accounting policy should be made
only when it being more reliable financial information and presentation.
TRANSFERS / MIGRATION:
Transfers into and out of investment property should only be made when supported by a change of use of
the property.
Scope: This Standard shall be applied in accounting for intangible assets, except:
(a) intangible assets that are within the scope of another Standard [Goodwill IFRS 03];
(b) financial assets, as defined in IAS 32 Financial Instruments: Presentation;
(c) the recognition and measurement of exploration and evaluation assets (IFRS 6
Exploration for and Evaluation of Mineral Resources); and
(d) expenditure on the development and extraction of minerals, oil, natural gas and
similar non-regenerative resources.
An asset is a resource:
(a) controlled by an entity as a result of past events; and
(b) from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity.
Cost is the amount of cash or cash equivalents paid or the fair value of other
consideration given to acquire an asset at the time of its acquisition or construction,
or, when applicable, the amount attributed to that asset when initially recognised in
accordance with the specific requirements of other IFRSs, eg IFRS 2 Share-based
Payment.
Depreciable amount is the cost of an asset, or other amount substituted for cost,
less its residual value.
Entity-specific value is the present value of the cash flows an entity expects to arise
from the continuing use of an asset and from its disposal at the end of its useful life or
expects to incur when settling a liability.
Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a
liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date. (IFRS 13 Fair Value Measurement.)
An impairment loss is the amount by which the carrying amount of an asset exceeds
its recoverable amount.
Monetary assets are money held and assets to be received in fixed or determinable
amounts of money.
Prepared by: M. Umar Munir (Gold Medalist), FCMA, MS Finance
FACR – ICMAP ML2 (S-22) Page 45 of 143
The residual value of an intangible asset is the estimated amount that an entity
would currently obtain from disposal of the asset, after deducting the estimated costs
of disposal, if the asset were already of the age and in the condition expected at the
end of its useful life.
EXAMPLES OF INTANGIBLES:
Licenses to trade and quotas Intellectual Property (patents, copyrights)
Brand names / trade marks Internet websites & Software
Customer lists Movies & artistic work etc.
The definition of intangible requires the explanation of the following important concepts:
a) Identifiable:
An asset is identifiable in one of the following two cases:
• Separable – can be separated from entity and sold, transferred, licensed, rented or exchanged,
regardless of the management’s intent.
• Arises from contractual or other legal rights for example license or franchise arrangements,
irrespective of being separable or transferable.
b) Non-Monetary:
Intangible assets are non-monetary i.e. they are not converted into known amount of cash. Due this
definition, accounts receivables and debt instruments have been excluded from intangibles even
though they lack physical substance.
c) Asset:
An asset is a resource having the following characteristics:
• Control denotes power to obtain economic benefits and at the same time restrain others to use
and obtain such economic benefits.
• Generates future economic benefits increase in revenue and / or cost reduction.
Following are not intangible assets due to lack of control, even though they are highly valuable.
a) Training / skill development costs. b) Customer relationship / loyalty.
c) Market share. d) Employees’ expertise.
e) High managerial expertise.
RECOGNITION:
Following two criteria must be met:
1. Meet the definition of an intangible asset.
2. Probable expected future economic benefits will flow to the entity; and
3. Cost can reliably be measured.
1. Separate Acquisition:
The cost should consist of (a) purchase price and (b) all directly attributable costs. Costs incurred
after the asset is available for use are expensed out e.g. training, relocation of staff, advertising and
promotion general operating and admin expenses.
2. Government Grant:
Intangible assets received by way of government grant may initially be recognized at (a) fair value or
(b) nominal amount being the amount paid for the allocated resource. It is a policy matter and should
be applied on consistent basis on all intangible assets acquired in a similar way.
3. Internal Generation:
Internally generated intangibles often don’t meet all or anyone of the recognition criteria i.e.
probability of inflow of benefits and reliability of cost measurement.
To deal with these issues and to make sure that the conditions for recognition are met, IAS-38 sets
out comprehensive recognition rules designed specifically for internally generated intangibles.
1. First, the standard requires the companies to establish that their intangible asset generation
activities are at sufficiently advance stage and are both technically and commercially viable to
confirm the probability of future benefits. This is achieved by splitting the activities into (a)
research and (b) development phases, with different accounting treatment.
R = RESEARCH D = DEVELOPMENT
Research is original and planned investigation Development is the application of research
undertaken to gain new scientific or technical findings or other knowledge to a plan or design
knowledge or understanding. Examples are for the production of new or substantially
studies to identify causes of cancer, methods improved materials, devices, products,
to improve a business operation etc. All processes, systems or services before the
expenses are charged to P&L on the ground of start of commercial production or use.
non-reliability of inflow of economic benefits. Examples are:
Examples are: The design, construction and testing of
Activities aimed at obtaining new chosen alternative materials, processes or
knowledge. systems.
The search for applications of research The design, construction and testing of
findings or other knowledge. pre-production prototypes and models.
The search for product or process The design of tools, jigs, molds and dies
alternatives. involving new technology.
The formulation and design of possible
new or improved product or process
alternatives.
Expenditures on development phase can only be capitalized IF AND ONLY IF ALL of the
following conditions are met:
a. Separately identifiable project. (Sell / use)
b. Expenditures clearly itemized: material, labor, and overhead.
c. Commercially viable. (Market research acceptability? / regulatory approvals)
d. Technically feasible and environmentally acceptable. (Will the new idea work?)
e. Overall profit expected. (All costs must be covered by forecasted revenues).
f. Resources (financial & other) must be adequate to complete development phase.
2. Secondly, the standard provides rigid guidelines for the components of cost of internally
generated intangible assets.
cannot be separately distinguishable from general cost of operating the business. However, they
could be recognized if they are acquired in separate acquisition.
SUBSEUENT MEASUREMENT:
Same as IAS-16, IAS-38 also allows choice between cost and revaluation models subsequent to initial
recognition with same principles but we charge amortization instead of depreciation.
Amortization:
Calculation of amortization consists of estimating the following:
1) Useful life:
a. Finite useful life:
Naturally amortized over useful life or number of expected production units.
b. Indefinite Useful life: (Not Infinite)
Not amortized just compulsory annual impairment review as per IAS-36.
2) Amortization method:
Amortization method should reflect benefit pattern. If pattern cannot be determined, that straight line
method is used. (SLN is a normal method).
3) Residual value
IAS-38 requires using ZERO residual value of intangibles assets with finite useful life except in the
following cases:
- Third party is committed to purchase the asset.
- Active market exists where reliable estimate can be obtained.
Required:
Explain the treatment of the above costs in GSK’s financial statements for the year-ended 31 Dec 2015.
[Answer: Research Rs.240,000 (40,000 X 6), Development Rs.200,000 (40,000 X 5), since there is no active market, we cannot
report it on fair value; therefore, it is reported at cost; however, it is indicated by evidence that there is no impairment]
Scope: This Standard shall be applied in accounting for the impairment of all assets, other than:
(a) inventories (IAS 2 Inventories);
(b) contract assets and assets arising from costs to obtain or fulfill a contract that are
recognised in accordance with IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers;
(c) deferred tax assets (IAS 12 Income Taxes);
(d) assets arising from employee benefits (IAS 19 Employee Benefits);
(e) financial assets that are within the scope of IFRS 9 Financial Instruments;
(f) investment property that is measured at fair value (IAS 40 Investment Property);
(g) biological assets related to agricultural activity within the scope of IAS 41 Agriculture
that are measured at fair value less costs to sell;
(h) contracts within the scope of IFRS 17 Insurance Contracts that are assets; and
(i) non-current assets (or disposal groups) classified as held for sale in accordance with
IFRS 5 Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued Operations.
Definitions: Carrying amount is the amount at which an asset is recognised after deducting any
accumulated depreciation (amortisation) and accumulated impairment losses thereon.
A cash-generating unit is the smallest identifiable group of assets that generates
cash inflows that are largely independent of the cash inflows from other assets or
groups of assets.
Corporate assets are assets other than goodwill that contribute to the future cash
flows of both the cash-generating unit under review and other cash-generating units.
Costs of disposal are incremental costs directly attributable to the disposal of an
asset or cash-generating unit, excluding finance costs and income tax expense.
Depreciable amount is the cost of an asset, or other amount substituted for cost in
the financial statements, less its residual value.
Depreciation (Amortisation) is the systematic allocation of the depreciable amount
of an asset over its useful life
Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a
liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement
date. (IFRS 13 Fair Value Measurement.)
An impairment loss is the amount by which the carrying amount of an asset or a
cash-generating unit exceeds its recoverable amount
The recoverable amount of an asset or a cash-generating unit is the higher of its fair
value less costs of disposal and its value in use.
Useful life is either:
(a) the period of time over which an asset is expected to be used by the entity; or
(b) the number of production or similar units expected to be obtained from the asset
by the entity.
Value in use is the present value of the future cash flows expected to be derived from
an asset or cash-generating unit.
INDICATIONS OF IMPAIRMENT?
External:
Internal:
• Obsolescence or physical damage of an asset.
• Adverse effect on the entity related to the use of an asset e.g. an asset becoming idle.
• Economic performance of an asset is, or will be, worse than expected.
• Loss of key personnel.
• Negative net cash outflow from operating activities.
RECOVERABLE AMOUNT:
Recoverable amount is the higher of the following:
a) Value in Sale: An asset’s (or cash-generating unit’s) fair value less costs of disposal.
b) Value in Use: The present value of the future net cash inflows using pretax rate.
NOTE: If any of the above is greater than CV, no need to calculate other – no evidence of impairment.
Also financing and taxation cash flows are ignored.
NOTE: Future depreciation / amortization will be as per the amount left after impairment.
CGU – IMPAIRMENT:
The impairment loss shall be allocated to reduce the carrying amount of the assets of the unit in the
following order:
1. Specific assets. (that has lost its value)
2. Goodwill.
3. Remaining assets. (on pro-rata basis at relative carrying values, but not below its NRV)
Caution:
• Reversal should not exceed impairment loss.
• Reversal should not lead to an asset being carried above its depreciated historical cost.
EXERCISE # 01
An entity owns a property which was revalued to Rs.500,000 on 31 March 2013 with a revaluation gain of
Rs.200,000 being recognized as other comprehensive income and recorded in the revaluation surplus. At
31 March 2015 the property had a carrying amount of Rs.460,000 but the recoverable amount of the
property was estimated at only Rs.200,000.
Required:
Prepare journal entry to record impairment loss, if any.
EXERCISE # 02
A machine was acquired on 1 January 2005 at a cost of Rs.50,000 and has a useful economic life of ten
years. At 31 December 2009 an impairment review was performed. The fair value of the machine is
Rs.26,000 and the selling costs are Rs.2,000. The expected future cash flows are Rs.5,000 per annum
for the next five years. The current cost of capital is 10%.
Required:
Calculate impairment loss.
EXERCISE # 03
A building was bought on 1 January 2001 at a cost of Rs.1,000,000 and has a useful life of 20 years. The
company uses the revaluation model for its land and buildings, and on the 31 December 2005 the fair
value of the building was Rs.1,125,000. The company opts to transfer any excess depreciation on the
revalued amount to retained earnings. On the 31 December 2007 a fall in the market value of property led
to an impairment review on the building, which revealed the recoverable value of the building to be
Rs.600,000.
Required:
Journal entry to record impairment loss, if any.
EXERCISE # 04
A cash-generating unit has these net assets: figures in million)
Goodwill 10
Property 20
PP&E 30
The recoverable amount has been determined as Rs.45 million.
Required:
Allocate the impairment loss to the net assets of the entity.
EXERCISE # 05
The assets at the reporting date of Sharon were as follows: (all figures in Rs.’000)
Goodwill 2,400, Buildings 6,000, Plant and equipment 5,200, Other intangibles 2,000, and Receivables
and cash 1,400.
On the reporting date a fire within one of Sharon’s buildings led to an impairment review being carried
out. The recoverable amount of the business was determined to be Rs.9.8 million. The fire destroyed
some plant and equipment with a carrying value of Rs.1.2 million and there was no option but to scrap it.
The other intangibles consist of a license to operate Sharon’s plant and equipment. Following the
scrapping of some of the plant and equipment a competitor offered to purchase the patent for Rs.1.5
million. The receivable and cash are both stated at their realizable value and do not require impairment.
Required:
Prepare journal entries to record impairment and prepare financial statement extracts.
[Answer: Total impairment loss Rs.7.2m and allocated as: goodwill 2.4m, building 3.1m, PP&E 1.2m, other intangibles 0.5m and
receivables and cash nil. Hint: Prepare columnar solution.]
Required:
nd
Calculate the reversal if impairment in 2 year.
[Answer: Rs.8,000]
Required:
Calculate the reversal as on Dec 31, 2020.
[Answer: Rs.16,000]
Scope: This Standard shall be applied by all entities in accounting for provisions, contingent
liabilities and contingent assets, except:
(a) those resulting from executory contracts, except where the contract is onerous; and
(b) those covered by another Standard.
A liability is a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement
of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying
economic benefits.
A contingent asset is a possible asset that arises from past events and whose
existence will be confirmed only by the occurrence or non-occurrence of one or more
uncertain future events not wholly within the control of the entity.
PROVISION:
A provision is a liability of uncertain timing or amount or both i.e. we are not 100% sure when the liability
is due and what expenditure is required to settle it.
Obligation / Liability:
Liability is a present obligation from past obligating events that result in outflow of resources. Past events
create two types of obligations: legal and constructive.
a. Legal – contractual, legislation or operation of law.
b. Constructive – established pattern of past practice and/or published policies creating valid
expectation on the part of other party that couldn’t be avoided without affecting business operation or
relations.
The accounting treatment is same for provisions created under both the above.
Recognition Criteria:
As per IAS-37, provision should be recognized when all criteria are met: (PPR)
a) Present obligation as a result of past events (obligating event) – legal or constructive. In order to
ascertain whether there is a present obligation, an entity asks a question: “whether it can be avoided
by future actions?”, if not, provision is made.
b) Probable outflow > 50%, otherwise, just disclosure of contingent liability is required.
c) Reliably estimate.
INITIAL MEASUREMENT:
With respect to measurement of the provision amount, we can classify events into two types:
a) Recurring – these events occur normally after some time and therefore historical information is
available. As a result, probabilities could be assigned. For example, warranty. Therefore
measurement is made on the basis of expected values.
b) One-off events – Provision is made using best estimate or most likely amount as per professional
advice. If time period is significant, present value is also found. (e.g. dismantling costs – IAS 16)
SUBSEQUENT TREATMENT:
• Provisions shall be reviewed at the end of each reporting period and adjusted to reflect the current
best estimate or expected values. If it is no longer probable that an outflow of resources embodying
economic benefits will be required to settle the obligation, the provision shall be reversed. For
example, in case of provisions (bad debts, income taxes, and warranty), provision amount is re-
assessed at each reporting date to reflect increases and decreases. (increase in provision is expense
while decrease is reversal of expense).
• Where discounting is used, the carrying amount of a provision increases in each period to reflect the
passage of time – unwinding. This increase is recognized as borrowing cost / finance cost.
NOTE: A provision shall be used only for expenditures for which the provision was originally recognized.
2. Onerous contracts:
An onerous contract is whereby the cost of fulfilling the contract exceeds the benefits received from
the contract (e.g. non-cancellable operating lease). A provision is recognized at the lower of:
a. Present value of continuing under the contract, and
b. Present value of exiting the contract i.e. penalties.
3. Restructuring Provisions:
Restructuring is a plan of management to change the scope of business or a manner of conducting a
business.
Sale or closure of a line of business.
Ceasing activities in a geographical location
Relocating activities
Re-organization (management or focus of operations)
A provision is recognized if there is a detailed formal plan and the plan has been announced.
Provision is created for directly attributable costs. (Costs of ongoing operations are ignored).
CONTINGENCIES:
Contingent liabilities:
• A contingent liability is a possible obligation arising from past events whose existence will only be
confirmed by the occurrence of uncertain future events not wholly within the entity's control. For
example, guarantee.
• A contingent liability could also include an obligation arising from past events which is not
recognized because it is not probable that a transfer of economic benefits will be required, OR
because the amount of the obligation cannot be measured with sufficient reliability.
Contingent assets:
A contingent asset is a possible asset arising from past events whose existence will only be confirmed by
future events not wholly within the entities control. Contingent assets may require disclosure but should
not be recognized in the accounts. Both contingent liabilities and assets are disclosed in financial
statements.
EXERCISE # 01
Excellent Inc. is an oil entity that is exploring oil off the shores of Excessoil Islands. It has employed oil
exploration experts from around the globe. Despite all efforts, there is a major oil spill that has grabbed
the attention of the media. Environmentalists are protesting and the entity has engaged lawyers to advise
it about legal repercussions. In the past, other oil entities have had to settle with the environmentalists,
paying huge amounts in out-of-court settlements. The legal counsel of Excellent Inc. has advised it that
there is no law that would require it to pay anything for the oil spill; the parliament of Excessoil Islands is
currently considering such legislation, but that legislation would probably take another year to be finalized
as of the date of the oil spill. However, in its television advertisements and promotional brochures,
Excellent Inc. often has clearly stated that it is very conscious of its responsibilities toward the
environment and will make good any losses that may result from its exploration. This policy has been
widely publicized, and the chief executive officer has acknowledged this policy in official meetings when
members of the public raised questions to him on this issue.
Required:
Does the above give rise to an obligating event that requires Excellent Inc. to make a provision for the
cost of making good the oil spill?
[Answer: Provision is required – constructive obligation]
EXERCISE # 02
Amazon Inc. has been sued for following three alleged infringements of law:
Lawsuit 1:
Unauthorized use of a trademark; the claim is for Rs.100 million. The chances of this lawsuit are remote.
Lawsuit 2:
Nonpayment of end-of-service severance pay to 5,000 employees who were terminated without Amazon
Inc. giving any reason; the class action lawsuit is claiming Rs.3 million. It is probable that Amazon Inc.
would have to pay the displaced employees, but the best estimate of the amount that would be payable if
the plaintiff succeeds against the entity is Rs.2 million.
Lawsuit 3:
Unlawful environmental damage for dumping waste in the river near its factory; environmentalists are
claiming unspecified damages as cleanup costs. There is no current law that would compel the entity to
pay for such damages. There may be a case for constructive obligation, but the amount of damages
cannot be estimated with any reliability.
Required:
What should be the provision that Amazon Inc. should recognize or the contingent liability that itshould
disclose in each of the lawsuits, based on the assessments of its legal counsel?
[Answer: a) Do nothing, b) Provision for Rs.2m, c) Contingent liability]
EXERCISE # 03 RE-STRUCTURING:
The board of directors of ABC Inc. at their meeting held on December 15, 20X1, decided to close down
the entity’s international branches and shift its international operations and consolidate them with its
domestic operations. A detailed formal plan for winding up the international operations was also
formalized and agreed by the board of directors in that meeting. Letters were sent out to customers,
suppliers, and workers soon thereafter. Meetings were called to discuss the features of the formal plan to
wind up international operations, and representatives of all interested parties were presenting those
meetings.
Required:
Do the actions of the board of directors create a constructive obligation that needs a provision for
restructuring?
[Answer: Yes – detailed formal plan communicated that has created a valid expectation]
If she decides to cancel the cloth purchase contract without notice she must pay a cancellation penalty of
Rs.700, for each of the next two months.
In December 2009 the market price of dresses fell to Rs.22. She is considering ceasing production since
she believes that the market will not improve. There is 2 months’ notice stated in the contract in case of
breach of a contract.
Required:
What will appear in respect of the contract in Daiva’s financial statements for year ending31 Dec , 2009.
[Answer: Provision of Rs.1,350]
EXERCISE # 05
An entity sells goods with a warranty covering customers for the cost of repairs of any defects that are
discovered within the first two months after purchase. Past experience suggests that 88% of the goods
sold will have no defects, 7% will have minor defects and 5% will have major defects. If minor defects
were detected in all products sold, the cost of repairs would be Rs.24,000. If major defects were detected
in all products sold, the costwould be Rs.200,000.
Required:
What amount of provision should be made?
[Answer: The expected value of the cost of repairs is Rs.11,680 [(7% × 24,000) + (5% × 200,000)].
DECISION TREE:
The Standard also requires that an entity should not prepare its financial statements on a
going concern basis if events after the reporting period indicate that the going concern
assumption is not appropriate.
Scope: This Standard shall be applied in the accounting for, and disclosure of, events after the
reporting period.
Definitions: Events after the reporting period are those events, favourable an un-favourable, that
occur between the end of the reporting period and the date when the financial statements
are authorised for issue. Two types of events can be identified:
a) those that provide evidence of conditions that existed at the end of the reporting
period (adjusting events after the reporting period); and
b) those that are indicative of conditions that arose after the reporting period (non-
adjusting events after the reporting period).
Objective:
IAS 10 sets the rules when an entity should adjust its financial statements for events after the reporting
period together with the necessary disclosures.
Event after the reporting period is favorable or unfavorable event that occurs between:
a) The end of the reporting period and
b) The date that the financial statements are authorized for issue.
Date of Authorization:
It is the date on which directors of the company approves and sign-off the accounts for issuance to
members. In this regard, requirements u/s 232 of Companies Act, 2017 are as under:
ADJUSTING EVENTS:
Adjusting event is the event that arose after the end of the reporting period, but provides further
evidence of conditions that existed at the end of the reporting period, irrespective whether they were
known or not.
Examples:
1. The receipt of information after the reporting period indicating that an asset was impaired at the end
of the reporting period, or that the amount of a previously recognised impairment loss for that asset
needs to be adjusted.
a. The bankruptcy of a customer that usually confirms that the customer was credit-impaired at the
end of the reporting period.
b. The sale of inventories after the reporting period may give evidence about their net realizable
value at the end of the reporting period.
2. The discovery of fraud or errors that show that the financial statements are incorrect.
3. Court case outstanding at year end settled after reporting period, resulting loss and confirming that
entity had a present obligation at the reporting date.
4. The determination of the amount of profit-sharing or bonus payments. (performance related pay)
5. Going concern assumption being doubtful is in any case adjusting event even tough conditions were
not existed at the reporting date.
6. The determination of the cost of assets purchased, or the proceeds from assets sold, before the end
of the reporting period.
Accounting treatment:
Financial statements should be adjusted for adjusting events.
NON-ADJUSTING EVENTS:
Non-adjusting event is an event after the reporting period that indicates conditions arising after the end
of the reporting period.
Examples:
1. The destruction by a fire / natural disaster.
2. Decline in fair value of investments.
3. Entity declares dividends (approval by shareholders) to holders of equity instruments after reporting
date. (Adjusting event will be considered when declared before reporting date). Proposed
(recommended) dividend by directors before reporting date is never recorded / adjusted.
4. A major business combination.
5. Announcing a plan to discontinue an operation.
6. Major purchases of assets.
7. Classification of assets under IFRS 5. (Held for Sales and Discontinued operations)
8. Disposals of major non-current assets.
9. Expropriation of major assets by government.
10. Announcing, or commencing the implementation of, a major restructuring plan as per IAS 37.
11. Major ordinary share transactions (“stock splits”, or “rights issue”) and potential ordinary share
transactions.
12. Abnormally large changes in asset prices or foreign exchange rates.
13. Changes in tax rates or tax laws enacted or announced.
14. Entering into significant commitments / contracts or contingent liabilities
15. Commencing major litigation arising solely out of events that occurred after the reporting period.
Accounting treatment:
Do not adjust financial statements for non-adjusting events. The following disclosure shall be made, if
material:
a) The nature of the event, and
b) An estimate of its financial effect or a statement that such an estimate cannot be made.
20X2 and the financial statements are then filed with a regulatory body on 17 May 20X2.
Required:
Identify the date of authorization for issue. [Answer: The financial statements are authorised for issue on 18 March 20X2
(date of management authorization for issue to the supervisory board).]
Required:
How should this event be recognized in the financial statements under each of the following cases:
a) If financial statements are authorized for issue before 15 Feb.
b) If financial statements are authorized for issue after 15 Feb.
[Answer: DIY]
Superseded Regulations:
The following standards will no longer apply following the implementation of IFRS-15:
1. IAS-11 Construction Contracts
2. IAS-18 Revenue
5 STEP MODEL
IMPORTANT CONCEPTS:
Contract Asset:
Performance obligation is satisfied but billing is pending; invoicing is not possible. For example, handset
is delivered but billing will be done at the end of each month.
Contract Liability:
Amount has been received but performance obligation is not satisfied (customer acceptance is not
received)
Contract Receivable:
It is recognized due to the following two reasons:
a) Contract asset is converted into receivable i.e. billing right is established after performance obligation
is satisfied.
b) When right to receive payment is immediately established after performance obligation is satisfied.
COMBINATION OF CONTRACTS:
If the entity into two or more contracts at the same time (even with different customers), for the purpose of
revenue recognition, the contract should be combined into one if the meet ANY of the following
conditions:
a) The contracts are negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective.
b) The amount of consideration to be paid in one contract depends on the price / performance of the
other contract.
c) Goods and services constitute a single performance obligation.
MODIFICATON OF CONTRACTS:
A contract modification is a change in scope and/or price. In this case, the reporting entity has to assess
whether the modification constitutes a new contract of whether it should be accounted for as part of
existing contract.
Required:
(a) Discuss, with calculations, how much revenue should be recognised in relation to the above by the
reporting date.
(b) Discuss, with calculations, how much revenue should be recognised in relation to the above by the
reporting date if the contract specified a price of Rs.40 for the additional 200 products. Assume the
normal standalone selling price at the modification date is Rs.57.
[Answer: a) Rs.54,000 (900 x 60), additional 200 are separate contract
b) Rs.52,400, Rs.42,000 for 700 original, and remaining (300 + 200) will be as new contract Rs.10,400 (52 x 200) ]
The new price of Rs.52 will be calculated as (300 @ 60) + (200 @ 40) divided by 500.
Some contracts contain more than one performance obligation. For example:
a) An entity may enter into a contract with a customer to sell a car, which includes one year’s free
servicing and maintenance.
b) An entity might enter into a contract with a customer to provide 5 training sessions along with a free
training material on the first day of the course.
- Vendor Specific
Separately identifiable from other goods/services in the contract like:
o Entity is NOT using good/service as an input to produce or deliver combined output. Raw
material and labor; customization plus software license.
o The good/ service does NOT significantly modify or customize another good/service.
o The good/ service is not highly dependent with other goods/services in the contract. One cannot
be used without the other one.
a) ECL has entered into a contract with Kashif Builders for construction of a residential project, including
supply of construction material, architectural services, engineering and site clearance. ECL and its
competitors provide such services separately also.
b) eSolutions Limited, a software developer, entered into a two year contract with a customer to provide
software license including future software updates and post implementation support services. The
software license would remain functional even if the updates and post implementation support
services are discontinued.
Required:
Evaluate each contract and identify the nature of performance obligations (single / distinct)
[Answer: a) Single b) distinct]
Required:
How should the agency sale be treated in Rosemary's statement of profit or loss?
[Answer: Revenue and cost of sales to be reduced by 1.6m]
Required:
Calculate the amount of bonus element of the consideration.
[Answer: 1m using most likely method, since only two possible outcomes]
Required:
a) Determine the financing component and calculate the revenue to be recognized.
b) Explain the treatment of receivable subsequent to initial recognition.
[Answer: Financing component Rs.347,107]
Required:
How much revenue should be recognised by Golden Gate Co in the year ended 31 December 20X1?
[Answer: Rs.1m is treated as reduction from revenue, since no distinct goods. Total revenue will be reduced by 5% (1/20)]
Required:
Allocate the transaction price to the performance obligations.
[Answer: Rs.7,500 to machine and Rs.2,500 to one year service]
Required:
Ignoring time value of money, how is the Rs.10,000 contract price allocated to the separate performance
obligations?
[Answer: System Rs.8,182 + Repair Rs.1,818]
Required:
How should the transaction price be allocated between the machine and the technical support?
[Answer: Rs.76,000 to machine and Rs.24,000 to technical support]
Required:
Calculate the selling price to be allocated to each product, in case PL offers to sell one carton of each
product for a total price of Rs. 260,000.
[Answer: Alpha Rs.96,296, Bravo Rs.73,667, Charlie Rs.90,037]
# $ %
" ℎ = × 100
& '
Output method relates to the value received by
customer relative to the remaining benefits like
surveys of performance, appraisals of results,
This method certifies revenues. milestone reached, time elapsed, or units produced /
delivered.
Required:
If LiverTech sold a combined contract on 1 July 20X7, demonstrate how the transaction would be
presented in the financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X7.
[Answer: Contract Revenue Rs.1,300, Contract Liability Rs.300 out of which 100 is non-current]
NOTE:
Contract revenue is reduced by the amount of any penalties arising from delays caused by the contractor
in the completion of the contract.
Contract Costs:
• Directly attributable costs i.e.
o site labour costs, including site supervision
o costs of materials used in construction
o depreciation of plant and equipment used on the contract
o costs of moving plant, equipment and materials to and from the contract site
o costs of hiring plant and equipment
o costs of design and technical assistance that is directly related to the contract
o the estimated costs of rectification and guarantee work, including expected warranty costs
o claims from third parties.
In case of profit, it is recognized as per “stage of completion”; however, in case of loss, it is immediately
booked in total.
For example, if a contract is worth Rs.10 million and it is 90% satisfied by the end of year 2, and was 50%
satisfied by the end of year 1, then Rs.9 million has been earned to date, of which Rs.5 million would
have been recognised in year 1. This means that Rs.4 million would be recognised as revenue in year 2.
IMPORTANT POINTS:
As alternatives to the term 'contract asset', IFRS 15 also allows the terms receivable and work-in-
progress to be used.
• If revenue exceeds cash received, this could be included within trade receivables.
Receivable = Billed – Received
• If costs to date exceed cost of sales, this could be included within inventory, as work-in-progress.
WIP = Cost to date – Cost of Sales
• If the cash received exceeds the revenue recognised to date, there will be a contract liability
(effectively deferring the income).
• If a contract is loss-making, there will be a provision recorded to recognise the full loss under the
onerous contract, as per IAS 37.
• If project outcomes cannot be determined, revenue can only be recognized equal to the actual cost
incurred to date.
Total contract price Rs.444,000, cost incurred to date Rs.200,000, estimated further cost to complete
Rs.138,000, cash received to date Rs.205,000 and value of work certified 253,080.
The company used output method to determine progress and recognize revenue.
Required:
Prepare the financial statements extracts at 31 December 2020.
[Answer: Total profit [Link].106,000, % 57%, Profit Rs.60,420, Contract Asset Rs.55,420]
Consignment inventory:
This can raise the issue of consignment inventory, where one party legally owns the inventory but
another party keeps the inventory on its premises. The key issue relates to which party has the majority of
indicators of control.
Required:
How should these machines be treated in the accounts of Canterbury for the year ended 31 Dec 2016?
[Answer: The machines are assets of Canterbury and should be included in its statement of financial position. Therefore,
Gillingham can recognise revenue when the machines are dispatched to Canterbury.]
Repurchase agreements
A repurchase agreement is where an entity sells an asset but retains a right to repurchase the asset. This
is often not recognised as a sale, but as a secured loan against the asset. Indications that this should not
be recognised as a sale may include:
• Sale is below fair value
• Option to repurchase is below the expected fair value
• Entity continues to use the asset
• Entity continues to hold the majority of risks and rewards associated with ownership of the asset
• Sale is to a bank or financing company
Required:
Giving reasons, show how Xavier should record the above during the first year following transfer.
[Answer: Xavier should continue to recognise the head office as an asset in the statement of financial position. This is a secured
loan with effective interest of Rs.2 million (Rs.12 million – Rs.10 million) over the four-year period.]
Bill-and-hold arrangements
A bill-and-hold arrangement is a contract under which an entity bills a customer for a product but the
entity retains physical possession of the product until it is transferred to the customer at a point of time in
the future. For this to be recognised within revenue, the customer must have obtained control of the
product, despite it physically remaining with the entity.
There may be a fee for custodial services, where the entity recognises a fee for holding the goods on
behalf of the customer. This performance obligation would be satisfied over time, so any revenue would
be recognised on this basis.
The parts are kept separately in the warehouse, cannot be used or sold by Clarence, and are ready for
immediate shipment at Edgar's request. Clarence agreed to the transaction as it decided that holding
costs would be insignificant.
Required:
Discuss the accounting treatment as per IFRS.
[Answer: The performance obligations to provide the machine and the spare parts appear to be met on 31 December 20X1, so the
full Rs.500,000 revenue can be recognised.]
IFRS 16 – LEASES
LEASE – Defined:
Lease is a contract that conveys the right to use an identified asset (underlying asset) for a period of
time (lease term) in exchange of consideration.
The entity that obtains the right is referred as “Lessee”. (The user of asset). The lessee will account
for “lease as right of use” with some exceptions. There if no classification of lease with respect to
lessee.
The provider of that right is known as “Lessor”. (The legal owner of the asset). The lessor will
account for lease as either “operating” and “finance” lease.
Periodic payments to lessor are called “lease rentals” that could either be “in advance (start)” or “in
arrears (end)”.
1. Peach needs to transport its goods to customers in Europe using rail freight. The company enters into
a contract with a rail freight carrier for the use of 10 rail cars of a particular type for five years.
[Answer: The identified asset is the specific rail cars in the contract to which the supplier does not have substantive substitution
rights (unless for repairs or maintenance). The customer has exclusive use ofthe rail cars so has the right to all the economic
benefits. The contract therefore contains a lease of the rail cars.]
2. Peach needs to transport its goods to customers in Europe using rail freight. The company enters into
a contract with a rail freight carrier that requires the carrier to transport a specified quantity of goods
by using a specified type of rail car in accordance with a stated timetable for five years.
[Answer: There is no identified asset as the supplier can use any rail car as long as it meets the specific type as designated in the
contract, which means that the supplier has substantive substitution rights. As the supplier can choose which rail car to use out of a
fleet then they have substantially all of the economic benefit of the rail car and hence there is no lease within the contract.]
3. Coffee Bean enters into a contract with an airport operator to use some space in the airport to sell its
goods from portable kiosks for a three-year period. Coffee Bean owns the portable kiosks. The
contract stipulates the amount of space and states that the space may be located at any one of
several departure areas within the airport. The airport operator can change the location of the space
allocated to Coffee Bean at any time during the period of use, and the costs that the airport operator
would incur to do this would be minimal. There are many areas in the airport that are suitable for the
portable kiosks.
[Answer: No, because there is no identified asset and lessee has no control to direct the use of the asset.]
KEY TERMS:
Inception date The date at which lessor and lessee agree on major terms and conditions of the
contract like identified asset, lease term, rentals etc. It could be earlier of the period of
signing the contract or principal consensus.
Commencement The date on which a lessor makes an underlying asset available for use by a lessee
date i.e. when right of use is transferred to lessee. This is the date from which both lessor
and lessee start accounting.
Lease term: The non-cancellable period for which a lessee has the right to use an underlying
asset (only lessor can cancel), together with both:
(a) Periods covered by an option to extend the lease if the lessee is reasonably
certain at inception date to exercise that option; and
• The asset is principal customized asset for the lessee.
• The lessee has made signification leasehold improvements in the asset.
• The rental in extension period is very attractive (materially lower).
(b) Periods covered by an option to terminate the lease if the lessee is reasonably
certain at inception date not to exercise that option. The reason could be heavy
penalty for cancellation along with above reasons.
The above conditions in (a) and (b) must be re-assessed in each reporting date.
Fixed payments The lease payments which are fixed or substantially fixed. (Based on some variable
but very uncertain to change). It is always part of lease payments.
Lease Payments made by a lessee to a lessor relating to the right to use an underlying
payments asset during the lease term, comprising the following:
In case, asset is transferred in the name of lessee at the end of lease term:
(a) Fixed payments (including in-substance fixed payments ), less any lease
incentives (free rent, any expense borne by lessor etc);
(b) Variable lease payments that depend on an index or interest rate; (Variable
payments based on usage and any other factor (contingent rent) are treated as
and when occur by both parties [expense and income])
(c) the exercise price of a purchase option (BPO) if the lessee is reasonably certain
to exercise that option; and
(d) Payments of penalties for terminating the lease (cancellation penalty), if the lease
term reflects the lessee exercising an option to terminate the lease.
In case asset is revert back to lessor, following provisions are also applicable:
1) For the lessee, lease payments also include guaranteed residual value (by lessee
or party related to lessee) and bargain purchase option will not be applicable.
2) For the lessor, lease payments also include guaranteed residual value (by lessee
rd
or party related to lessee) or any other 3 party unrelated to the lessor.
Finance lease A lease that transfers substantially all the risks and rewards incidental to ownership of
an underlying asset.
Operating lease A lease that does not transfer substantially all the risks and rewards incidental to
ownership of an underlying asset. (all leases except for finance lease)
Gross The sum of:
Investment in (a) The lease payments receivable by a lessor under a finance lease; and
lease (lessor) (b) Any unguaranteed residual value accruing to the lessor, if revert back.
Net investment The gross investment in the lease discounted at the interest rate implicit in the lease.
in lease (lessor)
Unearned The difference between:
finance income (a) The gross investment in the lease; and
(lessor) (b) The net investment in the lease.
This income is earned in future.
Interest rate The rate of interest that equates (IRR) the present value of
implicit in the a) Gross Investment in lease
lease b) Fair value plus IDC by lessor (initial direct cost)
- IDC of manufacturer and dealer lessor is immediately expensed.
- IDC of financial institution lessor becomes part of net investment lease.
Lessee’s The rate of interest that a lessee would have to pay to borrow over a similar term, and
incremental with a similar security, the funds necessary to obtain an asset of a similar value to the
borrowing rate right-of-use asset in a similar economic environment.
Residual value The guaranteed residual value (GRV ) is the residual value of a leased asset that is
Guarantee guaranteed by the lessee or by a financially capable third party not related to the
lessor and included in the minimum lease payments to be made by the lessee.
Unguaranteed Unguaranteed residual value of a leased asset is the amount by which the residual
residual value value of the asset exceeds its guaranteed residual value.
Required:
Split the annual rental between the lease and non-lease components.
[Answer: Lease Component Rs.90,476/-, Non-lease component Rs.9,524/-]
ACCOUNTING BY LESSEE
The accounting for low value or short-term leases is done through expensing the rental through profit or
loss on a straight-line basis.
Rent Expense Dr, Rent Payable Cr using total value divided by lease term.
Required:
Prepare journal entries for 3 months period.
[Answer: Rs.12,333/- per month expense]
Required:
Explain how Mango would account for the lease in the financial statements.
[Answer:1,500 per year for 4 years in P&L]
ROU ACCOUNTING:
Initial Measurement
The lessee recognizes the following at the inception of the lease agreement for all leases:
1. Lease liability / obligation
2. Right-of-use asset.
At the commencement date, Lessee concludes that it is not reasonably certain to exercise the option to
extend the lease and, therefore, determines that the lease term is 10 years.
The interest rate implicit in the lease is not readily determinable. Lessee’s incremental borrowing rate is 5
per cent per annum, which reflects the fixed rate at which Lessee could borrow an amount similar to the
value of the right-of-use asset, in the same currency, for a 10-year term, and with similar collateral.
Required:
Record the lease agreement at initial recognition.
[Answer: ROU Rs.420,391 = (Unpaid lease Obligation 355,391 (405,391 - PMT Rs.50,000) + IDC Rs.20,000 – Incentive Rs.5,000]
Subsequent Measurement:
RIGHT OF USE (ASSET) LEASE OBLIGATION (LIABILITY)
Right of Use is measured through IAS 16 Lease payments are apportioned into the (a)
subsequently, depending on the class of asset Finance cost and (b) repayment of lease obligation.
already held, ensuring same accounting policy. Normally, a lease amortization schedule is
Depreciation Charge Period: prepared. “Amortized cost” method.
a) If the lease transfers the title to the lessee at
the end of term and lessee is reasonably Opening Balance + Interest Charge – Lease
certain as well, the Right of Use is depreciated Payment Made = Closing Balance
over the useful life of the asset.
b) In case otherwise, the Right of Use asset is The interest is charged on the outstanding liability
depreciated over the shorter of the lease term at the end of year. The interest is charged to P&L.
and useful life.
At inception:
Right of Use Debit
Lease liability Credit
Cash Credit (for initial direct cost)
Provision Credit (for dismantling costs)
(To record lease contract)
At the close:
There can be one of the following situations:
1) Revert Back
2) Ownership Transfer
o PPE (Owned asset) Dr and ROU Cr (with carrying value)
o Lease obligation Dr and Bank Cr (with BPO Price).
Required:
a) Prepare journal entry at initial recognition of lease as per IFRS-16 under each case separately:
i. Rentals are payable in arrears i.e. at the end of each year.
ii. Rentals are payable in advance i.e. at the start of each year.
b) Prepare financial statements extracts for first year.
[Answer: DIY]
EXERCISE # 08 COMPREHENSIVE
On 1 January 2001, Dynamic entered into a two-year lease for a lorry. The contract contains an option to
extend the lease term for a further year. Dynamic believes that it is reasonably certain to exercise this
option. Lorries have a useful economic life of ten years. Lease payments are Rs.10,000 per year for the
initial term and Rs.15,000 per year for the option period. All payments are due at the end of the year. To
obtain the lease, Dynamic incurs initial direct costs of Rs.3,000. The interest rate within the lease is not
readily determinable. Dynamic’s incremental rate of borrowing is 5%.
Required:
1. Calculate the initial carrying amount of the lease liability and the right-of-use asset and provide the
double entries needed to record these amounts in Dynamic's financial records.
