20-07-2025

0999DMD363103250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) For given circuit initially switch S is open. If switch is closed, then work done by cell after switch

is closed, is :

(1) CV2

(2)

(3)

(4) 2CV2

2) A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking n equally spaced plates connected alternatively. If
capacitance between any two adjacent plates is C, then the resultant capacitance is :-

(1) C
(2) nC
(3) (n – 1)C
(4) (n + 1) C

3) 3μF and 6μF capacitors are connected in series to a 10V cell. The work done by cell to charge the
capacitors is :-

(1) 50 μJ
(2) 100 μJ
(3) 200 μJ
(4) 250 μJ

4) n identical drops of Hg each have capacitance C merge to form a bigger drop. The capacitance of
bigger drop is : -

(1)
(2)
(3) nC
(4) n2C

5) A capacitor of 12 μF is charged to 50V and then connected to an uncharged capacitor of 4 μF.

The final voltage across each capacitor is :-

(1) 10 V
(2) 25 V
(3) 37.5 V
(4) 15 V

6) For given branch of a circuit if point B is at 10 V and point C is earthed, then find potential of

point A.

(1) 5 V
(2) 2 V
(3) 7 V
(4) 4 V

7)
If a dielectric of dielectric constant K = 2 is filled between plates of one capacitor, then percentage
change in charge on it :-

(1) 25%
(2) 30%
(3) 38.2%
(4) 33.3%

8)
At t = 0, switch is closed. The time at which energy stored in capacitor becomes one fourth of its
maximum value is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) RC
(4) RC ℓn2

9) Statement-I : The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases on inserting a dielectric.

Statement-II : Dielectric increases electric field between the plates.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

10) A block of mass, 1kg is at rest relative to a smooth wedge moving leftwards with constant
acceleration a = 5 m/s2.

Let N be the normal reaction between the block and the wedge. Then, (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) N =
(2) N = 15 N
tanθ =
(3)

(4) tanθ = 2

11) A block of mass 'm' is given an initial downward velocity V0 and left on an inclined plane

(coefficient of friction = 0.6). The block will

(1) Continue to move down the plane with constant velocity V0

(2) accelerate downwards
(3) decelerate and come to rest
(4) First decelerate downward, then accelerate.

12) Assertion (A) : A block of weight 10N is pushed against a vertical wall by a force of 15 N.
The coefficient of friction between the wall and the block is 0.6. Then, the magnitude of maximum
frictional force is 9N.
Reason (R) : For given system, block will remain stationary.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

13) A man of weight 50 g stands on a frame of weight 30 g. He pulls on a light rope which passes
over a pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the frame. For the system to be in equilibrium.
What force man must exert on the rope ?

(1) 40 g
(2) 80 g
(3) 30 g
(4) 50 g

14) In the figure given below, the position - time, graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The

impulse at t = 2 sec is .

(1) 0.2 kg m/sec

(2) – 0.2 kg m/sec
(3) 0.1 kg m/sec
(4) – 0.4 kg m/sec

15) A person 'A' is walking on a trolley with an acceleration of w.r.t. trolley. The mass of the
person is 50 kg. The trolley is being moved on a platform with velocity of w.r.t. platform and
the platform is moving on ground with an acceleration of . Then the pseudo forces on

person when viewed from trolley, platform and ground are respectively :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A train is moving with velocity 20m/sec. and on it dust is falling at the rate of 50 kg/min. The
extra force required to move this train with constant velocity will be

(1) 16.66 N
(2) 1000 N
(3) 166.6 N
(4) 1200 N
17) A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5 × 104 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 10
m/s2. Then the initial thrust of blast is .

(1) 1.75 × 105 N

(2) 3.5 × 105 N
(3) 7.0 × 105 N
(4) 14.0 × 105 N.

18) Find the reading of spring balance(S) for given diagram :

(1) 4 kgf
(2) 8 kgf
(3) 80 kgf
(4) 40 kgf

19) What is maximum value of force F such that the block shown in the arrangement, does not move

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 15 N

20) A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much
mass should be removed from it, so that it start moving up with an acceleration a?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
21) A dynamometer D is attached to two bodies of masses M = 6 Kg and m = 4 Kg. Forces F = 20 N
and f = 10 N are applied to the masses as shown. The dynamometer reads.

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 14 N

22) The pull P is just sufficient to keep the 14N block in equilibrium as shown, Pulleys are ideal. Find

the tension (in N) in the cable connected with ceiling.

(1) 2 N
(2) 16 N
(3) 14 N
(4) 7 N

23) A steel ball is suspended from the ceiling of an accelerating carriage by means of two strings A
and B. Determine the acceleration a of the carriage which will cause the tension in A be twice that in

B.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The block in figure can slide on a frictionless surface . The mass is pulled out by a distance x.
The spring constant are K1 and K2 respectively. Find the force on the wall. (Extension in K1 is x1 and

in K2 is x2) :
(1)

(2)

(3) K1x1

(4) K2x1

25) In order to raise a mass of 100 kg a man of 60 kg fastens a rope to it passed the rope over a

smooth pulley. He climbs the rope with acceleration relative to rope . The tension in the rope is :
(g = 10m/s2)

(1) 928 N
(2) 1218 N
(3) 1432 N
(4) 642 N

26) A heavy block of mass M hangs in equilibrium at the end of a rope of mass m and length ℓ
connected to a ceiling. Determine the tension in the rope at a distance x from the ceiling.

(1) T = Mg
T = Mg + mg
(2)

T = Mg + mg
(3)

(4) None of these

27) A force F = Kt is applied to a block A as shown in figure where 't' is time in second. The force is
applied at t = 0, when the system was at rest. Which of the following graphs correctly gives the

frictional force on the block A as a function of time ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Consider a block suspended from a light string as shown in the figure . Which of the following

pairs of forces constitute Newton's third law pair ?

(1) Force with which string pulls on the ceiling and the force with which string pulls on block.
(2) Force with which string pulls on the block and weight of the block.
(3) Force acting on block due to earth and force the block exerts on the earth.
(4) Force with which block pulls on string and force the block exerts on the earth.

29) Two blocks A and B of mass 2 Kg and 4 Kg respectively are placed on a smooth inclined plane
and 2 Kg block is pushed by a force F acting parallel to the plane as shown. If N be the magnitude

of contact force applied on B by A. Which of the following is correct ?

(1) If F = 0, N = 10 N
(2) If F = 15 N , N = 10 N
(3) If F = 2N, N = 100 N
(4) If F = 1 N, N = 50 N

30) A force of 100 N is applied on a block of mass 3 kg as shown in fig. The coefficient of friction

between the wall and the surface of the block is . Calculate frictional force acting on the block.

(1) 30 N
(2) 15 N
(3) 45 N
(4) 20 N

31) Two small identical blocks are connected to the ends of the string passing over pulley as shown,

when the system is released from rest.

(1) block A and B do not move

(2) block A leaves contact at P and move towards pulley along the string.
(3) block A does not leave contact with table till it reaches to the edge Q of the table.
(4) A does not move but B accelerate downwards.

32) A block placed on a rough horizontal surface is pushed with a force F acting horizontally on the
block. The magnitude F is increased and acceleration produced is plotted in the graph shown.
Correct option is :

(A) mass of block is 2 Kg

(B) Coefficient of friction between block and surface is 0.5.
(C) Limiting friction between block and surface is 10 N.
(D) When F = 8 N, friction between block and surface is 10 N.

(1) A, B, C
(2) B and C only
(3) A, B, C , D
(4) A and C only

33) A capacitor of capacitance C1 = 1μF can withstand maximum voltage V1 = 6 kV (kilo-volt) and
another capacitor of capacitance C2 = 3μF can withstand maximum voltage V2 = 4kV. When the two
capacitors are connected in series, the combined system can withstand a maximum voltage of :-

(1) 4 kV
(2) 6 kV
(3) 8 kV
(4) 10 kV
34) A cube of side "a" is placed between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. Find electric energy

stored inside cube.

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

35) Two thin conducting shells of Radii R and 3R are shown in the figure. The outer shell carries a
charge +Q and the inner shell is neutral. The inner shell can be earthed with the help of switch S
then :-
(A) With the switch S open, the potential of the inner shell is equal to that of the outer.
(B) When the switch S is closed, the potential of inner shell becomes zero.

(C) With the switch S closed, the charge attained by the inner shell is .

(D) By closing the switch the capacitance of the system increases.

(1) A, B
(2) A, B, C
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

36) A capacitor of capacitance 2µF is firstly charge by connecting across a 200 V battery then it is
allowed to get discharged through a resistor R. The figure shows an experimental plot of discharging

of a capacitor. The value of R is (loge2 = 0.7) :-

(1) 25 k Ω
(2) 50 k Ω
(3) 100 k Ω
(4) 200 k Ω

37) Find equivalent capacitance between A & B.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Four identical metal plates are located in air at equal distance d from one another as shown in
figure. The area of each plate is equal to A. Find the capacitance of the system between points A and

B-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

In the given R–C circuit, the current I at t = 0 is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A parallel plate capacitor is given. Choose most appropriate graph of potential of it. (K1 > K2)

(Where K represent dielectric constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A 3 µF capacitor is charged to a potential of 300 V and a 2µF capacitor is charged to 200 V. The
capacitors are then connected in parallel with plates of opposite polarity joined together. What
amount of charge will flow when the plates are so connected -