2. Prepare extracts from Dynamic's financial statements in respect of the lease agreement for the year
ended 31 December 2001.
[Answer: Right of use Rs.34,552, lease liability Rs.31,552, annual depreciation Rs.11,517, finance cost Rs.1,578]
Lease Modification:
The important consideration in that whether there is a separate lease or otherwise.
In case there is not a separate lease, lease scope is change – altering right of use and lease obligations
accordingly. Any difference is charged into profit or loss.
Required:
1. Calculate the increase in lease obligation that would be required to be made on revision.
2. Prepare journal entry to record the revision.
[Answer:Increase in ROU & lease obligation Rs.16,755/-]
The key issue is that whether the transfer of the asset to other party constitutes sale in accordance with
IFRS – 15. Following are some indications of transfer of control:
Arrangement qualifies
Sale and Leaseback as
conditions for sale as per Yes
per IFRS 16
IFRS-15
No
Financing Arrangement as
per IFRS 09
If transfer is sale, the gain is calculated by the difference with carrying value and fair value (not actual
sales proceeds). Moreover, the seller cannot books its total gain or loss, since he is getting back or
retaining part of the right of use.
Accounting:
Cash Debit (with the amount of sales proceeds i.e. fair value)
Right of use Debit (Calculated with above formula)
Asset Credit (Carrying value)
Lease Liability Credit (Present value of lease payments)
Gain Credit (This could be calculated or β)
Required:
a) Calculate the value of right retained by the lessee i.e. the seller and gain / loss to be recognized.
b) Record the transactions into book of accounts.
[Answer: Right of use Rs.4,118,227, gain Rs.1,198,467]
Required:
a) Calculate the value of right retained by the lessee i.e. the seller and gain / loss to be recognized.
b) Record the transactions into book of accounts.
[Answer:Right of use Rs.758,157, gain Rs.662,764]
ACCOUNTING BY LESSOR
The first step is to classify lessor into the following:
a) Manufacturer / dealer:
Owned asset is leased.
b) Financial institution:
Make payment to supplier of asset on behalf of lessee.
The next issue if to classify lease into operating and finance lease:
IDC (initial direct cost) incurred by lessor with respect to operating lease becomes part of cost of asset
and depreciated as separate component over the lease term.
Required:
Discuss the accounting treatment of the above in the year ended31 December 20X1.
[Answer:Rs.85,000 rental income per year is recognized]
Required:
Prepare rental due account for entire contact period.
[Answer: Rentals income Rs.150,000 pa]
FINANCE LEASE:
This is a long-term leasing arrangement. For example, bank leases a plane to an airline for 40 years. The
control of the asset passes to the lessee during the term of the lease. Therefore, this is a form of lending
arrangement.
Initial Accounting:
This depends on type of lessor:
Manufacturer / dealer lessor Financial institution lessor
Derecognize asset (recording sale and cost of sale) The concept of interest rate implicit in the lease
and record a lease receivable (@ net investment in relates to financial institution lessor. IDC paid by
the lease), resulting gain / loss. Lessor will lessor becomes part of lease receivable.
compare his rate of interest with market rate and
use the higher one for determining NIL. Entries:
Lease receivable Dr and Bank Cr at NIL i.e. Fair
Entries: Value plus IDC.
1. Lease receivable Dr and Sales Cr @ NIL.
2. Cost of sales Dr and Inventory Cr.
3. Any IDC paid by lessor is treated as expense.
Subsequent Accounting:
a) Record finance lease receipts as a reduction in the receivable.
b) Record interest income on the receivable.
Note: UGRV estimate for lessor is re-assessed at each reporting date. Any change is adjusted in LR and
P&L accordingly.
Required:
1. Calculate Cherry’s net investment in the lease. [Answer: NIL Rs.23,478]
2. Record the lease transaction at initial recognition. [Answer: Loss on disposal Rs.522]
3. Prepare lease amortization schedule.
It is inherent in the recognition of an asset or liability that the reporting entity expects to
recover or settle the carrying amount of that asset or liability. If it is probable that recovery
or settlement of that carrying amount will make future tax payments larger (smaller) than
they would be if such recovery or settlement were to have no tax consequences, this
Standard requires an entity to recognise a deferred tax liability (deferred tax asset), with
certain limited exceptions.
This Standard requires an entity to account for the tax consequences of transactions and
other events in the same way that it accounts for the transactions and other events
themselves. Thus, for transactions and other events recognised in profit or loss, any
related tax effects are also recognised in profit or loss. For transactions and other events
recognised outside profit or loss (either in other comprehensive income or directly in
equity), any related tax effects are also recognised outside profit or loss (either in other
comprehensive income or directly in equity, respectively). Similarly, the recognition of
deferred tax assets and liabilities in a business combination affects the amount of goodwill
arising in that business combination or the amount of the bargain purchase gain
recognised. [IFRS 03]
This Standard also deals with the recognition of deferred tax assets arising from unused
tax losses or unused tax credits, the presentation of income taxes in the financial
statements and the disclosure of information relating to income taxes.
Definitions: Accounting profit is profit or loss for a period before deducting tax expense.
Taxable profit (tax loss) is the profit (loss) for a period, determined in accordance
with the rules established by the taxation authorities, upon which income taxes are
payable (recoverable).
Tax expense (tax income) is the aggregate amount included in the determination of
profit or loss for the period in respect of current tax and deferred tax.
Current tax is the amount of income taxes payable (recoverable) in respect of the
taxable profit (tax loss) for a period.
Deferred tax liabilities are the amounts of income taxes payable in future periods in
respect of taxable temporary differences.
Deferred tax assets are the amounts of income taxes recoverable in future periods in
respect of:
(a) deductible temporary differences;
(b) the carry-forward of unused tax losses; and
(c) the carry-forward of unused tax credits.
The tax base of an asset or liability is the amount attributed to that asset or liability for
tax purposes.
a) Current tax (Past / present)(the amount of tax payable/recoverable in respect of the taxable
profit/loss for a period). It has further two components:
i. Current tax, current year
ii. Current tax, prior years i.e. under / under provision related to prior period.
b) Deferred tax (Future)(an accounting adjustment aimed to match the tax effects of transactions to the
relevant accounting period).
EXERCISE # 02: ACCOUNTING PROFIT VS. TAXABLE PROFITS (ICMAP FALL 2019 Q # 6)
Required:
a) Prepare the journal entry to record tax expense on Dec 31, 2019.
b) Prepare the journal entry to record tax expense on Dec 31, 2020 under each case separately:
a. Actual payment for year 2019 is Rs.120,000.
b. Actual payment for year 2019 is Rs.135,000.
c. Actual payment for year 2019 is Rs.115,000.
TAX BASE:
a) Tax Base of an Asset:
The economic benefits of assets will be realized in terms of usage, sale or conversion into cash. IAS-
12 assumes that the carrying value of assets represents the future economic benefits. Distinction to
be made in assets:
Future economic benefits are taxable e.g. non-current assets, inventory etc. tax-base equals to
the deduction available against the economic benefits. Normally, cost is allowed as deduction.
Future economic benefits are non-taxable e.g. accounts receivable, tax base equals carrying
value.
EXAMPLES:
1. A machine cost Rs.100. For tax purposes, depreciation of Rs.30 has already been deducted in
the current and prior periods and the remaining cost will be deductible in future periods, either as
depreciation or through a deduction on disposal. Revenue generated by using the machine is
taxable, any gain on disposal of the machine will be taxable and any loss on disposal will be
deductible for tax purposes. [The tax base of the machine is Rs,70 because this amount is available as deduction
against future benefits of either sale proceeds or revenue]
2. A machine cost Rs. 1,000. The tax depreciation of Rs. 500 has already been used for
determination of tax but accounting depreciation of Rs.300 has been charged on the asset. [The
tax base of the machine is Rs,500]
3. Interest receivable has a carrying amount of 100. The related interest revenue will be taxed on a
cash basis. [The tax base of the interest receivable is nil because nothing will be allowed as deduction from entire
amount]
4. Trade receivables have a carrying amount of 100. The related revenue has already been included
in taxable profit (tax loss). [The tax base of the trade receivables is 100 because future benefits are non-taxable]
5. A loan receivable has a carrying amount of 100. The repayment of the loan will have no tax
consequences. [The tax base of the loan is 100.]
6. Dividends receivable from a subsidiary have a carrying amount of [Link] dividends are not
taxable. In substance, the entire carrying amount of the asset is deductible against the economic
benefits. [The tax base of the dividend receivable is 100]
EXAMPLES:
1. Current liabilities include accrued expenses with a carrying amount of 100. The related expense
will be deducted for tax purposes on a cash basis. [The tax base of the accrued expenses is nil.]
2. Current liabilities include interest revenue received in advance, with a carrying amount of 100.
The related interest revenue was taxed on a cash basis. [The tax base of the interest received is nil.]
3. Current liabilities include accrued expenses with a carrying amount of 100. The related expense
has already been deducted for tax purposes. [The tax base of the accrued expenses is 100.]
4. Current liabilities include accrued fines and penalties with a carrying amount of 100. Fines and
penalties are not deductible for tax purposes. [The tax base of the accrued fines and penalties is 100.]
5. A loan payable has a carrying amount of 100. The repayment of the loan will have no tax
consequences. [The tax base of the loan is 100.]
EXERCISE # 05A: CURRENT AND DEFERRED TAX – ACCRUED REVENUE TAXED ON CASH
AD Ltd is incorporated on Jan 01, 2019. The company has profit before tax for 2019 and 2020 is
Rs.5,000. Interest revenue of Rs.800 recognized on accrual basis in 2019 will be taxable on cash basis
on 2020. Applicable corporate tax rate is 30%.
Required:
Prepare profit or loss extract showing current and deferred tax, including necessary journal entries.
EXERCISE # 05B: CURRENT AND DEFERRED TAX – ACCRUED EXPENSE TAXED ON CASH
Faran Ltd was incorporated in year on Jan 01, 2018. The company has profit before tax for 2018 and
2019 is Rs.8,000. An accrued expense of Rs.1,400 was recorded in 2018 and paid in 2019. Tax
authorities allow deduction of expenses on cash basis. Applicable corporate tax rate is 30%.
Required:
Prepare profit or loss extract showing current and deferred tax, including necessary journal entries.
EXERCISE # 05C: CURRENT AND DEFERRED TAX – ADVANCE INCOME TAX ON CASH
Qasim Ltd was incorporated in year on Jan 01, 2018. The company has profit before tax for 2018 and
2019 is Rs.9,000. An advance income of Rs.2,000 recognized in 2018 is taxed on receipt basis.
Required:
Prepare profit or loss extract showing current and deferred tax, including necessary journal entries.
Required:
Prepare profit or loss extract showing current and deferred tax.
Required:
Prepare income statement of all five years showing related current and deferred taxes.
[Answer: Net income 900,000, Movement in DT: 1st +360,000, 2nd -120,000, 3rd -144,000, 4th -163,200k, 5th +67,200 ]
In the case of Non-current Assets, deferred tax usually arises as a result of the company receiving capital
allowances which depreciate the asset at a faster rate for tax purposes than the rate of depreciation
charged in the financial statements.
An explanation of the origins of why deferred tax is provided for lies in understanding that accounting
profit (as reported in a company’s financial statements) differs from the profit figure used by the tax
authorities to calculate a company’s income tax liability for a given period. If deferred tax were ignored
then a company’s tax charge for a particular period may bear very little resemblance to the reported profit.
For example if a company makes a large profit in a particular period, but, perhaps because of high levels
of capital expenditure, it is entitled to claim large tax allowances for that period, this would reduce the
amount of tax it had to pay. The result of this would be that the company reported a large profit, but very
little, if any, tax charge. This situation is usually ‘reversed’ in subsequent periods such that tax charges
appear to be much higher than the reported profit would suggest that they should be.
Many commentators feel that such a reporting system is misleading in that the profit after tax, which is
used for calculating the company’s earnings per share, may bear very little resemblance to the pre-tax
profit. This can mean that a government’s fiscal policy may distort a company’s profit after tax trends.
Providing for deferred tax goes some way towards relieving this anomaly, but it can never be entirely
corrected due to items that may be included in the income statement, but will never be allowed for tax
purposes (referred to as permanent differences in some jurisdictions). Where tax depreciation is different
from the related accounting depreciation charges this leads to the tax base of an asset being different to
its carrying value on the Statement of Financial Position (these differences are called temporary
differences) and a provision for deferred tax is made. This ‘Statement of Financial Position liability’
approach is the general principle on which IAS 12 bases the calculation of deferred tax. The effect of this
is that it usually brings the total tax charge (i.e. the provision for the current year’s income tax plus the
deferred tax) in proportion to the profit reported to shareholders.
Reference: LSBF ACCA F7 Handouts
Important Terms:
Non-Current Assets: All assets that are not current are non-current assets.
An asset is “current” when any of the following four conditions are met:
1. Expected to be realized, consumed or sold in normal operating cycle.
2. Held primarily for the purpose of trading.
3. Expected to be realized within 12 months of the reporting date.
4. Cash & cash equivalent. (Physical cash + Checking Accounts + Highly liquid Marketable Securities
with very short-term maturity + money market funds)
Disposal Group: It is a group of assets and liabilities disposed-off in a single transaction. E.g.
subsidiary.
Required:
Identify whether the headquarter building could be classified as HFS as per IFRS 05.
[Answer: a) Yes, b) No]
Required:
Can Archie Co. classify the property as available for sale under IFRS 5?
[Answer: “No” because due to downturn, price offered is not reasonable.]
Measurement:
A non-current asset or disposal group classified as held for sale should be measured at lower of:
a) Carrying amount.
b) Fair value less cost to sell.
It implies that immediately before the classification of as “held for sale” carrying amount must be updated
as per applicable standard – usual accounting policies are applied up until the HFS criteria are met. Once
a non-current asset is classified as held for sale, it will no longer be depreciated or amortized. (cost to
sell excludes finance and taxation costs)
If CV is higher than FVLCTS, the write down in the value is required in P&L.
Presentation:
Assets classified as HFS should be presented separately in SFP in current sections. (Assets / Liabilities)
Required:
a) Assuming that the machine meets all criteria to be classified as held for sale, calculate the amount at
which the machine would be measured upon classification as held for sale.
b) Assuming the fair value is Rs.7m instead of Rs.9m, what would be treatment?
[Answer: a)The machine is classified as HFS in SFP @ Rs.7.5m, b) Loss of Rs.0.7m is charged into P&L and HFS is @ Rs.6.8m]
DISCONTINUED OPERATIONS:
Both existing and potential investors are concerned not only about the current performance of the entity
but they should also be in a position to predict future performance – which is entirely based on continuing
operations. Therefore, separate disclosure of the results from discontinued operations enhances
predictive value of financial information - fulfilling overall objective of Financial Reporting.
Component of an Entity:
Operations and cash flows clearly distinguishable from the rest of the entity with regard to operations and
financial reporting – the group of activity that can be separated from the entity with regard to (a)
independent operations like subsidiary (CGU) and (b) separable financial reporting.
Discontinued operations:
It a component of an entity that has (during the year) either (a) has been disposed or (b) classified as held
for sale. It must meet any of the following conditions:
a) Represent separate major line of business / geographical area of operations.
b) Part of single coordinated plan to dispose-off separate major line of business / geographical area of
operations.
c) Subsidiary acquired exclusively for resale.
Cards Roses
Revenues 650,000 320,000
Cost of Sales 320,000 150,000
Selling Expenses 60,000 90,000
Administrative Expenses 120,000 110,000
Finance Cost 17,000 -
Income Taxes 31,000 -
Required:
Draft the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 2019.
[Answer: Profit from continued Rs.4,000, loss from discontinued Rs.143,000, net loss Rs.139,000]
Scope: This Standard shall be applied in selecting and applying accounting policies, and
accounting for changes in accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and
corrections of prior period errors.
Definitions: Accounting policies are the specific principles, bases, conventions, rules and
practices applied by an entity in preparing and presenting financial statements.
Prior period errors are omissions from, and misstatements in, the entity’s financial
statements for one or more prior periods arising from a failure to use, or misuse of,
reliable information that:
(a) was available when financial statements for those periods were authorised for
issue; and
(b) could reasonably be expected to have been obtained and taken into account in
the preparation and presentation of those financial statements.
Such errors include the effects of mathematical mistakes, mistakes in applying accounting
policies, oversights or misinterpretations of facts, and fraud.
Objective:
This standard deals with the following three areas:
a) Accounting policies – section, application and changes.
b) Accounting estimates – changes only.
c) Prior period errors.
Examples:
Basis of preparation of financial statements.
Change of methods of inventory valuation. (FIFO to Weighted Average)
Basis of measurement of assets: change from cost model to revaluation model.
Change of presentations of depreciations from cost of sales to administrative expenses.
ACCOUNTING ESTIMATES:- “JUDGEMENTS”
Many of the items cannot be measured with precision, but can only be estimated based on best available
evidence. Estimates contain inherent uncertainties and are subject to revision in case new information is
made available.
Changes in accounting estimates result from new information or new developments and, accordingly,
are not corrections of errors.
TIP! When there is difficulty in determining whether the change is of “policy” or “estimate”, it is treated as
that of change in estimate.
Required:
Identify which are accounting policies and accounting estimates.
[Answer: a, c & d=policy, b=estimate]
ERRORS:
Prior-period errors are some omissions from or misstatements in the financial statements as a result of
ignoring or misusing the information that was available or could be reasonably obtained when preparing
these financial statements. It includes the following:
a) Errors in applying accounting policies.
b) Oversights.
c) Fraud.
According to IAS 8, the amount of correction of an error that relates to prior periods should be reported by
adjusting the opening balance of retained earnings.
Important Distinction:
Retrospective application is applying a new Retrospective restatement is correcting the
accounting policy to transactions, other events and recognition, measurement and disclosure of
conditions as if that policy had always been amounts of elements of financial statements as if a
applied. prior period error had never occurred.
Related Party:
A person or a close member of that person’s family is related to a reporting entity if that person:
a) Existence of control or joint control – parent and subsidiaries / entities having common parent / joint
venture.
b) Significant influence – company and its associates.
c) Key Management Personnel – member of the key management personnel of the reporting entity or of
a parent of the reporting entity.
Important Definitions:
a. Key management personnel: Those persons having authority and responsibility for panning,
directing, and controlling the activities of the entity, directly or indirectly, including all directors
(executive and non-executive).
b. Close family member Includes (but is not limited to) Children and Dependents, Spouse/Partner,
Children and Dependents of Spouse/Partner. Need to assess the level of influence on a case-by-case
basis.
DISCLOSURES:
1. Relationships between parents and subsidiaries:
o Name of a parent of an entity,
o The ultimate controlling party,
o Next most senior parent that produces financial statements for public use (if neither of 2
above do so).
This must be disclosed even if there are no related party transactions.
BASIC TERMINOLOGIES:
Grant date:
At this date, terms of scheme, number of employees, years and options per employee were decided.
Exercise date:
It is the date at which the employee actually receives the share-based payment.
Share based payment transaction is to be recognized at fair value:
- Equity settled: FV at the reporting date and unchanged subsequently.
- Cash settled: FV at each reporting date and updated accordingly.
The fair value should be taken to profit or loss over the vesting period on a straight-line basis, based on
the number of options expected to be exercised. The corresponding credit entry will be recorded in equity
reserves.
01 Jan 2015: 12.00, 31 Dec 2015: 13.50, 31 Dec 2016: 13.80, 31 Dec 2017: 14.20
Required:
Prepare the extracts to be shown in the statement of profit or loss and the statement of financial position
for each of the three years ended 31 December 2015 to 31 December 2017.
[Answer: Expense 800,000 each year]
Required:
Prepare the extracts to be shown in the statement of profit or loss and the statement of financial position
for the year ended 31 December 2014 and 31 December 2015.
[Answer: Expense: 2014 = 2.4m, 2015 = 4.8m]
If the fair value of goods/services is known then this should be used in order to value the option, if the fair
value of the goods/services is not known then the fair value of the option should be reassessed at each
reporting date and this value should be used to value the options.
The fair value should be taken to profit or loss over the vesting period based on the number of options
expected to be exercised. However, as there will be a cash payment, the credit entry is recorded as a
liability.
Required:
Prepare the extracts to be shown in the statement of profit or loss and the statement of financial position
for each of the three years ended 31 December 2015 to 31 December 2017.
[Answer: P&L 2015 = 900,000, 2016 = 940,000 and 2017 = 1,000,000]
At 31 December 2014, it was estimated that four directors would leave before the end of the three years.
At 31 December 2015, due to a downturn in the economy, it was estimated that two directors would leave
before the end of the three years.
Required:
Prepare the extracts to be shown in the statement of profit or loss and the statement of financial position
for the year ended 31 December 2014 and 31 December 2015.
[Answer: Expense: 2014 = 3.2m, 2015 = 4.8m]
Many entities have diversified and / or multinational operations. Geographic segments they operate are
different in profitability, structure, risk and future prospects. Consequently, segmental information is more
relevant than consolidated information for users of financial statements in assessing risks and returns.
SCOPE:
IFRS 8 applies to the annual and interim financial statements of an entity. It applies to the separate or
individual financial statements of an entity and to the consolidated financial statements of a group with a
parent:
• Whose debt or equity instruments are traded in a public market (listed companies); or
• That files, or is in the process of filing, its financial statements with a securities commission or other
regulatory organization for the purpose of issuing any class of instruments in a public market.
A parent company need to prepare segments on the basis of consolidated financial statements only –
segments’ reports based on separate financial statement are not required. (avoids duplication)
Core Principle:
An entity is required to disclose information to enable users of its financial statements to evaluate the
nature and financial effects of the business activities in which it engages and the economic environments
in which it operates.
OPERATING SEGMENT:
An operating segment is a component of an entity:(ALL)
a) That engages in business activities from which it may earn revenues and incur expenses.
b) Whose operating results are regularly reviewed by the entity’s chief operating decision maker
(CODM) to make decisions about resources to be allocated to the segment and assess its
performance.
c) For which discrete financial information is available.
Generally, head office is not a segment because it doesn’t earn revenue – management / administration.
Definition of CODM: The CODM is the individual or group of individuals who is/are responsible for
strategic decision making regarding the entity. That is, the CODM allocates resources and assess the
performance of the operating segments.
Reportable segment:
Information is required to be disclosed separately about an operating segment that meets ANY of the
following quantitative thresholds:
1) Revenue: Its reported revenue, including both sales to external customers and intersegment sales or
transfers, is 10 per cent or more of the combined revenue, internal and external, of all operating
segments
2) Profit: The absolute amount of its reported profit or loss is 10 percent or more of the greater, in
absolute amount, of:
o The combined reported profit of all operating segments that did not report a loss; and
o The combined reported loss of all operating segments that reported a loss.
3) Assets: Its assets are 10 per cent or more of the combined assets of all operating segments.
NOTE:
If the total external revenue reported by operating segments constitutes less than 75% of the total
external revenue, additional operating segments shall be identified as reportable segments until at least
75% of the entity’s revenue is included in reportable segments. This may require relaxation in 10%
threshold criteria, based on professional judgment.
Aggregation criteria:
Prepared by: M. Umar Munir (Gold Medalist), FCMA, MS Finance
FACR – ICMAP ML2 (S-22) Page 104 of 143
Two or more operating segments may be aggregated if thesegments are similar economic characteristic
in each of the following respects:
The nature of the products and services.
The nature of the production processes.
The type or class of customer for their products and services.
The methods used to distribute their products or provide their services.
The nature of the regulatory environment.
DISCLOSURES:
Explanation on how reporting segments are identified.
Aggregation criteria opted, if any.
Product or service of each of the segments from which revenue of the segment is earned.
External, internal and total sales of the segment.
Expenses of the segments.
Profit / loss of each segment.
Assets of the segment.
Reconciliation between total external sales of the segment and total external sales of the company.
Reconciliation between total profit / loss reported under segments & total organizational profit / loss.
Reconciliation between total assets of the segments and total asset of the organization.
Geographic performance and position report.
An entity provides information about the extent of its reliance on its major customers. If revenues from
transactions with a single external customer amount to 10% or more of an entity’s revenues, the
entity discloses that fact.
EXERCISE:
Following is the information provided for each segment identified by A Ltd:
Revenues Profit /
Segment Assets Liabilities
Internal External (Loss)
East 38 705 194 200 130
West - 82 (22) 44 40
North - 300 81 206 125
South 35 - 10 75 60
Central 38 90 (63) 50 25
Required:
In respect of each reporting segment explain whether it is a reportable segment, support your decision by
the application of all quantitative thresholds defined in IFRS-08.
[Answer:all except West are reportable operating segments]
FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS
Standards Covering Financial Instruments:
S# Name of Standard Brief Explanation
1 IAS 32 – Financial Instruments: • Definition of Financial Instruments.
Presentation • Classification into financial assets & financial
liabilities.
• Presentation of financial instruments in financial
statements i.e. SFP and SPLOCI.
2 IFRS 07 – Financial Prescribes the extent of information related to financial
Instruments: Disclosures instruments that companies are required to disclose in
the notes to the financial statements.
3 IFRS 09 – Financial Classification of financial assets and financial liabilities
Instruments into categories. It deals with the principles under which
financial assets and financial liabilities are to be (a)
recognized, (b) measured initially and subsequently, and
(c) de-recognition.
FINANCIAL INSTRUMENT:
A financial instrument is any contract that gives rise to both
a) a financial asset of one entity and
b) a financial liability or equity instrument of another entity.
There are two parties to the contract (a) issuer and (b) holder.
For example:
a) Bond is reported as asset in the books of holder but it is reported as liability in the books of issuer.
b) Share is reported as asset in the books of holder but it is reported as equity in the books of issuer.
c) Sale of goods on credit is reported as asset (accounts receivable) in the books of seller but liability
(accounts payable) in the books of purchaser.
EQUITY:
An equity instrument is any contract that evidences residual interest in assets after deducting all its
liabilities i.e. ordinary shares. The entity has no obligation to pay cash (a) currently, (b) in future or (c) on
happening or not happening of uncertain future event, except liquidation.
DERIVATIVE:
A financial instrument or other contract within the scope of this Standard with all three of the following
characteristics:
(a) its value changes in response to the change in a specified interest rate, financial instrument price,
commodity price, foreign exchange rate, index of prices or rates, credit rating or credit index, or other
variable, provided in the case of a non-financial variable that the variable is not specific to a party to
the contract (sometimes called the ‘underlying’).
(b) it requires no initial net investment or an initial net investment that is smaller than would be required
for other types of contracts that would be expected to have a similar response to changes in market
factors.
(c) it is settled at a future date.
Assets Equities
Cash 10 Deposits 80
Bonds 20 Share Capital 20
Mortgage loans 40
Shares 15
Property, Plant and Equipment 15
100 100
Required:
Identify financial assets, financial liabilities and equity instruments.
[Answer: DIY]
equity element is the difference between the proceeds on issue and the initial liability element. The
liability element is subsequently measured at amortised cost, using the interest rate on similar debt
without the conversion option as the effective rate. The equity element is not subsequently changed.
Required:
Apply split accounting and prepare amortization table .
[Answer: Equity component Rs.16,049]
What amounts should be shown in the statement of financial position for the debt at the date of
issue?
a) Debt element Rs.19,001,600 and equity element Rs.998,400
b) Debt element Rs.998,400 and equity element Rs.19,001,600
c) Debt element Rs.20,000,000 and equity element Rs.500,000
d) Debt element Rs.22,000,000 and equity element 0
[Answer: “a”]
1) Investment in marketable bond: Tamara acquires a bond. The bond is listed and matures
in 18 months. Management has purchased the bond because it expects the price to
increase in the short-term. It intends to sell the bond whenever it believes the price has
peaked, but definitely within the next 30 days.
2) Investment in equity shares: Tamara acquires 5% of the equity shares in Go, a start-up
business in the Netherlands, which it believes has good prospects. She expects Go to be
listed within 2 years and hopes to make a substantial return on its investment over 3-5
years.
3) Investment in debt security: Tamara has invested surplus cash in a bond denominated in
Euros. The maturity of the bond is 3 years and management intends to hold the bond to
maturity, when it will use the proceeds for a planned acquisition in Germany.
4) Fixed interest debt: Tamara issues a 10m fixed-interest note with a three-year term.
5) Trade Receivable: Tamara has sold goods to a customer, which is invoiced in Singapore
Dollars. The Customer is expected to pay for the goods in 30 days
6) Short position in securities: Tamara hears a rumor that the share price of Black Dog will
fall within the next 3 days. She borrows Black Dog shares from a broker for 5 days and
immediately sells them in the market. On day 5, she intends to buy shares at a lower price in
the market and return them to the broker.
[Answer: 1= FA FVTP&L, 2= FA FVTOCI, 3= FA Amortized Cost, 4= FL Amortized Cost, 5= FA Amortized Cost, 6= FL FVTP&L]
a) Raiser sells goods to customers on credit and typically gives up to 30 days for making a full
payment.
b) Raiser holds bonds to collects their contractual cash flows, but sometimes, Raiser sells
bonds in urgent cash shortage before their maturity.
c) BeeBank provides mortgages to its clients and sells the mortgages to SPE. SPE pays for
mortgages with the cash from investors and collects contractual cash flows from mortgages.
BeeBank consolidates SPE.
d) SPE purchases mortgages from BeeBank and collects payments of principal and interest
from mortgagors.
[Answer: a) Hold & collect, b) Hold & collect, if sale is infrequent c) Not met at entity level but met at group level, d=Hold & collect]
1. Norman bought 100,000 shares in a listed entity on 1 November 2015. Each share cost
Rs.5 to purchase and a fee of Rs.0.25 per share was paid as commission to a broker. The
fair value of each share at 31 December 2015 was Rs.3.50.
2. Norman bought 200,000 shares in a listed entity on 1 March 2015 for Rs.500,000, incurring
transaction costs of Rs.40,000. Norman acquired the shares as part of a long-term strategy
to realize the gains in the future. The fair value of the shares was Rs.620,000 at 31
December. The shares were subsequently sold for Rs.650,000 on 31 January 2016.
3. Norman bought 10,000 debentures at a 2% discount on the par value of Rs.100. The
debentures are redeemable in four years’ time at a premium of 5%. The coupon rate
attached to the debentures is 4%. The effective rate of interest on the debenture is 5.73%.
Required:
Explain how each of the above financial assets will be accounted for in the financial statements
both initially and subsequently. Journal entries in each case are required.
Required:
Perform initial and subsequent measurement under each case separately:
a) FVTP&L
b) FVTOCI
[Answer: DIY]
Required:
Explain, with calculations, how the bond will have been accounted for over all relevant years if:
a) Tokyo planned to hold the bond until the redemption date.
b) Tokyo may sell the bond if the possibility of an investment with a higher return arises.
c) Tokyo planned to trade the bond in the short-term, selling it for its fair value on 1 January
20X2.
[Answer:]
Part a) Amortized Cost
Year Opening Interest Payment Closing
1 97,000 7,760 -5,000 99,760
2 99,760 7,981 -5,000 102,741
3 102,741 8,219 -5,000 105,960
Part b) FVTOCI
Year Opening Interest Payment Closing FV G/L
1 97,000 7,760 -5,000 99,760 110,000 10,240
2 110,000 7,981 -5,000 112,981 104,000 -8,981
3 104,000 8,219 -5,000 107,219 105,960 -1,259
Part c)
Investment will be classified as FVTPL. Transaction cost is expensed.
1st year, profit will be 15,000 and sold at the start of year 2
2. McTagg purchased 1 million shares in Bauer Co, a listed company, for Rs.4 million on 1
January 20X7. By the year end, 31 December 20X7, the fair value of a Bauer Co share had
moved to Rs.4.80. If McTagg were to dispose of the shares, broker fees of Rs.50,000 would
be incurred. What is the correct treatment for shares at year end?
a) Hold shares in investments at Rs.4.75 million, with Rs.750k gain being taken to the
statement of profit or loss
b) Hold shares in investments at Rs.4.8 million, with Rs.800k gain being taken to the
statement of profit or loss
c) Hold shares in investments at Rs.4.8 million, with Rs.800k gain shown in the statement
of changes in equity
d) Hold shares in investments at Rs.4.75 million, with Rs.750k gain shown in the statement
of changes in equity
3. In order to hold a debt instrument at amortised cost, which TWO of the following tests must
be applied?
a) Fair value test
b) Contractual cash flow characteristics test
c) Investment appraisal test
d) Business model test
[Answer:1=d, 2=b, 3=b & d]
Required:
a) What amount will be recorded as a financial liability when the loan notes are issued?
b) What amounts will be shown in the statement of profit or loss and statement of financial
position for years 1–4?
[Answer: Rs.1,000 per year interest expense because coupon and effective rate are same]
Year Opening Interest Payment Closing
1 20,000 1,000 -1,000 20,000
2 20,000 1,000 -1,000 20,000
3 20,000 1,000 -1,000 20,000
4 20,000 1,000 -21,000 0
Required:
a) What amount will be recorded as a financial liability when the loan notes are issued?
b) What amounts will be shown in the statement of profit or loss and statement of financial
position for years 1–3?
[Answer:]
Year Opening Interest Payment Closing
1 40,000 3,600 0 43,600
2 43,600 3,924 0 47,524
3 47,524 4,276 -51,800 0
Objective: Information about the cash flows of an entity is useful in providing users of financial
statements with a basis to assess the ability of the entity to generate cash and cash
equivalents and the needs of the entity to utilise those cash flows. The economic
decisions that are taken by users require an evaluation of the ability of an entity to
generate cash and cash equivalents and the timing and certainty of their generation.
The objective of this Standard is to require the provision of information about the historical
changes in cash and cash equivalents of an entity by means of a statement of cash flows
which classifies cash flows during the period from operating, investing and financing
activities.
Scope: An entity shall prepare a statement of cash flows in accordance with the requirements of
this Standard and shall present it as an integral part of its financial statements for each
period for which financial statements are presented.
Cash equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily
convertible to known amounts of cash and which are subject to an insignificant risk of
changes in value.
Cash flows are inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents.
Operating activities are the principal revenue-producing activities of the entity and
other activities that are not investing or financing activities.
Investing activities are the acquisition and disposal of long-term assets and other
investments not included in cash equivalents.
Financing activities are activities that result in changes in the size and composition
of the contributed equity and borrowings of the entity.
Indirect Method:
ABC Ltd
Statement of Cash Flows
For the period Ended Dec 31, 2019
OPERATING ACTIVITIES:
Profit before taxes XXX
Adjustments:
Add! Depreciation Expense / Amortization Expense / Impairment XXX
Add! Interest Expense XXX
Add! Loss on disposal of non-current asset XXX
Less! Gain on disposal of non-current asset (XXX)
Working Capital Changes: (Excluding accruals of interest and taxes)
Less! Increase in Current Asset (XXX)
Add! Decrease in Current Asset XXX
Less! Decrease in Current Liability (XXX)
Add! Increase in Current Liability XXX
Cash Flow from Operations XXX
Less! Income taxes paid (XXX)
Less! Interest paid (XXX)
Cash Flow From Operating Activities (A) XXX
INVESTING ACTIVITIES:
Sale of non-current Asset / investment XXX
Purchase of non-current Asset / investment (XXX)
Cash Flow From Investing Activities (B) XXX
FINANCING ACTIVITIES:
Issue of shares for cash XXX
Issue of bonds / debentures XXX
Bank Loan XXX
Payment of Bonds / Retirement of bonds / redemption of bonds (XXX)
Purchase of treasury stock (purchase of own shares) (XXX)
Payment of dividend (XXX)
Cash Flow From Financing Activities (C) XXX
Net Cash Flows from all activities (A + B + C) XXX
Opening Cash & Cash Equivalents XXX
Closing Cash & Cash Equivalents XXX
Direct Method:
ABC Ltd
Statement of Cash Flows
For the period Ended Dec 31, 2019
OPERATING ACTIVITIES:
Cash collection from
customers XXX
Cash payment to suppliers (XXX)
Cash payment for operating expenses (XXX)
Cash flows from operations XXX
Less! Interest paid (XXX)
Less! Income tax paid (XXX)
Cash flows from operating activities (A) XXX
QUESTION # 01
QUESTION # 02
QUESTION # 03
QUESTION # 04
QUESTION # 05
QUESTION # 06
QUESTION # 07
QUESTION # 08
Statement of Financial Position: 2017 2016
Cash 821,000 580,000
Accounts receivable 375,000 350,000
Inventory 850,000 880,000
Prepaid insurance 30,000 38,000
Building and equipment 3,512,000 3,400,000
Accumulated depreciation -1,940,000 -1,800,000
Total Assets 3,648,000 3,448,000
Accounts payable 450,000 500,000
Salaries payable 100,000 120,000
Dividends payable 65,000 50,000
Interest payable 25,000 15,000
Unearned revenues 200,000 180,000
Income taxes payable 40,000 25,000
Bank loan payable 1,400,000 1,100,000
Common shares 90,000 50,000
Retained earnings 1,278,000 1,408,000
Total Equities 3,648,000 3,448,000
Additional Information:
1. Operating expenses are composed of: Depreciation Rs.200,000; Salaries Rs.420,000; Gain on Sale
of Equipment Rs.15,000; other operating expenses Rs.75,000.
2. Prepaid insurance is related to the other operating expenses.
3. Equipment was purchased during the year for Rs.200,000 cash.
4. Equipment was sold for cash during the year.
5. Dividends were declared and paid during the year.
6. Unearned revenues are collected from customers.
7. Paid off Rs.100,000 of bank loan and signed a new loan for additional cash."
Required:
Prepare a cash flow statement using both direct and indirect methods.
P S
Non-current assets 120,000 40,000
Investment in S at cost 40,000 -
Current assets 40,000 10,000
Total Assets 200,000 50,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 100,000 30,000
Retained earnings 50,000 10,000
Current liabilities 50,000 10,000
Total equity and liabilities 200,000 50,000
EXERCISE # 02
On 1 January 2013 Hall acquired 75% of Stand for Rs.12,000 At that date
the balance on Stand’s retained earnings was Rs.8,000.
Statements of financial position at 31 December 2015
Hall Stand
Non-current assets 35,000 20,000
Investment in Stand 12,000 -
Current assets 16,000 14,000
Total Assets 63,000 34,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 10,000 4,000
Retained earnings 13,000 12,000
8% Debentures 20,000 9,000
Current liabilities 20,000 9,000
Total equity and liabilities 63,000 34,000
EXERCISE # 03
P S
Non-current assets 50,000 40,000
Investment in S at cost 70,000 -
Current assets 30,000 40,000
Total Assets 150,000 80,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 100,000 50,000
Retained earnings 30,000 20,000
Current liabilities 20,000 10,000
Total equity and liabilities 150,000 80,000
EXERCISE # 04
James Neil
Non-current assets 1,000 500
Investment 600 0
Current assets 800 600
Total Assets 2,400 1,100
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 500 200
Retained earnings 800 400
Current liabilities 1,100 500
Total equity and liabilities 2,400 1,100
James purchased 80% of Neil for Rs.600 two years ago when Neil’s
retained earnings showed a balance of Rs.100 and the fair value of its
shares stood at Rs.3 each. Goodwill arising on acquisition of Neil suffered
no impairment to date.
Required: Prepare the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position for the
James Group as at 31 December 2014 assuming NCI is measured at FV.
EXERCISE # 05
Poole paid Rs.700,000 for a 75% interest in Stour on 30 June 2012, when
the fair value of Stour's shares were Rs.2.40 each. Since the date of
acquisition Stour has made accumulated profits of Rs.120,000. At 31
December 2014, the summarised Statements of Financial Position of both
companies are:
Poole Stour
Non-current assets 900,000 500,000
Investment 700,000 -
Current Stour 200,000 -
Current assets 350,000 400,000
Total Assets 2,150,000 900,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 600,000 300,000
Share Premium 200,000 100,000
Retained earnings 1,100,000 200,000
Current Poole 200,000
Current liabilities 250,000 100,000
Total equity and liabilities 2,150,000 900,000
EXERCISE # 06
Dickens Jones
Non-current assets 85,000 18,000
Investment in S at cost 60,000 -
Current assets 160,000 84,000
Total Assets 305,000 102,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 65,000 20,000
Share premium 35,000 10,000
Retained earnings 70,000 25,000
Current liabilities 135,000 47,000
Total equity and liabilities 305,000 102,000
Dickens acquired 16,000 ordinary Re.1 shares in Jones on 1 January 2008,
when Jones’ retained earnings stood at Rs.20,000 and its share premium
was Rs.10,000. On this date, the fair value of the 20% non-controlling
shareholding in Jones was Rs.12,[Link] Dickens Group uses the fair
value method to value the noncontrolling interest.
EXERCISE # 07
P S
Non-current assets 15,000 9,500
Investment 5,000
Current assets 7,500 5,000
Total Assets 27,500 14,500
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 6,000 5,000
Share Premium 4,000
Retained earnings 12,500 7,200
Non-current liabilities 1,000 500
Current liabilities 4,000 1,800
Total equity and liabilities 27,500 14,500
a) P acquired 60% of S on 1 July 20X7 when the retained earnings of S
were Rs.5,800. P paid Rs.5,000 in cash. P also issued 2 Rs.1 shares for
every 5 acquired in S and agreed to pay a further Rs.2,000 in 3 years' time.
The market value of P’s shares at 1 July 20X7 was Rs.1.80. P has only
recorded the cash paid in respect of the investment in S. Current interest
rates are 6%.
b) The P group uses the fair value method to value the non-controlling
interest. At the date of acquisition the fair value of the NCI was Rs.5,750.