(1) 250µC
(2) 600µC
(3) 700µC
(4) 1300µC
42) A man thinks about 4 arrangements as shown to raise two small bricks each having mass m.
Which of the arrangement would take minimum time ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Find acceleration of upper block if static & kinetic friction have same value. (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 6 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) None of these

44) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation
between its plates is 'd'. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the

dielectrics has dielectric constant K1=3 and thickness while the other one has dielectric constant

K2 = 6 and thickness . Capacitance of the capacitor is now:-

(1) 1.8 pF
(2) 45 pF
(3) 40.5 pF
(4) 20.25 pF

45) Three capacitors are connected as shown in fig. Then the charge on capacitor C1 is :-
(1) 6μC
(2) 12μC
(3) 18μC
(4) 24μC

CHEMISTRY

1) Molecule like BrF5 & XeOF4 are square pyramidal, then hybridisation is ?

(1) dsp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2

2) The shape of XeF3+ is :-

(1) Trigonal planar

(2) Pyramidal
(3) T shape
(4) See saw

3) The formal charges on the three O-atoms in O3 molecule are :-

(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 0, 0, –1
(3) 0, 0, +1
(4) 0, + 1,–1

4) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Bond order of & are similar.

(2) Number of pπ - pπ bonds in SO2 & SO3 are similar.
(3) Elements [Ar]4s23d5 & [Xe]6s2 represent main group elements of the periodic table.
(4) Molecules CO2 & show's diagonal hybridisation.

5)

The correct order for O–O bond length in given molecule is

I. H2O2 II. O2 III. O3
(1) I < II < III
(2) II < I < III
(3) II < III < I
(4) III < I < II

6) Due to inter molecular H–bond generally :-

(1) Solubility increases

(2) Boiling point increases
(3) Viscosity increases
(4) All of these

7) In the reaction BF3 + NH3 F3B.NH3

(1) Bond angle F – B – F increase

(2) bond angle decrease
(3) regular geometry of BF3 changed
(4) Electronic geometry of NH3 changed.

8) Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9)

Which of the following has minimum vapour pressure :-

(1) NH3
(2) PH3
(3) SbH3
(4) AsH3

10) Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II and select
the correct answer using the code given below in the lists.

List-I List-II

p–d
(P) (1)
(π antibonding)

d–d
(Q) (2)
(σ bonding)
 p–d
(R) (3)
(π bonding)

s–s
(S) (4)
(σ antibonding)
Code :
P Q R S

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 4 3 1 2

(3) 2 3 1 4

(4) 4 1 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) How many of the following are planar ?

XeF2, ClF3, H2O, [XeF5]–, I3–, BCl3, XeF4, SF4, PCl5, SF6, IF7.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 4

12) Which among the following is not an exception of Lewis octet rule ?

(1) PCl5
(2) AlCl3
(3) NaCl
(4) ClO2

13) Covalency of N in HNO3 is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

14) Correct order of lattice energy :-

(1) Na2O > MgO

(2) KBr > LiF
(3) NaCl > Na2O
(4) KF > RbF

15) Which of the following is hypovalent.

(1) CO2
(2) SO2
(3) SF6
(4) BCl3

16) Dipole moment of is 1.5D predict the dipole moment of

(1) 3 D
(2) 2.35 D
(3) 1.5 D
(4) 1 D

17)

Which given order of Boiling point is wrong :-

(1) HF > HI > HBr > HCl

(2) SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(4) CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4

18) Intramolecular H-bonding is present in :

(1) Ortho-Nitrophenol
(2) Salicylaldehyde
(3) Para-Nitrophenol
(4) Both (1) and (2)

19) Compare bond angle the following molecules

(1) x > y
(2) x < y
(3) x = y
(4) None

20)
Consider the following molecules ;
I. NH3 II. PH3 III. AsH3 IV. SbH3
Arrange these molecules in increasing order of bond angles.

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) I < II < IV < III
(4) II < IV < III < I

21) Assertion (A) :- p-hydroxy benzoic acid has a lower boiling point than o-hydroxy benzoic acid.
Reason (R) :- o-hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

22) Match the steric number and type of hybridisation with distribution of hybrid orbitals in space
based on Valence bond theory.

Steric number and Distribution of hybrid

type of hybridisation orbitals in space

(a) 4, sp3 (i) trigonal bipyramidal

(b) 3, sp2 (ii) octahedral

(c) 5, sp3d (iii) tetrahedral

(d) 6, sp3d2 (iv) trigonal planar

Select the correct option :
(1) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iii) (c)-(iv) (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(i) (c)-(ii) (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)

23) Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(Species) (Bond order)

a H2+ p 0

b He2 q 1.5

c N2 + r 0.5

d O2– s 2.5
(1) a - r, b - p , c - s, d - q
(2) a - p, b - r , c - s, d - q
(3) a - r, b - p , c - q, d - s
(4) a - p, b - r , c - q, d - s

24) Assertion (A) : Like O2 molecule, S2 molecule also shows paramagnetic behaviour.
Reason (R) : In vapour state sulphur as S2 molecule has 2 unpaired e– in π* orbitals.
Choose correct option given below :-

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

25) Assertion : C2 molecule has only π-bond.

Reason : If s-p mixing is supposed to be absent in C2 then it will be paramagnetic.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

26) Statement-I :- Bond dissociation energy of F2 is greater than Cl2.

Statement-II :- Electronegativity of Cl is greater than F.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

27) Assertion (A) :- Order of IP in 13th group is

B > Tl > Ga > In > Al.
Reason (R) :- Irregular trend in I.E. is due to Transition contraction & Lanthanoid contraction is
present in 13th group.

(1) A is correct & R is correct, R is correct explanation of A

(2) A is correct, R is incorrect
(3) A is incorrect, R is correct
(4) Both A & R incorrect

28) Assertion : Highest negative electron gain enthalpy of element in periodic table is Cl.
Reason : Cl is the most electronegative element in periodic table.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
29) Assertion :- H2Se is more acidic than H2S.
Reason :- S is more electronegative than Se.

(1) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

30) Assertion : The elements having 1s22s22p63s2 and 1s22s2 configurations belong to the same
group.
Reason : Both have same number of electrons in the valence shell.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

31) Match the following Column-I (Element) to Column-II (Electronic configuration).

Column-I Column-II

(A) 3rd Alkali metal (P) 1s22s22p63s23p63d24s2

(B) 2nd Transition element (Q) 1s22s22p63s23p5

(C) 2nd Noble gas (R) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

(D) 2nd Halogen element (S) 1s22s22p6

(1) (A)–(S); (B)–(R); (C)–(Q); (D)–(P)
(2) (A)–(S); (B)–(P); (C)–(R); (D)–(Q)
(3) (A)–(R); (B)–(Q); (C)–(P); (D)–(S)
(4) (A)–(R); (B)–(P); (C)–(S); (D)–(Q)

32) Select the correct statement from the following:-

(a) IE2 > IE1 is always true for neutral atom.
(b) IE1 of He is maximum.
(c) ΔegH of Cℓ is maximum negative.
(d) Cs is the most electronegative element.
Choose the correct answers from the following options :-

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d

33)

Boron shows diagonal relationship with element having atomic number :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 13

34) Recently discovered elements with atomic number 115 is :-

(1) Uun
(2) Uub
(3) Uup
(4) Uus

35) The element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p6, 4d10, 5s2, 5p5 will
belong to which of the group of the periodic table:

(1) 5th
(2) 17th
(3) 12th
(4) 15th

36) Match the column :-

Column I Column II

Natural transuranic
(A) (P) Na, Mg
element

(B) d-block element (Q) Be, Al

Diagonally related
(C) (R) Fe, Co
elements

(D) Typical elements (S) Np, Pu

Correct Code is :-

A B C D
(1) R P S Q
(2) S R Q P
(3) S R P Q
(4) R S Q P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which of the following radius order is not due to lanthanoid contraction ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) Which of the following represents a correct sequence of electronegativity values ?

(1) F > N > O > C

(2) F > N < O > C
(3) F > N > C > O
(4) F < N < O < C

39) I+, I–, I in order of decreasing size :-

(1) I+, I–, I

(2) I+, I, I–
(3) I–, I, I+
(4) I, I+, I–

40) Which of the following order of atomic radii is not correct

(1) Fe < Co < Ni

(2) Ni < Pd ≈Pt
(3) B < Al ≈ Ga
(4) Sc < Y < La

41) Which of the following species represent maximum ionisation energy ?

(1) Li⊕
(2) He–
(3) He
(4) Be2+

42) For which of the following reaction ΔHIE represent to the first ionization energy of Ca is :

(1) Ca+(g) Ca2+(g) + e–

(2) Ca(g) Ca+(g) + e–
(3) Ca(s) Ca+(g) + e–
(4) Ca(g) Ca2+(g) + 2e–

43) Which has maximum first ionization potential :-

(1) C
(2) N
(3) B
(4) O
44) IE values for Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. IE of Na will be :

(1) 9.7 eV
(2) 1.1 eV
(3) 4.9 eV
(4) 6.2 eV

45) The successive ionization energies for an unknown element are.

IP1 = 899 kJ/mole IP2 = 1757 kJ/mole
IP3 = 14847 kJ/mole IP4 = 17948 kJ/mole To which group in the periodic table does the unknown
element most likely belong.

(1) IA
(2) IIA
(3) IVA
(4) VIA

BIOLOGY

1) Which one is false about monocot stem ?