EXERCISE # 08
Plant Shrub
Non-current assets 100,000 140,000
Investment 180,000
Inventory 30,000 35,000
Trade Receivables 20,000 10,000
Cash 10,000 5,000
Total Assets 340,000 190,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 200,000 100,000
Share Premium 10,000 30,000
Retained earnings 40,000 20,000
Non-Current liabilities 65,000
Current liabilities 25,000 40,000
Total equity and liabilities 340,000 190,000
Plant bought 80,000 shares in Shrub in 20X1 when Shrub’s reserves
included a share premium of Rs.30,000 and retained earnings of Rs.5,000.
Plant's records show Rs.6,000 owing to Shrub, but Shrub's records show
Rs.8,000 owed by Plant. The difference is explained as cash in transit. No
impairment of goodwill has occurred to date. Plant uses the proportion of net
assets method to value the non-controlling interest.
EXERCISE # 09
Health (H) bought 90% of the equity share capital of Safety (S), two years
ago on 1 January 2002 when the retained earnings of Safety stood at
Rs.5,000. Statements of financial position at the year end of 31
December2003 are as follows.
Health Safety
PP&E 100,000 30,000
Investment in Safety 34,000
Inventory 90,000 20,000
Receivables 110,000 25,000
Bank 10,000 5,000
Total Assets 344,000 80,000
Share capital 15,000 5,000
Retained earnings 159,000 31,000
Non-current liabilities 120,000 28,000
Current liabilities 50,000 16,000
Total equity and liabilities 344,000 80,000
Safety transferred goods to Health at a transfer price of Rs.18,000 at a mark-
up of 50%. Two-thirds of these goods remained in inventory at the year end.
The current account in Health and Safety stood at Rs.22,000 on that day.
Goodwill has suffered an impairment of Rs.10,000. Health uses the fair value
method to value the non-controlling interest. The fair value of the non-
controlling interest at acquisition was Rs.4,000.
EXERCISE # 10
Paul has owned 80% of the share capital of Saul since Saul’s incorporation
on 1 January 2012, when the fair value of Saul’s shares were Rs.1 each. On
31 December 2014 the summarised Statements of Financial Position of both
companies are:
Paul Saul
Non-current assets 300,000 100,000
Investment 80,000 -
Current assets 100,000 80,000
Total Assets 480,000 180,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 200,000 100,000
Retained earnings 230,000 60,000
Current liabilities 50,000 20,000
Total equity and liabilities 480,000 180,000
EXERCISE # 11
Hairy Spider
Non-current assets 120,000,000 60,000,000
Investments 55,000,000 3,000,000
Cash 11,000,000 4,000,000
Trade Receivables 72,600,000 19,100,000
Current Account - Hairy - 3,200,000
Inventory 17,000,000 11,000,000
Total Assets 275,600,000 100,300,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 100,000,000 60,000,000
Retained earnings 91,900,000 7,300,000
Share premium 20,000,000 -
Capital reserve 23,000,000 16,000,000
Current Account - Spider 2,700,000 -
Current liabilities 38,000,000 17,000,000
Total equity and liabilities 275,600,000 100,300,000
EXERCISE # 12
Hale Sowen
Non-current assets 152,000 129,600
Investment 203,000 -
Inventory 112,000 74,400
Receivables 104,000 84,000
Bank Balances 41,000 8,000
Total Assets 612,000 296,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 100,000 160,000
Retained earnings 460,000 112,000
Current liabilities 52,000 24,000
Total equity and liabilities 612,000 296,000
The following information is available.
1) At 1 July 2012 Sowen had a debit balance of Rs.11,000 on retained
earnings.
2) Property, plant and equipment of Sowen included land at a cost of
Rs.72,000. This land had a fair value of Rs.100,000 at the date of acquisition.
3) The inventory of Sowen includes goods purchased from Hale for
Rs.16,000. Hale invoiced those goods at cost plus 25%.
EXERCISE # 13
EXERCISE # 14
The fair value of Solong’s net assets at the date of acquisition was
determined to be Rs. 170,000. The difference between the book value and
the fair value of the new assets at the date of acquisition was due to an item
of plant which had a useful life of 10 years from the date of acquisition.
EXERCISE # 15
EXERCISE # 16
Peppermint acquired 80% of the share capital of Spearmint two years ago,
when the reserves of Spearmint stood at Rs.125,000. Peppermint paid initial
cash consideration of Rs.1 million. Additionally Peppermint issued 200,000
shares with a nominal value of Rs.1 and a market value at the acquisition date
of Rs.1.80. It was also agreed that Peppermint would pay a further Rs.500,000
in three years’ time. Current interest rates are 10% pa. The appropriate discount
factor for Rs.1 receivable three years from now is 0.75. The shares and
deferred consideration have not yet been recorded. Below are the statements of
financial position of Peppermint and Spearmint as at 31 December 20X4:
Peppermint Spearmint
Non-current assets 5,500,000 1,500,000
Investment 1,000,000 -
Inventory 550,000 100,000
Receivables 400,000 200,000
Cash 200,000 50,000
Total Assets 7,650,000 1,850,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 2,000,000 500,000
Retained earnings 1,400,000 300,000
Non-Current liabilities 3,000,000 400,000
Current liabilities 1,250,000 650,000
Total equity and liabilities 7,650,000 1,850,000
a) At acquisition the fair values of Spearmint’s plant exceeded its book value by
Rs.200,000. The plant had a remaining useful life of five years at this date.
b) For many years Spearmint has been selling some of its products under the
brand name of ‘Mintfresh’. At the date of acquisition, the directors of Peppermint
valued this brand at 250,000 with a remaining life of 10 years. The brand is not
included in Spearmint’s statement of financial position.
c) The consolidated goodwill has been impaired by Rs.258,000.
d) The Peppermint Group values the non-controlling interest using the fair value
method. At the date of acquisition, the fair value of the 20% non-controlling
interest was Rs.380,000.
EXERCISE # 17
P S
Land 4,500 2,500
Plant & equipment 2,400 1,750
Investments 8,000
Inventory 3,200 900
Receivables 1,400 650
Bank 600 150
Total Assets 20,100 5,950
Ordinary share capital 50 paisa 5,000 1,000
Retained earnings 8,300 3,150
8% loan stock 4,000 500
Current liabilities 2,800 1,300
Total equity and liabilities 20,100 5,950
a) P acquired 75% of S on 1 July 2005 when the balance on S’s retained
earnings was Rs.1,150. P paid Rs.3,500 for its investment in the share
capital of S. At the same time, P invested in 60% of S’ 8% loan stock.
b) At the reporting date P’s payables included an amount due to S of
Rs.400. This did not agree to the corresponding amount in S's financial
statements of Rs.500. The difference is explained as cash in transit.
3) At the date of acquisition it was determined that S’s land, carried at cost
of Rs.2,500 had a fair value of Rs.3,750. S’s plant was determined to have
a fair value of Rs.500 in excess of its carrying amount and had a remaining
life of 5 years at this time. These values had not been recorded by S.
4) The P group uses the fair value method to value the non-controlling
interest. For this purpose the subsidiary share price at the date of
acquisition should be used. The subsidiary share price at acquisition was
Rs.2.20 per share.
5) Goodwill has become impaired by Rs.100.
EXERCISE # 18
On 1 May 20X7 Karl bought 60% of Susan paying Rs.76,000 cash. The
summarised statements of financial position for the two entities as at 30
November 20X7 are:
Karl Susan
Non-current assets 138,000 115,000
Investment 98,000
Inventory 15,000 17,000
Receivables 19,000 20,000
Cash 2,000
Total Assets 272,000 152,000
Ordinary share capital (Re.1 shares) 50,000 40,000
Retained earnings 189,000 69,000
Non-current liabilities 8% loan 20,000
Current liabilities 33,000 23,000
Total equity and liabilities 272,000 152,000
a) The inventory of Karl includes Rs.8,000 of goods purchased for cash from
Susan at cost plus 25%.
b) On 1 June 20X7 Karl transferred an item of plant to Susan for Rs.15,000.
Its carrying amount at that date was Rs.10,000, and its remaining useful life
was 5 years.
c) Karl values the non-controlling interest using the fair value method. At the
date of acquisition the fair value of the 40% NCI was Rs.50,000.
d) An impairment loss of Rs.1,000 is to be charged against goodwill at the
year-end.
e) Susan earned a profit of Rs.9,000 in the year ended 30 November 20X7.
f) The loan note in Susan's books represents monies borrowed from Karl on
30 November 20X7.
g) Included in Karl's receivables is Rs.4,000 relating to inventory sold to
Susan during the year. Susan raised a cheque for Rs.2,500 and sent it to Karl
on 29 November 20X7. Karl did not receive this cheque until 4 December
20X7.
EXERCISE # 19
P S
Non-current assets 550,000 250,000
Investments 320,000 -
Current Account S 2,500 -
Current assets 350,000 302,000
Total Assets 1,222,500 552,000
Ordinary share capital (Rs.10) 270,000 120,000
Retained earnings 402,500 200,000
Current Account P - 2,000
Current liabilities 550,000 230,000
Total equity and liabilities 1,222,500 552,000
Other Information:
a) Two years ago, P bought 80% of the equity shares in S by paying
immediate
cash of Rs.300,000. P also undertakes to pay Rs.80,000 after 5 years.
The effect of deferred consideration is not incorporated in cost of investment.
Applicable discount rate is 9%. Retained earnings of S were Rs.60,000
at the date of acquisition.
b) At the date of acquisition, fair value non-current assets were Rs.25,000
more
than their carrying values. These assets have useful life of 5 years.
c) The difference in current account is due to cash in-transit.
d) It is group policy to measure Non-controlling interest at fair value method.
The fair value of per share acquired at the date of acquisition is Rs.26.5.
e) 15% of the goodwill is impaired so far.
f) During the year, S sold to P goods of Rs.80,000. Normally, selling price
is fixed at cost plus 25%. Unsold stock is 40%.
Required:
Prepare consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year.
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
27,000 2,000 29,000
EXERCISE # 02
Highmore acquired 80% of the ordinary shares of Slowmore on 1 October 2009. The
summarized statements of comprehensive income of the two companies for the year
ending 31 December 2009 are set out below. The incomes and expenses have
accrued evenly during the year.
Highmore Slowmore
Sales revenue 75,000 60,000
Cost of sales -30,000 -36,000
Gross profit 45,000 24,000
Administrative expenses -14,000 -8,000
Profit before tax 31,000 16,000
Taxation -10,000 -4,000
Profit after tax 21,000 12,000
Required:
Prepare consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year.
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
23,400 600 24,000
EXERCISE # 03
P acquired 80% of the share capital of S on that company’s incorporation in 2008.
The respective Statements of Profit or Loss of the two companies for the year ended
31 December 2009 are as follows:
P S
Sales revenue 52,000 24,000
Cost of sales -12,000 -10,000
Gross profit 40,000 14,000
Expenses -8,000 -4,000
Profit before tax 32,000 10,000
Taxation -12,000 -3,000
Profit after tax 20,000 7,000
Retained profit brough forward 80,000 20,000
Required:
Prepare consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year.
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
25,600 1,400 27,000
EXERCISE # 04
P acquired 60% of S on 1 January 2008, at which date the retained earnings of S
were $8,000. The respective Statements of Profit or Loss of the two companies for
the year ended 31 December 2010 are as follows:
P S
Sales revenue 85,000 31,000
Cost of sales -21,000 -12,000
Gross profit 64,000 19,000
Expenses -12,000 -7,000
Profit before tax 52,000 12,000
Taxation -16,000 -4,000
Profit after tax 36,000 8,000
Retained profit brough forward 120,000 17,000
Required:
Prepare consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year.
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
40,800 3,200 44,000
EXERCISE # 05
Highmore acquired 100% of the ordinary shares of Slowmore some year ago. The
Statements of Comprehensive Income for year ending May 31, 2009 are given
hereunder: -
Highmore Slowmore
Operating Profit 450 200
Dividend income from (Slowmore) 50 0
Profit before tax 500 200
Taxation -150 -80
Profit after tax 350 120
Required:
Required: Prepare consolidated statement of comprehensive income for the year
ended May 31, 2009?
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
420 0 420
EXERCISE # 06
Highmore has owned 100% of Slowmore for a number of years. The income
statements of the individual companies are shown below. When Highmore acquired
the shares of Slowmore, Slowmore’s retained earnings were Rs.4,000.
Highmore Slowmore
Sales revenue 400,000 280,000
Cost of sales -270,000 -190,000
Gross profit 130,000 90,000
Expenses -50,000 -25,000
Profit before tax 80,000 65,000
Taxation -17,000 -11,000
Profit after tax 63,000 54,000
Opening retained earnings 11,000 7,000
Dividends 40,000 30,000
Other information:
1. Highmore has not accounted for Slowmore’s dividend.
2. Higmore sold goods costing Rs.10,000 to Slowmore for Rs.15,000.
3. At the statement of financial statement date 31 December 2009 20% of goods
remained un-sold
by Slowmore.
4. Goodwill has impaired by Rs.2,000 during the current year.
5. Impairment of Good will prior to the year ending 31 December 2009 totaled
Rs.10,000.
Required:
Prepare consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year.
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
114,000 0 114,000
EXERCISE # 07
Keswick Co acquired 80% of the share capital of Derwent Co on 1 June 20X5. The
summarised draft statements of profit or loss for Keswick Co and Derwent Co for the
year ended 31 May 20X6 are shown below:
Keswick Derwent
Sales revenue 8,400 3,200
Cost of sales -4,600 -1,700
Gross
profit 3,800 1,500
Administrative expenses -2,200 -960
Profit before tax 1,600 540
Taxation -600 -140
Profit after tax 1,000 400
Required:
Prepare the Keswick group consolidated statement of profit or loss for the year
ended 31 May 20X6.
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
1,320 80 1,400
EXERCISE # 08
Statements of profit or loss for the year-ended 31 December 20X5
Vader Maul
Sales revenue 1,645,000 1,280,000
Cost of sales -1,205,000 -990,000
Gross profit 440,000 290,000
Distribution costs -100,000 -70,000
Administrative expenses -90,000 -50,000
Profit before tax and interest 250,000 170,000
Finance Cost -55,000 -30,000
Investment income 10,000
Profit before tax 205,000 140,000
Taxation -35,000 -28,000
Profit after tax 170,000 112,000
a) On 1 July 20X5, Vader acquired 80% of the equity shares of Maul. It is the group
policy to measure the non-controlling interest at acquisition at fair value.
b) Maul declared a dividend during the year of $10,000.
c) An impairment review at the reporting date revealed the goodwill in Maul to be
impaired by $20,000
d) Assume that the profits accrue evenly.
Required:
Prepare a consolidated statement of profit or loss for the Vader group for the year-
ended 31 December 20X5
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
190,800 7,200 198,000
EXERCISE # 09
Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 20X5
Rs.000
Gray Nick
Sales revenue 120,000 90,000
Cost of sales -70,000 -40,000
Gross
profit 50,000 50,000
Distribution costs -15,000 -20,000
Administrative expenses -5,000 -15,000
Profit before tax and interest 30,000 15,000
Finance
Cost -2,000 -500
Investment income 0 0
Profit before tax 28,000 14,500
Taxation -6,000 -3,000
Profit after tax 22,000 11,500
a) Gary acquired 80% of Nick on 1 January 20X5. Goodwill on acquisition has been
impaired by $1m during the year and should be charged to operating expenses. Full
goodwill method
b) During the year Nick sold $10m goods to Gary at a mark-up of 25% on cost. One
quarter of those goods are in inventory at the year end.
Required:
Prepare a consolidated statement of profit or loss for the Vader group for the year-
ended 31 December 20X5
Answers Group Share NCI Share Total
30,000 2,000 32,000
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
1
Introduction to business
and accounting
Contents
1 Types of business
2 Introduction to financial accounting
3 The needs of users
4 Business transactions
5 Objective based questions and answers
02. Which of the following best explains why employees are interested in the financial statements of their
employer?
(a) To compare the business with its competitors in order to decide whether to seek employment
with one of those competitors.
(b) To assess the effect of the business on the local economy, community and environment.
(c) To assess whether the business will continue into the foreseeable future.
(d) To assess the profitability of the business in order to decide whether to invest in it.
03. Which of the following user groups require the most detailed financial information?
(a) The management
(b) Investors and potential investors
(c) Government agencies
(d) Employees
07. Which of the following explains why lenders are interested in financial statements of a business?
(a) Lenders need information about financial stability of business
(b) Lenders need information about profitability of business
(c) Lenders want to assess the employer’s capacity to pay interest and repay loan on time
(d) All of the above
08. Which of the following is not a user of financial statements as per IASB framework?
(a) Investor
(b) Lender
(c) Government
(d) Manager
12. Which of the following business entity is a “legal person” in the eye of law?
(a) Sole trader
(b) Company
(c) Partnership
(d) All of the above
16. A business has incurred following costs for the year ended 31 December 2018:
Rs. million
Extension in building 1.5
Repairs to building 0.5
Overhaul to machinery that increased production capacity 1.2
What is the amount of capital expenditure incurred during the year?
Rs. ___________
17. A business has incurred following costs for the year ended 31 December 2018:
Rs. million
Extension in building 1.5
Repairs to building 0.5
Overhaul to machinery that increased production capacity 1.2
What is the amount of revenue expenditure incurred during the year?
Rs. ___________
18. A business has incurred following information for the year ended 31 December 2018:
Rs. million
Cost of building – Opening 15.5
Cost of machinery – Opening 10.2
Extension in building – during the year 1.5
Repairs to building – during the year 0.5
Overhaul to machinery that increased production capacity 1.2
What is the cost of building after incorporating the above costs?
Rs. ___________
19. A business has incurred following information for the year ended 31 December 2018:
Rs. million
Cost of building – Opening 15.5
Cost of machinery – Opening 10.2
Extension in building – during the year 1.5
Repairs to building – during the year 0.5
Overhaul to machinery that increased production capacity 1.2
What is the cost of machinery after incorporating the above costs?
Rs. __________
20. A business has incurred following costs for the year ended 31 December 2018:
Rs. million
Extension in building 1.5
Repairs to building 0.5
Overhaul to machinery that increased production capacity 1.2
Profit for the year before incorporating the above adjustments is Rs. 5.6 million.
What will be the profit for year after charging the above repairs?
Rs. ___________
23. The goods which are purchased for the purpose of resale are called
(a) Inventory
(b) Purchases
(c) Merchandise
(d) Traded goods
29. Which one of the following not an external user of financial statements?
(a) Lender
(b) Investor
(c) Customer
(d) Management
30. Which one of the following not an internal user of financial statements?
(a) Employees
(b) Management
(c) Supplier
(d) Executive Director
02. (c)
03. (b)
04. (a)
05. (c)
06. (d)
07. (c)
08. (d)
09. (c)
10. (b)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (d)
14. (c)
15. (d)
19. Rs. 11.4 million = Rs. 10.2 +1.2 = Rs. 11.4 million
20. Rs. 5.1 million Profit = Rs. 5.6 – 0.5 = Rs. 5.1
21. (c)
22. (b)
23. (a)
24. (d)
25. (a)
26. (d)
27. (a)
28. (c)
29. (d)
30. (c)
31. (d)
32. (d)
33. (b)
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
2
Financial Reporting
Contents
1 The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting
2 Accounting concepts
3 Enhanced Qualitative characteristics of useful financial
information
4 The Elements of financial statements
5 Objective based questions and answers
02. Fill in the blanks with appropriate word(s) to complete the following sentences. Do not write the whole
sentence.
(i) A bank overdraft is indicated by a ________ balance in the bank statement.
(ii) Cheques issued but not presented, cause the bank statement balance to be ________than the
cash book balance.
(iii) The withdrawal of inventory by the owner for his own use should appear in the trading account
as a deduction from ________.
(iv) The balance of purchase ledger control account represents ________.
(v) If closing inventory is undervalued, then net profit would be ________.
(vi) The basic accounting equation is given by the formula:
Equity + Long term liabilities = _________+ Current assets – Current liabilities.
(vii) Economic resources owned by a business are called its ________.
(viii) According to the ________ concept, the business is regarded as separate from the personal
affairs of its owners.
03. Under the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting, which of the following is the ‘threshold
quality’ of useful information?
(a) Relevance
(b) Reliability
(c) Materiality
(d) Understandability
04. According to The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting, which of the following is the
underlying assumption of a set of financial statements?
(b) Prudence
(c) Accruals
(d) Comparability
06. Which of the following gives the best description of the objectives of financial statements as set out by
the IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting?
(b) To fairly present the financial position, performance and changes in financial position of an
entity.
(c) To provide information about the financial position and performance of an entity that is useful
to a wide range of users in making economic decisions.
(d) To provide information about the financial position, performance and changes in financial
position of an entity that is useful to a wide range of users in making economic decisions.
07. The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting defines a liability as:
(b) a present obligation arising as a result of past events, the settlement of which is expected to
result in an outflow of economic benefits
(c) expenditure that has been incurred but not yet charged to the statement of profit or loss
08. The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting identifies qualitative characteristics of
financial statements.
Which TWO of the following characteristics are NOT fundamental qualitative characteristics according
to the IASB’s The Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting?
(a) Relevance
(b) Reliability
(d) Comparability
09. The IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting defines an asset as:
(a) A resource controlled by an entity which is capable of generating independent cash flows.
(b) A resource controlled by an entity as a result of past events, from which future economic
benefits are expected.
(c) A resource owned by an entity as a result of past events, from which future economic benefits
are expected.
10. Which of the following criteria need to be satisfied in order for an element to be recognised within the
financial statements?
(i) It meets the definition of an element of the financial statements.
(ii) It is probable that future economic benefits will flow to or from the entity.
(iii) It is certain that future economic benefits will flow to or from the entity.
(iv) The item has a cost or value.
(v) The item has a cost or value that can be reliably measured.
11. Which description defines information that is relevant to users of financial information?
(a) Information that is free from error, bias and is a faithful representation of events
12. Identify the accounting principle / concept undedicated by the following statement: “Fixed assets are
stated at cost less accumulated depreciation”
(a) Prudence
(b) Consistency
(c) Materiality
(d) Historical cost
13. Identify the accounting principle / concept undedicated by the following statement: “Items of capital
nature, costing less than Rs. 1,000 are charged to cost.
(a) Prudence
(b) Consistency
(c) Materiality
14. Identify the accounting principle / concept undedicated by the following statement: “Stock-in-trade is
valued on the same basis as is being followed for last many years.”
(a) Prudence
(b) Consistency
(c) Materiality
15. Identify the accounting principle / concept undedicated by the following statement: “Appropriate
provision is made for bad and doubtful debts.”
(a) Prudence
(b) Consistency
(c) Materiality
16. Identify the accounting principle / concept undedicated by the following statement: “Sales revenue is
recorded on dispatch of goods to customers irrespective of the date of receipt of payment.”
(b) Consistency
(c) Materiality
17. Identify the accounting principle / concept undedicated by the following statement: “Cost of sales is
recorded in the same period in which the revenue earned from the sale is recorded.”
(a) Prudence
(b) Materiality
(c) Matching
20. According to the ________ concept, the business is regarded as separate from the personal affairs of
its owners.
21. Name the accounting concept on which the following rule is based: “The financial statements must
disclose all the relevant information.”
___________
22. Name the accounting concept on which the following rule is based: “Leased vehicles might be
recorded as assets although these are not legally owned by the entity.”
___________
23. The main source(s) of Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) is/are:
25. The concept that the entity will continue in a foreseeable future is known as
(a) Consistency
26. Accounting procedures and practices should remain same from year to year under which of the
following accounting principles:
(a) Duality
(b) Materiality
(c) Timeliness
(d) Consistency
27. The concept that recognises the distinction between the receipt of cash and the right to receive the
cash is called
28. When a machinery is purchased for cash, the cash balance is reduced and to that extent, the amount
of machinery as an asset is recorded. This is done to follow which of the following accounting
principles:
(a) Dual-aspect
(b) Materiality
(c) Timeliness
(d) Consistency
29. Using "lower of cost and net realisable value" for the purpose of inventory valuation is the
implementation of which of the following concepts?
(c) Matching
(d) Prudence
30. The revenue recognition principle dictates that all types of income should be recorded or recognized
when
32. Human resources will not appear in the statement of financial position according to which concept?
(a) Accrual
(d) Matching
34. Which of the following factor is not considered while selecting accounting policies?
(a) Prudence
(d) Materiality
36. For every debit there will be an equal credit according to which concept?
(a) Matching
(b) Consistency
(d) Dual-aspect
(ii) True: closing inventory appears outside the trial balance in pre-closing trial balance but
after passing the closing entries when opening inventory and other revenue accounts are
closed, only statement of financial position items including closing inventories form part of
the post closing trial balance.
(iii) False: No specific period has been specified. The concept of going concern supposes that
the business is going to continue for the foreseeable future.
(iv) False: the allowance is required to arrive at net receivables (as would appear in the
statement of financial position) is calculated by age analysis. However, opening balance
has to be considered for making the adjusting entry.
(v) False: net realizable value is equal to selling price less the estimated cost of completion
and the costs necessary to make the sale.
(vi) False: The prudence concept does not allow a business to build excessive
reserves/allowances. However, prudence means the exercise of a degree of caution such
that assets or income are not overstated and liabilities and expenses are not understated.
02.
(i) Debit
(ii) more/higher/greater
(iii) purchases
(v) understated/reduced
(vii) Assets
(viii) Entity
03. (c)
04. (a)
05. (d)
06. (d) The objectives of financial statements are set out in the IASB Framework. Note that
providing information about changes in the financial position, as well as information
about financial position and financial performance, is included within these
objectives.
07. (b) (1) a liability is a present obligation that has arisen out of a past event, and (2) it is
certain or probable that settlement of this obligation will result in an outflow of
economic benefits, such as a payment of money. It is also necessary for the amount
of the liability to be measured reliably.
08. (b) & (d) It is important to learn that the two fundamental characteristics are relevance and
faithful representation.
09. (b) All other definitions include some part of the correct answer but are incomplete.
10. (a) There only has to be probable flow of economic benefits, rather than a certain flow.
Also, the cost or value must be capable of reliable measurement, or no amount can
be put into the financial statements.
11. (d) Information is relevant if it influences the economic decisions of the users. The other
definitions describe good treatment but are not explaining the concept of relevance.
12. (d) This is the actual amount of cash paid or received. For example, the historical cost
of an item of fixed assets is the amount that was paid to buy it in the past.
13. (c) Information is material if omitting it or misstating it could influence decisions that
users make on the basis of financial statements of an entity.
14. (b) The financial statements must be presented consistently from one period to another.
The presentation may be changed only if necessary to improve the quality of
information presented in terms of its usefulness to the users or if a new rule requires
a change.
15. (a) Prudence involves allowing for some caution in preparing financial statements, by
making reasonable and sensible allowance in order to avoid overstating assets or
income and to avoid understating liabilities and expenses.
16. (a) Revenue from sales and other income should be reported in the period when income
arises (which might not be the same as the period when the cash is received)
17. (c) The cost of sales in the statement of comprehensive income must be matched with
the sales.
18. Non-current
assets
19. Assets
20. Business
Entity
21. Completeness
22. Substance
over form
24. (d)
25. (c)
26. (d)
27. (a)
28. (a)
29. (d)
30. (c)
31. (b)
32. (c)
33. (d)
34. (b)
35. (a)
36. (d)
37. (d)
CHAPTER
1
Accounting and reporting concepts
Contents
1 The conceptual framework of IASB
03. Which of the following concepts measures profit in terms of an increase in the productive capacity of
an entity?
(a) Physical capital maintenance
(b) Historical cost accounting
(c) Financial capital maintenance
(d) Going concern concept
04. Which of the following statements is true about historical cost accounts in times of rising prices?
(a) Profits will be overstated, and assets will be understated
(b) Asset values will be overstated
(c) Unrecognized gains will be recorded incorrectly
(d) Depreciation will be overstated
05. Which of the following criteria need to be satisfied in order for an element to be recognized within the
financial statements?
(i) It meets the definition of an element of the financial statements.
(ii) It is probable that future economic benefits will flow to or from the entity.
(iii) It is certain that future economic benefits will flow to or from the entity.
(iv) The item has a cost or value.
(v) The item has a cost or value that can be reliably measured.
(a) (i), (ii) and (v)
(b) (i), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
06. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the International Accounting Standards Board’s
Conceptual Framework?
(a) To assist the Board in the preparation and review of IFRS Standards.
(b) To assist auditors in forming an opinion on whether financial statements comply with IFRS
Standards.
(c) To assist in determining the treatment of items not covered by an existing IFRS Standards.
(d) To be authoritative where a specific IFRS Standard conflicts with the Conceptual
Framework.
07. Which of the following items should be recognized as an asset in the statement of financial position
of an entity?
(a) A skilled and efficient workforce which has been very expensive to train. Some of these
staff is still employed by the entity.
(b) A highly lucrative contract signed during the year which is due to commence shortly after
the year-end.
(c) A government grant relating to the purchase of an item of plant several years ago which
has a remaining life of four years.
(d) A receivable from a customer which has been sold (factored) to a finance company. The
finance company has full recourse to the entity for any losses.
08. Which of the following criticisms does NOT apply to historical cost financial statements during a
period of rising prices?
(a) They contain mixed values, some items are at current values, some at out-of-date values
(b) They are difficult to verify as transactions could have happened many years ago
(c) They understate assets and overstate profit
(d) They overstate gearing in the statement of financial position
12. In which of the following, inflation adjustment is made on general rate of inflation?
(a) Financial capital maintenance (money terms)
(b) Financial capital maintenance (real terms)
(c) Physical capital maintenance
(d) Fair value accounting
13. In which of the following, inflation adjustment is made on specific rate of inflation?
(a) Financial capital maintenance (money terms)
(b) Financial capital maintenance (real terms)
(c) Physical capital maintenance
(d) Fair value accounting
16. An entity made a profit of Rs. 350,000 for the year 2019 based on historical cost accounting
principles. It had opening capital of Rs. 1,000,000.
Specific price indices increase during the year by 20% and general price indices by 5%.
How much profit should be recorded for 2019 under money financial capital maintenance concept?
Rs. ___________
17. An entity made a profit of Rs. 350,000 for the year 2019 based on historical cost accounting
principles. It had opening capital of Rs. 1,000,000.
Specific price indices increase during the year by 20% and general price indices by 5%.
How much profit should be recorded for 2019 under real financial capital maintenance concept?
Rs. ___________
18. An entity made a profit of Rs. 350,000 for the year 2019 based on historical cost accounting
principles. It had opening capital of Rs. 1,000,000.
Specific price indices increase during the year by 20% and general price indices by 5%.
How much profit should be recorded for 2019 under physical capital maintenance concept?
Rs. ___________
19. An entity acquired an item of plant on 1 October 2012 at a cost of Rs. 500,000. It is being depreciated
over five years, using straight-line depreciation and an estimated residual value of 10% of its historical
cost or current cost as appropriate. As at 30 September 2014, the manufacturer of the plant still makes
the same item of plant and its current price is Rs. 600,000.
What is the correct carrying amount to be shown in the statement of financial position as at 30
September 2014 under historical cost accounting?
Rs. ___________
20. An entity acquired an item of plant on 1 October 2012 at a cost of Rs. 500,000. It is being
depreciated over five years, using straight-line depreciation and an estimated residual value of 10%
of its historical cost or current cost as appropriate. As at 30 September 2014, the manufacturer of
the plant still makes the same item of plant and its current price is Rs. 600,000.
What is the correct carrying amount to be shown in the statement of financial position as at 30
September 2014 under current cost accounting?
Rs. ___________
02. (a)
03. (a) Physical capital maintenance looks at profit in terms of the physical productive
capacity of the business, taking into account specific price changes relevant to the
entity.
04. (a) In times of rising prices, asset values will be understated, as historical cost will not be
a true representation of the asset values. Additionally, the real purchase cost of
replacement items will not be
Incorporated, meaning that profits are overstated.
05. (a) There only has to be probable flow of economic benefits, rather than a certain flow.
Also, the cost or value must be capable of reliable measurement, or no amount can
be put into the financial statements.
06. (d) Where there is conflict between the conceptual framework and an IFRS Standard, the
IFRS Standard will prevail. An example of this is IAS 20 Government grants, where
deferred grant income is held as a liability, despite not satisfying the definition of a
liability.
07. (d) As the receivable is ‘sold’ with recourse it must remain as an asset on the statement
of financial position and is not derecognized.
08. (b) Historical cost is the easiest to verify as the cost can be proved back to the original
transaction. Fair value is often more difficult to verify as it may involve elements of
estimation.
09. (c)
10. (b)
11. (a)
12. (b)
13. (c)
14. (a)
15. (b)
16. Rs. 350,000 Money financial capital maintenance looks at the actual physical cash. No inflation
adjustment is required.
19. Rs. 320,000 Historical cost annual depreciation = Rs. 90,000 ((500,000 × 90%)/5 years).
After two years carrying amount would be Rs. 320,000 = (500,000 - (2×90,000)).
20. Rs. 384,000 Current cost annual depreciation = Rs. 108,000 ((600,000 × 90%)/5 years).
After two years carrying amount would be Rs. 384,000 = (600,000 - (2×108,000)).
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
4
Double entry bookkeeping
Contents
1 Introduction to accounting systems
2 Basic rules of double entry bookkeeping
3 Account balances and the trial balance
4 The general journal
5 General ledger
6 Objective based questions and answers
(a) Journalizing
(b) Summarizing
(c) Posting
(d) Analyzing
02. Any transaction which cannot be recorded in any book of prime entry is recorded in?
03. What ledger entries would be made to record the purchase of an item of machinery on credit?
04. What transaction is presented by the entries: debit bank, credit Receivables?
06. The double entry to record the withdrawal of cash from a business bank account by the owner is?
07. Which of the following would normally be a credit balance in the trial balance?
(i) Loan
(ii) Owner’s capital
(iii) Drawings
(iv) Purchases
08. A debit balance would be expected to arise when the accounts are balanced at the period end on
which of the following accounts?
(a) Capital
(b) Sales
(c) Electricity
(d) Loan
09. A business sells Rs. 100,000 worth of goods to a customer, the customer pays Rs. 50,000 in cash
immediately and will pay the remaining Rs. 50,000 in 30 days time.
What is the double entry to record the purchase in the customer’s accounting records?
(a) Dr. cash Rs. 50,000; Cr. payables Rs. 50,000; Cr. purchases Rs. 50,000
(b) Dr. payables Rs. 50,000; Dr. cash Rs. 50,000 ;Cr. purchases Rs. 100,000
(c) Dr. purchases Rs. 100,000 ;Cr. payables Rs. 50,000; Cr. cash Rs. 50,000
10. A trial balance is made up of a list of debit balances and credit balances.
Which of the following statements is correct?
11. Basheer has extracted the following list of balances from his general ledger at 31 October 2015:
Rs.
Sales 258,542
Opening inventory 9,649
Purchases 142,958
Expenses 34,835
Non-current assets (carrying amount) 63,960
Receivables 31,746
Payables 13,864
Cash at bank 1,783
Capital 12,525
What is the total of the debit balances in Basheer's trial balance at 31 October 2015?
12. At 31 October 2016 Zahid’s trial balance included the following balances:
Rs.
Machinery 12,890
Inventory 5,754
Trade receivables 11,745
Trade payables 7,830
Bank overdraft 1,675
Cash at bank 150
14. A business has purchased machinery on credit. Which of the accounts mentioned below are affected
by the transactions?
(b) Purchases
(c) Machinery
(d) Capital
Rs.
Machinery 150,000
Equipment 120,220
What is the amount of non – current assets to be shown in the financial position?
16. A business buys machinery costing Rs. 120,000 and sells machinery costing Rs. 18,000 in the year.
The opening balance of the machinery account is Rs. 80,000.
What will be the balance brought down in the next period?
Rs. ___________
17. A company had a cash balance of Rs. 18,000 at the start of the month. During the month, the following
transactions occurred.
(i) Sales on credit Rs. 72,000
(ii) Cash from trade receivables Rs. 49,000
(iii) Purchases on credit Rs. 33,000
(iv) Payments to trade payables Rs. 35,000
What was the cash balance at the end of the month?
Rs. ___________
18. An accountant has inserted all the relevant figures into the trade payables account, but has not yet
balanced off the account.
Purchases 325,010
Assuming there are no other entries to be made, other than to balance off the account, what is the
closing balance on the trade payables account?
Rs. ___________
Rs.
Receivables at 1 January 2018 10,000
Receivables at 31 December 2018 9,000
Total receipts during 2018 (including cash sales of Rs.5,000) 85,000
What are sales on credit during 2018?
Rs. ___________
20. The following totals appear in the day books for March 2018.
Rs.
Sales day book 40,000
Purchases day book 20,000
Returns inwards day book 2,000
Returns outward day book 4,000
Opening and closing inventories are both Rs. 3,000.
What is the gross profit for March 2018?
Rs. ___________
(a) Same
(b) Different
(c) Opposite
23. Payment of insurance through the bank involves entries in which of the two accounts
24. X Ltd. purchases a vehicle for Rs. 1.5 million for business use, paying by cheque, what is the double
entry:
(d) Debit vehicle account (debit) and petty cash account (credit)
25. The journal entry for return of goods purchased from Khan Limited on account is:
27. Khalid is a dealer in electronic goods (refrigerator, washing machine, air conditioners, televisions,
etc.). He purchased two air conditioners and installed in his showroom. In the books of Khalid, the
cost two air conditioners will be debited to
28. An asset was purchased for Rs.1,000,000 with the down payment of Rs.200,000 and bills accepted
for Rs.800,000/-.
What would be the effect on the total asset and total liabilities in the statement of financial position?
29. BS Corporation provides laptop repair services. It offers services on the advance part-payment policy.
A customer walked into their shop for services, paid Rs.2,000 in the beginning, and once the laptop
got repaired, he paid Rs.2,000 upon delivery. What would be the accounting entry?
(c) Cash= 2,000 (debit), Accounts receivable = 2,000(debit) and Service revenue = 4,000 (credit)
(d) Purchases = 2,000 (debit), Accounts receivable = 2,000 (debit) and Service revenue = 4,000
(credit)
30. BS Corporation provides laptop repair services. It offers services on the advance part-payment policy.
A customer walked into their shop for services, paid Rs.2,000 in the beginning, and once the laptop
got repaired, he paid Rs.2,000 upon delivery
Post the accounting entry for the above when the laptop is repaired and handed over to the customer.
02. (c)
03. (b)
04. (c)
05. (c)
06. (a)
07. (a)
08. (c)
09. (c)
10. (b)
11. (d)
12. (a)
13. (b)
14. (c)
15. (b)
21. (b)
22. (c)
23. (b)
24. (b)
25. (c)
26. (a)
27. (c)
28. (d)
29. (c)
30. (a)
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
7
Accruals and prepayments
Contents
1 Accruals and prepayments introduced
2 Accruals
3 Prepayments
4 Unearned and accrued income
5 Objective based questions and answers
02. On 1 March 2017, Zahra pays an insurance premium of Rs. 2,400 for the period to 28 February 2018.
What is the charge to the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 October 2017 and
prepayment in the Statement of Financial Position as at that date?
(a) Charge for SPL Rs. 800 and Prepayment Rs. Rs. 1,600
(b) Charge for SPL Rs. 1,600 and Prepayment Rs. 800
03. Zahra determines at year end that Salaries paid during the year include Rs. 10,000 in advance.
What is the correct year end adjustment for advance salary to be made?
04. On year end a business has outstanding electricity bills of Rs. 15,000. During the year electricity bills
paid are Rs. 190,000.
What adjustment will be required to utilities expense account regarding the outstanding bills?
(c) No impact
05. Atif finalized his draft accounts and ignored a prepayment for Rs. 100 and accrued expense Rs. 300.
What will be the impact on profit for the year?
06. On finalizing the draft accounts Minhas identified that he has Rs. 1,000 rental income receivable.
Rental income received and recorded during the year is Rs. 11,000.
What is the correct entry to record the accrued income?
08. After finalizing the draft accounts of a business it was identified that salary expense payable for Rs.
9,000 has been ignored. Salary expense paid during the year was Rs. 110,000.
What will be the impact of recording the salaries payable?
09. Jasia has taken a loan of Rs. 250,000 from HBL as on 1st March 2018 for the construction of her office
building. The construction is completed as on June 30, 2018. She rented a portion of her office for Rs.
4,500 per month on July 1. Interest is accrued and paid annually @ 15% per annum on December
each year.
What amount of interest expenses and rent income should be shown in the statement of Profit or Loss
of Jasia’s business prepared on December 31, 2018?
10. What is the treatment of Pre - received income in the Statement of Financial Position of the business?
11. The annual rent expense for TTT for the period 1 July 2018 to 30 June 2019 is Rs. 35,000, which is
25% more than the previous year. Rent expense is paid on 1 July.
What is the charge of rent expense in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December
2018?
13. After finalizing the draft accounts Arsalan identified that he has treated prepaid insurance of Rs. 1,000
as accrued expense.
What will be the impact of correction?
14. A business pays rent quarterly in arrears on 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October each year. The
rent was increased from Rs. 150,000 per year to Rs. 180,000 per year as from 1 October 2007.
What rent expense and accrual should be included in the company’s financial statements for the year
ended 31 January 2008?
15. Helix Corporation has sublet part of its office and in the year ended 30 November 2008 the rent
receivable was:
Rent was received quarterly in advance on 1 January, April, July, and October each year.
What amounts should appear in the company’s financial statements for the year ended 30 November
2008?