(i) Vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by parenchymatous bundle sheath
(ii) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous
(iii) Ground tissue remain undifferentiated into cortex, endodermis and pith
(iv) Peripheral vascular bundles are large and less in number as compare central part
(v) Water cavity absent within vascular bundles.

(1) i, iii, v
(2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, iv and v
(4) iv & v

2) Assertion (A) : All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue.
Reason (R) : The xylem and phloem together constitute vascular bundles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Statement-I : In sunflower root, parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the
phloem are called conjuctive tissue.
Statement-II : In dicotyledous stem hypodermis consist of a few layers of sclerenchymatous cells.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

4) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

a. Starch sheath (i) Monocot stem

Sclerenchymatous
b. (ii) Dicot leaf
hypodermis

Polyarch xylem
c. (iii) Dicot stem
bundles

Palisade and spongy

d. (iv) Monocot root
parenchyma
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)

5) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

a–subsidiary cell; b–guard cell;

(1)
c–epidermal cell; d–stomatal pore
b–subsidiary cell; a–guard cell;
(2)
c–epidermal cell; d–stomatal pore
b–subsidiary cell; c–guard cell;
(3)
a–epidermal cell; d–stomatal pore
a–subsidiary cell; d–guard cell;
(4)
b–epidermal cell; c–stomatal pore

6) Statement-I :- Cuticle is absent in roots.

Statement-II :- Root hair are always unicellular.
Chose correct statement :-

(1) Statement-I correct and statement-II incorrect

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(3) Statement-I incorrect and statement-II correct
(4) Statement-I and II both are wrong

7) Which of the following is not a part of the ground tissue system ?

(1) General cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Xylem
(4) Pericycle

8) Which type of vascular bundle are shown in given diagram ?

(1) Conjoint, open

(2) Conjoint, close
(3) Radial
(4) Conjoint, bicolleteral

9)
Identify the given figure.

(1) Stomata of dicot plant leaf

(2) Stomata of grass leaf
(3) Stomata of pteridophyte leaf
(4) Stomata of gymnosperm leaf

10) Represented below are the types of vascular bundles. Which of the following option could be

correct regarding them ?

A B

(1) Radial Conjoint, open

(2) Conjoint, open Conjoint, closed

(3) Conjoint, closed Conjoint, open

(4) Conjoint, closed Radial

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Figures 'x' and 'y' represent the transverse sections of ________ and ______ respectively.

x y
(1) Dicot root Dicot stem
(2) Monocot Root Monocot stem
(3) Dicot stem Monocot stem
(4) Monocot stem Dicot stem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

Select the mismatched pair :-

(1) Root hair – Unicellular

(2) Stem hair – Multicelluar
(3) Trichomes – Responsible for water loss
(4) Bulliform cells - Grasses

13) Which of the following structure is shown in given figure?

(1) Maize Leaf

(2) Sunflower leaf
(3) Gram leaf
(4) Maize Stem
14) Monocot root differ from dicot root in having :

(1) Polyarch xylem bundles

(2) Large and well developed pith
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Radial vascular bundle

15) The stomatal pore, guard cells and surrounding subsidiary cells are together called ________ .

(1) Stomata
(2) Epidermis
(3) Stomatal apparatus
(4) Trichomes

16) Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma in :-

(1) Isobilateral leaf

(2) Monocot leaf
(3) Dorsiventral leaf
(4) (1) and (2) both

17) Water impermeable structure present in endodermis is

(1) Pericycle
(2) Casparian strips
(3) Vascular cambium
(4) Cuticle

18) Scattered vascular bundle can be seen in which plant stem :

(1) Mustard stem

(2) Gram stem
(3) Sunflower stem
(4) Maize stem

19) Choose correct order of cells from outside to inside in a sunflower root :-

(1) Epidermis → endodermis → cortex → pericycle

(2) Epiblema → cortex → endodermis → pericycle
(3) Epiblema → cortex → pericycle → endodermis
(4) Epidermis → endodermis → pericycle → cortex

20) All the tissue in dicot root present on the innerside of the endodermis is called as

(1) Stele
(2) Conjuctive tissue
(3) Cortex
(4) Casparian strips

21) In isobilateral leaf :

(1) Stomata present on both surface

(2) Stomata present on lower surface
(3) Stomata present on upper surface
(4) Stomata are found only on apex of leaf

22) Which of the following are the features of a typical dorsiventral leaf ?
(a) Mesophyll differentiated into pallisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.
(b) Presence of parenchymatous bundle sheath.
(c) The abaxial epidermis genrally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis.
(d) Vascular bundles are open type.

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

23) Statement-I : G(2) condition represent hypogynous flower and Bicarpellary syncarpus inferior
ovary.
Statement-II : condition represent Epigynous Bicarpellary syncarpus superior ovary.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement -II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

24) Parietal placentation with false septum is found in -

(1) Dianthus, Primrose

(2) Mustard, Argemone
(3) Tomato, Chinarose
(4) Sunflower, wheat

25) If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction is
called-

(1) Valvate
(2) Twisted
(3) Vexillary
(4) Imbricate

26) Stem tendril found in-

(1) Potato, Zaminkand
(2) Cucumber, watermelon
(3) Opuntia, Eichhornia
(4) Banana, Chrysanthemum

27) Which statement not correct for stem thorn?

(1) Develop from axillary buds of stems.

(2) Straight, woody and pointed structure.
(3) They protect plants from browsing animals.
(4) Found in opuntia and Euphorbia.

28) Which statement is not incorrect regarding parthenocarpic fruit?

(1) No need of floral part for developing fruit.

(2) After fertilization ovary develops into fruit.
(3) Fruit is formed without fertilisation of the ovary.
(4) In pome- granate plant parthenocarpic is very useful.

29) The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer is called-

(1) Scutellum
(2) Aleurone layer
(3) Coleoptile
(4) Coleorhiza

30) Given floral formula not represent :-

(1) Flower is bracteate

(2) Flower is bisexual
(3) Tetramerous Flower
(4) Ovary superior

31) In which plants endosperm is not present in mature seeds?

(1) Bean
(2) Gram
(3) Pea
(4) All of these

32) In given following example how many plant show superior ovary with swollen placenta ?
Mustard, Turnip, Radish, Tomato, Brinjal, Rose, Guava, Cucumber, Potato, chilli, Petunia, Tobacco,
Lupin, Muliathi, Indigofera, Arhar

(1) Ten
(2) Six
(3) Fifteen
(4) Eleven

33) Given floral formula represent :-

(1) Corolla represent twisted aestivation.

(2) Racemose inflorescence.
(3) Stamen ten diadelphous, ovary superior.
(4) Gynoecium unilocular with many ovules.

34) Match the column-I with column-II regarding their examples -

Column-I Column-II

(A) Epiphyllous stamens (i) Chinarose

(B) Apocarpous Gynoecium (ii) Rose

(C) Tetramerous flower (iii) Lily

(D) Monoadelphous stamens (iv) Mustard

(1) A–(i), B– (ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iv), B– (iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(3) A–(iii), B– (ii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B– (ii), C–(i), D–(iv)

35) In which plant the leaves are small and short lived than petiole expand become green and
synthesis food?

(1) Onion
(2) Garlic
(3) Australian acacia
(4) Alstonia

36) Read all statement carefully and select incorrect statement regarding to solanaceae family

(1) Stem branched , Solid or hollow, hairy or glabrous

(2) Persistent calyx, Valvate aestivation.
(3) Epipetalous stamens, Ovary superior
(4) Placenta swollen with two ovules and non-endospermic seed.

37) In given following example how many plant show trimerous condition and axile placentation ?
Wheat, Maize, Tomato, Petunia, Brinjal, Tulip, Gloriosa, Aloe, Asparagus, Belladona, Lupin

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

38) Papilionaceous corolla characteristic feature of :-

(1) Lupin
(2) Tulip
(3) Sweet pea
(4) Both (1) and (3)

39) Statement-I : Leaf is a lateral out growth of stem developed exogeneously at the node.
Statement-II : The floral characteristics form the basis of classification and identification of
flowering plant.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

40) In which plant leaf base expands into a sheath covering the stem partially or wholly -

(1) Neem
(2) Gram
(3) Wheat
(4) Mustard

41) Statement-I : The flower is a modified shoot where the shoot apical meristem changes to floral
meristem.
Statement-II : When a shoot tip transforms into flower, it is always solitary.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

42) Read all statement carefully and select correct statement given in option:- (A) A sterile stamen is
called staminate.
(B) Citrus example of polyadelphous condition.
(C) A fruit is formed after fertilisation of the ovary is called a parthenocarpic fruit.
(D) A flower having either only stamen or only carpels is bisexual.
(E) In Lily plant , the calyx and corolla are not distinct.

(1) Statement A, B, D and E corrects only.

(2) Statement B, E correct only
(3) Statement A, C, D correct only
(4) Statement A, B, C correct only

43) In which family ovary superior, monocarpellary, unilocular with many ovules, style single
condition is present : -

(1) Cruciferae family

(2) Fabaceae family
(3) Solanoceae family
(4) Liliaceae family

44) In cactus (cacti) plant leaves modified in to spines for :-

(1) Climbing
(2) Support
(3) Defence
(4) Photosynthesis

45) How many statement correct for cymose inflorescence :-

(a) The main axis terminates in a flower.
(b) The main axis show limited growth.
(c) The flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession.
(d) The flower's are born in a basipetal order.
(e) Found in member's of solanaceae family.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

46) Body of frog is divisible into:

(1) Head & Tail

(2) Head, Thorax & Abdomen
(3) Head & Trunk
(4) Head, Neck, Trunk

47) Statement-I : Frogs have constant body temperature so they called poikilotherms.
Statement-II : Frogs can live both on land & in marine water.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

48) Select the incorrect statement about frog.