16. Sitara Industries has taken a loan from Crescent Bank. Interest on the loan is payable every quarter
i.e. on March 31, June 30, September 30 and December 31. Face amount of the loan is 500,000 and
the rate of interest is 10% per annum. Due to financial problems, two installments were not paid on
September 30 and December 31.
What is the amount of the interest liability to be shown in the Statement of Financial Position prepared
as on December 31?
Rs. ___________
17. Rent paid on 1 September 2017 for the year to 31 August 2018 was Rs. 15,000, and rent paid on 1
September 2018 for the year to 31 August 2019 was Rs. 18,000.
What figure for rent expense should be shown in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31
December 2018?
Rs. ___________
18. A business had deposited Rs. 500,000 into an annual fixed deposit on May 1, 2018. Interest is accrued
quarterly on March 31, June 30, September 30 and December 31 each year. Interest will be paid only
on maturity. Monthly interest amount is Rs. 3,000.
What amount of interest receivable should be shown in the Statement of Financial Position prepared
as on December 31, 2018?
Rs. ___________
19. A business has paid an annual salary of Rs. 36,000 in advance to one of its employees on 31 August
2017.
What is the amount of prepaid salaries at the end of the year on 31 December 2017?
Rs. ___________
20. A business was started on January 1, 2008 in a building which is on a 25 years lease. The rent of the
building is payable quarterly in advance. Payments of rent was made during the year as follows:
What will be the rent expense charged to statement of profit or loss for the year ended December 31,
2008?
Rs. ___________
(a) An expense relating to next year but not paid in current year
(b) An expense relating to the current year and paid within current year
(c) An expense relating to the current year but not paid in current year
(d) An expense relating to next year and already paid in current year
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Capital
(d) Loss
(a) Assets
(b) Liability
(c) Equity
(d) Loss
(a) Payments for expenses for that are not yet incurred and classified as non-current asset
(b) Expenses incurred but not yet paid and classified as current asset
(c) Payments for expenses for that are not yet incurred and classified as current asset
(d) None
25. Expenses relevant to the accounting period which remain unpaid by period end should be:
(a) Included with expenses paid and shown as an asset at the period end
(b) Ignored until they are paid for in the next period
(c) Deducted from amount already paid and shown as a liability at the period end
(d) Include in with the expenses and shown as a liability at the period end
(a) An accrual is an amount owing at the end of a period; a prepayment is an amount paid in
advance
27. Staff salary remaining unpaid as at the year-end should be accounted for as:
28. A business has a year ended 30 September and receives an invoice for rent of Rs.600,000 for the six
months to 31 December. What accrual or prepayment is required for the invoice in the year end
accounts?
29. During the year, a business paid an electricity bill for Rs.900,000 for the 3 months to November. The
year end of the business is 30 September, what accrual or prepayment is needed at the year end?
30. A business has a beginning utilities accrual of Rs.50,000, an ending accrual of Rs.60,000, and during
the year, it pays for utilities of Rs. 80,000. What is the amount of utilities expense?
31. On 31 October 2019, a business pays annual insurance premium of Rs.600,000. What is the
prepayment at the end of the year (31 December 2019)?
(a) Nil
32. XYZ Ltd. receives interest of Rs.100,000 on bank deposit for the month of December 2011 on 3rd
January 2011. XYZ Ltd has an accounting year end of 31st December.
What would be the accounting entry for such transaction?
(a) Prepaid interest (debit) = Rs.100,000 and Interest income (credit) = Rs.100,000
(d) Interest receivable (debit) = Rs.100,000) and interest income (credit) = Rs.100,000
33. XYZ Ltd. receives interest of Rs.100,000 on bank deposit for the month of December 2011 on 3rd
January 2011. XYZ Ltd has an accounting year end of 31st December.
What would be the accounting entry when subsequently on 3rd January, payment for interest is
received?
(a) Prepaid interest (debit) = Rs.100,000 and Interest income (credit) = Rs.100,000
(d) Interest receivable (debit) = Rs.100,000) and interest income (credit) = Rs.100,000
34. ABC Limited receives advance rent from its tenant of Rs.1 million on 31st December in respect of
office rent for the following year.
ABC Ltd. has an accounting year end of 31st December. What accounting entry is to be passed in this
year?
(a) Cash (debit) = Rs.1 million and Advance rent – liability (credit) = Rs.1 million
(b) Cash (debit) = Rs.1 million and Accrued rent (credit) = Rs.1 million
(c) Cash (debit) = Rs.1 million and Rent income (credit) = Rs.1 million
(d) None
35. ABC Limited receives advance rent from its tenant of Rs.1 million on 31st December in respect of
office rent for the following year.
What would be the accounting entry in the following year?
(a) Accrued rent (debit) = Rs.1 million and rental income (credit) = Rs.1 million
(b) Advanced rent (debit) = Rs.1 million and rental income (credit) = Rs.1 million
(c) Accrued rent (debit) = Rs.1 million and prepaid rent (credit) = Rs.1 million
(d) None
12. (c) Prepaid insurance is an asset as it is right to receive benefit from insurance
services in the future.
13. (a) Rs. 1,000 accrual will be reversed (reduction in expense and increase in profit) &
Rs. 1,000 prepayment will be recorded (reduction in expense and increase in
profit)
14. (c) Rent expense Rs. Rs.
1st Feb 2007 – 30 Sep 2007 150,000/12 x 8 100,000
1st Oct2007 – 31 Jan 2008 180,000/12 x 4 60,000
160,000
Accrued rent = 180,000/12 = Rs. 15,000
37,500 37,500
21. (c)
22. (a)
23. (b)
24. (c)
25. (d)
26. (c)
27. (d)
28. (b)
29. (a)
30. (c)
31. (d)
32. (d)
33. (b)
34. (a)
35. (b)
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
10
Property, Plant and Equipment
Contents
1 Initial measurement
2 Depreciation and carrying amount
3 Methods of calculating depreciation
4 Derecognition
5 Objective based questions and answers
(a) Interest incurred on a specific loan taken out to pay for the construction of the new offices
(b) A proportion of the contractor’s general administration costs
(c) Hire of plant and machinery for use on the office building site
(d) Additional design work caused by initial design errors
03. IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment requires an asset to be measured at cost on its original
recognition in the financial statements.
Alpha Trading Limited (ATL) used its own staff, assisted by contractors when required, to construct a
new warehouse for its own use.
Identify the costs listed below that cannot be capitalized.
04. Which TWO of the following items should be capitalised within the initial carrying amount of an item
of plant?
(a) Cost of transporting the plant to the factory
(b) Cost of installing a new power supply required to operate the plant
(c) A deduction to reflect the estimated residual value
(d) Cost of a three-year maintenance agreement
05. Hunza Limited acquired a new office building on 1 October 2014. Its initial carrying amount consisted
of:
Rs. 000
Land 2,000
Building structure 10,000
Air conditioning system 4,000
16,000
The estimated lives of the building structure and air conditioning system are 25 years and 10 years
respectively.
When the air conditioning system is due for replacement, it is estimated that the old system will be
dismantled and sold for Rs. 500,000.
Depreciation is time-apportioned where appropriate.
At what amount will the office building be shown in Hunza Limited’s statement of financial position as
at 31 March 2015?
(a) Rs. 15,625,000
(b) Rs. 15,250,000
(c) Rs. 15,585,000
(d) Rs. 15,600,000
06. Which of the following are items of property, plant and equipment?
(i) Standby generator expected to be used for seven years
(ii) A plot of land held for resale
(iii) A bus for pick-and-drop of staff members
(iv) A generator for rental to others
(a) (i) to (iv) all
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
07. An entity acquires a plant in exchange of old machinery which has carrying amount of Rs. 760,000
and fair value of Rs. 750,000 at the date of exchange. The list price of plant acquired is Rs. 850,000.
The entity is also required to pay cash of Rs. 55,000 in this exchange transaction.
At which amount the acquired plant should be initially recognised?
08. A company purchased some heavy machinery. The invoice for the machinery showed the following
items:
Rs.000
Cost of machinery 46,000
Cost of delivery 900
Cost of 12-month warranty on the machinery 1,600
Total amount payable 48,500
In addition, the company incurred Rs.3.4 million in making modifications to its factory so that the heavy
machinery could be installed.
What should be the cost of the machinery in the company’s machinery account in the ledger?
(a) Rs. 48,500,000
(b) Rs. 46,900,000
(c) Rs. 46,000,000
(d) Rs. 50,300,000
09. A business acquired new premises at a cost of Rs.400 million on 1 January 2015. In the period to the
year end of 31 March 2015 the following further costs were incurred.
Rs.000
Costs of initial adaptation of the building 12,000
Legal costs relating to the purchase 2,500
Monthly cleaning contract 3,400
Air conditioning unit necessary for machinery to be used 2,800
Cost of machinery 12,300
What amount should appear as the cost of premises in the company’s statement of financial position
at 31 March 2015?
(a) Rs. 414,500,000
(b) Rs. 412,000,000
(c) Rs. 425,800,000
(d) Rs. 417,800,000
10. An entity has built a new factory incurring the following costs:
Rs. '000
Land 1,200
Materials 2,400
Labour 3,000
Architect's fees 25
Surveyor's fees 15
Site overheads 300
Apportioned administrative overheads 150
Testing of fire alarms 10
Business rates for first year 12
7,112
11. A motor vehicle cost Rs.400,000. It has an expected residual value after 5 years of Rs.40,000.
If the sum of the digits method of depreciation is used, what will be the carrying amount of the asset
at the end of Year 2?
12. On 1 March 2018 Mercury Limited (ML) acquired a machine from Plant under the following terms:
Rs. 000
List price of machine 82,000
Import duty 1,500
Delivery fees 2,050
Electrical installation costs 9,500
Pre-production testing 4,900
Purchase of a five-year maintenance contract with Plant 7,000
In addition to the above information ML was granted a trade discount of 10% on the initial list price of
the asset and a settlement discount of 5% if payment for the machine was received within one month
of purchase. ML paid for the plant on 25 March 2018.
On what amount, the plant should be initially measured on 1 March?
13. Construction of Venice Limited’s new store began on 1 April 2019. The following costs were incurred
on the construction:
Rs. 000
Freehold land 4,500
Architect fees 620
Site preparation 1,650
Materials 7,800
Direct labour costs 11,200
Legal fees 2,400
General overheads 940
The store was completed on 1 January 2020.
Calculate the amount to be included as property, plant and equipment in respect of the new store
14. On 1 March 2010 Earth Limited (EL) purchased an upgrade package from Sun Limited at a cost of
Rs. 18 million for the machine it originally purchased in 2008. The upgrade took a total of two days
where new components were added to the machine. EL agreed to purchase the package as the new
components would lead to a reduction in production time per unit of 15%. This will enable EL to
increase production without the need to purchase a new machine.
What is appropriate accounting treatment?
15. An item of plant was purchased on 1 April 2008 for Rs. 2,000,000 and is being depreciated at 25% on
a reducing balance basis. What would be its residual value after its useful life of 5 years?
(a) Rs. 632,809
(b) Rs. NIL
(c) Rs. 474,609
(d) Rs. 400,000
16. On 1 April 2010 Mars Limited (ML) held non-current assets that cost Rs. 312 million and had
accumulated depreciation of Rs. 66 million at this date.
During the year ended 31 March 2011, ML disposed of non-current assets which had originally cost
Rs. 28 million and had a carrying amount of Rs. 11.2 million.
ML’s policy is to charge depreciation of 40% on the reducing balance basis, with no depreciation
charged in the year of disposal
What is the depreciation charge to the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 2011?
Rs. ___________
17. Jupiter Limited (JL) purchased a machine on 1 July 2017 for Rs. 500,000. It is being depreciated on
a straight line basis over its expected life of ten years. Residual value is estimated at Rs. 20,000. On
1 January 2018, following a change in legislation, JL fitted a safety guard to the machine. The safety
guard cost Rs. 25,000 and has a useful life of five years with no residual value.
What amount will be charged to profit or loss for the year ended 31 March 2018 in respect of
depreciation on this machine?
Rs. ___________
18. A non-current asset cost Rs.96,000 and was purchased on 1 June Year 1. Its expected useful life was
five years and its expected residual value was Rs.16,000. The asset is depreciated by the straight-
line method.
The asset was sold on 1 September Year 3 for Rs.68,000. There were no disposal costs. It is the
company policy to charge depreciation on a monthly basis. The financial year runs from 1 January to
31 December.
What was the gain or loss on disposal?
Rs. ___________
19. A non-current asset was purchased on 1 June Year 1 for Rs.216,000. Its expected life was 8 years
and its expected residual value was Rs.24,000. The asset is depreciated by the straight-line method.
The financial year is from 1 January to 31 December.
The asset was sold on 1 September Year 4 for Rs.163,000. Disposal costs were Rs.1,000.
It is the company policy to charge a proportionate amount of depreciation in the year of acquisition
and in the year of disposal, in accordance with the number of months for which the asset was held.
What was the gain or loss on disposal?
Rs. ___________
20. An asset was purchased on 1 July 2014 and it is being depreciated at 15% using reducing balance
method. It has carrying amount of Rs. 654,321 on June 30, 2019.
Work back and calculate the cost of the asset when purchased on 1 July 2014.
Rs. ___________
21. Which of the following is not an asset that falls under the scope of IAS 16?
(a) Tangible assets
(b) Assets held for the production or supply of goods or services
(c) Assets held for sale in the normal course of business
(d) Assets expected to be used for more than one period
23. A machine price was Rs.1, 000,000 and was carried through a truck. The truck’s fares were Rs. 20,
000. The engineers charged Rs. 45,000 for the installation.
The cost of the machine is?
(a) Rs.1,000,000
(b) Rs.1,020,000
(c) Rs.1,045,000
(d) Rs.1,065,000
25. A company purchases land with an office building. The building has a useful life of 20 years. How
should the land be depreciated?
(a) Depreciate over 20 years
(b) Depreciate over useful life of the land
(c) Don’t depreciate the land
(d) None of these
27. Huge Ltd. purchases the machine for Rs.6 million. It has an estimated salvage value of Rs.1 million
and a useful life of five years.
What is the depreciation charged for the year under the straight line method?
(a) Rs.1,200,000
(b) Rs.1,000,000
(c) Rs.800,000
(d) None of the above
28. Small Ltd. purchases the equipment for Rs.600,000. It has an estimated salvage value of Rs.100,000
and a useful life of five years.
What is the book value of equipment under the reducing balance method at the end of its useful life?
(a) Rs.163,840
(b) Rs.165,000
(c) Rs.120,000
(d) Rs.100,000
29. Medium Ltd. purchases the car for Rs. 2,200,000. It has an estimated salvage value of Rs. 200,000
and a useful life of five years.
What is the depreciation charge for the first year under the sum-of-the-year digit method?
32. When an asset is sold or disposed of, where is the gain or loss recognised?
(a) Asset disposal account
(b) Profit and loss
(c) Revaluation reserve
(d) Depreciation
33. What is the net amount an entity expects to obtain for an asset at the end of its useful life?
(a) Residual value
(b) Depreciated value
(c) Present value
(d) Fair value
35. Which of the following is not allowable as a directly attributable cost of a machine?
(a) Site preparation
(b) Initial testing cost
(c) Carriage inwards for fuel for the machinery
(d) Estimated dismantling cost
06. (c) Plot of land held for resale is inventory and not PPE.
07. (d) Fair value of asset given up + cash paid
= Rs. 750,000 + 55,000 = Rs. 805,000
08. (d)
Cost of machinery: Rs. 000
Cost 46,000
Cost of delivery 900
Modification cost 3,400
Total 50,300
09. (a)
Cost of premises: Rs. 000
Cost 400,000
Adaptation 12,000
Legal fees 2,500
Total 414,500
10. (b)
Rs. 000
Land 1,200
Materials 2,400
Labour 3,000
Architects fees 25
Surveyors fees 15
Site overheads 300
Testing fire alarms 10
6,950
11. (d)
Sum of digits = 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15 Rs.
Cost of asset 400,000
Year 1 Depreciation (400,000 – 40,000) x 5/15 (120,000)
Carrying amount at the end of year 1 280,000
Year 2 Depreciation (400,000 – 40,000) x 4/15 (96,000)
Carrying amount at the end of year 2 184,000
12. (c)
Rs. 000
List price of machine 82,000
Less: trade discount 10% (8,200)
Import duty 1,500
Delivery fees 2,050
Electrical installation costs 9,500
Pre-production testing 4,900
91,750
13. (a)
Rs. 000
Freehold land 4,500
Architect fees 620
Site preparation 1,650
Materials 7,800
Direct labour costs 11,200
Legal fees 2,400
28,170
14. (b) The additional amount should be capitalised as it is probable that economic benefits
would increase.
15. (c) Rs. 2,000,000 x (0.75)5 = 474,609
16. Rs. 93.92
million Rs. m
Carrying amount at 1 April 2010 (Rs. 312 – 66) 246
Carrying amount of disposal (11.2)
Carrying amount at 31 March 2011 234.8
Depreciation at 40% 93.92
..
17. Rs. 37,250
Rs. '000
Machine ((500,000 – 20,000) / 10 × 9/12) 36,000
Safety guard ((25,000/5) × 3/12) 1,250
37,250
W1 Rs.
Depreciation year 1
(Rs. 216,000 – 24,000) / 8 years = 24,000 x 7/12 14,000
Depreciation year 2 è Rs. 24,000 x 12/12 24,000
Depreciation year 3 è Rs. 24,000 x 12/12 24,000
Depreciation year 4 è Rs. 24,000 x 8/12 16,000
78,000
21. (c) Assets held for sale in the normal course of business are inventories.
24. (c) Refundable sales tax is not a cost as it would be received back.
28. (d) The carrying amount of an asset is equal to its residual value at the end of useful
life, under any depreciation method.
31. (a) Professional fees are directly attributable expenditure. Other items are not.
33. (a) Residual value is amount expected at the end of useful life.
34. (c) Useful life is reviewed annually at each financial year end, at least.
35. (c) Carriage inwards for fuel for the machinery are revenue expenditure.
CHAPTER
Financial accounting and reporting I
7
IAS 16: Property, plant
and equipment
Contents
1 Revaluation
2 Disclosure requirements of IAS 16
3 Objective based questions and answers
02. An entity owns two buildings, A and B, which are currently recorded in the books at carrying amounts
of Rs. 170,000 and Rs. 330,000 respectively. Both buildings have recently been valued as follows:
Building A Rs. 400,000
Building B Rs. 250,000
The entity currently has a balance on the revaluation surplus of Rs. 50,000 which arose when building
A was revalued several years ago. Building B has not previously been revalued.
What double entry will need to be made to record the revaluations of buildings A and B?
03. An entity purchased property for Rs. 6 million on 1 July 2013. The land element of the purchase was
Rs. 1 million. The expected life of the building was 50 years and its residual value nil. On 30 June 2015
the property was revalued to Rs. 7 million, of which the land element was Rs. 1.24 million and the
buildings Rs. 5.76 million. On 30 June 2017, the property was sold for Rs. 6.8 million.
What is the gain on disposal of the property that would be reported in the statement of profit or loss for
the year to 30 June 2017?
05. The following trial balance extract relates to a property which is owned by Maira Limited as at 1 April
2014.
Dr Cr
Rs. 000 Rs. 000
Property at cost (20 year original life) 12,000
Accumulated depreciation as at 1 April 2014 3,600
On 1 October 2014, following a sustained increase in property prices, Maira Limited revalued its
property to Rs. 10.8 million.
What will be the depreciation charge in Maira Limited’s statement of comprehensive income for the year
ended 31 March 2015?
06. A company purchased a building on 1 April 2007 for Rs. 10,000,000. The asset had a useful economic
life at that date of 40 years. On 1 April 2009 the company revalued the building to its current fair value
of Rs. 12,000,000.
What is the double entry to record the revaluation?
07. The carrying value of property at the end of the year amounted to Rs. 108 million. On this date the
property was revalued and was deemed to have a fair value of Rs. 95 million. The balance on the
revaluation reserve relating to the original gain of the property was Rs. 10 million.
What is the double entry to record the revaluation?
08. A company revalued its property on 1 April 2009 to Rs. 20m (Rs. 8m for the land). The property originally
cost Rs. 10m (Rs. 2m for the land) 10 years ago. The original useful economic life of 40 years is
unchanged. The company’s policy is to make a transfer to realized profits in respect of excess
depreciation.
At which amount the property be presented at as at 31 March 2010?
09. A company revalued its property on 1 April 2009 to Rs. 20m (Rs. 8m for the land). The property originally
cost Rs. 10m (Rs. 2m for the land) 10 years ago. The original useful economic life of 40 years is
unchanged. The company’s policy is to make a transfer to realized profits in respect of excess
depreciation.
What is amount of balance in revaluation surplus account as at 31 March 2010?
11. Following information is available for equipment account of a business on 1st January 2018:
Opening balance of equipment, a/c (Revalued amount) Rs. 7,500,000
Surplus on revaluation of equipment a/c Rs. 2,000,000
At start of year company sold equipment for Rs. 90,000,000.
Company has a policy of charging 20% depreciation on straight line basis.
What will be treatment of revaluation surplus at disposal of asset?
12. A non–current asset costing Rs. 216,000 and carrying value Rs. 145,000 is revalued to Rs. 291,000.
How should revaluation be recorded?
13. When items of property, plant and equipment are stated at revalued amounts the following must be
disclosed:
(i) the effective date of the revaluation
(ii) whether an independent valuer was involved
(iii) the methods and significant assumptions applied in estimating the items’ fair values
(iv) the extent to which the items’ fair values were determined directly by reference to observable
prices in an active market or recent market transactions on arm’s length terms or were
estimated using other valuation techniques
(v) for each revalued class of property, plant and equipment, the carrying amount that would
have been recognised had the assets been carried under the cost model;
(vi) the revaluation surplus, indicating the change for the period and any restrictions on the
distribution of the balance to shareholders.
14. IAS 16 encourages disclosure of the following information as users of financial statements might find it
to be useful.
(i) the carrying amount of temporarily idle property, plant and equipment
(ii) the gross carrying amount of any fully depreciated property, plant and equipment that is still
in use
(iii) the carrying amount of property, plant and equipment retired from active use and held for
disposal
(iv) when the cost model is used, the fair value of property, plant and equipment when this is
materially different from the carrying amount
(a) An entity may present PPE at gross carrying amount or net carrying amount under IAS 16
(b) Either useful lives or depreciation rates are to be disclosed, both are not required.
(c) Under revaluation model, PPE are revalued at end of each year
(d) If an entity chooses revaluation model, it must apply revaluation model to all of its PPE.
16. Waqas Limited purchased a machine for Rs. 30,000 on 1 January 2015 and assigned it a useful life of
12 years. On 31 March 2017 it was revalued to Rs. 32,000 with no change in useful life.
What will be depreciation charge in relation to this machine in the financial statements for the year
ending 31 December 2017?
Rs. ___________
Rs. ___________
18. A business purchased an asset on 1 January 2016 costing Rs. 5,000,000 having a useful life of 10
years with nil residual value. On 1 January 2018 balance of accumulated depreciation was Rs.
1,000,000. Asset is revalued to Rs. 4,500,000 on 1 January 2018 (start of the year).
Business has a policy to charge straight line depreciation.
What is the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December 2018?
Rs. ___________
19. A business purchased an asset on 1 January 2016 costing Rs. 5,000,000 having a useful life of 10
years with nil residual value. On 1 January 2018 balance of accumulated depreciation was Rs.
1,000,000. Asset is revalued to Rs. 4,500,000 on 1 January 2018 (start of the year).
Business has a policy to charge straight line depreciation.
What is the amount of revaluation surplus at the date of revaluation?
Rs. ___________
20. A business purchased an asset on 1 January 2016 costing Rs. 5,000,000 having a useful life of 10
years with nil residual value. On 1 January 2018 balance of accumulated depreciation was Rs.
1,000,000. Asset is revalued to Rs. 4,500,000 on 1 January 2018 (start of the year).
Business has a policy to charge straight line depreciation.
What is the amount of incremental depreciation for the year ended 31 December 2018?
Rs. ___________
22. After initial recognition, an entity has a choice to choose cost and?
23. When an item of property, plant and equipment is revalued, what should be revalued?
(c) An increase in revaluation surplus in the SOFP and other comprehensive income in the SOCI
25. Which of the following is not a valid reason for reporting non-current assets at revaluation amount rather
than cost?
(a) To prevent long life assets from being reported at out of date historical costs
(b) To keep owners of the business better informed of their equity in the business.
(c) To report performance correctly by matching earnings with the proper costs of assets used.
26. An entity has a policy of revaluing its PPE. An asset cost Rs.5m on 1 January 2020 and has a useful
life of five years and is depreciated on a straight-line basis to a zero residual value. The value of the
asset at 31 December 2020 was Rs.3.8m. The fall in value will be accounted for as follows?
(a) Depreciation Rs.1m and fall in value of Rs.200,000 both to the reserves
(b) Depreciation Rs.1m to the income statement and fall in value of Rs.200,000 ignored until there
is a revaluation surplus
(c) Depreciation Rs.1m to income statement and fall in value of Rs.200,000 to the reserves
(d) Depreciation Rs.1m and fall in value of Rs.200,000 both to the income statement
27. During the financial year, Akmal Ltd had the following increases in reserves:
i. Rs. 5 million from a revaluation of freehold premises
ii. Rs.10 million in share premium
iii. Rs.25 million from trading profit retained
Which of these are increases in capital reserves?
(a) i only
(b) ii only
28. The following gains may legally be withdrawn from the company by shareholders:
i. gains that arise from the upward revaluation of non-current assets
ii. gains that arise from the sale of non-current assets
What is the validity of each statement?
29. The financial statements of Saadi Limited for the most recent year indicated the following:
i. a bonus issue of shares
ii. a transfer of profit retained to retained earnings
iii. an increase in the revaluation reserve due non-current assets
iv. a rights issue of shares
Which of the above involved a movement of cash?
(a) i. and ii
(d) iv only
30. An apartment is revalued upwards by Rs. 1 million. It was acquired 5 years ago for Rs. 5 million. Its
useful life remains same as 10 years.
What is the revised depreciation charge for the year after revaluation?
31. A building is revalued upwards by Rs. 2 million. It was acquired five years ago for Rs.10 million. Its
useful life remains same as 20 years. What is the incremental depreciation charge for the year?
(a) Rs.100,000
(b) Rs.133,333
(c) Rs.166,667
(d) Rs.200,000
32. An IT equipment being carried at revaluation model has revaluation reserve balance of Rs. 50,000.
During the year, it reduces its value due to technological obsolescence. It has Rs. 70,000 decrease in
value. What would be the impact of this revaluation decrease?
(a) The decrease of Rs.50,000 is debited to revaluation reserve and Rs.20,000 to profit or loss for
the year
(b) The decrease of Rs.50,000 is debited to profit and loss account and Rs.20,000 to revaluation
reserve for the year
(d) The whole decrease is debited to profit or loss for the year
Carrying amount
(100,000 – (100,000 × 2% × 15 yrs)) (70,000)
02. (a)
Building A Building B
The gain on Building A will be credited to other comprehensive income and the
revaluation surplus.
The loss on Building B will be debited to the statement of profit or loss expenses
because we do not have a balance on the revaluation surplus in respect of
building B to offset the loss.
We make an overall debit to non-current assets of Rs. 230,000 – Rs. 80,000 =
Rs. 150,000
Building depreciation
Rs. 5 million/50 years x 2 years (0.2) (0.2)
Building depreciation
Rs. 5.76m/48 years x 2 years (0.24) (0.24)
The gain on disposal is Rs. 40,000. The Rs. 1.2 million balance on the revaluation
reserve is transferred from the revaluation reserve to another reserve account
(probably retained earnings) but is not reported through the statement of profit or
loss for the year.
04. (a) IAS 16 (para 31) states that when the revaluation model is used, revaluations
should be made with sufficient regularity to ensure that the carrying value of the
assets remains close to fair value. IAS 16 also states (para 36) that, if one item
in a class of assets is revalued, all the assets in that class must be revalued.
05. (c) Six months’ depreciation to the date of the revaluation will be Rs. 300,000
(12,000/20 years × 6/12). Six months’ depreciation from the date of revaluation
to 31 March 2015 would be Rs. 400,000 (10,800/13.5 years remaining life × 6/12).
Total depreciation is Rs. 700,000.
07. (a) Total loss Rs. 13 million, Rs. 10 will be charged to revaluation surplus and
remaining to profit or loss.
10. (d)
11. (a) On disposal of a revalued asset, the full balance of surplus on revaluation is
transferred to retained earnings.
13. (d)
14. (d)
15. (b)
16. Rs. 3,087 The machine has been owned for 2 years 3 months, so the remaining useful life
at 31 March 2017 was 9 years 9 months.
Prior to revaluation it was being depreciated at Rs. 2,500 pa (30,000/12), so the
charge for the first three months of 2017 was Rs. 625.
The machine will now be depreciated over the remaining 9 years 9 months = 117
months. So the charge for the remaining 9 months of 2017 is Rs. 2,462 ((32,000
/ 117) × 9).
So total depreciation for the year ended 31.12.17 is (625 + 2,462) = Rs. 3,087
19. Rs. 500,000 Revaluation surplus = Rs. 4,000,000 – 4,500,000= Rs. 500,000
20. Rs. 62,500 Incremental depreciation = Dep on revalued amount – Dep on cost
= (4,500,000/8)– (5,000,000/10)
=Rs. 562,500 – 500,000 = 62,500
Alternatively, Rs. 500,000 surplus / 8 years = Rs. 62,500
21. (a)
22. (c)
23. (b)
24. (c)
25. (d)
26. (d)
27. (c)
28. (d)
29. (d)
30. (c)
31. (b)
32. (a)
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
11
Inventory
Contents
1 Scope and explanation
2 End-of-year adjustments
3 Other issues
4 Journal entries
5 Inventory counts (stock takes)
6 Disclosure
7 Objective based questions and answers
02. Which of the following cost should be deducted from Revenue to arrive at gross profit and what is
accounting concept behind this?
(a) Cost of goods purchased AND Prudence concept
(b) Cost of goods produced AND Matching concept
(c) Cost of goods sold AND Prudence concept
(d) Cost of goods sold AND Matching concept
04. At 01 December 2018 Nida had opening inventory of Rs. 20,000 and at 31 December 2018 Nida
had closing inventory of Rs. 35,000.
Which of the following entries are required to account for opening and closing inventory when
preparing financial statements of the business?
(a) Dr Cost of sales Rs. 20,000 Cr Inventory Rs. 20,000 and Dr Inventory Rs. 35,000 Cr Cost
of sales Rs. 35,000
(b) Dr Cost of sales Rs. 35,000 Cr Inventory Rs. 35,000 and Dr Inventory Rs. 20,000 Cr Cost
of sales Rs. 20,000
(c) Dr Cost of sales Rs. 20,000 Dr Inventory Rs. 20,000 and Dr Inventory Rs. 35,000 Dr Cost
of sales Rs. 35,000
(d) Cr Cost of sales Rs. 35,000 Cr Inventory Rs. 35,000 and Cr Inventory Rs. 20,000 Cr Cost
of sales Rs. 20,000
05. Maria had opening inventory of 900 units at Rs. 5 unit at 01 January 2019. During the month she
made following purchases and sales transactions:
January 05 Purchased 1,000 units at Rs. 6 per unit
January 09 Sold 1,250 units
January 15 Purchased 600 units at Rs. 7 per unit
January 28 Sold 550 units
Maria uses periodic weighted average cost method for inventory valuation. What is value of closing
inventory at 31 January 2019?
06. The accounting concept that requires valuation of Inventory at lower of cost and net realisable value
is?
(a) Accrual
(b) Materiality
(c) Prudence
(d) Going concern
08. What is impact on closing inventory if an item having cost of Rs. 2,500 and a net realizable value of
Rs. 3,000 has been omitted from year - end inventory count?
(a) Understated by Rs. 2,500
(b) Understated by Rs. 3,000
(c) Overstated by Rs. 2,500
(d) Understated by Rs. 500
10. An organization had opening inventory of 35,000 units @Rs. 3.5 per unit. During the month it made
purchases of 40,000 units @Rs. 5 per unit. Sales were 50,000 units.
What is value of cost of goods sold during the month if the company uses continuous weighted
average method for inventory valuation?
(a) Rs. 107,500
(b) Rs. 215,000
(c) Rs. 197,500
(d) Rs. 75,000
11. After preparing draft accounts, Saima reviews her closing inventory. She discovers that some items
included at cost of Rs. 2,600 can be sold for Rs. 2,550 after incurring selling costs of Rs. 65.
What effect will any required adjustment have on Saima’s profits?
(a) Profit decreases by Rs. 65
(b) Profit decreases by Rs. 115
(c) No change to profit
(d) Profit decreases by Rs. 50
12. Ali had opening inventory of Rs. 1,500,000. Purchases made during the period were Rs. 2,550,000.
Sales during the period were Rs. 4,500,000 and he had closing inventory of Rs. 1,000,000.
Gross profit for the period was?
(a) Rs. 1,950,000 Profit
(b) Rs. 450,000 Profit
(c) Rs. 1,450,000 Profit
(d) Rs. 550,000 Loss
13. What is correct entry for goods taken by owner for personal use?
(a) Cr Purchases account and Dr Drawings account with the cost price of the goods.
(b) Cr Opening Inventory account and Dr Drawings account with cost price of the goods.
(c) Cr Trading account and Dr Drawings account with the selling price of the goods.
(d) Cr Sales account and Dr Drawings account with the sale price of the goods.
14. Tasweeb Corporation sells three products – Alpha, Beta and Gamma. The following information
was available at the year end:
Original cost 10 13 15
15. The following information is related to a mobile dealer about his inventory at year end.
Mobile Set Cost value (Rs.) Net realisable value (Rs.)
A 5,000 3,300
B 13,000 13,500
C 14,200 13,900
D 14,900 15,000
What value of inventory should be shown in his Statement of Financial Position prepared at the year
end?
(a) Rs. 39,800
(b) Rs. 45,900
(c) Rs. 40,000
(d) Rs. 45,100
16. On 1st July 2018, Imad had opening inventory of 50 units at a cost of Rs. 60 per unit. During July
2018 he has made following purchases and sales:
July 09 120 units purchased at a cost of Rs. 65 per unit
July 16 65 units sold
July 24 45 units purchased at a cost of Rs. 67 per unit
July 30 100 units sold
What is the value of inventory at 31 March using the FIFO method?
Rs. ___________
17. During August, Anum had sales of Rs. 158,000, which made a gross profit of Rs. 45,000. Purchases
amounted to Rs. 101,000 and opening inventory was Rs. 34,000.
The value of closing inventory was?
Rs. ___________
18. The closing stock of Daniel amounts to Rs. 130,200. But later on it was discovered that some
damaged items were included having cost of Rs. 25,000. Total repair cost is expected to be Rs.
3,500. After repair these could be sold for Rs. 18,000.
What is the correct value of Daniel inventory?
Rs. ___________
What value of inventory should be shown by the corporation in its Statement of Financial Position
at year end?
Rs. ___________
20. Tahir and Taha are doing partnership business. The net profit earned by their business during the
year ended Dec 31 2008 is Rs. 250,000. In subsequent year it was realized that the ending inventory
of year 2007 was overstated by Rs. 10,000.
By what amount the profit for the year 2008 is understated?
Rs. ___________
21. Which of the following cost models is not permitted under IAS 2?
(a) First in, First out (‘FIFO’)
(b) Last in, Last out (‘LIFO’)
(c) Weighted Average
(d) Actual cost
22. Which of the following items are excluded from the scope of IAS 2 – Inventories?
(a) Inventories that are stated at Net Realisable Value
(b) Assets held for sale in the ordinary course of business
(c) Inventories whose fair value is more than the cost
(d) Agricultural produce at the point of harvest
24. Which of the following items should be disclosed as per the requirements of IAS 2?
(a) Average holding period of inventories of the entity as at the end of the reporting period
(b) List of major customers to whom the inventories were sold during the reporting period
(c) Carrying amount of inventories pledged as security for liabilities
(d) Average lead time of procurement for major classes of inventories
25. A company sold goods of worth Rs.1 million, the manufacturing cost of the goods were Rs.600,000.
The carriage outwards is Rs.50,000 and commission paid to agent were also Rs.50,000. What is
the gross and net profit?
(a) Gross profit = 600,000 and net profit = 250,000
(b) Gross profit = 300,000 and net profit = 200,000
(c) Gross profit = 400,000 and net profit = 300,000
(d) Gross profit = 350,000 and net profit = 300,000
26. Bazuka Limited (BL) manufacturers and sells office equipment for workplaces. The stock of
equipment was included in the closing inventory as of 31 December 2019 at a cost of Rs.50,000
per equipment.
During the final audit, the auditors noted that the subsequent selling price for the inventory at 15th
January 2020 was Rs.40,000 per item. Furthermore, inquiry reveals that during the physical stock
take, a water leakage has damaged the equipment. Accordingly, in the following week, BL spent a
total of Rs.15,000 per equipment for repairing the equipment.
The net realizable value and inventory write-down (loss) amount to?
(a) Rs. 40,000 and Rs.10,000 respectively
(b) Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 25,000 respectively
(c) Rs. 35,000and Rs. 25,000 respectively
(d) Rs. 30,000 and Rs.15,000 respectively
28. Spice Limited, imported raw materials from China worth Rs.10 million. They paid Rs.800,000 as
import duties and Rs.200,000 as import taxes (the import taxes were subsequently refunded by the
government). They paid Rs.150,000 million for transportation of the materials from China and
another Rs.200,000 as port handling charges for loading the materials at China. Marketing
expenses were Rs.100,000 and the general administrative overheads amounted to Rs.200,000.
What will be the value of inventories?
(a) Rs.11,600,000
(b) Rs.11,400,000
(c) Rs.11,150,000
(d) Rs.10,950,000
30. Phill Morris Limited (PML) is in the business of procuring a specific type of machine and sells them
to international markets. During the year, PML bought four machines costing Rs.12million ,Rs.14
million, Rs.13 million and Rs.10 million respectively. During the year it sold only one machine for
Rs.14 million and follows the FIFO method of valuation.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(a) The cost of Inventory is Rs.37 million and the cost of sales is Rs.10 million
(b) The cost of Inventory is Rs.39 million and the cost of sales is Rs.14 million
(c) The cost of Inventory is Rs.37million and the cost of sales is Rs.12 million
(d) The cost of Inventory is Rs.37 million and the cost of sales is Rs.13 million
31. The estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less estimated cost of completion and
estimated cost of sale is called
(a) Market value
(b) Fair value
(c) Net realisable value
(d) Current value
02. (d) Due to matching concept, not all goods purchased are treated as expense and only cost
of goods sold is matched against revenue by adjusting changes in inventory.
03. (c) Freight in is necessary to bring the inventory in its present condition and location. All
other costs are period costs.
04. (a) Opening inventory is charged to cost of sales and closing inventory is credited in cost
of sales.
06. (c) The prudence concept states that assets must not be overstated and measuring
inventories at lower of cost and NRV ensures that.
07. (d) Conversion costs include direct labour and manufacturing overheads. Only supervisor’s
wages are part of overheads.
08. (a) Inventory is valued at lower of cost and NRV which is Rs. 2,500 in this case. Omission
would understate the inventory.
09. (a)
11. (b) The cost is Rs. 2,600 and NRV is Rs. 2,485 (2,550 – 65)
As NRV is lower, inventory will be written down by Rs. 115 (2,600 – 2,485). This would
reduce the profit by Rs. 115 as well.
13. (a) The correct entry for drawings is Debit sDrawings and Credit Purchases (or Cost of
Sales). The cost price of goods is relevant, not selling price.
14. (c)
Alpha Beta Gamma
Original cost 10 13 15
NRV 12 9 12
16. Rs. 3,340 The closing inventory units 50+120+45 – 65 – 100 = 50 units
45 units @ Rs. 67 per unit and 5 units @ Rs. 65 per unit = Rs. 3,340
17. Rs. 22,000 Gross profit = Sales – cost of goods sold; hence Cost of Goods sold = Sales – Gross
profit
Cost of Goods sold = Rs. 158,000 - Rs. 45,000 = Rs. 113,000
Cost of Goods sold = Opening inventory +Purchases – closing inventory
Rs. 113,000 = Rs. 34,000 + Rs. 101,000 – Closing inventory
Closing inventory = Rs. 22,000
19. Rs. 48,600 Product A Rs. 15,000+ Product B Rs. 10,000+Product C Rs. 11,000+Product D Rs.
12,600 = Rs. 48,600
Cost and NRV comparison are to be made on item by item basis and not on the basis
of totals.
20. Rs. 10,000 Increase in opening inventory understates the profit for current year.
21. (b)
22. (d)
23. (b)
24. (c)
25. (c)
26. (b)
27. (d)
28. (c)
29. (b)
30. (c)
31. (c)
32. (d)
CHAPTER
Introduction to accounting
12
Preparation of financial statements
Contents
1 Financial statements
2 Preparing financial statements
3 Objective based questions and answers
02. Following is the trial balance of Salman for the year ended 30 June 2014
Rs.
Insurance 2,000,000
03. Salman has prepared his trial balance for the year ended 30 June 2014.
He has provided following information relating to stock: Closing stock as on 30 June 2014 amounted
to Rs. 237,500 thousand.
What is the correct accounting entry to record the adjustment?
04. Salman has prepared his trial balance for the year ended 30 June 2014. He has provided following
information relating to drawings:
Salman’s son works as the head of administration and received a salary of Rs. 150 thousand per
month, which has been included in drawings.
What is the amount of drawings to be shown in the statement of financial position?