(1) Frogs are cold blooded.

(2) Their skin is smooth due to oil gland.
(3) Frog exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(4) One pair tympanum is present.

49) Which of the following is sexual dimorphic character of frog.

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Tympanum
(3) Vocal sacs
(4) Nictitating membrane

50) During hibernation frog respire through:

(1) Gills
(2) Lungs
(3) Skin
(4) Both 1 & 3

51) Statement-I : Hepatic portal & Renal portal system are present in frog.
Statement-II : Due to Enucleated R.B.C in frog R.B.C doesn't helps in transportation of gases.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

52) The __________ walled urinary bladder of frog is present______ to the rectum.

(1) Thin, Dorsal

(2) Thick, Ventral
(3) Thick, Dorsal
(4) Thin, Ventral

53) Find out incorrect statement for frog.

(1) Urinogenital duct present in male frog only

(2) Female frog can lay 2500-3000 ova at time
(3) Fertilisation is internal & takes place in water.
(4) 10-12 vasa efferentia are present in male frog.

54) Find out incorrect match:-

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium – Ducts of glands

(2) Squamous epithelium – Walls of blood vessels
(3) Brush border columnar epithelium – PCT of nephron
(4) Ciliated epithelium – Fallopian tube
55) How many of the followings are example of compound epithelium.
Alveoli, Pharynx, Bronchioles, Dry surface of skin, fallopian tube, moist surface of buccal cavity.

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

56) In which connective tissue fibres are absent.

(1) Cartilage
(2) Blood
(3) Adipose
(4) Areolar

57) Statement-I : Tendon & ligament are dense regular connective tissue.
Statement-II : Areolar & adipose tissues are present beneath the skin.

(1) Both statement are wrong.

(2) Both statement are correct.
(3) Statement I is wrong.
(4) Statement II is wrong.

58) Select the incorrect statement .

(1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid & pliable.

(2) Bone marrow is the site of production of blood cells.
(3) Most of the bones in vertebrates embryos are replaced by cartilage in adults.
(4) Tip of nose, outer ear joints are example of cartilage.

59) Genital pouch of female cockroach is formed of :-

(1) 7th, 8th, 9th Tergites

(2) 7th, 8th, 9th Pleuron
(3) 7th, 9th, 10th Tergites
(4) 7th, 8th, 9th Sternite

60) Find out incorrect match :

(1) Labium - lower lip

(2) Labrum - upper lip
(3) Mandible - Hypopharynx
(4) Maxilla - 1 pair

61) Statement-I : Tegmina are opaque, leathery & are called forewings.
Statement-II : Anal cerci present on 10th segment in male cockroach only.

(1) Both statement are correct.

(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

62) In cockroach digestive juice is secreted by :-

(1) Proventriculus
(2) Hepatic Caeca
(3) Malpighian Tubule
(4) Gizzard

63) Find out incorrect match about cockroach.

(1) Cockroach blood is colourless & contains haemocytes.

(2) Heart of cockroach is dorsal, tubular & 13 chambered.
(3) Malpighian tubules helps in excretion
(4) Haemolymph helps in transportation of food, gases & hormones.

64) Respiratory structure of cockroach is :-

(1) Book gills

(2) Tracheal tubes
(3) Skin
(4) Book lungs

65) Assertion : Sexual dimorphism is seen in cockroach.

Reason : Anal style present on 9th sternum in male.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

66) Find out incorrect match about Cockroach.

(1) Testes - 4th - 6th segment.

(2) Mushroom gland - 7th - 8th segment.
(3) Spermatheca - 6th segment.
(4) Ovary - 2nd – 6th segment.

67) How many of the following are present in male cockroach.

Phallic gland, Spermatheca, Titilator, Anal style, Collaterial gland, Vestibulum.
(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Five

68) Find out incorrect statement about Cockroach.

(1) Internal fertilisation takes place in genital chamber.

(2) Seminal vesicles store sperm & small tubule provide nutrition to them.
(3) Female ovaries can produce 16 ova at a time.
(4) Wings located on meso & meta thorax

69) In mammals the presence of odontoid process is characteristic feature of

(1) Atlas
(2) Axis Vertebra
(3) Thorasic Vertebra
(4) Typical cervical vertebra

70) When a joint is such that allows movement of bone in all directions it is known as :

(1) Ball and socket joint

(2) Pivot joint
(3) Hinge joint
(4) Fibrous joint

71) Which type of joint between Ribs and sternum ?