05. Azam is in process of preparation of trial balance for the year ended 30 June 2015.
Debit Credit
Rs. in ‘000’
Purchases 105,950
Azam withdrew goods costing Rs. 4,000 thousand for personal use during the year. However, no entry
was made to record the withdrawal of goods.
What is the amount of purchases to be shown in statement of comprehensive income?
06. Following is the trial balance of Salman for the year ended 30 June 2014:
Rs. in ‘000
Debit Credit
Trade discount 2,432 Sales 353,300
Sales return 10,000
Discount allowed 4,500
07. Following summarised trial balance as at 31 December 2015 pertains to Moon Trading (MT) who deals
in office machines:
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Bank loan 160
Interest on bank loan 8
Additional information
The bank loan was acquired on 1 April 2015. The principal amount is repayable in five equal annual
installments on 31 March each year. Interest is payable at 10% per annum on six monthly basis and
is recorded at the time of payment.
What adjusting entry is required to record interest payable as at 31 December 2015?
08. Following summarised trial balance as at 31 December 2015 pertains to Moon Trading (MT) who deals
in office machines:
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Other income 15
Additional information
Review of other income revealed the following information:
On 1 August 2015, MT received an amount of Rs. 1.8 million as 50% advance against a maintenance
contract covering the period from 1 September 2015 to 31 May 2016 and was credited to other income.
The balance amount would be paid on completion of the contract.
What is the amount of unearned income to be shown in statement of financial position?
09. Following summarised trial balance as at 31 December 2015 pertains to Moon Trading (MT) who deals
in office machines:
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Other income 15
Additional information
On 1 August 2015, MT received an amount of Rs. 1.8 million as 50% advance against a maintenance
contract covering the period from 1 September 2015 to 31 May 2016 and was credited to other income.
The balance amount would be paid on completion of the contract.
What is the amount of other income to be shown in statement of comprehensive income?
11. A business has provided following extracts from trial balance as at 31 December 2018;
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Receivables 100
Provision for doubtful debts – 1.1.18 4
Bad debts 3
Additional information
A customer included in receivables in trial balance above owing Rs. 1 million gone bankrupt and is
unable to pay anything.
It has been decided to calculate a provision of 6% for the year.
What is the amount of closing balance of provision for doubtful debts account?
12. A business has provided following extracts from trial balance as at 31 December 2018;
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Receivables 100
Provision for doubtful debts – 1.1.18 4.5
Bad debts 3
Additional information
A customer included in receivables in trial balance above owing Rs. 1 million gone bankrupt and is
unable to pay anything.
It has been decided to calculate a provision of 6% for the year.
What is the amount of bad and doubtful debts expense in statement of comprehensive income?
13. A business has provided following extracts from trial balance as at 31 December 2018;
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Receivables 100
Provision for doubtful debts – 1.1.18 4
Bad debts 3
Additional information
A customer included in receivables in trial balance above owing Rs. 1 million gone bankrupt and is
unable to pay anything.
It has been decided to calculate a provision of 6% for the year.
What is the number of receivables to be shown in statement of financial position?
14. A business has provided following extracts from trial balance as at 31 December 2018;
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Administration expenses 150
Additional information
Electricity expense of Rs. 1.5 million is outstanding. No adjustment for bill payable has been recorded.
Electricity expense paid during the year have already been included in administration expenses.
Included in the administration expenses in trial balance advance rent is Rs. 1.2 million.
What is the amount of administration expenses to be shown in statement of comprehensive income?
15. A business has provided following extracts from trial balance as at 31 December 2018:
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Administration expenses 150
Additional information
Electricity expense of Rs. 1.5 million is outstanding. No adjustment for bill payable has been recorded.
Electricity expense paid during the year have already been included in administration expenses.
Included in the administration expenses in trial balance advance rent is Rs. 1.2 million.
Which of the following is correct regarding administration expenses?
(a) Accrued expense Rs. 1.2 million; Prepayment Rs. 1.5 million
(b) Accrued expense Rs. 1.5 million; Prepayment Rs. 1.2 million
(c) Accrued expenses Rs. 2.7 million
(d) Prepayment Rs. 2.7 million
16. Following is the summarised trial balance of Fortune Traders (FT) for the year ended 30 June 2016;
Debit Credit
Rs. 000
Plant & machinery - cost 6,650
Plant & mach. – Acc. Dep. as at 1 July 2015 2,414
Additional information:
(i) On 1 March 2016, FT paid an advance of Rs. 330,000 for purchase of a machine and debited
it to plant and machinery. The machine was delivered on 1 September 2016.
(ii) FT depreciates its fixed assets from the month of addition. Depreciation is to be charged on
written-down value (WDV) as follows:
Rs. ___________
17. Following is the summarised trial balance of Fortune Traders (FT) for the year ended 30 June 2016;
Debit Credit
Rs. 000
Plant & machinery - cost 6,650
Plant & mach. – Acc. Dep. as at 1 July 2015 2,414
Additional information:
(iii) On 1 March 2016, FT paid an advance of Rs. 330,000 for purchase of a machine and debited
it to plant and machinery. The machine was delivered on 1 September 2016.
(iv) FT depreciates its fixed assets from the month of addition. Depreciation is to be charged on
written-down value (WDV) as follows:
What is the amount of Plant & machinery to be shown in statement of financial position?
Rs. ___________
18. Azam owns a retail outlet with the name Azam Autoparts Store. The trial balance as at 30 June 2015
is as follows:
Debit Credit
Rs. in ‘000’
Bank loan 5,050
Interest expenses 600
167,436 167,436
Bank loan was received on 1 July 2014. Interest payable for the month of June 2015 has been credited
to the loan account.
What is the amount of interest payable to be shown in statement of financial position?
Rs. ___________
19. Rainbow Lights (RL) has prepared a trial for the year ended 31 December 2016:
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Miscellaneous income 45
Additional information
Miscellaneous income includes Rs. 12 million received against an annual maintenance contract
expiring on 30 April 2017.
What is the amount of Miscellaneous income to be shown in statement of comprehensive income?
Rs. ___________
20. Rainbow Lights (RL) has prepared a trial for the year ended 31 December 2016:
Debit Credit
Rs. in million
Miscellaneous income 45
Additional information
Miscellaneous income includes Rs. 12 million received against an annual maintenance contract
expiring on 30 April 2017.
What is the amount of Miscellaneous income to be shown in statement of financial position as
unearned income?
Rs. ___________
26. The gross decrease in economic benefits for the business are what?
(a) Expenses
(b) Obligations
(c) Gain
(d) Income
28. _______ the withdrawal of cash and goods by the owner of the business for his/her personal use
(a) Depreciation
(b) Drawings
(c) Outflow of cash
(d) Appreciation
29. Which of the following will be debited if a business purchases goods on credit?
(a) Cash
(b) Debtor
(c) Creditor
(d) Purchases
02. (d) Prepaid insurance is deducted from the amount shown in trial to arrive at expense
for the year.
03. (a)
06. (b)
Rs. 000
340,868
08. (c) Total contract price 1.8 + 1.8 = 3.6 x 4/9 months = 1.6 less advance 1.8 = 0.2
million unearned
10. (a)
Rs. million
Receivables 99
Provision @ 6% 5.94
Rs. million
5.44
Closing provision
Rs. million
Receivables 99
Provision @ 6% 5.94
13. (d)
Rs. million
96
90.06
Closing provision
Rs. million
Receivables 99
Provision @ 6% 5.94
15. (b)
16. Rs. 391,000 Depreciation charge = [6,650 – 330-2,414] x 10% = Rs. 391,000
19. Rs. 41 million Misc. income = Rs. 45 million – 4 million = Rs. 41 million
Unearned income = 12 million x 4/12 = Rs. 4 million
21. (a)
22. (b)
23. (c)
24. (d)
25. (c)
26. (a)
27. (a)
28. (b)
29. (d)
30. (b)
31. (d)
32. (c)
33. (a)
34. (d)
CHAPTER
Financial accounting and reporting I
2
IAS 1: Preparation of financial
statements
Contents
1 Statement of changes in Equity
2 Objective based questions and answers
02. Which of the following is not considered transaction with owners with reference to statement of
changes in equity?
(a) Share capital
(b) Redemption of equity shares
(c) Profit for the year
(d) Bonus issue of shares (no cash received from owners)
03. The maximum amount of share capital that a company is authorized to raise is called:
(a) Authorized share capital
(b) Issued share capital
(c) Subscribed share capital
(d) Paid up share capital
05. The monetary value of all the shares that the investors have committed to buy is called:
(a) Authorized share capital
(b) Issued share capital
(c) Subscribed share capital
(d) Paid up share capital
06. The amount of money a company has received from shareholders in exchange for its shares is called:
(a) Authorized share capital
(b) Issued share capital
(c) Subscribed share capital
(d) Paid up share capital
09. A company has profit after tax of Rs. 80 million for the financial year ended on 30 June 2019. It has
share capital of Rs. 500 million. During the year company has declared interim dividend of 10%.
How this dividend shall be presented in financial statements for the year ended 30 June 2019?
(a) Rs. 8 million deducted from retained earnings in statement of changes in equity
(b) Rs. 50 million deducted from retained earnings in statement of changes in equity
(c) Rs. 50 million deducted from profit or loss as finance cost
(d) It shall not be recorded, only disclosure shall be made.
10. A company has profit after tax of Rs. 80 million for the financial year ended on 30 June 2019. It has
share capital of Rs. 500 million. The board of directors proposed a final dividend of 10% just after the
year end, for the year ended 30 June 2019
How this dividend shall be presented in financial statements for the year ended 30 June 2019?
(a) Rs. 8 million deducted from retained earnings in statement of changes in equity
(b) Rs. 50 million deducted from retained earnings in statement of changes in equity
(c) Rs. 50 million deducted from profit or loss as finance cost
(d) It shall not be recorded, only disclosure shall be made.
11. Which TWO of the following are usually shown in statement of changes in equity when right issue of
shares is made?
(a) Increase in share capital
(b) Decrease in share premium
(c) Increase in share premium
(d) Increase in retained earnings
12. Which TWO of the following are usually shown in statement of changes in equity when bonus issue of
shares is made?
(a) Increase in share capital
(b) Decrease in share premium
(c) Increase in share premium
(d) Increase in retained earnings
13. Transaction costs relating to issue of shares are usually debited to:
(a) Profit or loss
(b) Share capital
(c) Share premium
(d) Revaluation surplus
14. If there is no balance in share premium account, transaction costs relating to issue of shares are
usually debited to:
(a) Profit or loss
(b) Share capital
(c) Retained earnings
(d) Revaluation surplus
Rs. ___________
Rs. ___________
Rs. m
Share capital (Rs. 100 each) 100
Share premium 30
Revaluation surplus 20
Retained earnings 35
Rs. ___________
Rs. ___________
On 2 January 2019, all the revalued assets were disposed of for Rs. 90 million.
Profit for the year ended was Rs. 32 million.
Interim dividend of 5% was paid in July 2019 and final dividend of 8% has been proposed by directors.
What amount of retained earnings shall be presented in statement of changes in equity as at 31
December 2019?
Rs. ___________
21. Which of the following does not appear in statement of changes in equity?
(a) Share premium
(b) Retained earning
(c) Goodwill
(d) Revaluation surplus
22. Which of the following statements is likely to be true, for a company making profits?
(a) The operating profit will be less than the profit for the year.
(b) The profit for the year will be greater than the gross profit.
(c) Retained profits at the year-end will be greater than shareholders' equity.
(d) Retained profits at the year-end will be greater than retained profits at the beginning of the
year.
23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the statement of changes in equity?
(a) Total comprehensive income for the period
(b) The revaluation gain
(c) The amount of cash that the company has on hand
(d) Dividends paid to shareholders during the period
24. Which of the following statements is not true about preferred stock?
(a) The rate of dividend is usually fixed
(b) Shareholders always have a voting right
(c) Shareholders' usually have a preference as to assets upon liquidation of the corporation
(d) Shareholders' usually have a preference as to dividends
26. Any unpaid dividend is carried forward to the future periods for which type of stock?
(a) Ordinary shares
(b) Cumulative preferred shares
(c) Non-cumulative preferred shares
(d) All of the above
27. What is the impact of dividend payments to shareholders on the statement of changes in equity?
(a) It increases the retained earnings balance
(b) It decreases the retained earnings balance
(c) It increases the share capital balance
(d) It decreases the share capital balance
28. What is the impact of an additional share issue on the statement of changes in equity?
(a) It increases the share capital balance
(b) It increases the retained earnings balance
29. Xavier Limited issued 5,000 shares of its Rs.10 par value to its shareholder. These shares were issued
at a premium at a price of Rs.25 per share.
The correct journal entry to record this transaction is:
(a) Cash Rs.125,000 (Debit); Share capital Rs.125,000 (Credit)
(b) Cash Rs.50,000 (Debit); Share capital Rs.50,000 (Credit)
(c) Share capital Rs.50,000 (Debit); Share premium Rs.75,000 (Debit); Cash Rs.125,000 (Credit)
(d) Cash Rs.125,000 (Debit); Share capital Rs.50,000 (Credit); Share premium Rs.75,000
(Credit)
30. Dynasty Limited issues 1 million, Rs.10 shares at Rs.50 for each share. Which of the following
statements is true?
(a) Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs.10 million and share premium will increase by Rs.50
million.
(b) Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs.10 million and share premium will increase by Rs.40
million.
(c) Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs.20 million and share premium will increase by Rs.50
million.
(d) Ordinary share capital will increase by Rs.10 million and share premium will increase by Rs.30
million.
31. Handsome Limited statement of financial position shows ordinary share capital of Rs.150 million and
share premium of Rs.50 million at the beginning of a financial year. If the ordinary share capital is
Rs.250 million and share premium is Rs.120 million at the end of the financial year, how much did the
ordinary share with share premium issue raise?
(a) Rs.100 million
(b) Rs.150 million
(c) Rs.160 million
(d) Rs.170 million
32. Gigantic Limited opening retained earning balance was Rs.150 million. It made a net profit for the year
ended 31 March 2020 of Rs.30 million. During that year, an ordinary dividend of Rs.50 paisa per share
was paid on 40 million ordinary shares. What was the retained profit for the year ended 31 March
2020?
(a) Rs.150 million
(b) Rs.160 million
(c) Rs.165 million
(d) Rs.170 million
33. SK Limited paid Rs.10 million in debenture interest and an ordinary dividend of 10 paisa per share on
Rs.50 million ordinary shares. The retained profit was Rs.120 million. What was SK Limited profit for
the year?
(a) Rs. 125 million
(b) Rs.135 million
(c) Rs. 130 million
(d) Rs.140 million
34. Which of the following would be an entry in the statement of changes in equity?
(a) Taxation
(b) Long term loans
(c) Revaluation gain
(d) Revaluation reserve
35. During the year ended 30 June 2021, a company's revaluation reserve increased from Rs. 300,000 to
Rs. 380,000 as a result of a property (land) revaluation. At the start of that financial year, the company's
property had been valued at Rs. 810,000. Assuming that no property was disposed of during the year,
which of the following statements is true?
(a) The property's revalued amount was Rs.890, 000.
(b) The property's revalued amount was Rs.1, 190,000.
(c) The property's revalued amount was Rs.380, 000.
(d) The property's revalued amount was Rs.1,310,000
02. (c)
03. (a)
04. (b)
05. (c)
06. (d)
07. (b)
08. (b)
09. (b) Rs. 500 million x 10% = Rs. 50 million to be recognized in statement of changes in
equity.
10. (d) This dividend shall be recognized next year. This year the proposed dividend shall
be disclosed only.
13. (c)
14. (c)
15. (b)
19. Rs. Nil Rs. 100 million / Rs. 100 x 2/5 x Rs. 100] = Rs. 40 million shares issued
Rs. 30 million from share premium and remaining Rs. 10 million from retained
earnings.
20. Rs. 82 million Rs. 35 million + Rs. 20 million from revaluation surplus + Profit of Rs. 32 million –
Rs. 5 million dividends = Rs. 82 million
Proposed dividend shall be disclosed only.
21. (c)
22. (d)
23. (c)
24. (b)
25. (a)
26. (b)
27. (b)
28. (a)
29. (d)
30. (b)
31. (d)
32. (b)
33. (a)
34. (c)
35. (a)
CHAPTER
Financial accounting and reporting I
3
IAS 7: Statement of cash flows
Contents
1 Introduction
2 Cash flows from operating activities: The indirect method
3 Cash flows from operating activities: The direct method
4 Cash flows from investing activities
5 Cash flows from financing activities
6 Objective based questions and answers
02. A company has incurred a loss of Rs. 40,000 during the year 2018; however, the balance in the bank
account at end of the year is more than the balance at start of the year.
What does this mean?
(a) Company has allowed a longer credit period to the credit customers
(b) Company has purchased more stock
(c) Company has made a right issue during the year
(d) Company has purchased fixed assets during the year
07. Which TWO of the following are considered as inflows in a company’s statement of cash flows?
(a) Bonus shares issued
(b) Decrease in accounts receivables
(c) Increase in inventory
(d) Increase in accounts payables
08. Which of the following item will appear in cash flows from financing activities section of statement of
cash flows?
(a) Cash paid to acquire non-current assets
(b) Dividends paid
(c) Bonus shares issued
(d) Depreciation for the year
09. Following data is available for a company for the year ended 31 December 2018:
Rs.
Operating profit before working capital changes 30,000
Increase in accounts receivables 5,000
Increase in inventory 3,000
Increase in accounts payable 2,000
Interest paid 500
What is the net cash generated from cash flows from operating activities for the year ended 31
December 2018?
(a) Rs. 23,500
(b) Rs. 24,500
(c) Rs. 29,500
(d) Rs. 19,500
12. A company has provided following data at the end of year 2017:
2017
Rs.
Share capital Rs. 1 each 100,000
Share premium 3,000
The company has made a right issue of 1 for 5 shares during the year 2018 at Rs. 1.2 per share.
What is the amount to be shown in the cash flows from financing activities?
(a) Rs. 24,000 outflow
13. How should gain on sale of used equipment be reported in a cash flow statement, using indirect
approach?
(a) In operating activities as deduction from Profit before tax
(b) In investing activities as a reduction in cash inflow
(c) In investing activities as an increase in cash inflows
(d) In operating activities as addition to profit before tax
14. Which TWO of the following are added as non-cash adjustments to the profit before tax in the cash
flow from operating activities section of statement of cash flows?
(a) Interest expense
(b) Interest income
(c) Loss on sale of non–current assets
(d) Tax charge for the year
15. Where, in a company are financial statements complying with international accounting standards,
should you find the proceeds of non-current assets sold during the period?
(a) Statement of cash flows and statement of financial position
(b) Statement of changes in equity and statement of financial position
(c) Statement of profit or loss and statement of cash flows
(d) Statement of cash flows only
16. Zahid & Co. reported a profit Rs. 40,000 for the year, after charging the following:
Rs.
Depreciation 4,000
Loss on sale of assets 3,000
During the year there was a decrease in accounts receivables of Rs. 1,000.
What was the net cash flow generated from operations based on above data?
Rs. ___________
17. Asmat Limited made a profit for the year of Rs. 320,500, after accounting for depreciation Rs. 32,500.
During the year following transactions took place:
Rs.
Purchase of machinery 125,000
Increase in accounts receivables 45,000
Increase in inventory 28,000
Increase in accounts payable 12,600
What is the net increase in cash and bank balance during the year?
Rs. ___________
19. Furqan Limited has provided following information about non–current assets:
Rs.
Cost as at 1 January 2018 350,000
Cost as at 31 December 2018 450,000
During the year an asset costing Rs. 100,000 and having net book value of Rs. 40,000 was sold at a
profit of Rs. 30,000.
What is the net to be shown as outflow in the “Cash flow from investing activities” section in Statement
of Cash Flows?
Rs. ___________
20. The following amounts have been calculated for inclusion in the statement of cash flow of House
Limited:
Rs.
Net cash inflow from financing activities 145,000
Net cash outflow from investing activities 160,000
Increase in cash and cash equivalents 24,000
Income taxes paid 65,000
Interest paid 12,000
How much cash has been generated from operations?
Rs. ___________
21. A cash flow statement provides information that enables users to evaluate the changes in:
(a) Solvency
(b) Net assets
(c) Its financial structure
(d) Its liquidity
24. Activities that result in changes in the size and composition of the equity capital and borrowings of an
entity are called:
(a) Operating activities
(b) Investing activities
(c) Financing activity
(d) None of these
26. Amplifier Limited had sales of Rs.120 million during the year. Trade and other receivables increased
from Rs.12 million to Rs.16 million, an increase of Rs. 4 million. What amount of cash was received
from customers during the year?
(a) Rs.124 million
(b) Rs.116 million
(c) Rs.120 million
(d) None of these
27. Cost of sales for Shah Textile Limited during the year was Rs.100 million. Opening inventory was
Rs.20 million and closing inventory was Rs. 28 million. Opening trade payables were Rs.5 million and
closing trade payables were Rs.9 million. What amount of cash was paid to suppliers?
(a) Rs.102 million
(b) Rs.104 million
(c) Rs.108 million
(d) Rs.110 million
28. Zaman Limited extracted general ledger from which it shows salaries and wages expense of Rs.50
million during the year. Its cash flow statement reported cash paid to employees of Rs.42 million. The
opening balance of accrued salaries and wages was Rs.3.6 million. What was the closing balance for
accrued salaries and wages?
(a) Rs.11.6 million
(b) Rs.11.8 million
(c) Rs.4.4 million
(d) Rs.3.8 million
29. Sale proceeds from disposal of property, plant and equipment are classified as:
(a) Financing activities
(b) Operating activities
(c) Investing activities
(d) Either financing or operating activities, depending on which method (direct or indirect) is used
to determine cash flows from operating activities
30. Which one of the following events will increase the cash balances of a business?
(a) Loan repayment to banks
(b) Bank granting it an overdraft facility
(c) Debtors paying amounts owed
(d) Sale of stock on credit
31. A company with healthy profits is facing a cash shortage. Which of the following events could account
for this?
(a) Delaying payments to creditors
(b) The shortening of the credit period granted to debtors
(c) The recent acquisition of machinery
(d) An increase in dividend proposed by the directors
32. Which one of the following companies is most likely to run into cash flow problems?
(a) A loss making company making components of vital strategic importance to the government
(b) A profitable new retailer about to embark on ambitious expansion plans
(c) A company which has recently sold part of its operations so as to concentrate on its core
areas
(d) Reasonably profitable, long established company with no expansion plans
33. What is the immediate effect of making a capital repayment on a loan on cash flow and profits?
(a) On profit - None; On cash – Decrease
(b) On profit - Increase; On cash – Decrease
(c) On profit - Decrease; On cash – Decrease
(d) On profit - Decrease; On cash – None
34. A company has a negative cash flow from operating activities. What could explain this negative cash
flow?
(a) High levels of dividend payments
(b) A substantial investment in new fixed assets
(c) A sudden increase in credit sales
(d) The repayment of a loan
35. Which of the following is NOT a cash outflow for the firm?
(a) Dividends
(b) Interest payments.
(c) Taxes
(d) Bad debts
04. (c)
Accumulated depreciation
Particulars Rs... Particulars Rs.
Disposal (see below) 7,000 b/f 25,000
c/f 38,000 Depreciation 20,000
45,000 45,000
Disposal
Particulars Rs... Particulars Rs.
Asset 10,000 Provision for dep. (bal) 7,000
Gain on disposal 3,000 Cash 6,000
13,000 13,000
05. (b)
Retained earnings
Particulars Rs... Particulars Rs.
Dividends paid 5,000 b/f 38,000
Transfer to reserves 12,000 Profit for the year 29,000
c/f 50,000
67,000 67,000
Profit after tax 29,000 + Tax 4,000 = Rs. 33,000 profit before tax
06. (c)
Accounts receivables
Particulars Rs... Particulars Rs.
b/f 12,000 Cash (bal.) 59,000
Sales 75,000 Discount allowed 3,000
c/f 25,000
87,000 87,000
07. (b) & (d) Decrease in accounts receivables indicates that they have paid the debt, hence, inflow for
us.
Increase in accounts payable indicates that we have not paid them, thus reducing outflows
(or increasing cash flows)
Bonus shares issued do not affect cash flows.
Increase in inventory is cash outflows.
08. (b) Dividend is paid to shareholders who provide finance to the business; therefore, it is treated
as financing activity.
Cash paid to acquire non-current assets is shown in investing activities.
Bonus issues have no impact on cash flows of the business.
Depreciation is non-cash item and is adjusted in operating activities.
09. (a)
Rs.
Operating profit before working capital changes 30,000
Increase in accounts receivables (5,000)
Increase in inventory (3,000)
Increase in accounts payable 2,000
Interest paid (500)
23,500
10. (b) Users of financial statements may predict future cash flows from past data of how the entity
generates and uses its cash.
Profitability is reflected in statement of comprehensive income.
Debt/Equity and net assets are reflected in statement of financial position.
11. (c) Only debentures and non – current assets purchased are included in investing activities;
Rs. 50,000+45,000= Rs. 95,000
Investment in short term bonds will be considered cash equivalent and advance rent would
affect operating activities cash flows.
12. (b) Shares issued = 100,000/5 = 20,000
Cash received = 20,000xRs.1.2= Rs. 24,000
13. (a) The gain on disposal in included in profit before tax as other income. This is deducted back
in order to determine the cash figure.
14. (a & c) Interest expense is added back as interest paid is separately reported.
Loss on disposal is added back as this is included in profit before tax as an expense.
Interest income is deducted back.
Tax charge need not be added back as already the amount taken is profit before tax.
15. (d)
16. Rs.
48,000
Rs.
Profit before tax 40,000
Adjustments for non-cash items
Depreciation 4,000
Loss on sale of fixed assets 3,000
Operating profit before working capital changes 47,000
Decrease in accounts receivables 1,000
Cash generated from operations 48,000
17. Rs.
167,600
Cash flows from operating activities Rs.
Profit before tax 320,500
Depreciation 32,500
Operating profit before working capital changes 353,000
Increase in accounts receivables (45,000)
Increase in inventory (28,000)
Increase in accounts payable 12,600
292,600
18. Rs.
30,000
Interest payable
Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.
Cash 30,000 b/f 10,000
c/f 20,000 Interest expense 40,000
50,000 50,000
Interest expense = Rs. 1,000,000x4%= Rs. 40,000
19. Rs.
130,000 Amounts to be shown in Cash flows from investing activities are;
Cash flows from investing activities Rs.
Cash paid to acquire assets (200,000)
Cash received on disposal 70,000
130,000
Non-current assets
Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.
b/f 350,000 Disposal 100,000
Cash 200,000 c/d 450,000
550,000 550,000
Disposal
Particulars Rs. Particulars Rs.
Asset 100,000 Acc. Dep [10,000 – 4,000] 60,000
Gain on disposal 30,000 Cash 70,000
130,000 130,000
20. Rs.
116,000
Rs.
Cash generated from operations (β) 116,000
Interest paid (12,000)
Income taxes paid (65,000)
Net cash from operating activities (β) 39,000
Net cash outflow from investing activities (160,000)
Net cash inflow from financing activities 145,000
Increase in cash and cash equivalents 24,000
21. (d)
22. (a)
23. (a)
24. (c)
25. (d)
26. (b)
27. (b)
28. (a)
29. (c)
30. (c)
31. (c)
32. (b)
33. (a)
34. (c)
35. (d)
CHAPTER
8
Non-current assets: sundry standards
Contents
1 IAS 20: Accounting for government grants and disclosure of
government assistance
2 IAS 23: Borrowing costs
3 IAS 40: Investment property
4 Objective based questions and answers
02. Which of the following are acceptable methods of accounting for a government grant relating to an asset
in accordance with IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government
Assistance?
(i) Set up the grant as deferred income
(ii) Credit the amount received to profit or loss
(iii) Deduct the grant from the carrying amount of the asset
(iv) Add the grant to the carrying amount of the asset
03. On 1 January 2019, Boom Limited (BL) received Rs. 2,000,000 from the local government on the
condition that they employ at least 200 staff each year for the next 4 years. On this date, it was virtually
certain that BL would meet these requirements.
However, on 1 January 2022, due to an economic downturn and reduced consumer demand, BL no
longer needed to employ 100 staff. The conditions of the grant required half repayment.
What should be recorded in the financial statements on 1 January 2022 for repayment of grant?
04. Which TWO of the following statements about IAS 20 Accounting for Government Grants and
Disclosure of Government Assistance are true?
(a) A government grant related to the purchase of an asset must be deducted from the carrying
amount of the asset in the statement of financial position.
(b) A government grant related to the purchase of an asset should be recognised in profit or loss
over the life of the asset.
(c) Free marketing advice provided by a government department is excluded from the definition of
government grants.
(d) Any required repayment of a government grant received in an earlier reporting period is treated
as prior period adjustment.
05. Which TWO of the statements below regarding IAS 23 Borrowing Costs are correct?
(a) Borrowing costs must be capitalised if they are directly attributable to qualifying assets
(b) Borrowing costs should cease to be capitalised once the related asset is substantially complete
(c) Borrowing costs must be capitalised if they are directly attributable to non-current assets
(d) Borrowing costs may be capitalised if they are directly attributable to qualifying assets
06. Fine Limited (FL) received a Rs.10 million loan at 7.5% on 1 April 2017. The loan was specifically issued
to finance the building of a new store.
Construction of the store commenced on 1 May 2017 and it was completed and ready for use on 28
February 2018 but did not open for trading until 1 April 2018.
How much should be recorded as finance costs in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31
March 2018?
07. Fine Limited (FL) received a Rs.10 million loan at 7.5% on 1 April 2017. The loan was specifically issued
to finance the building of a new store.
Construction of the store commenced on 1 May 2017 and it was completed and ready for use on 28
February 2018 but did not open for trading until 1 April 2018.
How much interest should be capitalised as part of property, plant and equipment as at 31 March 2018?
08. An entity decided that not all of the funds raised were needed immediately and temporarily invested
some of the funds for one month before the construction started, earning Rs.40, 000 interest.
How should the Rs. 40,000 be accounted for in the financial statements?
(a) Net off the amount capitalised in property, plant and equipment
(b) Taken to the statement of profit or loss as investment income
(c) Taken as other comprehensive income
(d) Deducted from the outstanding loan amount in the statement of financial position
09. Shine Limited (SL) had the following bank loans outstanding during the whole of 2018:
Rs. m
9% loan repayable 2019 15
11% loan repayable 2022 24
SL began construction of a qualifying asset on 1 April 2018 and withdrew funds of Rs. 6 million on that
date to fund construction. On 1 August 2018 an additional Rs. 2 million was withdrawn for the same
purpose.
Calculate the borrowing costs which can be capitalised in respect of this project for the year ended 31
December 2018.
10. Jazz Limited (JL) has borrowed Rs. 24 million to finance the building of a factory. Construction is
expected to take two years.
The loan was drawn down and incurred on 1 January 2019 and work began on 1 March 2019. Rs. 10
million of the loan was not utilized until 1 July 2019 so JL was able to invest it until needed. JL is paying
8% on the loan and can invest surplus funds at 6%.
Calculate the borrowing costs to be capitalised for the year ended 31 December 2019 in respect of this
project.
11. A company has the following loans in place throughout the year ended 31 December 2018.
Rs. m
10% bank loan 140
8% bank loan 200
On 1 July 2018 Rs. 50 million was drawn down for construction of a qualifying asset which was
completed during 2019.
What amount should be capitalised as borrowing costs at 31 December 2018 in respect of this asset?
12. An entity purchased an investment property on 1 January 2013 for a cost of Rs. 35m. The property had
an estimated useful life of 50 years, with no residual value, and at 31 December 2015 had a fair value
of Rs. 42m.
On 1 January 2016 the property was sold for net proceeds of Rs. 40m.
Calculate the profit or (loss) on disposal under both the cost and fair value (FV) model.
13. An investment property with a useful life of 10 years was purchased by Akram Limited on 1 January
2019 for Rs. 200 million. By 31 December 2019 the fair value of the property had risen to Rs. 300
million. Akram Limited measures its investment properties under the fair value model.
What values would go through the statement of profit or loss in the year?
14. Which of the following properties owned by an entity would be classified as an investment property?
(a) A property that had been leased to a tenant, but which is no longer required and is now being
held for resale
(b) Land purchased for its investment potential. Planning permission has not been obtained for
building construction of any kind
(c) A new office building used as entity’s head office, purchased specifically in order to exploit its
capital gains potential
(d) A bungalow used for executive training
15. Sarfraz Limited (SL) uses fair value accounting where possible and has an office building used by SL
for administrative purposes. At 1 April 2012 it had a carrying amount of Rs. 20 million and a remaining
life of 20 years. On 1 October 2012, the property was let to a third party and reclassified as an
investment property. The property had a fair value of Rs. 23 million at 1 October 2012, and Rs. 23.4
million at 31 March 2013.
What is the correct treatment when the above property is reclassified as an investment property?
16. A manufacturing entity receives a grant of Rs. 1,000,000 towards the purchase of a machine on 1
January 2013. The grant will be repayable if the entity sells the asset within 4 years, which it does not
intend to do. The asset has a useful life of 5 years.
What is the deferred income liability balance at 30 June 2013?
Rs. ___________
17. A company receives a government grant of Rs. 500,000 on 1 April 2017 to facilitate purchase on the
same day of an asset which costs Rs. 750,000. The asset has a five-year useful life and is depreciated
on a 30% reducing balance basis. Company policy is to account for all grants received as deferred
income.
What amount of income will be recognized in respect of the grant in the year to 31 March 2019?
Rs. ___________
18. A manufacturing entity is entitled to a grant of Rs. 3 million for creating 50 jobs and maintaining them
for three years. Rs. 1.5m is received when the jobs are created and the remaining Rs. 1.5m is receivable
after three years, provided that the 50 jobs are still in existence. The entity creates 50 jobs at the
beginning of year one and there is reasonable assurance that this level of employment will be
maintained.
What is the deferred income balance at the end of the first year?
Rs. ___________
19. An entity uses funds from its general borrowings to build a new production facility. Details of the entity's
borrowings are shown below:
Rs.10 million 6% loan
Rs.6 million 8% loan
The entity used Rs.12 million of these funds to construct the facility, which was under construction for
the entire year.
How much interest should be capitalised as part of the cost of the asset?
Rs. ___________
20. Cool Limited acquired a building with a 40-year life for its investment potential for Rs. 8 million on 1
January 2013. At 31 December 2013, the fair value of the property was estimated at Rs. 9 million with
costs to sell estimated at Rs. 200,000.
If Cool Limited uses the fair value model for investment properties, what gain should be recorded in the
statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 2013?
Rs. ___________
22. If an entity receives a non-monetary asset as a grant, this is accounted for at the;
(a) Market value
(b) Fair value
(c) Net realizable value
(d) Present value
24. Which of the following is not a correct treatment of government grants related to an asset?
(a) Deferred income
(b) Credit to income in period received
(c) Deducting the grant from the carrying amount of the asset
(d) None of the above
25. Which of the following is not a correct treatment of government grants related to income?
(a) Present as. Other income
(b) Deduct from the related expense
(c) Deduct from the cost of the asset
(d) None of the above
26. Which of the following is not considered a “borrowing cost” under IAS 23?
(a) Interest expense calculated by the effective interest method
(b) Finance charges in respect of loan
(c) Exchange differences arising from foreign currency borrowings to the extent that they are
regarded as an adjustment to interest costs
(d) Principal repayments on a loan for property, plant and equipment
27. When activities to prepare an asset for its sale or use are suspended, borrowing costs must be?
(a) Capitalized
(b) Expensed
(c) Ignored
(d) Charged to equity
28. Which of the following is not a condition to commence capitalisation of borrowing costs?
(a) Expenditures are being incurred
(b) Borrowing costs are being incurred
(c) Repayment of borrowings has commenced
(d) Activities to produce the asset for its intended use or sale have commenced
29. Ghazi Limited (GL) is constructing an office building and is capitalising borrowing costs in accordance
with IAS 23. The office is almost complete; the only remaining work is to install furniture. Is GL allowed
to continue capitalising the borrowing costs?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Don’t know
(d) None of the above
30. Which of the following is not a “qualifying asset” under IAS 23?
(a) Mass produced inventory
(b) Manufacturing plants
(c) Made to order inventory
(d) Investment property
31. Under IAS 40 – Investment Property, where should a gain or loss on disposal be recognized?
(a) Statement of Financial Position
(b) Profit and loss statement
(c) Statement of changes in equity
(d) None
32. If an entity uses part of a building for their own use, and rents the remainder. How should this be treated?
(a) All as investment property under IAS 40 – Investment Property
(b) All under IAS 16 – Property, Plant and Equipment
(c) Account for separately under ‘IAS - 16 Property, Plant and Equipment’ and ‘IAS - 40 Investment
Property’
(d) None of these
34. If an entity wishes to change from a cost model to fair value model under IAS 40 – Investment Property,
when may it do so?
(a) When the board of directors approves a change
(b) When the value of the assets will improve with a revised model
(c) When a change will result in a more appropriate presentation
(d) When the market for these properties is fluctuation
35. Which two of the following properties fall under the definition of investment property and therefore within
the scope of IAS 40?
(a) Property occupied by an employee paying market rent
(b) A building owned by an entity and leased out under an operating lease
(c) Property being constructed on behalf of 3rd parties
(d) Land held for long term appreciation
02. (c) The grant can be treated as deferred income or deducted from the carrying amount
of the asset. It cannot be credited directly to profit or loss.
04. (b, c) Item a is incorrect as the deferred income method can be used.
Item d is incorrect as any repayment is corrected in the current period, not
retrospectively.
05. (a, b) Borrowing costs must be capitalised if they are directly attributable to qualifying
assets, which are assets that take a substantial time to complete. Capitalization
should cease once substantially all the activities to prepare the asset are complete.
08. (b) Temporary investment income earned during the construction period should be
netted off the amount capitalised.
However, the interest was earned prior to the period of construction. Therefore the
investment income earned should be taken to the statement of profit or loss as
investment income.
1,400,000
12. (a) Under the cost model the property will be depreciated over 50 years for 3 years up to
the date of disposal. Therefore, at the disposal date the carrying value would have
been Rs. 35m – (Rs. 35m/50 × 3 years) = Rs. 32.9m and the profit on disposal Rs.
7.1m (Rs. 40m – Rs. 32.9).
Under the fair value model the property will not be depreciated hence the loss on
disposal would be Rs. 2m (Rs. 40m – Rs. 42m).
13. (c) Under the fair value model the property will not be depreciated hence the gain on
valuation would be Rs. 100 million (Rs. 300 million – Rs. 200 million).
14. (b) Asset A would be classed as a non-current asset held for sale under IFRS 5. Assets
C and D would both be classified as property, plant and equipment under IAS 16.
15. (a) As SL uses the fair value model for investment properties, the asset should be
revalued to fair value before being classed as an investment property. The gain on
revaluation should be taken to other comprehensive income, as the asset is being
revalued while held as property, plant and equipment.
At 1 October, the carrying amount of the asset is Rs. 19.5 million, being Rs. 20 million
less 6 months’ depreciation. As the fair value at 1 October is Rs. 23 million, this leads
to a Rs. 3,500,000 gain which will be recorded in other comprehensive income.
16. Rs. 900,000 The grant should be released over the useful life, not based on the possibility of the
item being repaid. Therefore, the Rs. 1m should be released over 5 years, being a
release of Rs. 200,000 a year. At 30 June 2013, 6 months should be released,
meaning Rs. 100,000 has been released (6/12 × Rs. 200,000). This leaves Rs.
900,000 in deferred income.
Rs.
18. Rs. 500,000 The total grant income is Rs. 3m, to be recognized over a three-year period. Annual
income is therefore Rs. 1m. At the end of the first year the entity has received Rs.
1.5m of which Rs. 1m has been recognized in the statement of profit or loss, leaving
Rs. 500,000 deferred into future periods.
20. Rs. The fair value gain of Rs. 1 million (Rs. 9m – Rs. 8m) should be taken to the statement
1,000,000 of profit or loss. Costs to sell are ignored and, since entity uses the fair value model,
no depreciation will be charged on the building.
21. (c)
22. (b)
23. (a)
24. (b)
25. (c)
26. (d)
27. (b)
28. (c)
29. (b)
30. (a)
31. (b)
32. (c)
33. (a)
34. (c)
CHAPTER
9
IAS 36: Impairment of assets
Contents
1 Impairment of assets
02. Which TWO of the following could be an indication that an asset may be impaired according to IAS 36
Impairment of Assets?
03. IAS 36 Impairment of Assets contains a number of examples of internal and external events which
may indicate the impairment of an asset.
In accordance with IAS 36, which of the following would definitely NOT be an indicator of the potential
impairment of an asset (or group of assets)?
(c) A significant change in the technological environment in which an asset is employed making
its software effectively obsolete
(d) The carrying amount of an entity’s net assets being below the entity’s market capitalisation
04. A fire at the factory on 1 October 2016 damaged the machine, leaving it with a lower operating
capacity. The accountant considers that entity will need to recognise an impairment loss in relation to
this damage. The accountant has ascertained the following information at 1 October 2016:
§ The carrying amount of the machine is Rs.60,750.
§ An equivalent new machine would cost Rs.90,000.
§ The machine could be sold in its current condition for a gross amount of Rs.45,000.
Dismantling costs would amount to Rs.2,000.
§ In its current condition, the machine could operate for three more years which gives it a value
in use figure of Rs.38,685.
What is the total impairment loss associated with the above machine at 1 October 2016?
(a) [Link]
(b) Rs.17,750
(c) Rs.22,065
(d) Rs.15,750
(a) Advances in the technological environment in which an asset is employed have an adverse
impact on its future use.
(b) An increase in interest rates which increases the discount rate an entity uses.
(c) The carrying amount of an entity’s net assets is higher than the entity’s number of shares in
issue multiplied by its share price.
(d) The estimated net realisable value of inventory has been reduced due to fire damage
although this value is greater than its carrying amount.
(a) Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset, excluding finance costs and
income tax expense
(b) Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset, plus finance costs, but
excluding income tax expense
(c) Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset, plus finance costs and
income tax expense
(d) Incremental costs, directly attributable to the disposal of an asset, plus tax expense, but
excluding finance costs
(a) Its carrying amount equals the amount to be recovered through use (or sale) of the asset
(b) Its carrying amount exceeds the amount to be recovered through use (or sale) of the asset
(c) The amount to be recovered through use (or sale) of the asset exceeds its carrying amount
(b) The discounted present value of future cash flows arising from use of the asset and from its
disposal.
(c) The higher of an asset’s fair value less cost to sell and its market value.
(d) The amount at which an asset is recognized in the statement of financial position.
(a) Inventories.
(b) Financial assets including property plant and equipment and intangible assets
10. In accordance with IAS 36 Impairment of Assets which of the following statements are true?
1. An impairment review must be carried out annually on all intangible assets.
2. If the fair value less costs to sell of an asset exceed the carrying amount there is no need to
calculate a value in use.
3. Impairment is charged to the statement of profit or loss unless it reverses a gain that has been
recognised in equity in which case it is offset against the revaluation surplus.
(a) All three
(c) The higher of fair value less costs of disposal and value in use
12. A machine has a carrying amount of Rs. 850,000 at the year end of 31 March 2019. Its market value
is Rs. 780,000 and costs of disposal are estimated at Rs. 25,000. A new machine would cost Rs.
1,500,000. The company which owns the machine expects it to produce net cash flows of Rs. 300,000
per annum for the next three years. The company has a cost of capital of 8%.
What is the impairment loss on the machine to be recognised in the financial statements at 31 March
2019?
13. IAS 36 Impairment of Assets suggests how indications of impairment might be recognised.
Which TWO of the following would be external indicators that one or more of an entity's assets may
be impaired?
(a) An unusually significant fall in the market value of one or more assets
(d) An increase in market interest rates used to calculate value in use of the assets
15. When calculating the estimates of the future cash flows, which of the following cash flows should not
be included?
(c) Cash flows from the sale of assets produced by the asset.
Rs. ___________
17. The following information relates to four assets held by the company:
A B C D
Rs.m Rs.m Rs.m Rs.m
Carrying amount 240 60 80 140
Value in use 160 140 160 40
Fair value less costs to sell 180 80 140 60
Rs. ___________
18. A vehicle was involved in an accident exactly halfway through the year. The vehicle cost Rs. 10 million
and had a remaining life of 10 years at the start of the year. Following the accident, the expected present
value of cash flows associated with the vehicle was Rs. 3.4 million and the fair value less costs to sell
was Rs. 6.5 million.
What is the recoverable amount of the vehicle following the accident?
Rs. ___________
19. Radium Limited (RL) acquired a non-current asset on 1 October 2019 at a cost of Rs. 100 million which
had a useful life of ten years and a nil residual value. The asset had been correctly depreciated up to
30 September 2024.
At that date the asset was damaged and an impairment review was performed. On 30 September 2024,
the fair value of the asset less costs to sell was Rs. 30 million and the expected future cash flows were
Rs. 8.5 million per annum for the next five years.
The current cost of capital is 10% and a five year annuity of Rs. 1 per annum at 10% would have a
present value of Rs. 3.79.
What amount would be charged to profit or loss for the impairment of this asset for the year ended 30
September 2024?
Rs. ___________
20. Metal Limited (ML) owns an item of plant which has a carrying amount of Rs. 248 million as at 1 April
2013. It is being depreciated at 12.5% per annum on a reducing balance basis.
The plant is used to manufacture a specific product which has been suffering a slow decline in sales.
ML has estimated that the plant will be retired from use on 31 March 2017.
The estimated net cash flows from the use of the plant and their present values are:
Rs.000 Rs.000
252,000 214,600
On 1 April 2014, Metric had an offer from a rival to purchase the plant for Rs. 200 million
At what value should the plant appear in Metric’s statement of financial position as at 31 March 2014?
Rs. ___________
(d) Inventories
(a) Goodwill
(a) Immediately
(a) The undiscounted present value of future cash flows expected to arise from continuing use of
asset, and from its disposal at the end of its useful life.
(b) The undiscounted future value of present cash flows expected to arise from continuing use of
asset, and from its disposal at the end of its useful life.
(c) The discounted present value of future cash flows expected to arise from continuing use of
asset, and from its disposal at the end of its useful life.
(d) The discounted present value of historical cash flows expected to arise from continuing use of
asset, and from its disposal at the end of its useful life.
25. Which of the following element is not considered while computing value in use?
(a) expectations about possible variations in the amount or timing of those future cash flows
(b) the time value of money, represented by the current market risk-free rate of interest
(c) the price for bearing the uncertainty inherent in the asset
26. In measuring value in use, the discount rate used for discounting the cash flows should be the?
(a) Pre-tax rate that reflects the market assessment of time value of money and risks specific to
the asset
(b) Pre-tax rate that reflects the market assessment of time value of money and risks specific to
the entity’s competitors
(c) Post-tax rate that reflects the entity’s assessment of time value of money and risks specific to
the asset
(d) Pre-tax rate that reflects the entity’s assessment of time value of money and risks specific to
the asset
27. When the recoverable amount of an asset is less than its carrying value in the Statement of Financial
Position, the asset is?
(b) Flawed
(d) Impaired
(b) The higher of fair value less costs of disposal and value in use
31. Which of the following is not permitted as a cost to sell under IAS 36?
32. If the fair value less costs to sell for an asset cannot be determined, then recoverable amount is its?
33. Which of the following is the best evidence of an asset's fair value less costs to sell?
34. When calculating the estimates of future cash flows which of the following cash flows should not be
included?
(c) Cash flows from the sale of inventory produced by the asset
02. (c) & (d) A decrease in interest rates would reduce the discount applied to future cash
flows in calculating the value in use, therefore increasing the value in use. An
increase in market values will lead to the asset value increasing rather than
being impaired.
03. (d) The entity’s market capitalisation would not be reflected within the values on the
statement of financial position.
04. (b) Value in use of Rs.38,685 is lower than fair value less costs to sell of Rs.43,000,
so recoverable amount is Rs.43,000 and impairment is Rs.60,750 – Rs.43,000
= Rs.17,750.
05. (d) Although the estimated net realisable value is lower than it was (due to fire
damage), the entity will still make a profit on the inventory and thus it is not an
indicator of impairment.
06. (a) Tax and finance costs are not cost of disposal.
07. (b) Asset may not be impaired even after damage. Impairment loss is excess of
carrying amount over recoverable amount.
09. (d) (a), (b) and (c) are excluded from scope of IAS 36 as the prudence mechanism
is already incorporated in the relevant standards of these items.
10. (d) Item 1 is untrue. An annual impairment review is only required for intangible
assets with an indefinite life.
11. (c) The higher of fair value less costs of disposal and value in use.
12. (a)
Value in use:
Rs. 773,130
14. (c)
Rs.
15. (b) Cash flows related to taxations are ignored while calculating value in use.
17. Rs. 140 million 60 + Nil + Nil +80 = Rs. 140 million
18. Rs. 6.5 million The recoverable amount of an asset is the higher of its value in use (being the
present value of future cash flows) and fair value less costs to sell. Therefore
the recoverable amount is Rs. 6.5 million.
Carrying amount 50
The recoverable amount is the higher of fair value less costs to sell (Rs. 30
million) and the value in use (Rs. 8.,5 x 3.79 = Rs. 32.215). Recoverable
amount is therefore Rs. 32.215.
Rs. m
Carrying amount 50
20. Rs. Is the lower of its carrying amount (Rs. 217 million) and recoverable amount
214,600,000 (Rs. 214.6 million) at 31 March 2015.
Recoverable amount is the higher of value in use (Rs. 214.6 million) and fair
value less costs to (Rs. 200 million).
Carrying amount = Rs. 217 million (248 million – (248 million × 12.5%))
Value in use is based on present values = Rs. 214.6 million
21. (b)
22. (c)
23. (a)
24. (c)
25. (d)
26. (a)
27. (d)
28. (b)
29. (c)
30. (b)
31. (c)
32. (c)
33. (b)
34. (d)
CHAPTER
10
IFRS 15: Revenue from contracts
with customers
Contents
1 IFRS 15: Revenue from contracts with customers
2 IFRS 15: The five step model
3 Other aspects of IFRS 15
4 Examinable Examples of IFRS 15
5 Objective based questions and answers
w
© Emile Woolf International 469 The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Pakistan
145
Chapter 10: IFRS 15: Revenue from contracts with customers
(d) Allocate the transaction price to the performance obligations in the contract.
02. Whale Limited (WL) is an agent who works on behalf of Dolphin, a famous performer. WL has just
collected Rs. 100 million from a promoter in terms of ticket sales for a recent show done by Dolphin.
WL earns commission of 10% in relation to Dolphin's work.
What is the correct double entry for the receipt of the Rs? 100 million?
03. Coin Limited (CL) sells a specialized piece of equipment to Orbit Limited on 1st September 2017 for
Rs. 4m. Due to the specialized nature of the equipment, CL has additionally agreed to provide a support
service for the next two years. The cost per annum to CL of providing this service will be Rs. 300,000.
CL usually earns a gross margin of 20% on such contracts.
What revenue should be included in the statement of profit or loss of CL for the year ended 31 December
2017?
04. River Limited (RL) has prepared its draft financial statements for the year ended 30 September 2014.
It has included the following transactions in revenue at the amounts stated below.
Which of these has been correctly included in revenue according to IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts
with Customers?
(a) Agency sales of Rs. 2.5 million on which RL is entitled to a commission of 10%.
(b) Sale proceeds of Rs. 20 million for motor vehicles which were no longer required by RL
(c) Sales of Rs. 15 million on 30 September 2014. The amount invoiced to and received from the
customer was Rs. 18 million, which includes Rs. 3 million for ongoing servicing work to be done
by RL over the next two years.
(d) Sales of Rs. 20 million on 1 October 2013 to an established customer who (with the agreement
of RL) will make full payment on 30 September 2015. RL has a cost of capital of 10%.
05. Cat Limited (CL) sold and installed an item of machinery for Rs. 800,000 on 1 November 2017. Included
within the price was 2 years servicing contract which has a value of Rs. 240,000 and a fee for installation
of Rs. 50,000.
How much should be recorded in CL’s revenue in its statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31
December 2017 in relation to the machinery sale?
06. Sales director of a company is close to selling a machine which it sells for Rs. 650,000, offering free
service, therefore selling the entire machine for Rs. 560,000 including installation. The company never
sells servicing separately.
How should this discount be applied in relation to the sale of the machinery?
07. Cheetah Limited (CL) works as an agent for a number of smaller contractors, earning commission of
10%. CL’s revenue includes Rs. 6 million received from clients under these agreements with Rs. 5.4
million in cost of sales representing the amount paid to the contractors.
What adjustment needs to be made to revenue in respect of the commission sales?
08. An entity regularly sells Products A, B and C individually, thereby establishing the following stand-alone
selling prices:
Product A 40
Product B 55
Product C 45
In addition, the entity regularly sells Products B and C together for Rs. 60.
The entity enters into a contract with a customer to sell Products A, B and C in exchange for Rs. 100.
Allocate the transaction price of Rs. 100 to Product A, B and C in accordance with IFRS 15
09. An entity enters into a contract with a customer to sell Products A, B and C in exchange for Rs. 100.
Product A 50
Product B 25
Product C 75
Total 150
Allocate the transaction price of Rs. 100 to Product A, B and C in accordance with IFRS 15
10. Which of the following items has correctly been included in Hakeem Limited (HL)’s revenue for the year
to 31 December 2011?
(a) Rs. 2 million in relation to a fee negotiated for an advertising contract for one of HL’s clients. HL
acted as an agent during the deal and is entitled to 10% commission.
(b) Rs. 500,000 relating to a sale of specialized equipment on 31 December 2011. The full sales
value was Rs. 700,000 but Rs. 200,000 relates to servicing that HL will provide over the next 2
years, so HL has not included that in revenue this year.
(c) Rs. 800,000 relating to a sale of some surplus land owned by HL.
(d) Rs. 1 million in relation to a sale to a new customer on 31 December 2011. Control passed to the
customer on 31 December 2011. The Rs. 1 million is payable on 31 December 2013. Interest
rates are 10%.
11. Hover Limited (HL) is a car retailer. On 1 April 2014, HL sold a car to a customer on the following terms:
The selling price of the car was Rs. 25.3 million. The customer paid Rs. 12.65 million (half of the cost)
on 1 April 2014 and will pay the remaining Rs. 12.65 million on 31 March 2016 (two years after the
sale). The customer can obtain finance at 10% per annum.
What is the total amount which HL should credit to profit or loss in respect of this transaction in the year
ended 31 March 2015?
12. Determining the amount to be recognized in the first year of a long term contract with a customer is an
example of which step in the IFRS 15’s 5-step model?
13. X Limited wins a competitive bid to provide consulting services to a new customer. X Limited incurred
the following costs to obtain the contract:
Rs.
Commissions to sales employees for winning the contract 10,000
External legal fees for due diligence 15,000
Travel costs to deliver proposal 25,000
Total costs incurred 50,000
How to recognize the above costs?
14. On 1 January 2019, an entity enters into a non-cancellable contract to transfer a product to a customer
on 31 March 2019. The contract requires the customer to pay consideration of Rs. 1,000 in advance on
31 January 2019 but the customer pays the consideration on 1 March 2019. The entity transfers the
product on 31 March 2019.
What journal entry is required to be passed on 31 January 2019?
(b) Debit Cash Rs. 1,000 and Credit Contract liability Rs. 1,000
(c) Debit Receivables Rs. 1,000 and Credit Contract liability Rs. 1,000
(d) Debit Receivables Rs. 1,000 and Credit Revenue Rs. 1,000
15. An entity enters into 100 contracts on 31 December 2017 with customers. Each contract includes the
sale of one product for Rs.100.
Cash is received when control of a product transfers. The entity’s customary business practice is to
allow a customer to return any unused product within 30 days and receive a full refund. The entity’s
cost of each product is Rs. 60.
Using the expected value method, the entity estimates that 97 products will not be returned. The entity
estimates that the costs of recovering the products will be immaterial and expects that the returned
products can be resold at a profit.
What should be recognized in respect of above?
16. Mechanical Limited (ML) sells machines, and also offers installation and technical support services. The
individual selling prices of each product are shown below.
Sale price of goods Rs. 75,000
Installation Rs. 30,000
One-year service Rs. 45,000
ML sold a machine on 1 May 2011, charging a reduced price of Rs. 100,000 including installation and
one year’s service. ML only offers discounts when customers purchase a package of products together.
According to IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, how much should ML record in revenue
for the year ended 31 December 2011?
Rs. ___________
17. Car Limited (CL) sold a large number of vehicles spare parts to a new customer for Rs. 10 million on 1
July 2017. The customer paid Rs. 990,000 up front and agreed to pay the remaining balance on 1 July
2018. CL has a cost of capital of 6%.
How much should initially be recorded in revenue in respect of the sale of vehicles spare parts in the
statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December 2017?
Rs. __________
18. Golden Limited enters into a contract with a major chain of retail stores. The customer commits to buy
at least Rs.20m of products over the next 12 months. The terms of the contract require Golden Limited
to make a payment of Rs.1 m to compensate the customer for changes that it will need to make to its
retail stores to accommodate the products.
By the 31 December 2011, Golden Limited has transferred products with a sales value of Rs.4m to the
customer.
How much revenue should be recognized by Golden Limited in the year ended 31 December 2011?
Rs. ___________
19. Silver Limited sells a machine and one year’s free technical support for Rs. 100,000. It usually sells the
machine for Rs. 95,000 but does not sell technical support for this machine as a standalone product.
Other support services offered by Silver Limited attract a markup of 50%. It is expected that the technical
support will cost Silver Limited Rs. 20,000.
How much of the transaction price should be allocated to the technical support?
Rs. ___________
20. Jupiter Limited (JL) entered into a two-year contract on 1 January 2017, with a customer for the
maintenance of computer network. JL has offered the following payment options:
Option 1: Immediate payment of Rs. 200,000.
Option 2: Payment of Rs. 110,000 at the end of each year.
The applicable discount rate is 6.596%.
What amount of revenue should be recognized under option 2 on 31 December 2017?
Rs. ___________
21. Which two standards have been replaced by IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers?
22. The accounting principle applied by IFRS 15 when determining whether or not revenue should be
recognized in respect of a repurchase agreement is:
(a) Prudence
(b) Relevance
(d) Verifiability
23. With regard to the definition of revenue given by IFRS 15, which of the following statements is true?
(c) Revenue may arise from either ordinary activities or extraordinary activities
24. Identifying contract with customer under IFRS 15, a contract with customer exist when all the following
criteria are met when;
(a) It is approved and enforceable, can identify each party rights, payment terms, and probable to
collect consideration
(b) It is approved, can identify each party rights, payment terms, has commercial substance and
probable to collect consideration
(c) It is approved and enforceable, can identify each party rights, has commercial substance and
probable to collect consideration
(d) It is approved, can identify payment terms, has commercial substance and probable to collect
consideration
25. Step 1, “identifying the contract” of IFRS 15 states that certain conditions must be satisfied before an
entity can account for a contract with a customer. Which of the following is not one of these conditions?
(a) Each party's rights with regard to the goods or services concerned can be identified
(c) The entity and the customer have approved the contract and are committed to perform their
contractual obligations
(d) It is certain that the entity will collect the consideration to which it is entitled
26. Step two requires the identification of the separate performance obligations in the contract. This is often
referred to as unbundling and is done at beginning of a contract. What is the key factor in identifying a
separate performance obligation?
27. Step three requires the entity to determine the transaction price. This is the amount of consideration
that an entity expects to be entitled to in exchange for the promised goods or services. The transaction
price might include variable or contingent consideration. How does the entity estimate the amount of
the variable consideration?
(a) The expected value or the most likely amount whichever best predicts the consideration
(b) The lower of the expected value or the most likely amount
(c) The choice of the expected value or the most likely amount
(d) The higher of the expected value or the most likely amount
28. Step 4 requires the allocation of the transaction price to separate performance obligations. The
allocation is based on the relative standalone selling prices of the goods or services promised and are
made at inception of the contract. It is not adjusted to reflect subsequent changes in the standalone
selling prices of those goods or services. What is the best evidence of standalone selling price?
(b) The observable price of a good or service when the entity sells that good or service separately
29. Step 5 allows an entity to recognize revenue when (or as) each performance obligation is satisfied.
Revenue is recognized in line with the pattern of transfer. If an entity does not satisfy its performance
obligation over time, it satisfies it at a point in time and revenue will be recognized when control is
passed at that point in time. Which of the following factors may not indicate the passing of control?
(c) The entity has physical possession but has transferred a portion of the economic risks
30. Which of the following is true regarding discounts offered on a bundle of products/services?
(a) The discount should be applied across each performance obligation in the contract
(c) The discount should be applied to the largest component of the contract
31. An entity can only include variable consideration in the transaction price to the extent that it is highly
probable that a subsequent change in the estimated variable consideration will not result in a significant
revenue reversal. What action should the entity take if it is not appropriate to include all of the variable
consideration in the transaction price?
(a) The entity should not include any of the variable consideration
(b) The entity can use its judgment in all matters such as this
(c) The entity should assess whether it should include part of the variable consideration subject to
the revenue reversal test
(d) The entity should assess whether it should include part of the variable consideration without the
need to use the revenue reversal test
32. Which one of the following condition is not allow when performance condition to be satisfied over time?
(a) the customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits provided by the entity’s
performance as the entity performs
(b) the entity’s performance creates or enhances an asset that the customer controls as the asset is
created or enhance
(c) they customer has paid the consideration in advance and goods / services are still to be received
(d) the entity’s performance does not create an asset with an alternative use to the entity
33. In general, contract costs incurred in relation to a contract with a customer must be:
(b) Recognized as an asset if they relate to a performance obligation which has been satisfied
(d) Recognized as an asset if they relate to a performance obligation which has not yet been satisfied
34. A company enters into a construction contract to build a warehouse for a customer. The agreed price
is Rs.20 million and the specified completion date is 31 October 2020. However, the contract provides
that the company should receive an incentive payment of a further Rs.2.5 million if the warehouse is
completed before 30 June 2020. Similarly, the price will be reduced by Rs. 2 million if the warehouse is
not completed until after 31 December 2020.
The company estimates that there is a 15% probability that the warehouse will be completed before 30
June 2020, an 80% probability that it will be completed by 31 October 2020 and a 5% probability that it
will not be completed until after 31 December 2020.
What is the expected value of the transaction price for this contract?
02. (d) As an agent, WL should only record the commission of Rs. 10 million in revenue.
As the cash has been received, WL must record that in cash and create a payable
for Rs. 90 million to Dolphin.
03. (c) There are two performance obligations here. The sale of the equipment should
be recognizing at a point in time, and the revenue in relation to the support should
be recognized over time. The services element costs Rs. 300,000 a year.
As CL makes a margin of 20% a year, this would be sold for Rs. 375,000 per year
(300,000 × 100/80). Therefore, the total revenue on the service for 2 years = Rs.
375,000 × 2 = Rs. 750,000.
The revenue on the goods = Rs.4m – Rs. 750,000 = Rs. 3,250,000.
The revenue in relation to the service is released over 2 years.
By 31 December, 4 months of the service has been performed so can be
recognized in revenue (Rs. 375,000 × 4/12 = Rs. 125,000).
Therefore, the total revenue = Rs.3,250,000 + Rs.125,000 = Rs.3,375,000
04. (c) Although the invoiced amount is Rs. 180,000, Rs. 30,000 of this has not yet been
earned and must be deferred until the servicing work has been completed. This
is only correct inclusion in sales.
05. (d) The revenue in relation to the installation and the machine itself can be
recognized, with the revenue on the service recognized over time as the service
is performed. The service will be recognized over the 2-year period. By 31
December 2017, 2 months of the service has been performed. Therefore, Rs.
20,000 can be recognized (Rs. 240,000 × 2/24). Total revenue is therefore Rs.
580,000, being the Rs. 800,000 less the Rs. 220,000 relating to the service which
has not yet been recognized.
06. (d) Discounts should be applied evenly across the components of a sale unless any
one element is regularly sold separately at a discount. As entity does not sell the
service and installation separately, the discount must be applied evenly to each
of the three elements.
07. (b) Revenue as an agent is made by earning commission. Therefore, the revenue on
these sales should only be Rs. 600,000 (10% of Rs. 6 million). As CL currently
has Rs. 6 million in revenue, Rs. 5.4 million needs to be removed, with Rs. 5.4
million also removed from cost of sales.
08. (c)
Product Allocated price
Product A 40 Remaining amount
Product B 33 (55/100 x Rs. 60)
Product C 27 (45/100 x Rs. 60)
Total 100
The entire discount relates to Product B and C as when Product A is added it total
stand-alone price has been added in the package price.
09. (b)
Product Allocated price
Product A 33 (Rs. 50 / Rs. 150 × Rs. 100)
Product B 17 (Rs. 25 / Rs. 150 × Rs. 100)
Product C 50 (Rs. 75 / Rs. 150 × Rs. 100)
Total 100
10. (b) For item (b) the sale of the goods has fulfilled a contractual obligation so the
revenue in relation to this can be recognized. The service will be recognized over
time, so the revenue should be deferred and recognized as the obligation is
fulfilled.
For item (a) HL acts as an agent, so only the commission should be included in
revenue.
For item (c) any profit or loss on disposal should be taken to the statement of
profit or loss. The proceeds should not be included within revenue.
For item (d) the Rs. 1 million should be initially discounted to present value as
there is a significant financing component within the transaction. The revenue
would initially be recognized at Rs. 826,000, with an equivalent receivable. This
receivable would then be held at amortized cost with finance income of 10% being
earned each year.
11. (d) At 31 March 2015, the deferred consideration of Rs. 12.65 million would need to
be discounted by 10% for one year to Rs. 11.5 million (effectively deferring a
finance cost of Rs. 1.15 million).
The total amount credited to profit or loss would be Rs. 24.15 million (12.65 million
+ 11.5 million).
13. (b) The commission to sales employees is incremental to obtaining the contract and
should be capitalized as a contract asset. The external legal fees and the
travelling cost are not incremental to obtaining the contract because they have
been incurred regardless of whether X Limited obtained the contract or not.
14. (c) The receivable is recorded when unconditional right to receive payment is
established and as entity has not performed its performance obligation yet; a
contract liability shall be recognized.
15. (c) Revenue Rs. 9,700 (97 x Rs. 100 for products expected to be not returned) and
remaining as contract liability.
16. Rs. 90,000 The discount should be allocated to each part of the bundled sale.
Applying the discount across each part gives revenue as follows:
Goods Rs. 50 (Rs. 75 × Rs. 100/Rs. 150)
Installation Rs. 20 (Rs. 30 × Rs. 100/Rs. 150)
Service Rs. 30 (Rs. 45 × Rs. 100/Rs. 150)
The revenue in relation to the goods and installation should be recognized on 1
May 2011.
As 8 months of the service has been performed (from 1 May to 31 December
2011), then Rs. 20 should be recognized (Rs. 30 × 8/12).
This gives a total revenue for the year of 50 + 20 + 20 = Rs. 90.
17. Rs. 9,490,000 The fact that CL has given the customer a year to pay on such a large amount
suggests there is a significant financing component within the sale. The Rs.
990,000 received can be recognized in revenue immediately. The remaining Rs.
9.01 million must be discounted to its present value of Rs. 8.5 million. This is then
unwound over the year, with the interest recognized as finance income.
Therefore, total initial revenue = Rs. 990,000 + Rs. 8,500,000 = Rs. 9,490,000.
18. Rs. 3,800,000 The payment made to the customer is not in exchange for a distinct good or
service. Therefore, the Rs.1m paid to the customer is a reduction of the
transaction price.
The total transaction price is being reduced by 5% (Rs.1m/Rs.20m).
Therefore, Golden Limited reduces the transaction price of each good by 5% as
it is transferred. By 31 December 2011, Golden Limited should have recognized
revenue of Rs.3.8m (Rs.4m × 95%).
19. Rs. 24,000 The selling price of the service would be Rs. 30,000 (Rs. 20,000 × 150%).
The total standalone selling prices of the machine and support are Rs. 125,000
(Rs. 95,000 + Rs. 30,000).
The transaction price allocated to the machine is Rs. 76,000 (Rs. 95,000 ×
100,000 / 125,000). The transaction price allocated to the technical support is
Rs.24, 000 (Rs.30, 000 × 100,000 / 125,000).
20. Rs. 110,000 No need to calculate present value under option 2 as cash is being received
exactly when performance obligation is being satisfied.
21. (d)
22. (c)
23. (d)
24. (b)
25. (d)
26. (b)
27. (a)
28. (b)
29. (c)
30. (a)
31. (c)
32. (c)
33. (d)
34. (b) (20 x 80%) + (22.5 x 15%) + (18 x 5%) = Rs. 20.275 million
CHAPTER
3
Consolidated Accounts:
Statements of Financial Position
-Basic Approach
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 The nature of a group and consolidated accounts
3 Consolidated statement of financial position
4 Consolidation adjusting entries
5 Objective based questions and answers
(a) The activities of the subsidiary are dissimilar to the activities of the rest of the group
(b) The subsidiary was acquired with the intention of reselling it after a short period of time
(c) The subsidiary is based in a country with strict exchange controls which make it difficult for it to
transfer funds to the parent
(d) There above three statements are not valid reasons for excluding a subsidiary from consolidation.
02. When negative goodwill arises IFRS 3 Business combinations requires that the amounts involved in
computing goodwill should first be reassessed.
When the amount of the negative goodwill has been confirmed, how should it be accounted for?
03. Which TWO of the following statements are correct when preparing consolidated financial statements?
(a) A subsidiary cannot be consolidated unless it prepares financial statements to the same reporting
date as the parent.
(b) A subsidiary with a different reporting date may prepare additional statements up to the group
reporting date for consolidation purposes.
(c) A subsidiary's financial statements can be included in the consolidation if the gap between the
parent and subsidiary reporting dates is five months or less.
(d) Where a subsidiary's financial statements are drawn up to a different reporting date from those
of the parent, adjustments should be made for significant transactions or events occurring
between the two reporting dates.
04. IFRS 10 Consolidated financial statements provides a definition of control and identifies three separate
elements of control.
Which one of the following is not one of these elements of control?
(b) The power to participate in the financial and operating policies of the investee
(c) Exposure to, or rights to, variable returns from its involvement with the investee
(d) The ability to use its power over the investee to affect the amount of the investor's returns
05. Chemist Limited (CL) owns 100% of the share capital of the following companies. The directors are
unsure of whether the investments should be consolidated.
In which of the following circumstances would the investment NOT be consolidated?
(a) CL has decided to sell its investment in Alpha Limited as it is loss-making; the directors believe
its exclusion from consolidation would assist users in predicting the group's future profits
(b) Beta Limited is a bank and its activity is so different from the engineering activities of the rest of
the group that it would be meaningless to consolidate it
(c) Delta Limited is located in a country where local accounting standards are compulsory, and these
are not compatible with IFRS used by the rest of the group
(d) Gamma Limited is located in a country where a military coup has taken place and CL has lost
control of the investment for the foreseeable future
06. Ahmad Hassan Limited acquired 70% of the Rs. 100 million equity share capital of Asar Limited, its only
subsidiary, for Rs. 200 million on 1 January 2019 when the retained earnings of Asar Limited were Rs.
156 million.
At 31 December 2019 retained earnings are as follows.
Rs. million
Ahmad Hassan Limited considers that goodwill on acquisition is impaired by 50%. Non-controlling
interest is measured at fair value, estimated at Rs. 82.8 million.
What are group retained earnings at 31 December 2019?
07. On 1 April 2010 Golden Limited acquired 75% of Silver Limited’s equity shares by means of a share
exchange and an additional amount payable on 1 April 2011 that was contingent upon the post-
acquisition performance of Silver Limited. At the date of acquisition Golden Limited assessed the fair
value of this contingent consideration at Rs. 4.2 million but by 31 March 2011 it was clear that the
amount to be paid would be only Rs. 2.7 million. How should Golden Limited account for this Rs. 1.5
million adjustments in its financial statements as at 31 March 2011?
08. On 31 July 2018 Parveen Limited acquired 60% of the 18 million Rs. 10 ordinary shares of Sidra Limited
for a sum of Rs. 432 million. Sidra Limited had accumulated profits at 1 January 2018 of Rs. 360 million
and during the year to 31 December 2018 made a profit of Rs. 108 million.
Fair value of non-controlling interest at the date of acquisition is Rs. 200 million
What is the goodwill that should appear in the consolidated statement of financial position at 31
December 2018?
09. Tanveer Limited acquired Tabeer Traders, an unincorporated entity, for Rs. 2.8 million. A fair value
exercise performed on Tabeer Traders’ net assets at the date of purchase showed:
Rs. 000
Inventory 300
4,000
How would the purchase be reflected in the consolidated statement of financial position?
(a) Record the net assets at their above values and credit profit or loss with Rs. 1.2 million
(b) Record the net assets at their above values and credit goodwill with Rs. 1.2 million
(c) Ignore the intangible asset (Rs. 500,000), recording the remaining net assets at their values
shown above and crediting profit or loss with Rs. 700,000
(d) Record the purchase as a financial asset investment at Rs. 2.8 million
10. Which of the following definitions is not included within the definition of control per IFRS 10 Consolidated
Financial Statements?
(b) Having exposure, or rights, to variable returns from its investment with the investee
(d) Having the ability to use its power over the investee to affect the amount of the investor’s returns
11. Sunshine Limited acquired 80% of the share capital of Sun Flower Limited on 1 January 2011. Part of
the purchase consideration was Rs. 200 million cash to be paid on 1 January 2014. The applicable cost
of capital is 10%.
What will the deferred consideration liability be at 31 December 2012?
12. Which TWO of the following situations are unlikely to represent control over an investee?
(b) Owning 51%, but the constitution requires that decisions need the unanimous consent of
shareholders
(c) Having currently exercisable options which would take the shareholding in the investee to 55%
(d) Owning 35% of the ordinary shares and 80% of the preference shares of the investee
13. Which of the following is not a condition which must be met for the parent to be exempt from producing
consolidated financial statements?
(a) The activities of the subsidiary are significantly different to the rest of the group and to consolidate
them would prejudice the overall group position
(b) The ultimate parent produces consolidated financial statements that comply with IFRS Standards
and are publicly available
(c) The parent’s debt or equity instruments are not traded in a public market
(d) The parent itself is a wholly owned subsidiary or a partially owned subsidiary whose owners do
not object to the parent not producing consolidated financial statements
14. Consolidated financial statements are presented on the basis that the companies within the group are
treated as if they are a single economic entity.
Which TWO of the following are requirements of preparing consolidated financial statements?
(a) All subsidiaries must adopt the accounting policies of the parent in their individual financial
statements
(b) Subsidiaries with activities which are substantially different to the activities of other members of
the group should not be consolidated
(c) All assets and liabilities of subsidiaries should be included at fair value
(d) Unrealised profits within the group must be eliminated from the consolidated financial statements
15. High Limited has a number of relationships with other companies. In which of the following relationships
is High Limited necessarily the parent?
(i) Fall Limited has 50,000 non-voting and 100,000 voting equity shares in issue with each share
receiving the same dividend. High Limited owns all of Fall Limited’s non-voting shares and
40,000 of its voting shares.
(ii) Low Limited has 1 million equity shares in issue of which High Limited owns 40%. High Limited
also owns Rs. 800,000 out of Rs. 1 million 8% convertible debentures issued by Low Limited.
These debentures may be converted on the basis of 40 equity shares for each Rs. 100 of
debentures, or they may be redeemed in cash at the option of the holder.
(iii) High Limited owns 49% of the equity shares in Middle Limited and 52% of its non-redeemable
preference shares. As a result of these investments, High Limited receives variable returns from
Middle Limited and has the ability to affect these returns through its power over Middle Limited.
16. On 1 March 2019, Qazi Limited acquired 70% of the share capital of Hijazi Limited at a cost of Rs. 387
million.
At that date the fair value of the net assets of Hijazi Limited were Rs. 450 million. Transaction costs
incurred in making the acquisition were Rs. 0.045 million. Qazi Limited has decided to account for the
business combination using the full goodwill or fair value method, by attributing some goodwill to the
non-controlling interests in Hijazi Limited. It is estimated that at 1 March 2019 the fair value of the non-
controlling interests in Hijazi Limited was Rs. 153 million.
What was the total amount of goodwill recognised on the acquisition of Hijazi Limited by Qazi Limited?
Rs. ___________
17. Sound Limited obtained a 60% holding in the 10 million Rs. 10 shares of Cloud Limited on 1 January
2018, when the retained earnings of Cloud Limited were Rs. 850 million.
Consideration comprised Rs. 250 million cash, Rs. 400 million payable on 1 January 2019 and one
share in Sound Limited for each two shares acquired. Sound Limited has a cost of capital of 8% and
the market value of its shares on 1 January 2018 was Rs. 23.
Sound Limited measures non-controlling interest at fair value. The fair value of the non-controlling
interest at 1 January 2018 was estimated to be Rs. 400 million.
What was the goodwill arising on acquisition?
Rs. ___________
18. On 1 August 2017 Magnesium Limited purchased 1.8 million of the 2.4 million Rs. 10 equity shares of
Copper Limited. The acquisition was through a share exchange of two shares in Magnesium Limited
for every three shares in Copper Limited. The market price of a share in Magnesium Limited at 1 August
2017 was Rs. 57.5.
Magnesium Limited will also pay in cash on 31 July 2019 (two years after acquisition) Rs. 24.2 per
acquired share of Copper Limited. Magnesium Limited's cost of capital is 10% per annum.
What is the amount of the consideration attributable to Magnesium Limited for the acquisition of Copper
Limited?
Rs. ___________
19. Big Limited acquired 70% of Small Limited's 10 million Rs. 10 ordinary shares for Rs. 800 million when
the retained earnings of Small Limited were Rs. 570 million and the balance in its revaluation surplus
was Rs. 150 million. The non-controlling interest in Small Limited was judged to have a fair value of Rs.
220 million at the date of acquisition.
What was the goodwill arising on acquisition?
Rs. ___________
20. Faiqa Limited acquired 75% of the 120,000 Rs. 10 ordinary shares in Saiqa Limited on 1 January
2014. At that date Saiqa Limited had accumulated profits of Rs. 700,000 and a share premium
account balance of Rs. 200,000. Faiqa Limited paid Rs. 1,680,000 for the shares in Saiqa Limited.
At 31 December 2017 Saiqa Limited had accumulated profits of Rs. 1,000,000 and Faiqa Limited had
accumulated profits of Rs. 1,600,000.
What are the consolidated accumulated profits as at 31 December 2017?
Rs. ___________
02. (c)
05. (d) Consolidation is not appropriate in this case as the parent has lost control.
06. (c)
Rs. million Rs. million
Consideration 200
NCI at fair value 82.8
Net assets:
Shares 100
Retained earnings 156 (256)
Goodwill 26.8
07. (d) This adjustment reduces (debits) the liability and credit it to retained
earnings. The remeasurement relates to the post-acquisition period, so
goodwill is not affected.
08. (b)
Rs. million
Cost of Investment 432
FV of NCI 200
632
Net assets acquired:
Share capital [18 x Rs. 10] 180
Opening accumulated profits 360
Profits up to 31 July (108 x 7/12) 63
603
Goodwill 29
09. (a) It is the correct treatment for a bargain purchase (negative goodwill)
10. (c) While having the majority of shares may be a situation which leads to control,
it does not feature in the definition of control per IFRS 10 Consolidated
Financial Statements.
12. (b) & (d) The fact that unanimous consent is required would suggest that there is no
control over the investee. Preference shares carry no voting rights and
therefore are excluded when considering the control held over an investee.
13. (a) The activities of the subsidiary are irrelevant when making the decision as
to whether to produce consolidated financial statements or not.
14. (c) & (d) While the same accounting policies must be used in the consolidated
financial statements, the subsidiaries do not have to operate the same
policies as the parent. Having different activities is not an acceptable reason
for non-consolidation
15. (c) High Limited only owns 40% of Fall Limited’s voting shares so is unlikely to
exercise control.
CHAPTER
4
Consolidated Accounts:
Statements of Financial Position -
Complications
Contents
1 Key Definition
2 Possible complications: Before consolidation
3 Possible complications: During consolidation
4 Possible complications: After consolidation
5 Objective based questions and answers
04. What is accounting treatment of acquisition related costs when goodwill is being measured at
acquisition?
(a) Added to cost of investment
(b) Deducted from cost of investment
(c) Charged as expense of parent entity
(d) Charged as expense of subsidiary entity
05. Haris Limited acquired 80% of the equity shares of Faris Limited on 1 July 2014, paying Rs. 300 for
each share acquired. This represented a premium of 20% over the market price of Faris Limited shares
at that date.
Faris Limited’s equity at 31 March 2015 comprised:
Rs. million Rs. million
Equity shares of Rs. 100 each 100
Retained earnings at 1 April 2014 80
Profit for the year ended 31 March 2015 40 120
220,000
The only fair value adjustment required to Faris Limited’s net assets on consolidation was a Rs. 20
million increase in the value of its land.
Haris Limited’s policy is to value non-controlling interests at fair value at the date of acquisition.
For this purpose the market price of Faris Limited’s shares at that date can be deemed to be
representative of the fair value of the shares held by the non-controlling interest.
What would be the carrying amount of the non-controlling interest of Faris Limited in the consolidated
statement of financial position of Haris Limited as at 31 March 2015?
06. IFRS Standards require extensive use of fair values when recording the acquisition of a subsidiary.
Which TWO of the following comments, regarding the use of fair values on the acquisition of a
subsidiary, are correct?
(a) The use of fair value to record a subsidiary’s acquired assets does not comply with the
historical cost principle.
(b) The use of fair values to record the acquisition of plant always increases consolidated post-
acquisition depreciation charges compared to the corresponding charge in the subsidiary’s
own financial statements.
(c) Cash consideration payable one year after the date of acquisition needs to be discounted to
reflect its fair value.
(d) When acquiring a subsidiary, the fair value of liabilities and contingent liabilities must also be
considered.
07. Wareesha Limited has an 80% subsidiary Irfan Limited. In the last month of the year, Wareesha
Limited sold inventory to Irfan Limited for Rs. 21.6 million making a mark-up of 20% on cost. The goods
are still held by Irfan Limited at the year end.
If Wareesha Limited has an inventory balance of Rs. 162 million and Irfan Limited has Rs. 108 million,
what will be the inventory figure in the consolidated statement of financial position?
08. Aliyan Limited is a subsidiary of Shaiq Limited. At the year-end Aliyan Limited has a current account
debit balance of Rs. 75 million, but Shaiq Limited has a current account credit balance of only Rs. 60
million.
Which of the following two reasons might explain the difference?
1. Shaiq Limited had posted a cheque for Rs. 15 million to Aliyan Limited on the last day of the year.
2. Aliyan Limited had despatched Rs. 15 million of inventory to Shaiq Limited on the last day of the year.
09. A holding company sold goods to its wholly owned subsidiary for Rs. 18 million representing cost plus
20%. At the year-end two-thirds of the goods were still in stock.
The unrealised profit in inventory is?
10. ABC Limited buys goods from its 75% owned subsidiary XYZ Limited. XYZ Limited earns a markup of
25% on such transactions. At the group’s year end, 30 June 2011 ABC Limited had not yet taken
delivery of goods, at a sales value of Rs. 10 million, which were dispatched by XYZ Limited on 29
June 2011.
What would be the impact on inventory in the consolidated statement of financial position of the ABC
Limited group at 30 June 2011?
11. Thal Limited owns 80% of the ordinary share capital of its subsidiary Cholistan Limited. At the group’s
year end, 28 February 2011, Thal Limited’s payables include Rs. 3.6 million in respect of inventories
sold by Cholistan Limited. Cholistan Limited’s receivables include Rs. 6.7 million in respect of
inventories sold to Thal Limited. Two days before the year end Thal Limited sent a payment of Rs. 3.1
million to Cholistan Limited that was not recorded by the latter until two days after the year end.
What is the entry that should be made to remove the intragroup transaction from the group accounts
apart from cancelling intra group balances?
12. P Limited transferred an item of plant to S Limited on 1 January 2013 for Rs. 30 million. The plant had
originally cost P Limited Rs. 30 million at 1 January 2011 and had a useful economic life of 10 years,
which is unchanged.
What is the unrealised profit on the plant at 31 December 2013?
13. Python Limited acquired 75% of the share capital of Snake Limited on 1 January 2011. On this date,
the net assets of Snake Limited were Rs. 80 million. The non-controlling interest was calculated using
fair value, which was calculated as Rs. 40 million at the date of acquisition. At 1 January 2013 the net
assets of Snake Limited were Rs. 120 million and goodwill had been impaired by Rs. 10 million.
What was the value of the non-controlling interest at 1 January 2013?
14. King Limited acquired 60% of Queen Limited's Rs. 100 million share capital on 1 January 2013, when
Queen Limited also had retained earnings of Rs. 120 million. King Limited paid Rs. 50 million cash,
and also agreed to pay a further Rs. 90 million on 1 January 2015. King Limited also gave the owners
of Queen Limited 1 King Limited share for every 2 shares of Queen Limited purchased.
The fair value of King Limited's shares were Rs. 40 on 1 January 2013, and Rs. 60 on 31 December
2013. At 31 December 2013 King Limited had retained earnings of Rs. 210 million and Queen Limited
had retained earnings of Rs. 110 million. King Limited has a cost of capital of 10%.
King Limited measures the non-controlling interest at fair value. The fair value of the non-controlling
interest at 1 January 2013 was Rs. 25 million.
The Par value per share is Rs. 10 each.
What is the total goodwill at 1 January 2013?
15. King Limited acquired 60% of Queen Limited's Rs. 100 million share capital on 1 January 2013, when
Queen Limited also had retained earnings of Rs. 120 million. King Limited paid Rs. 50 million cash
and agreed to pay a further Rs. 90 million on 1 January 2015. King Limited also gave the owners of
Queen Limited 1 King Limited share for every 2 shares of Queen Limited purchased.
The fair value of King Limited's shares were Rs. 40 on 1 January 2013, and Rs. 60 on 31 December
2013. At 31 December 2013 King Limited had retained earnings of Rs. 210 million and Queen Limited
had retained earnings of Rs. 110 million. King Limited has a cost of capital of 10%.
King Limited measures the non-controlling interest at fair value. The fair value of the non-controlling
interest at 1 January 2013 was Rs. 25 million.
What is the group retained earnings at 31 December 2013?
16. On 1 June 2011 Arsalan Limited acquired 80% of the equity share capital of Habib Limited. At the date
of acquisition, the fair values of Habib Limited's net assets were equal to their carrying amounts with
the exception of its property.
This had a fair value of Rs. 1.2 million below its carrying amount. The property had a remaining useful
life of eight years.
What effect will any adjustment required in respect of the property have on group retained earnings at
30 September 2011?
Rs. ___________
17. On 1 April 2017 Riyasat Limited acquired 116 million of Farasat Limited's 145 million ordinary shares
for an immediate cash payment of Rs. 210 million and issued at par one 10% Rs. 100 loan note for
every 200 shares acquired.
At the date of acquisition Farasat Limited owned a recently built property that was carried at its
depreciated construction cost of Rs. 62 million. The fair value of this property at the date of acquisition
was Rs. 82 million and it had an estimated remaining life of 20 years.
Farasat Limited also had an internally-developed brand which was valued at the acquisition date at
Rs. 25 million with a remaining life of 10 years.
The inventory of Farasat Limited at 31 March 2019 includes goods supplied by Riyasat Limited for a
sale price of Rs. 56 million. Riyasat Limited adds a mark-up of 40% on cost to all sales.
What is the total amount of the consideration transferred by Riyasat Limited to acquire the investment
in Farasat Limited?
Rs. ___________
18. On 1 April 2017 Riyasat Limited acquired 116 million of Farasat Limited's 145 million ordinary shares
for an immediate cash payment of Rs. 210 million and issued at par one 10% Rs. 100 loan note for
every 200 shares acquired.
At the date of acquisition Farasat Limited owned a recently built property that was carried at its
depreciated construction cost of Rs. 62 million. The fair value of this property at the date of acquisition
was Rs. 82 million and it had an estimated remaining life of 20 years.
Farasat Limited also had an internally-developed brand which was valued at the acquisition date at
Rs. 25 million with a remaining life of 10 years.
The inventory of Farasat Limited at 31 March 2019 includes goods supplied by Riyasat Limited for a
sale price of Rs. 56 million. Riyasat Limited adds a mark-up of 40% on cost to all sales.
What will be the amount of the adjustment to group retained earnings at 31 March 2019 in respect of
the movement on the fair value adjustments?
Rs. ___________
19. On 1 April 2017 Riyasat Limited acquired 116 million of Farasat Limited's 145 million ordinary shares
for an immediate cash payment of Rs. 210 million and issued at par one 10% Rs. 100 loan note for
every 200 shares acquired.
At the date of acquisition Farasat Limited owned a recently built property that was carried at its
depreciated construction cost of Rs. 62 million. The fair value of this property at the date of acquisition
was Rs. 82 million and it had an estimated remaining life of 20 years.
Farasat Limited also had an internally-developed brand which was valued at the acquisition date at
Rs. 25 million with a remaining life of 10 years.
The inventory of Farasat Limited at 31 March 2019 includes goods supplied by Riyasat Limited for a
sale price of Rs. 56 million. Riyasat Limited adds a mark-up of 40% on cost to all sales.
What is the amount of the unrealised profit arising from intragroup trading?
Rs. ___________
20. Samreen Limited has a 75% owned subsidiary Narmeen Limited. During the year Samreen Limited
sold inventory to Narmeen Limited for an invoiced price of Rs. 800,000. Narmeen Limited have since
sold 75% of that inventory on to third parties.
The sale was at a mark-up of 25% on cost to Samreen Limited. Narmeen Limited is the only subsidiary
of Samreen Limited.
What is the adjustment to inventory that would be included in the consolidated statement of financial
position of Samreen Limited at the year-end resulting from this sale?
Rs. ___________
13. (b) The NCI at 1 January is calculated by taking the NCI value at acquisition, plus the NCI
share of post-acquisition net assets, deducting the NCI share of any impairment: Rs.40
million + (25% × (Rs.120 million – Rs. 80 million)) – (25% × Rs.10 million) = Rs.47.5
million.
14. (a)
Rs. million
Cash consideration 50
Deferred consideration (Rs.90 × (1 ÷ 1.10 ^2)) 74.38
Share consideration (100/10 x 60% × 1/2 × Rs.40) 120
Noncontrolling interest at acquisition 25
Less: Net assets at acquisition (Rs.100 + Rs.120) (220)
Total goodwill 49.38
15. (c)
Rs. million
100% King Limited's retained earnings 210
Queen Limited's 60% × (Rs.110 – Rs.120) (6)
Unwinding discount (Rs.74.38 × 10%) (7.438)
196.562
CHAPTER
5
Consolidated Accounts:
Statements of Comprehensive Income
Contents
1 Consolidated statement of comprehensive income
2 Complications
3 Objective based questions and answers
02. On 1 July 2017, Hareem Limited acquired 60% of the equity share capital of Maneha Limited and on
that date made a Rs. 10 million loan to Maneha Limited at a rate of 8% per annum.
What will be the effect on group retained earnings at the year-end date of 31 December 2017 when
this intragroup transaction is cancelled?
03. Maaz Limited acquired 80% of Hamza Limited on 1 January 2018. At the date of acquisition Hamza
Limited had a building which had a fair value Rs. 22 million and a carrying amount of Rs. 20 million.
The remaining useful life was 20 years. At the year-end date of 30 June 2018, the fair value of the
building was Rs. 23 million. It is group policy to use revaluation model for its building.
Hamza Limited's profit for the year to 30 June 2018 was Rs. 1.6 million which accrued evenly
throughout the year.
Maaz Limited measures non-controlling interest at fair value. At 30 June 2018 it estimated that goodwill
in Hamza Limited was impaired by Rs. 500,000. It is group policy to use revolution model for its
buildings.
What is the total comprehensive income attributable to the non-controlling interest at 30 June 2018?
04. Asim Limited acquires 80% of the share capital of Arif Limited on 1 August 2016 and is preparing its
group financial statements for the year ended 31 December 2016.
How will Arif Limited’s results be included in the group statement of comprehensive income?
(a) 80% of Arif Limited’s revenue and expenses for the year ended 31 December 2016
(b) 100% of Arif Limited’s revenue and expenses for the year ended 31 December 2016
(c) 80% of Arif Limited’s revenue and expenses for the period 1 August 2016 to 31 December
2016
(d) 100% of Arif Limited’s revenue and expenses for the period 1 August 2016 to 31 December
2016
05. Which of the following would result in an unrealised profit within a group scenario?
(a) A parent sells a building originally costing Rs. 800,000 to its subsidiary for Rs. 900,000. The
subsidiary still holds this asset at the date of consolidation.
(b) A parent sells a building originally costing Rs. 800,000 to its subsidiary for Rs. 900,000. The
subsidiary has sold this asset before the date of consolidation.
(c) A parent sells goods which originally cost Rs. 14,000 to its subsidiary for Rs. 18,000. The
subsidiary has sold all of these goods at the date of consolidation.
(d) A parent sells goods which originally cost Rs. 14,000 to an associate for Rs. 18,000. The
associate has sold all of these goods at the date of consolidation.
06. Jerry Limited acquired an 80% holding in Tom Limited on 1 April 2016. From 1 April 2016 to 31
December 2016 Tom Limited sold goods to Jerry Limited for Rs. 4.3m at a mark-up of 10%. Jerry
Limited's inventory at 31 December 2016 included Rs. 2.2m of such inventory. The statements of
comprehensive income for each entity for the year to 31 December 2016 showed the following in
respect of cost of sales:
Jerry Limited Rs. 14.7m
Tom Limited Rs. 11.6m
What is the cost of sales figure to be shown in the consolidated statement of comprehensive income
for the year to 31 December 2016?
07. Sun Limited acquired a 60% holding in Moon Limited on 1 January 2016. At this date Moon Limited
owned a building with a fair value Rs. 200 million in excess of its carrying amount, and a remaining
life of 10 years.
All depreciation is charged to operating expenses. Goodwill had been impaired by Rs. 55 million in
the year to 31 December 2016. The balances on operating expenses for the year to 31 December
2017 are shown below:
Sun Limited Rs. 600 million
Moon Limited Rs. 350 million
What are consolidated operating expenses for the year to 31 December 2017?
08. A Limited acquired a 60% holding in B Limited on 1 July 2016. At this date, A Limited gave B Limited
a Rs. 500 million 8% loan. The interest on the loan has been accounted for correctly in the individual
financial statements.
The totals for finance costs for the year to 31 December 2016 in the individual financial statements
are shown below.
A Limited Rs. 200 million
B Limited Rs. 70 million
What are consolidated finance costs for the year to 31 December 2016?
09. Abeeha Limited has owned 80% of Seema Limited for many years. In the current year ended 30 June
2013, Abeeha Limited has reported total revenues of Rs. 5.5 million, and Seema Limited of Rs. 2.1
million. Abeeha Limited has sold goods to Seema Limited during the year with a total value of Rs. 1
million, earning a margin of 20%. Half of these goods remain in year-end inventories.
What is the consolidated revenue figure for the Abeeha group for the year ended 30 June 2013?
10. On 1 January 2014, Venice Limited acquired 80% of the equity share capital of Greece Limited.
Extracts of their statements of comprehensive income for the year ended 30 September 2014 are:
Venice Greece
Limited Limited
Rs. 000 Rs. 000
Revenue 64,600 38,000
Cost of sales (51,200) (26,000)
Sales from Venice Limited to Greece Limited throughout the year to 30 September 2014 had
consistently been Rs. 800,000 per month. Venice Limited made a mark-up on cost of 25% on these
sales.
Greece Limited had Rs. 1.5 million of these goods in inventory as at 30 September 2014.
What would be the cost of sales in Venice Limited’s consolidated statement of comprehensive income
for the year ended 30 September 2014?
11. Haris Limited has owned a 90% subsidiary Faris Limited for many years, but then purchased a 75%
subsidiary Suria Limited half way through this year. The revenue of each company is as follows:
During the year, Faris Limited sold goods to Haris Limited for Rs. 30 million. These items were then
sold outside of the group by Haris Limited just before the end of the year.
What is the consolidated revenue figure for the year?
12. Halim Limited owns 55% of Namal Limited. In 2018 Namal Limited made a profit after tax of Rs. 72
million. During the year Halim Limited sold goods costing Rs. 36 million to Namal Limited at a mark-
up of 40%. Two thirds of these goods had been sold outside of the group by the year end.
Calculate the non-controlling interest to be shown in the consolidated statement of comprehensive
income for 2018.
13. Two years ago, Burhan Limited purchased 60% of Hussain Limited and 10% of Meerab Limited.
Burhan Limited is not able to exert significant influence over its investment in Meerab Limited. Revenue
for the three companies for the year to 30th June 2010 was:
Burhan Limited Hussain Limited Meerab Limited
Rs. million Rs. million Rs. million
Revenue 180 144 108
The group revenue in the consolidated statement of comprehensive income is:
14. Hareem Limited and its subsidiary Maneha Limited have the following results for the year 2014.
Hareem Limited Maneha Limited
Rs. million Rs. million
Revenue 900 450
Cost of sales 450 234
Gross profits 450 216
During the year, Hareem Limited sold goods to Maneha Limited for Rs. 90 million making a profit of
Rs. 18 million.
None of these goods remain in inventories at the year end.
What will be shown as revenue and gross profit in the 2014 consolidated Statement of comprehensive
income?
(a) Revenue Rs. 1,260 million, Gross profit Rs. 666 million
(b) Revenue Rs. 1,260 million, Gross profit Rs. 648 million
(c) Revenue Rs. 1,350 million, Gross profit Rs. 756 million
(d) Revenue Rs. 1,350 million, Gross profit Rs. 666 million
15. Bilal Limited sells inventory costing Rs. 30 million to his subsidiary Sohail Limited for Rs. 45 million.
By the end of the year, Sohail Limited has just half of this inventory remaining.
If the sales of the two companies were: Rs. 150 million and Rs. 120 million respectively, and the cost
of sales were Rs. 75 million and Rs. 60 million calculate the consolidated revenue and gross profit for
the year.
(a) Revenue Rs. 225 million; Gross profit Rs. 127.5 million
(b) Revenue Rs. 270 million; Gross profit Rs. 127.5 million
(c) Revenue Rs. 225 million; Gross profit Rs. 120 million
(d) Revenue Rs. 270 million; Gross profit Rs. 120 million
16. Abrar Limited acquired 60% of Haq Limited on 1 March 2019. In September 2019 Abrar Limited sold
Rs. 46 million worth of goods to Haq Limited. Abrar Limited applies a 30% mark-up to all its sales.
25% of these goods were still held in inventory by Haq Limited at the end of the year.
An extract from the draft statements of profit or loss of Abrar Limited and Haq Limited at 31 December
2019 is:
Rs. ___________
17. Shahzad Limited acquired 80% of Roy Limited on 1 June 2011. Sales from Roy Limited to Shahzad
Limited throughout the year ended 30 September 2011 were consistently Rs. 1 million per month. Roy
Limited made a mark-up on cost of 25% on these sales. At 30 September 2011 Shahzad Limited was
holding Rs. 2 million inventory that had been supplied by Roy Limited in the post-acquisition period.
By how much will the unrealised profit decrease the profit attributable to the non-controlling interest
for the year ended 30 September 2011?
Rs. ___________
18. Akbar Limited has owned 70% of Hamayuon Limited for many years. It also holds a Rs. 5 million 8%
loan note from Hamayuon Limited. One of Hamayuon Limited's non-current assets has suffered an
impairment of Rs. 50,000 during the year. There is a balance in the revaluation surplus of Hamayuon
Limited of Rs. 30,000 in respect of this asset. The impairment loss has not yet been recorded.
The entity financial statements of Hamayuon Limited show a profit for the year of Rs. 1.3 million.
What is the amount attributable to the non-controlling interests in the consolidated statement of profit
or loss?
Rs. ___________
19. The following figures relate to Bushra Limited and its subsidiary Ansari Limited for the year ended 31
December 2015.
Rs. m
Bushra Limited 600
Ansari Limited 300
During the year Bushra Limited sold goods to Ansari Limited for Rs. 20 million making a profit of Rs.5
million. These goods were all sold by Ansari Limited before the year end.
What is the amount for total revenue in the consolidated statement of comprehensive income for
Bushra Limited for the year ended 31 December 2015?
Rs. ___________
20. Fahad Limited Ltd acquired 80% of the ordinary shares of Mustufa Limited on 31 December 2014
when Mustufa Limited’s retained earnings were Rs. 20 million. At 31st December 2015, Mustufa
Limited’s retained earnings stood at Rs. 25 million. Neither companies pay dividends or have made
any other reserve transfers.
Calculate the non-controlling interest in the consolidated statement of comprehensive income for the
year ended 31st December 2015.
Rs. ___________
02. (c)
Rs. '000
Total investment income (10m × 8% × 6/12) (400)
Intra group (400 × 60%) 240
Net reduction in group retained earnings (160)
03. (a)
Rs.
Profit to 30 June 2018 (1.6m × 6/12) 800,000
Additional depreciation on FVA ((2m/20) × 6/12) (50,000)
Goodwill impairment (500,000)
Other comprehensive income – revaluation gain 1,000,000
1,250,000
NCI share 20% 250,000
04. (d) All of Arif Limited’s revenue and expenses will be time-apportioned from the date of
acquisition to the date of consolidation to reflect the period for which these were controlled
by Asim Limited.
05. (a) The asset has not been sold outside of the group and therefore there is an unrealised profit
to adjust for on consolidation.
06. (d) Cost of sales = Rs. 14.7m + Rs. 8.7m (9/12 × Rs. 11.6m) – Rs. 4.3m (intra-group sale) +
Rs. 0.2m (PURP) = Rs. 19.3m
The PUP is Rs. 2.2m × 10/110 = Rs. 0.2m
07. (b) Operating expenses = Rs. 600 million + Rs. 350 million + Rs. 20 million (FV depreciation)
= Rs. 970 million
The only adjustments to the statement of comprehensive income should be the current
year income or expenses. Therefore, the prior year fair value depreciation and goodwill
impairment are ignored.
08. (b) The finance costs for the subsidiary must be time apportioned for six months, as A has
only owned them for that period of time. Also, the intra-group interest must be split out.
The intra-group interest would not have existed in the first half of the year, as the loan was
only given to B in July.
The intra-group interest for the second 6 months would have been Rs. 20 million (Rs. 500×
8% × 6/12). Without this, B’s finance costs would have been Rs. 50 million for the year.
Splitting this evenly across the year would mean that Rs. 25 million was incurred in each
six-month period.
Therefore, the total finance costs would be Rs. 20 million + Rs. 25 million = Rs. 225 million.
16. Rs.
717.463
Rs. million
million
Abrar Limited 547.7
Haq Limited (206.9 × 10/12) 172.417
PURP ((46 × 30 / 130) × 25%) (2.654)
717.463
CHAPTER
7
IAS 8: Accounting Policies, Changes in
Accounting Estimates and Errors
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 Accounting policies
3 Accounting estimates
4 Errors
5 Objective based questions and answers
02. In accordance with IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors how is
a change in accounting estimate accounted for?
(a) By changing the current year figures but not the previous years' figures
(b) By changing the current year figures and the previous years' figures
(c) No alteration of any figures but disclosure in the notes
(d) Neither alteration of any figures nor disclosure in the notes
03. According to IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors, how should
a material error in the previous financial reporting period be accounted for in the current period?
(a) By making an adjustment in the financial statements of the current period through the
statement of profit or loss, and disclosing the nature of the error in a note.
(b) By making an adjustment in the financial statements of the current period as a movement
on reserves, and disclosing the nature of the error in a note.
(c) By restating the comparative amounts for the previous period at their correct value, and
disclosing the nature of the error in a note.
(d) By restating the comparative amounts for the previous period at their correct value, but
without the requirement for a disclosure of the nature of the error in a note.
04. Which of these changes would be classified as ‘a change in accounting policy’ as determined by
IAS 8 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors?
(a) Increased the allowance for irrecoverable receivables from 5% to 10% of outstanding debts
(b) Changed the method of valuing inventory from FIFO to average cost
(c) Changed the depreciation of plant and equipment from straight line depreciation to
reducing balance depreciation
(d) Changed the useful life of motor vehicles from six years to four years
05. In which TWO of the following situations can a change in accounting policy be made by an entity?
(a) If the change is required by an IFRS
(b) If the entity thinks that a new accounting policy would be easier to report
(c) If a new accounting policy would show more favourable results
(d) If a new accounting policy results in more reliable and relevant presentation of events or
transactions
06. Which one of the following would be treated under IAS 8 Accounting policies, changes in accounting
estimates and errors as a change of accounting policy?
(a) A change in valuation of inventory from a weighted average to a FIFO basis
(b) A change of depreciation method from straight line to reducing balance
(c) Adoption of the revaluation model for non-current assets previously held at cost
(d) Capitalisation of borrowing costs which have arisen for the first time
07. Which of the following would be a change in accounting policy in accordance with IAS 8 Accounting
policies, changes in accounting estimates and errors?
(a) Adjusting the financial statements of a subsidiary prior to consolidation as its accounting
policies differ from those of its parent
(b) A change in reporting depreciation charges as cost of sales rather than as administrative
expenses
(c) Depreciation charged on reducing balance method rather than straight line
(d) Reducing the value of inventory from cost to net realisable value due to a valid adjusting
event after the reporting period
08. Which of the following items is a change of accounting policy under IAS 8 Accounting policies,
changes in accounting estimates and errors?
(a) Classifying commission earned as revenue in the statement of profit or loss, having
previously classified it as other operating income
(b) Switching to purchasing plant using leases from a previous policy of purchasing plant for
cash
(c) Changing the value of a subsidiary's inventory in line with the group policy for inventory
valuation when preparing the consolidated financial statements
(d) Revising the remaining useful life of a depreciable asset
09. The directors of Tom Limited are disappointed by the draft profit for the year ended 30 September
2013. The company's assistant accountant, Jerry, has suggested following:
A major item of plant that cost Rs. 20 million to purchase and install on 1 October 2010 is being
depreciated on a straight-line basis over a five-year period. On 1 October 2012, the production
manager believed that the plant was likely to last eight years in total (i.e. from the date of its
purchase).
Jerry believes that as the useful life estimate has increased, the previous years’ depreciation was
overstated and it depreciation expense should be reversed in current year leading to increased
profit.
What is the nature of the change being proposed by Jerry and how should it be applied?
(a) Change of accounting policy : Retrospective application
(b) Change of accounting policy : Prospective application
(c) Change of accounting estimate : Retrospective application
(d) Change of accounting estimate : Prospective application
11. Which TWO of the following would be treated as a change of accounting policy?
(a) Entity has received its first government grant and is applying the deferred income method.
(b) Entity has revalued its properties. Up to now they had all been carried at historical cost.
(c) Entity has reclassified development costs from other operating expenses to cost of sales.
(d) Entity has increased its irrecoverable debt allowance from 10% to 12%.
12. Correcting the recognition, measurement and disclosure of amounts in financial statements as if a
prior-period error had never occurred. This is:
(a) Retrospective restatement
(b) Retrospective application
(c) Change in accounting estimate
(d) Prospective restatement
13. Specific principles bases conventions rules and practices applied in presenting financial statements.
This defines:
(a) Accounting estimates
(b) Accounting policies
(c) Prospective application
(d) Accounting method
14. Adjustment of the carrying amount of an asset or a liability or the consumption of an asset as a
result of change in assessment. This defines:
(a) A change in accounting estimate
(b) Accounting policies
(c) Misstatements
(d) Correction of error
15. Applying a new policy to transactions as if that policy had always been applied. This is:
(a) Retrospective restatement
(b) Retrospective application
(c) Change in accounting estimate
(d) Prospective application
16. The directors of Tom Limited are disappointed by the draft profit for the year ended 30 September
2013. The company's assistant accountant, Jerry, has suggested following:
A major item of plant that cost Rs. 20 million to purchase and install on 1 October 2010 is being
depreciated on a straight-line basis over a five-year period. On 1 October 2012, the production
manager believed that the plant was likely to last eight years in total (i.e. from the date of its
purchase).
Jerry believes that as the useful life estimate has increased, the previous years’ depreciation was
overstated and it depreciation expense should be reversed in current year leading to increased
profit.
Adjusting for the change of useful life correctly, what will be the carrying amount of the plant at 30
September 2013?
Rs. ___________
17. Imad Textile Limited (ITL) purchased a plant on January 01, 2011 for Rs. 1,120,000. At this date
the useful life of the asset was estimated at 10 years after which it can be sold for Rs. 120,000.
However, during 2013 ITL estimates the remaining useful life of this plant as 6 years and expects
to fetch residual value of Rs. 170,000. ITL uses straight line method for depreciating such plants.
Calculate the amount of depreciation for the year ended on 31 December 2018.
Rs. ___________
18. A company is preparing its financial statements for the year ended 31 December 2019 and
discovered that in previous years following amounts were incorrectly capitalised in an intangible
asset with indefinite useful life.
Year Rs. m
2018 5
2017 4
2016 4
2015 3
The applicable tax rate is 30%.
What amount should be deducted from retained earnings in statement of changes in equity on 1
January 2018 for correction of above error?
Rs. ___________
19. A company is preparing its financial statements for the year ended 31 December 2019 and
discovered that in previous years following amounts were incorrectly capitalised in an intangible
asset with indefinite useful life.
Year Rs. m
2018 5
2017 4
2016 4
2015 3
The applicable tax rate is 30%.
Calculate the effect on profit after tax for the year ended 31 December 2018 correction of above
error.
Rs. ___________
20. Most of entity’s competitors value their inventory using the average cost (AVCO) basis, whereas the
entity uses the first in first out (FIFO) basis.
The value of inventory at 30 September 2013 (on the FIFO basis) is Rs. 20 million, however on the
AVCO basis it would be valued at Rs. 18 million. By adopting the same method (AVCO) as its
competitors. The inventory at 30 September 2012 was reported as Rs. 15 million, however on the
AVCO basis it would have been reported as Rs. 13.4 million.
What will be the effect of the change on profits for the year ended 30 September 2013?
Rs. ___________
02. (a) Change in accounting estimates results in alteration of figures but not
retrospectively. The change is made prospectively.
03. (c) The prior period error is corrected by restating the comparative amounts for the
previous period at their correct value. A note to the accounts should disclose the
nature of the error, together with other details.
04. (b) A change in the method of inventory valuation would be classed as a change in
accounting policy under IAS 8. The allowance for receivables, useful life and
depreciation method are all accounting estimates.
05. (a) & (d) A change in accounting policy may be made firstly if this is required by an IFRS
Standard. If there is no requirement, an entity can choose to change their
accounting policy if they believe a new accounting policy would result in a more
reliable and relevant presentation of events and transactions. Entities cannot
change their accounting policies simply to make financial reporting easier, or to
try and show a more favourable picture of results.
07. (b) This is a change in presentation which will affect calculation of gross profit and
will be retrospectively adjusted when presenting comparatives. (a( and (d) are
simply adjustments made during preparation of the financial statements, (c) is a
change of accounting estimate.
09. (d) This is a change of accounting estimate so does not need to be retrospectively
applied.
10. (b) In this situation, change is applied to the earliest period possible.
11. (b) & (c) This is change in measurement basis, so it is a change in accounting policy.
This is a change in presentation, so it is a change of accounting policy.
13. (b) Specific principles bases conventions rules and practices applied in presenting
financial statements are accounting policies.
15. (b) Retrospective application is applying a policy as if it had always been applied.
18. Rs. 7.7 million Adjustment in opening balance of retained earnings (net of tax)
Rs. 4m + 4m + 3m = Rs. 11m x 70% = Rs. 7.7 million
19. Rs. 3.5 million Effect on profit for the year ended 31 December 2018 (net of tax)
Rs. 5m x 70% = Rs. 3.5 million
The net effect at 30 September 2013 of this will be to reduce current year profits
by Rs. 400,000.
CHAPTER
8
IAS 12: Income Taxes
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 Accounting for taxation
3 Deferred tax: Introduction
4 Recognition of deferred tax: basic approach
5 Recognition and measurement rules
6 Presentation and disclosure
7 Objective based questions and answers
Rs. 000
Income tax payable for the year 60,000
Over provision in relation to the previous year 4,500
Opening deferred tax liability 2,600
Closing for deferred tax liability 3,200
What is the income tax expense that will be shown in the statement of profit or loss for the year?
(a) Rs. 54,900,000
(b) Rs. 67,700,000
(c) Rs. 65,100,000
(d) Rs. 56,100,000
03. The following information has been extracted from the accounting records of Candle Limited:
Rs. 000
Estimated income tax
for the year ended 30 September 2020 Rs. 75,000
Income tax paid
for the year ended 30 September 2020 Rs. 80,000
Estimated income tax
for the year ended 30 September 2021 Rs. 83,000
What figures will be shown in the statement of comprehensive income for the year ended 30 September
2021 in respect of income tax?
(a) Rs. 75,000,000
(b) Rs. 80,000,000
(c) Rs. 88,000,000
(d) Rs. 83,000,000
04. Home Limited (HL) has the following balances included on its trial balance at 30 June 2014.
Rs. 000
Taxation 4,000 Credit
Deferred taxation 12,000 Credit
The taxation balance relates to an over-provision from 30 June 2013.
At 30 June 2014, the directors estimate that the provision necessary for taxation on current year profits
is Rs. 15,000,000.
The carrying amount of HL’s non-current assets exceeds the tax written-down value by Rs. 30,000,000.
The rate of tax is 30%.
What is the charge for taxation that will appear in the statement of profit or loss for the year to 30 June
2014?
(a) Rs. 23,000,000
(b) Rs. 28,000,000
(c) Rs. 8,000,000
(d) Rs. 12,000,000
05. Hall Limited has the following balances included on its trial balance at 30 June 2014:
Rs. 000
Taxation 7,000 Credit
Deferred taxation 16,000 Credit
The taxation balance relates to an overprovision from 30 June 2013.
At 30 June 2014, the directors estimate that the provision necessary for taxation on current year profits
is Rs. 12 million. The balance on the deferred tax account needs to be increased to Rs. 23 million, which
includes the impact of the increase in property valuation below.
During the year Hall Limited revalued its property for the first time, resulting in a gain of Rs. 10 million.
The rate of tax is 30%.
What is the charge for taxation that will appear in the statement of profit or loss for the year to 30 June
2014?
(a) Rs. 9 million
(b) Rs. 12 million
(c) Rs. 23 million
(d) Rs. 1 million
06. Vase Limited (VL)’s assistant accountant has discovered that there is a debit balance on the trial
balance of Rs. 3,000 relating to the over/under-provision of tax from the prior year.
What impact will this have on VL’s current year financial statements?
(a) Increase the tax liability by Rs. 3,000 in the statement of financial position
(b) Decrease the tax liability by Rs. 3,000 in the statement of financial position
(c) Increase the tax expense by Rs. 3,000 in the statement of profit or loss
(d) Decrease the tax expense by Rs. 3,000 in the statement of profit or loss
07. A company's trial balance shows a debit balance of Rs. 2.1 million brought forward on current tax and
a credit balance of Rs. 5.4 million on deferred tax. The tax charge for the current year is estimated at
Rs. 16.2 million and the carrying amounts of net assets are Rs. 13 million in excess of their tax base.
The income tax rate is 30%.
What amount will be shown as income tax in the statement of profit or loss for the year?
(a) Rs. 15.6 million
(b) Rs. 12.6 million
(c) Rs. 16.8 million
(d) Rs. 18.3 million
08. A company's trial balance at 31 December 2013 shows a debit balance of Rs. 700,000 on current tax
and a credit balance of Rs. 8,400,000 on deferred tax. The directors have estimated the provision for
income tax for the year at Rs. 4.5 million and the required deferred tax provision is Rs. 5.6 million, Rs.
1.2 million of which relates to a property revaluation.
What is the profit or loss income tax charge for the year ended 31 December 2013?
(a) Rs. 1 million
(b) Rs. 2.4 million
(c) Rs. 1.2 million
(d) Rs. 3.6 million
10. The accountant of an entity is confused by the term 'tax base'. What is meant by 'tax base'?
(a) The amount of tax payable in a future period
(b) The tax regime under which an entity is assessed for tax
(c) The amount attributed to an asset or liability for tax purposes
(d) The amount of tax deductible in a future period
11. The carrying amount of Jewel Limited (JL)'s property, plant and equipment at 31 December 2013 was
Rs. 310,000 and the tax written down value was Rs. 230,000.
The following data relates to the year ended 31 December 2014:
(i) At the end of the year the carrying amount of property, plant and equipment was Rs. 460,000
and the tax written down value was Rs. 270,000. During the year some items were revalued by
Rs. 90,000. No items had previously required revaluation. In the tax jurisdiction in which JL
operates revaluations of assets do not affect the tax base of an asset or taxable profit. Gains
due to revaluations are taxable on sale.
(ii) JL began development of a new product during the year and capitalised Rs. 60,000 in
accordance with IAS 38. The expenditure was deducted for tax purposes as it was incurred.
None of the expenditure had been amortised by the year end.
What is the taxable temporary difference to be accounted for at 31 December 2014 in relation to
property, plant and equipment and development expenditure?
Property, plant and equipment Development expenditure
(a) Rs. 270,000 Rs. 60,000
(b) Rs. 270,000 Nil
(c) Rs. 190,000 Rs. 60,000
(d) Rs. 190,000 Nil
12. The carrying amount of Jewel Limited (JL)'s property, plant and equipment at 31 December 2013 was
Rs. 310,000 and the tax written down value was Rs. 230,000.
At the end of the year, 31 December 2014, the carrying amount of property, plant and equipment was
Rs. 460,000 and the tax written down value was Rs. 270,000. During the year some items were revalued
by Rs. 90,000. No items had previously required revaluation. In the tax jurisdiction in which JL operates
revaluations of assets do not affect the tax base of an asset or taxable profit. Gains due to revaluations
are taxable on sale.
The corporate income tax rate is 30%. The current tax charge was calculated for the year as Rs. 45,000.
What amount should be charged to the revaluation surplus at 31 December 2014 in respect of deferred
tax?
(a) Rs. 60,000
(b) Rs. 90,000
(c) Rs. 18,000
(d) Rs. 27,000
13. The carrying amount of Jewel Limited (JL)'s property, plant and equipment at 31 December 2013 was
Rs. 310,000 and the tax written down value was Rs. 230,000.
At the end of the year, 31 December 2014, the carrying amount of property, plant and equipment was
Rs. 460,000 and the tax written down value was Rs. 270,000. During the year some items were revalued
by Rs. 90,000. No items had previously required revaluation. In the tax jurisdiction in which JL operates
revaluations of assets do not affect the tax base of an asset or taxable profit. Gains due to revaluations
are taxable on sale.
The corporate income tax rate is 30%. The current tax charge was calculated for the year as Rs. 45,000.
What amount will be shown as current tax payable in the statement of financial position of JL at 31
December 2014?
(a) Rs. 45,000
(b) Rs. 72,000
(c) Rs. 63,000
(d) Rs. 75,000
14. Deferred tax assets and liabilities arise from taxable and deductible temporary differences. Which one
of the following is not a circumstance giving rise to a temporary difference?
(a) Depreciation accelerated for tax purposes
(b) Development costs amortised in profit or loss but tax was deductible in full when incurred
(c) Accrued expenses which have already been deducted for tax purposes
(d) Revenue included in accounting profit when invoiced but only liable for tax when the cash is
received.
15. Which of the following statements regarding taxation of lease arrangement are true?
(i) Depreciation expense and interest expense should be added back in accounting profit to
calculate current tax
(ii) Rental payments should be deducted from accounting profit for calculating current tax
(iii) Right of use asset has tax base of nil resulting in taxable temporary difference
(iv) Lease liabilities have tax base of nil resulting deductible temporary difference
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
16. Venice Limited (VL)’s assistant accountant estimated the tax expense for the year ended 31 December
2018 at Rs. 43,000. However, he had ignored deferred tax. At 1 January 2018 VL had a deferred tax
liability of Rs. 130,000. At 31 December 2018 VL had temporary taxable differences of Rs. 360,000.
VL pays tax at 25%. All movements in deferred tax are taken to the statement of profit or loss.
What will be recorded as the tax expense in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31
December 2018?
Rs. ___________
17. The statements of financial position of Nitrogen Limited (NL) include the following extracts:
Statements of financial position 2012 2011
as at 30 September Rs. m Rs. m
Non-current liabilities
Deferred tax 310 140
Current liabilities
Taxation 130 160
The tax charge in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 2012 is Rs. 270
million.
What amount of tax was paid during the year to 30 September 2012?
Rs. ___________
18. The trial balance of Hall Limited (HL) at 31 March 2016 showed credit balances of Rs. 800,000 on
current tax and Rs. 2.6 million on deferred tax.
A property was revalued during the year giving rise to deferred tax of Rs. 3.75 million. This has been
included in the deferred tax provision of Rs. 6.75 million at 31 March 2016.
The income tax charge for the year ended 31 March 2016 is estimated at Rs. 19.4 million.
What will be shown as the income tax charge in the statement of profit or loss of HL at 31 March 2016?
Rs. ___________
19. Orange Limited (OL) is in the process of finalizing its financial statements for the year ended 30 June
2018.
OL sells goods with a 1-year warranty and it is estimated that warranty expenses are 2% of annual
sales. Actual payments during the year related to warranty claims were Rs. 54 million. Of these, Rs. 38
million pertain to goods sold during the previous year. Opening balance of provision for warranty was
Rs. 49 million.
Sales for the year ended 30 June 2018 was Rs. 1,750 million. Under the tax laws, these expenses are
allowed on payment basis. Applicable tax rate is 30%.
What is the amount of deferred tax expense or income in respect of above for the year ended 30 June
2018?
Rs. ___________
20. Orange Limited (OL) is in the process of finalizing its financial statements for the year ended 30 June
2018.
Profit before tax for the year ended 30 June 2018 was Rs. 508 million.
OL sells goods with a 1-year warranty and it is estimated that warranty expenses are 2% of annual
sales. Actual payments during the year related to warranty claims were Rs. 54 million. Of these, Rs. 38
million pertain to goods sold during the previous year. Opening balance of provision for warranty was
Rs. 49 million.
Sales for the year ended 30 June 2018 was Rs. 1,750 million. Under the tax laws, these expenses are
allowed on payment basis. Applicable tax rate is 30%.
What is the amount of current tax after considering above information for the year ended 30 June 2018?
Rs. ___________
05. (a)
Rs.000
Deferred taxation increase (23,000 – 16,000) 7,000
Less tax on revaluation [OCI] (10,000 × 30%) (3,000)
Charge to SPL 4,000
06. (c) A debit balance represents an under-provision of tax from the prior year. This should
be added to the current year’s tax expense in the statement of profit or loss.
An under or over-provision only arises when the prior year tax estimate is paid so
there is no adjustment required to the current year liability.
07. (c)
Rs. 000
Charge for year 16,200
Under provision 2,100
Adjust deferred tax (1,500)
Profit or loss charge 16,800
10. (c) The amount attributed to an asset or liability for tax purposes.
11. (c) PPE 460,000 – 270,000 = Rs. 190,000
Development cost 60,000 – 0 = Rs. 60,000
12. (d) (90,000 × 30%) will go to the revaluation surplus
13. (a) Rs. 45,000. The tax charge for the year.
14. (c) Accrued expenses which have already been deducted for tax purposes will not give
rise to a temporary difference as there is no difference in accounting and tax in time
of recognition of tax expense.
15. (d) All the statements are true.
16. Rs. 3,000 The tax expense in the statement of profit or loss consists of the current tax estimate
and the movement on deferred tax in the year. The closing deferred tax liability is
Rs. 90,000, being the temporary differences of Rs. 360,000 at the tax rate of 25%.
This means that the deferred tax liability has decreased by Rs. 40,000 in the year.
This decrease should be deducted from the current tax estimate of Rs. 43,000 to
give a total expense of Rs. 3,000.
Rs. m
Opening deferred tax asset 49 x 30% 14.7
Closing deferred tax asset 19 x 30% 5.7
Deferred tax expense 9
Rs. m
Profit before tax 508
Add: Warranty expense as per accounting 35 - 11 24
Less: Warranty payments allowed in tax 38 + 16 (54)
478
478 million x 30% = Rs. 143.4 million
CHAPTER
10
IAS 38: Intangible Assets
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 IAS 38: Intangible assets – Introduction
3 Internally generated intangible assets
4 Intangible assets acquired in a business combination
5 Measurement after initial recognition
6 Disclosure requirements
7 Objective based questions and answers
02. Which TWO of the following items below could potentially be classified as intangible assets?
(a) purchased brand name
(b) training of staff
(c) internally generated brand
(d) licences and quotas
03. Star Limited has provided the following information as at 31 December 2016:
(i) Project A – Rs. 500,000 has been spent on the research phase of this project during the year.
(ii) Project B – Rs. 800,000 had been spent on this project in the previous year and Rs. 200,000
this year. The project was capitalised in the previous year however, it has been decided to
abandon this project at the end of the year.
(iii) Project C – Rs. 1,000,000 was spent on this project this year. The project meets the criteria
of IAS 38 and is to be capitalised.
Which of the following adjustments will be made in the financial statements as at 31 December 2016?
(a) Reduce profit by Rs. 700,000 and increase non-current assets by Rs. 1,000,000
(b) Reduce profit by Rs. 1,500,000 and increase non-current assets by Rs. 1,000,000
(c) Reduce profit by Rs. 1,300,000 and increase non-current assets by Rs. 1,800,000
(d) Reduce profit by Rs. 1,300,000 and increase non-current assets by Rs. 1,000,000
04. Which of the following statements concerning the accounting treatment of research and development
expenditure are true, according to IAS 38 Intangible Assets?
(i) Research is original and planned investigation undertaken with the prospect of gaining new
knowledge and understanding.
(ii) Development is the application of research findings.
(iii) Depreciation of plant used specifically on developing a new product can be capitalised as part
of development costs.
(iv) Expenditure once treated as an expense cannot be reinstated as an asset.
05. Which of the following should be included in a company’s statement of financial position as an
intangible asset under IAS 38 Intangible Assets?
(a) Internally developed brands
(b) Internally generated goodwill
(c) Expenditure on completed research
(d) Payments made on the successful registration of a patent.
06. Which TWO of the following criteria must be met before development expenditure is capitalised
according to IAS 38 Intangible Assets?
(a) the technical feasibility of completing the intangible asset
(b) future revenue is expected
(c) the intention to complete and use or sell the intangible asset
(d) there is no need for reliable measurement of expenditure
07. Which of the following shall be capitalised as intangible asset in financial statements?
(a) Rs. 400,000 developing a new process which will bring in no revenue but is expected to bring
significant cost savings
(b) Rs. 400,000 developing a new product. During development a competitor launched a rival
product and now the entity is hesitant to commit further funds to the process
(c) Rs. 400,000 spent on marketing a new product which has led to increased sales of Rs.
800,000
(d) Rs. 400,000 spent on designing a new corporate logo for the business
08. Which of the following CANNOT be recognised as an intangible non-current asset in Ghalib Limited
(GL)’s consolidated statement of financial position at 30 September 2021?
(a) GL spent Rs. 132 million developing a new type of product. In June 2021 management
worried that it would be too expensive to fund. The finances to complete the project came
from a cash injection from a benefactor received in November 2021.
(b) GL purchased a subsidiary during the year. During the fair value exercise, it was found that
the subsidiary had a brand name with an estimated value of Rs. 50 million but had not been
recognised by the subsidiary as it was internally generated.
(c) GL purchased a brand name from a competitor on 1 November 2020, for Rs. 65 million.
(d) GL spent Rs. 21 million during the year on the development of a new product, after
management concluded it would be viable in November 2020. The product is being launched
on the market on 1 December 2021 and is expected to be profitable.
09. Which of the following could be classified as development expenditure in Mars Limited’s statement of
financial position as at 31 March 2020 according to IAS 38 Intangible Assets?
(a) Rs. 120,000 spent on developing a prototype and testing a new type of propulsion system.
The project needs further work on it as the system is currently not viable.
(b) A payment of Rs. 50,000 to a local university’s engineering faculty to research new
environmentally friendly building techniques.
(c) Rs. 35,000 developing an electric bicycle. This is near completion and the product will be
launched soon. As this project is first of its kind it is expected to make a loss.
(d) Rs. 65,000 developing a special type of new packaging for a new energy-efficient light bulb.
The packaging is expected to reduce Mars Limited distribution costs by Rs. 35,000 a year.
10. Which TWO of the following factors are reasons why key staff cannot be capitalised as an intangible
asset by an entity?
(a) They do not provide expected future economic benefits
(b) They cannot be controlled by an entity
(c) Their value cannot be measured reliably
(d) They are not separable from the business as a whole
12. Home Limited (HL) has acquired a subsidiary Stairs Limited (SL) in the current year. SL has a brand
which has been reliably valued by HL at Rs. 500,000, and a customer list which HL has been unable
to value.
Which of these describes how HL should treat these intangible assets of SL in their consolidated
Financial Statements?
(a) They should be included in goodwill.
(b) The brand should be capitalised as a separate intangible asset, whereas the customer list
should be included within goodwill.
(c) Both the brand and the customer list should be capitalised as separate intangible assets.
(d) The customer list should be capitalised as a separate intangible asset, whereas the brand
should be included within goodwill.
13. IAS 38 gives examples of activities that would be regarded as research and therefore not eligible for
recognition as an intangible asset.
Which one of the following would be an example of research costs?
(a) The design and construction of chosen alternative products or processes
(b) The design of pre-production prototypes and models
(c) The design of possible new or improved product or process alternatives
(d) The design, construction and operation of a pilot plant
15. Hali Limited is developing a new product and expects to be able to capitalise the costs. Which one of
the following would preclude capitalisation of the costs?
(a) Development of the product is not yet complete.
(b) No patent has yet been registered in respect of the product.
(c) No sales contracts have yet been signed in relation to the product.
(d) It has not been possible to reliably allocate costs to development of the product.
16. During the year to 31 December 2018 Faiz Limited (FL) incurred Rs. 200,000 of development costs
for a new product. In addition, FL spent Rs. 60,000 on 1 January 2018 on machinery specifically used
to help develop the new product and Rs. 40,000 on building the brand identity.
Commercial production is expected to start during 2019.
The machinery is expected to last 4 years with no residual value.
What value should be included within Intangible Assets in respect of the above in FL’s Statement of
Financial Position as at 31 December 2018?
Rs. ___________
17. A company had Rs. 20 million of capitalised development expenditure at cost brought forward at 1
October 2017 in respect of products currently in production and a new project began on the same date.
The research stage of the new project lasted until 31 December 2017 and incurred Rs. 1.4 million of
costs. From that date the project incurred development costs of Rs. 800,000 per month.
On 1 April 2018 the directors became confident that the project would be successful and yield a profit
well in excess of costs. The project was still in development at 30 September 2018. Capitalised
development expenditure is amortised at 20% per annum using the straight-line method.
What amount will be charged to profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 2018 in respect of
research and development costs?
Rs. ___________
18. At 30 September 2019 Shakir Limited (SL)'s trial balance showed a brand at cost of Rs. 30 million,
less accumulated amortisation brought forward at 1 October 2018 of Rs. 9 million. Amortisation is
based on a ten-year useful life.
An impairment review on 1 April 2019 concluded that the brand had a value in use of Rs. 12 million
and a remaining useful life of three years. However, on the same date SL received an offer to purchase
the brand for Rs. 15 million.
What should be the carrying amount of the brand in the statement of financial position of SL as at 30
September 2019?
Rs. ___________
19. Down Limited (DL) owns a pharmaceutical business with a year-end of 30 September 2014. DL
commenced the development stage of a new drug on 1 January 2014.
Rs. 40,000 per month was incurred until the project was completed on 30 June 2014, when the drug
went into immediate production. The directors became confident of the project’s success on 1 March
2014. The drug has an estimated life span of five years and time apportionment is used by DL where
applicable.
What amount will DL charge to profit or loss for development costs, including any amortisation, for the
year ended 30 September 2014?
Rs. ___________
20. Apollo Limited (AL) carries out research and development. In the year ended 30 June 2015 AL incurred
total costs in relation to project M of Rs. 750,000, spending the same amount each month up to 30
April 2015, when the project was completed. The product produced by the project went on sale from
31 May 2015.
The project had been confirmed as feasible on 1 January 2015, and the product produced by the
project was expected to have a useful life of five years.
What is the carrying amount of the development expenditure asset as at 30 June 2015?
Rs. ___________
02. (a) & (d) Training cannot be capitalised as a firm cannot control the future economic
benefits by limiting the access of others to the staff.
Internally generated brands cannot be capitalised
03. (b) The expenditure in relation to projects A and B should be written off.
Project C should be capitalised and will therefore increase the value of non-current
assets.
05. (d) Internally generated intangible assets cannot be recognised, and research costs
are written off as incurred.
06. (a) & (c) There is no need for revenue, there needs to be probable economic benefits which
may come in the form of cost savings as well as revenue.
08. (a) The finance was only available after the year end. Therefore, the criteria of
recognising an asset were not met, as the resources were not available to
complete the project.
Even though the brand is internally generated in the subsidiary’s accounts, it can
be recognised at fair value for the group. Item (b) can be recognised as a
purchased intangible and item (d) meets the criteria for being capitalised as
development costs.
09. (d) Item (a) cannot be capitalised because it does not meet all the criteria as it is not
viable. Item (b) is research and cannot be capitalised. Item (c) cannot be
capitalised because it does not meet all the criteria as it is making a loss.
10. (b) & (c) Key staff cannot be capitalised as firstly they are not controlled by an entity.
Secondly, the value that one member of key staff contributes to an entity cannot
be measured reliably.
12. (b) The brand can be measured reliably, so this should be accounted for as a separate
intangible asset on consolidation. The customer list cannot be valued reliably, and
so will form part of the overall goodwill calculation. It will be subsumed within the
goodwill value.
14. (b) A new process may produce benefits (and therefore be recognised as an asset)
other than increased revenues, e.g. it may reduce costs.
15. (d) In order for capitalisation to be allowed it is not necessary for development to be
completed, patents to be registered or sales contracts signed. However, an
intangible asset can only be recognised if its cost can be reliably measured.
16. Rs. 215,000 The development costs of Rs. 200,000 can be capitalised, as can the depreciation
on the asset while the project is being developed. The asset is used for a year on
the project, so the depreciation for the first year (Rs. 60,000/4 years = Rs. 15,000)
can be added to intangible assets. The Rs. 40,000 is an internally generated brand
and cannot be capitalised.
20. Rs. 295,000 The costs of Rs. 750,000 relate to ten months of the year (up to April 2015).
Therefore, the costs per month were Rs. 75,000. As the project was confirmed as
feasible on 1 January 2015, the costs can be capitalised from this date. So, four
months of these costs can be capitalised = Rs. 75,000 × 4 = Rs. 300,000.
The asset should be amortised from when the products go on sale, so one month’s
amortisation should be charged to 30 June 2015. Amortisation is (Rs. 300,000/5)
× 1/12 = Rs. 5,000. The carrying amount of the asset at 30 June 2015 is Rs.
300,000 – Rs. 5,000 = Rs. 295,000.
CHAPTER
12
Financial instruments:
Recognition and measurement
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 GAAP for financial instruments
3 IFRS 9: Recognition and measurement
4 Objective based questions and answers
03. Diamond Limited purchased 10,000 shares on 1 September 2014, making the election to use the
alternative treatment under IFRS 9. The shares cost Rs. 35 each. Transaction costs associated with
the purchase were Rs. 5,000.
At 31 December 2014, the shares are trading at Rs. 45 each.
What is the gain to be recognized on these shares for the year ended 31 December 2014?
04. Copper Limited has purchased an investment of 15,000 shares on 1 August 2016 at a cost of Rs. 65
each. Copper Limited intend to sell these shares in the short term and are holding them for trading
purposes. Transaction costs on the purchase amounted to Rs. 15,000.
As at the year-end 30 September 2016, these shares are now worth Rs. 77.5 each.
What is the gain on this investment during the year ended 30 September 2016, and where in the
Financial Statements will it be recognized?
05. For which category of financial instruments are transaction costs excluded from the initial value, and
instead expensed to profit or loss?
(a) Financial Liabilities at amortized cost
(b) Financial Assets at fair value through profit or loss
06. If a company had incurred transaction costs in issuing debentures, how should these have been
accounted for?
(a) Added to the proceeds of the debentures
(b) Deducted from the proceeds of the debentures
(c) Amortized over the life of the debentures
(d) Charged to finance costs
07. Sodium Limited (SL) purchased a debt instrument which will mature in five years' time. SL intends to
hold the debt instrument to maturity to collect interest payments. How should this debt instrument be
measured in the financial statements of SL?
(a) As a financial liability at fair value through profit or loss
(b) As a financial liability at amortized cost
(c) As a financial asset at fair value through profit or loss
(d) As a financial asset at amortized cost
08. A 5% debenture was issued on 1 April 2010 at total face value of Rs. 20 million. Direct costs of the
issue were Rs. 500,000. The debenture will be redeemed on 31 March 2013 at a substantial premium.
The effective interest rate applicable is 10% per annum.
At what amount will the debenture appear in the statement of financial position as at 31 March 2012?
09. How does IFRS 9 Financial Instruments require investments in equity instruments to be measured
and accounted for (in the absence of any election at initial recognition)?
(a) Fair value with changes going through profit or loss
(b) Fair value with changes going through other comprehensive income
(c) Amortized cost with changes going through profit or loss
(d) Amortized cost with changes going through other comprehensive income
10. On 1 January 2011 Oxygen Limited purchased a debt instrument for its fair value of Rs. 500,000. It
had a principal amount of Rs. 550,000 and was due to mature in five years. The debt instrument
carries fixed interest of 6% paid annually in arrears and has an effective interest rate of 8%. It is held
at amortized cost. At what amount will the debt instrument be shown in the statement of financial
position of Oxygen Limited as at 31 December 2012?
(a) Rs. 514,560
(b) Rs. 566,000
(c) Rs. 564,560
(d) Rs. 520,800
11. Which of the following are not classified as financial instruments under IAS 32?
(a) Share options
(b) Intangible assets
(c) Trade receivables
(d) Redeemable preference shares
12. In order to hold a debt instrument at amortized cost, which TWO of the following tests must be applied?
(a) Fair value test
(b) Contractual cash flow characteristics test
(c) Investment appraisal test
(d) Business model test
13. Nickel Limited is uncertain of how to treat professional fees. For which of the following investments
should professional fees NOT be capitalized as part of initial value of the asset?
(a) Acquisition of a patent
(b) Acquisition of investment property
(c) Acquisition of fair value through other comprehensive income investments
(d) Acquisition of fair value through profit or loss investments
14. Iron Limited has 5% Rs. 30 million redeemable preference shares in issue which will be redeemed in
5 years’ time.
How should the preference share capital and preference dividend be presented in the financial
statements of Iron Limited?
(a) Preference share capital as equity and preference dividend in the statement of changes in
equity
(b) Preference share capital as equity and preference dividend in the statement of profit or loss
(c) Preference share capital as a liability and preference dividend in the statement of changes in
equity
(d) Preference share capital as a liability and preference dividend in the statement of profit or
loss
15. Mercury Limited purchased 1 million shares in Jupiter Limited, a listed company, for Rs. 40 million on
1 January 2017. By the year end, 31 December 2017, the fair value of a Jupiter Limited’s share had
moved to Rs. 48. If Mercury Limited were to dispose of the shares, broker fees of Rs. 500,000 would
be incurred.
What is the correct treatment for shares at year end?
(a) Hold shares in investments at Rs.47.5 million, with Rs. 7.5 million gain being taken to the
statement of profit or loss
(b) Hold shares in investments at Rs. 48 million, with Rs. 8 million gain being taken to the
statement of profit or loss
(c) Hold shares in investments at Rs. 48 million, with Rs. 8 million gain shown in the statement
of changes in equity
(d) Hold shares in investments at Rs. 48 million, with Rs. 7.5 million gain shown in the statement
of changes in equity
16. Gold Limited’s draft statement of financial position as at 31 March 2018 shows financial assets at fair
value through profit or loss with a carrying amount of Rs. 12.5 million as at 1 April [Link] financial
assets are held in a fund whose value changes directly in proportion to a specified market index. At 1
April 2017 the relevant index was 1,200 and at 31 March 2018 it was 1,296. What amount of gain or
loss should be recognized at 31 March 2018 in respect of these assets?
Rs. ___________
17. On 1 January 2018 Silver Limited purchased 40,000 Rs. 10 listed equity shares at a price of Rs. 30
per share. An irrevocable election was made to recognize the shares at fair value through other
comprehensive income.
Transaction costs were Rs. 30,000. At the year end of 31 December 2018, the shares were trading at
Rs. 60 per share.
What amount in respect of these shares will be shown under 'investments in equity instruments' in the
statement of financial position as at 31 December 2018?
Rs. ___________
18. An entity acquires a 6% Rs. 1,000 Term Finance Certificate (TFC), a financial asset, for Rs. 970 at
the beginning of Year 1. Interest is receivable annually in arrears.
The TFC is redeemable at the end of Year 3 at a premium of 3%. The financial asset is measured at
amortized cost. The effective interest rate of the financial instrument has been calculated at 8.1%.
Calculate the closing statement of financial position figure at the end of Year 2. Work to the nearest
Rupee.
Rs. ___________
19. Wasim Limited issued Rs. 10 million 5% debentures on 1 January 2019, incurring issue costs of
Rs.400, 000. The debentures are redeemable at a premium, giving them an effective interest rate of
8%.
What expense should be recorded in relation to the debentures for the year ended 31 December
2019?
Rs. ___________
20. Platinum Limited issues Rs.100 million 5% debentures on 1 January 2014, incurring issue costs of
Rs.3 million.
These debentures are redeemable at a premium, meaning that the effective rate of interest is 8% per
annum.
What is the finance cost to be shown in the statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31 December
2015?
02. (a) The default position for equity investments is fair value through profit or loss,
meaning the investment is revalued each year end, with the gain or loss being
taken to the statement of profit or loss.
03. (c) The investment should be classified as Fair Value through other comprehensive
income.
As such, they will initially be valued inclusive of transaction costs.
Therefore, the initial value is 10,000 × Rs. 35 = Rs. 350,000 + Rs. 5,000 = Rs.
355,000.
At year-end, these will be revalued to fair value of Rs. 45 each, therefore 10,000
x Rs. 45 = Rs. 450,000.
The gain is therefore Rs. 450,000 – Rs. 355,000 = Rs. 95,000.
04. (b) Financial Assets held for trading will be valued at Fair Value through Profit or
Loss. These are therefore valued excluding any transaction costs (which will be
expensed to profit or loss). The initial value of the investment is therefore 15,000
× Rs. 65 = Rs. 975,000
The shares will be revalued to fair value as at year end, and the gain will be taken
to profit or loss. The year-end value of the shares is 15,000 × Rs. 77.5 = Rs.
1,162,500, giving a gain of Rs. 187,500. This is recognized within profit or loss.
05. (b) Transaction costs are included when measuring all financial assets and liabilities
at amortized costs, and when valuing financial assets valued at fair value through
other comprehensive income.
Financial assets valued at fair value through profit or loss are expensed through
the profit or loss account on initial valuation and not included in the initial value of
the asset.
06. (b) Deducted from the proceeds of the debentures. The effective interest rate is then
applied to the net amount.
08. (d)
Rs. '000
Proceeds (20m – 0.5m) 19,500
Interest 10% 1,950
Interest paid (20m × 5%) (1,000)
Balance 30 March 2011 20,450
Interest 10% 2,045
Interest paid (20m × 5%) (1,000)
Balance 30 March 2012 21,495
09. (a) Fair value with changes going through profit or loss. Fair value through OCI would
be correct if an election had been made to recognize changes in value through
other comprehensive income. Amortized cost is used for debt instruments, not
equity instruments.
10. (a)
Rs.
1 January 2011 500,000
Interest 8% 40,000
Interest received (550,000 × 6%) (33,000)
31 December 2011 507,000
Interest 8% 40,560
Interest received (33,000)
31 December 2012 514,560
11. (b) Intangible assets. These do not give rise to a present right to receive cash or
other financial assets. The other options are financial instruments
13. (d) Transactions costs including professional fees are expensed in case of
investments classified as fair value through profit or loss
14. (d) Redeemable preference shares will be shown as a liability, with the payments
being shown as finance costs.
15. (b) The default category for equity investments is fair value through profit or loss so
the investments should be revalued to fair value (not fair value less costs to sell),
with the gain or loss taken to the statement of profit or loss.
19. Rs. 768,000 The initial liability should be recorded at the net proceeds of Rs. 9.6 million. The
finance cost should then be accounted for using the effective rate of interest of
8%. Therefore, the finance cost for the year is Rs. 768,000 (Rs. 9.6 million × 8%).
20. Rs. 7.98 Initial recognition Rs. 100 million – Rs. 3 million = Rs. 97 million
million
Rs. million
1 January 2014 97
Interest 8% 7.76
Interest received (100 × 5%) (5)
31 December 2014 99.76
Interest 8% 7.98
CHAPTER
13
IFRS 16: Leases
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 Introduction
3 Lease classification
4 Accounting for lease by Lessee
5 Accounting for a finance lease: Lessor accounting
6 Accounting for an operating lease
7 Objective based questions and answers
02. Zeta Limited entered into a five-year lease agreement on 1 November 2012, paying Rs. 109,750 per
annum, commencing on 31 October 2013. The present value of the lease payments was Rs. 450,000
and the interest rate implicit in the lease was 7%.
What is the amount to be shown within non-current liabilities at 31 October 2013?
03. IFRS 16 Leases permits certain assets to be exempt from the recognition treatment for right-of-use
assets. Which of the following assets leased to an entity would be permitted to be exempt?
(a) A used motor vehicle with an original cost of Rs. 1,500,000 and a current fair value of Rs.
70,000, leased for 24 months
(b) A new motor vehicle with a cost of Rs. 1,500,000, leased for 24 months
(c) A new motor vehicle with a cost of Rs. 1,500,000, leased for 24 months, to be rented to
customers on a daily rental basis
(d) A new motor vehicle with a cost of Rs. 1,500,000, leased for 12 months
04. On 1 January 2013 Rita Limited acquires a new machine with an estimated useful life of 6 years under
the following agreement:
An initial payment of Rs. 1,376,000 will be payable immediately and 5 further annual payments of Rs.
2,000,000 will be due, commencing 1 January 2013. The interest rate implicit in the lease is 8%.
The present value of the lease payments, excluding the initial payment, is Rs. 8,624,000
What will be recorded in financial statements at 31 December 2014 in respect of the lease liability?
05. On 1 April 2017 Pink Limited (PL) entered into a five-year lease agreement for a machine with an
estimated life of 7 years. Which of the following conditions would require the machine to be depreciated
over 7 years?
(a) PL has the option to extend the lease for two years at a market-rate rental
(b) PL has the option to purchase the asset at market value at the end of the lease
(c) Ownership of the asset passes to PL at the end of the lease period
06. On 1 January 2014 Beta Limited (BL) entered into a lease agreement to lease an item of machinery
for 4 years with rentals of Rs. 210,000 payable annually in arrears. The asset has a useful life of 5
years and at the end of the lease term legal ownership will pass to BL. The present value of the lease
payments at the inception of the lease was Rs. 635,000 and the interest rate implicit in the lease is
12.2%.
For the year ended 31 December 2014 BL accounted for this lease by recording the payment of Rs.
210,000 as an operating expense. This treatment was discovered during 2015, after the financial
statements for 2014 had been finalised.
In the statement of changes in equity for the year ended 31 December 2015 what adjustment will be
necessary to retained earnings brought forward?
07. On 1 October 2013, Multan Limited acquired an item of plant under a five-year lease agreement.
The agreement had an implicit interest rate of 10% and required annual rentals of Rs. 6 million to be
paid on 30 September each year for five years.
The present value of the annual rental payments was Rs. 23 million.
What would be the current liability for the leased plant in Multan Limited’s statement of financial
position as at 30 September 2014?
08. Which of the following would not be included within the initial cost of a right-of-use asset?
(b) Estimated cost of dismantling the asset at the end of the lease period
09. IFRS 16 Leases permits certain assets to be exempt from the recognition treatment for right-of-use
assets. Which of the following leases of assets leased to an entity would NOT be permitted to be
exempt?
(b) Telephone system with cost of Rs. 45,000 leased for 24 months
(c) Vehicle with original cost of Rs. 900,000, current market value of Rs. 45,000 leased for 24
months
10. Noor Limited leases a car for office use. The present value of lease payments is Rs. 2,735,500 and
the rate implicit in lease is 10%. The terms of the lease require three annual instalments of Rs.
1,000,000 each at the start of each year.
At the end of first year of lease what amount will be shown for the lease liability in the company’s
statement of financial position under the heading of non-current liabilities?
11. Which TWOof the following are disclosure requirements relating to a lessor?
(c) A reconciliation of undiscounted lease payments to the net investment in the lease
12. Jalal Leasing Limited (JLL) gave a plant under finance lease on 1 January 2011 to a customer. The
lease term is 4 years. The fair value of the asset is Rs. 11,000 and JL incurred initial direct costs of
Rs. 420. The interest rate implicit in lease is 15%. Rentals of Rs. 4,000 are receivable on 31 December
(also financial year end) each year.
What is amount of net investment in lease to be presented under current assets as at 31 December
2012?
13. A company leases a computer server with legal title of the asset passing after four years. The company
usually depreciate computers over six years.
The company also leases a machine for fourteen years, but legal title does not pass to the lessee at
the end of the agreement. The company usually depreciate machinery over twenty years.
Over what period of time should the computer and machine be depreciated?
14. Faheem Limited (FL) leased out its building on 1 January 2011 under an operating lease. The carrying
value of building is Rs. 239,000 and its remaining useful life is 25 years with no residual value.
FL also incurred Rs. 11,000 as initial direct costs. According to agreement, Rs. 16,000 was paid by
lessee as initial deposit and further rental of Rs. 10,000 per annum. shall be paid at the end of next
two years and then Rs. 32,000 per annum. shall be paid for following two years.
The lease term is 4 years.
What amount of lease income should be recognised in profit or loss for the year ended 31 December
2011?
15. Galaxy Leasing Limited (GLL) has leased certain equipment to Dairy Products Limited on 1 July 2013.
In this respect, the following information is available:
Rs. in million
Four annual installments payable in arrears (on 30 June, each year) 7.80
Useful life of the equipment is estimated at 5 years. Rate of interest implicit in the lease is 14%.
What amount will be presented in non-current assets for net investment in lease as at 30 June 2014?
16. Alpha Limited leases an asset with an estimated useful life of 6 years for an initial period of 5 years,
and an optional secondary period of 2 years during which a nominal rental will be payable.
The present value of the initial period lease payments is Rs. 870,000.
What will be the carrying amount of the asset in Alpha Limited's statement of financial position at the
end of the second year of the lease?
Rs. ___________
17. Kamil Limited (KL) is engaged in manufacturing of plants. The following data relates to an asset leased
out by the company on January 01, 2011.
Cost Rs. 200,000
Sales price (quoted) Rs. 240,000
Installment at the end of each year Rs. 40,000
Lease term 7 years
Unguaranteed residual value Rs. 2,000
Initial direct costs Rs. 1,000
Rate of interest (quoted) 4%
(the low rate is quoted to attract customers)
Market rate of interest 7%
What is the amount of net investment in lease as at January 01, 2011?
Rs. ___________
18. Kamil Limited (KL) is engaged in manufacturing of plants. The following data relates to an asset leased
out by the company on January 01, 2011.
Cost Rs. 200,000
Sales price (quoted) Rs. 240,000
Installment at the end of each year Rs. 40,000
Lease term 7 years
Unguaranteed residual value Rs. 2,000
Initial direct costs Rs. 1,000
Rate of interest (quoted) 4%
(the low rate is quoted to attract customers)
Market rate of interest 7%
What is the amount to be charged in cost of sales in respect of above transaction on January 01,
2011?
Rs. ___________
19. DJ Products deals in large office machines. It also offers such machines on lease. One such machine
was leased to a customer on July 1, 2004. Its particulars are as follows:
The customer's incremental borrowing rate is 10% whereas the discounting rate implicit in the lease
is 8%.
What is amount of net investment in lease that should be recognised on 1 st July 2004?
Rs. ___________
20. Guava Leasing Limited (GLL), had leased a machinery to Honeyberry Limited (HL) on 1 July 2017 on
the following terms:
(i) The non-cancellable lease period is 3.5 years. Each semi-annual lease installment of Rs. 48
million is receivable in arrears.
(ii) The lease contains an option to extend the lease term by 1.5 years. Each semiannual lease
instalment in the extended period will be of Rs. 15 million, receivable in arrears. It is
reasonably certain that HL will exercise this option.
(iii) The rate implicit in the lease is 10% per annum.
(iv) The useful life of machinery is 6 years.
(v) The unguaranteed residual value at the end of lease term is estimated at Rs. 20 million. GLL
incurred a direct cost of Rs. 10 million and general overheads of Rs. 0.5 million to complete
the transaction.
(vi) The net investment in lease at inception of lease has been calculated i.e. Rs. 319.06 million
What is the amount of interest income to be recognised in profit or loss for the year ended 30 June
2018?
02. (b)
Balance at Interest Principal Balance at
Time Rental
beginning @ 7% Element end
T Rupees
31.10.2013 450,000 31,500 109,750 (78,250) 371,750
31.10.2014 371,750 26,023 109,750 (83,727) 288,023
03. (d) Assets permitted to be exempted from recognition are low-value assets and those with a
lease term of 12 months or less. The use of the asset is irrelevant, and, although IFRS 16
Leases does not define low-value, it is the cost when new that is considered rather than
current fair value.
04. (a)
Time Opening Payment Subtotal Interest 8% Closing
Rupees
2013 8,624,000 (2,000,000) 6,624,000 529,920 7,153,920
2014 7,153,920 (2,000,000) 5,153,920 412,314 5,566,234
2015 5,566,234 (2,000,000) 3,566,234
05. (c) The transfer of ownership at the end of the lease indicates that PL will have use of the
asset for its entire life, and therefore 7 years is the appropriate depreciation period.
Potential transactions at market rate would be ignored as they do not confer any benefit
on PL, and PL’s depreciation policy for purchased assets is irrelevant.
This gives a net adjustment of Rs. 5,530 to be credited to opening retained earnings.
07. (b)
Balance at Interest @ Principal Balance at
Time Rental
beginning 10% Element end
T Rupees
30.09.14 23,000,000 2,300,000 6,000,000 (3,700,000) 19,300,000
30.09.15 19,300,000 1,930,000 6,000,000 (4,070,000)
08. (d) The value recognised in respect of the lease payments will be the present value of future
lease payments rather than the total value.
09. (c) Assets permitted to be exempted from recognition are low-value assets and those with a
lease term of 12 months or less. Although IFRS 16 Leases does not define low-value but
it lists examples which includes telephones and small items of furniture. Low value is
based on original cost and not on current market value.
10. (d)
Time Opening Payment Subtotal Interest 10% Closing
Rupees
1 2,735,500 (1,000,000) 1,735,500 173,550 1,909,050
2 1,909,050 (1,000,000) 909,050
11. (a) & (c) (b) and (d) are relevant to lessee not lessor.
12. (c)
Receivable at Interest Principal Receivable
Receipt time Rental
beginning @ 15% Element after receipt
T Rupees
31.12.2011 11,420 1,713 4,000 (2,287) 9,133
31.12.2012 9,133 1,370 4,000 (2,630) 6,503
31.12.2013 6,503 975 4,000 (3,025)
13. (c) Assets are usually depreciated over lease term, however, if ownership is transferred these
should be depreciated over useful life.
14. (c) Total payments = Rs. 16,000 + (10,000 x2) + (32,000 x 20 = Rs. 100,000
On straight line basis over four years Rs. 100,000 / 4 = Rs. 25,000
15. (d)
Opening Interest payments Principal Closing
Date balance @ 14% repayments balance
------------------------------ Rs. in million ------------------------------
01-Jul-2013 28.69 (3.00) (3.00) 25.69
30-Jun-2014 25.69 3.59 (7.80) (4.21) 21.48
30-Jun-2015 21.48 3.01 (7.80) (4.79) 16.69
16. Rs. The asset would initially be capitalised at Rs. 870,000. This is then depreciated over six
580,000 years, being the shorter of the useful life and the lease term (including any secondary
period).
This would give a depreciation expense of Rs. 140,500 a year. After two years,
accumulated depreciation would be Rs. 290,000 and therefore the carrying amount would
be Rs. 580,000.
17. Rs. PV of MLP Rs. 40,000 x 5.3893 discount factor @7% = Rs. 215,572
216,818
PV of UGRV Rs. 2,000 x 0.6227 discount factor @7% = Rs. 1,246
Total Rs. 216,818
18. Rs. Cost of inventory transferred Rs. 200,000 less present value of unguaranteed residual
198,754 value Rs. 1,246 = Rs. 198,754
19. Rs.
188,545 Cash payment Discount Present
Year Particulars
Rs. factor value Rs.
0 First rentals 36,500 1.000 36,500
1-5 Other 5 rentals 36,500 3.993 145,745
PV of Lease Payment 182,245
6 URV 10,000 0.630 6,300
PV of GI 188,545
CHAPTER
Financial accounting and reporting II
14
Other areas of IFRSs
(IFRS 8, IAS 10, IAS 37)
Contents
1 Key Definitions
2 IFRS 8: Operating Segments
3 IAS 10: Events After the Reporting Period
4 IAS 37: Provisions: Recognition
5 IAS 37: Provisions: Measurement
6 IAS 37: Provisions: Double Entry and Disclosures
7 IAS 37: Guidance on Specific Provisions
8 IAS 37: Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets
9 Objective based questions and answers
(a) A company has a policy of cleaning up any environmental contamination caused by its operations
but is not legally obliged to do so.
(b) A company is leasing an office building for which it has no further use. However, it is tied into the
lease for another year.
(c) A company is closing down a division. The Board has prepared detailed closure plans which
have been communicated to customers and employees.
(d) A company has acquired a machine which requires a major overhaul every three years. The cost
of the first overhaul is reliably estimated at Rs. 1,200,000.
02. Which of the following statements are correct in accordance with IAS 37 Provisions, contingent liabilities
and contingent assets?
(i) Provisions should be made for both constructive and legal obligations.
(ii) Discounting may be used when estimating the amount of a provision.
(iii) A restructuring provision must include the estimated costs of retraining or relocating continuing
staff.
(iv) A restructuring provision may only be made when a company has a detailed plan for the
restructuring and has communicated to interested parties a firm intention to carry it out.
03. Talal Limited (TL) year end is 30 September 2014 and the following potential liabilities have been
identified:
Which TWO of the following should TL recognise as liabilities as at 30 September 2014?
(a) The signing of a non-cancellable contract in September 2014 to supply goods in the following
year on which, due to a pricing error, a loss will be made.
(b) The cost of a reorganisation which was approved by the board in August 2014 but has not yet
been implemented, communicated to interested parties or announced publicly
(c) An amount of deferred tax relating to the gain on the revaluation of a property during the current
year. TL has no intention of selling the property in the foreseeable future.
(d) The balance on the warranty provision which related to products for which there are no
outstanding claims and whose warranties had expired by 30 September 2014
04. Iron Limited (IL) deals extensively with foreign entities, and its financial statements reflect these foreign
currency transactions. After SFP date, and before the “date of authorization” of the issuance of financial
statements, there were abnormal fluctuations in foreign currency rates. IL should:
(a) Adjust the foreign exchange year-end balances to reflect the abnormal adverse fluctuations in
foreign exchange rates.
(b) Adjust the foreign exchange year-end balances to reflect all abnormal fluctuations in foreign
exchange rates (and not just abnormal movements).
05. The following information has been extracted from the records of Simple Limited (SL):
1. SL operates a chemical plant which has polluted the surrounding countryside. The Board of
Directors has decided to clean up the environmental damage. This decision has been published in
the local press on 15 June 2018. However, SL is not legally required to clean up the environmental
damage.
2. SL has decided to close down one of its operating segment. However, the decision was made public
after 30 June 2018.
In the financial statements for the year ended 30 June 2018, SL should recognize a provision for the
best estimate of costs in respect of:
06. Which of the following events arising after the year end is an adjusting event?
(a) The discovery of fraud or error which shows that financial statements are incorrect.
09. A component of an undertaking that sells primarily or exclusively to other operating segments of the
undertaking.
11. An operating segment may engage in business activities for which it has yet to earn revenues, for
example, start-up operations and it:
13. Two or more operating segments may be aggregated into a single operating segment if aggregation is
consistent with the core principle of IFRS 8, the segments have similar economic characteristics, and
the segments are similar in each of the following respects:
(i) the nature of the products and services
(ii) the nature of the production processes
(iii) the type or class of client for their products and services
(iv) the methods used to distribute their products or provide their services
(v) if applicable, the nature of the regulatory environment, for example, banking, insurance or public
utilities
(vi) staff numbers
14. Which TWO of the following events which occur after the reporting date of an entity but before the
financial statements are authorised for issue are classified as adjusting events in accordance with IAS
10 Events after the Reporting Period?
(a) A change in tax rate announced after the reporting date, but affecting the current tax liability
(b) The discovery of a fraud which had occurred during the year
(c) The determination of the sale proceeds of an item of plant sold before the year end
15. In a review of its provisions for the year ended 31 March 2015, entity’s assistant accountant has
suggested the following accounting treatments:
(i) Based on past experience, a Rs. 200,000 provision for unforeseen liabilities arising after the year
end.
(ii) The partial reversal (as a credit to the statement of profit or loss) of the accumulated depreciation
provision on an item of plant because the estimate of its remaining useful life has been increased
by three years.
(iii) Providing Rs. 1 million for deferred tax at 25% relating to a Rs. 4 million revaluation of property
during March 2015 even though entity has no intention of selling the property in the near future.
Which of the above suggested treatments of provisions is/are permitted by IFRS Standards?
16. Canon Limited (CL) is being sued by a customer for Rs. 2 million for breach of contract over a cancelled
order. CL has obtained legal opinion that there is a 20% chance that CL will lose the case. Accordingly,
CL has provided Rs. 400,000 (Rs. 2 million × 20%) in respect of the claim. The unrecoverable legal
costs of defending the action are estimated at Rs. 100,000. These have not been provided for as the
case will not go to court until next year.
What is the amount of the provision that should have been made by CL in respect of above information?
Rs. ___________
17. During the year Platinum Limited acquired an iron ore mine at a cost of Rs. 600 million. In addition,
when all the ore has been extracted (estimated ten years' time) the company will face estimated costs
for landscaping the area affected by the mining that have a present value of Rs. 200 million. These
costs would still have to be incurred even if no further ore was extracted.
At which amount the mine should be recognised?
Rs. ___________
18. Titanium Limited (TL) is preparing its financial statements for the year ended 30 September 2017. TL is
facing a number of legal claims from its customers with regards to a faulty product sold.
The total amount being claimed is Rs. 3.5 million. TL’s lawyers say that the customers have an 80%
chance of being successful.
According to IAS 37 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets, what amount, if any,
should be recognised in respect of the above in TL’s statement of financial position as at 30 September
2017?
Rs. ___________
19. Alpha Limited has a year end of 31 December 2014. On 15 December 2014 the directors publicly
announced their decision to close an operating unit and make a number of employees redundant. Some
of the employees currently working in the unit will be transferred to other operating units within Alpha
Limited.
Rs. ___________
20. On 1 October 2013, X Limited commenced drilling for oil in an undersea oilfield. The extraction of oil
causes damage to the seabed which has a restorative cost (ignore discounting) of Rs. 10,000 per million
barrels of oil extracted. X Limited extracted 250 million barrels of oil in the year ended 30 September
2014.
X Limited is also required to dismantle the drilling equipment at the end of its five-year licence. This has
an estimated cost of Rs. 30 million on 30 September 2018. X Limited’s cost of capital is 8% per annum
and Re. 1 has a present value of 68 paisa in five years’ time.
What is the total provision (extraction plus dismantling) which X Limited would report in its statement of
financial position as at 30 September 2014 in respect of its oil operations?
Rs. ___________
02. (b) A restructuring provision must not include the costs of retraining or relocating
staff.
03. (a) & (c) In (b) the obligation does not exist as it has not been communicated to those
affected by it. In (d) there is no obligation as warranty period has expired.
04. (c) This is non-adjusting event, however, being material, it should be disclosed.
05. (a) In (2) the decision was made public after year end, so it is non-adjusting event.
06. (a) The fraud existed at year end, it was only discovered after the year end.
13. (d) Staff number is not the factor to combine two or more segments.
14. (b & c) The change in tax rate and the fire will be non-adjusting events as the conditions
did not exist at the reporting date.
15. (d) Deferred tax relating to the revaluation of an asset must be provided for even if
there is no intention to sell the asset in accordance with IAS 12 Income Taxes.
16. Rs. 100,000 Loss of the case is not 'probable', so no provision is made, but the legal costs will
have to be paid so should be provided for.
17. Rs. 800 million Rs. 600 million + Rs. 200 million = Rs. 800 million
18. Rs. 3,500,000 The amount payable relates to a past event (the sale of faulty products) and the
likelihood of payout is probable (i.e. more likely than not). Hence, the full amount
of the payout should be provided for.
19. Rs. 1,000,000 The costs associated with ongoing activities (relocation and retraining of
employees) should not be provided for.