(1) Cartilagenous
(2) Synovial
(3) Hinge
(4) Fibrous

72) The common features which are present in muscles & nerves.
(A) Excitability
(B) Conductivity
(C) Contractability
(D) Sensitivity

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D

73) Which of the following is correct match of bones and number.

(1) Metacarpals-8
(2) Carpals-12
(3) Phalanges-14
(4) Tarsals-8

74) Obturator foramen present between.

(1) Ischium and Pubis

(2) Ilium and Ischium
(3) Ilium and Pubis
(4) Two occipital bone

75) Identify the following structure related with muscle shown below and select the correct.
Option for together.

(1) Thin Filament Actin

(2) Thick filament Thin filament

(3) Thin filament Meromyosin

(4) Light Meromyosin Heavy Meromyosin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) Each half of pectoral girdle consists of following bones.

(a) Clavicle (b) Scapula
(c) Ileum (d) Pubis

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) a and d
(4) c and d

77) Functional unit of muscle contraction is :

(1) Muscle fiber

(2) Sarcomere
(3) Myofibrils
(4) Actin and Myosin
78) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid cause which disease.

(1) Osteoporosis
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Gout

79) Which type of joints do not allow any movement.

(1) Fibrous joints

(2) Cartilagenous joint
(3) Hing joints
(4) Pivot joints

80) In given two statements choose correct option.

Statement-I : Muscles is mesodermal in origin.
Statement-II : Visceral muscles are located in inner wall of hollow visceral organ of body.

(1) Statement I correct but statement II incorrect.

(2) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) Statement I incorrect but statement II correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both incorrect

81) Amoeboid movement is found in :

(1) Limbs, Jaw

(2) Macrophages, Leucocytes
(3) Trachea, Fallopian tube
(4) Tongue, Leucocytes

82) Assertion : Muscle contraction is initiated by a-signal send by the central nervous system via
motor neuron.
Reason : A neural signal reaching the motor-end plate releases Ca++.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct the Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but the Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect.

83) In Skeletal muscle fibre Ca++ is stored in :

(1) Sarcomere
(2) Sarcolema
(3) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
(4) Sarcosome
84) How many bone are found in forelimbs ?

(1) 60
(2) 30
(3) 15
(4) 80

85) Examine the figure of pectoral girdle and forelimb and Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and

D.

(1) A-Clavicle, B-Humerus, C-Radius, D-Carpals

(2) A-Scapula, B-Femar, C-Ulna, D-Tarsals
(3) A-Clavicle, B-Femar, C-Radius, D-Carpals
(4) A-Scapula, B-Humerus, C-Ulna, D-Tarsals

86) The Human cranium is made up of how many bones.

(1) 14
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

87) The change during contraction of muscles.

(1) Actin filament slide over myosin

(2) Actin filament slide over actin
(3) Myosin filament slide over actin
(4) Myosin filament slide over myosin

88) In human beings ciliary movement is found in :

(1) macrophages and Leucocytes

(2) Fallopian tube and Trachea
(3) Small Intestine
(4) Fallopian tube and Leucocytes

89) In the centre of I-band is an elastic fiber present that bisect it.

(1) 'z' line

(2) 'A' Band
(3) 'M' line
(4) 'H' Zone

90) The total number of Ribs in human body is

(1) 24
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 36
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 3 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 2 3 2 2 1 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 4 4 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 3 4 2 4 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 1 1 2 1 2 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) n plates connected alternately gives rise to (n – 1) capacitors connected in parallel.

∴ Resultant capacitance = ( n – 1) C

3)

4)

5)

6)

By nodal method, (VA – 5) × 3 + (VA – 10) × 2 = 0

⇒ VA = 7 V

7) qi = Ceq. V = (1) 10 = 10 μC

qf =

% change =

8)

⇒ t = RC ln 2

9) Statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect.

10) By F. B.D
as we know
a = g tan θ

tan θ =
Now
N = mg cosθ + ma sinθ

=
=

11) Since
μmgcosθ > mgsinθ
Hence body will decelerate and come to rest.

12) Normal Reaction= 15 N weight = 10N

fmax = μN = 9 N
since, weight > fmax
block will move downwards.

13) From F.B.D of man

T + N = 50 g ...(1)
From F.B.D of frame T = 30 g + N
T – N = 30 g ....(2)
From (1) & (2)
2T = 80 g

Here external force of rope by man is equal to tension.

F = 40 g

14) at t = 2 s
ΔP = m ( v – u)
= 0.1 (0 – 2)
= – 0.2 kg m/sec.

15)

Pseudo force from ground = Zero (inertial frame)

Pseudo force from platform = –mbody . aFrame
 =
Pseudo force from trolley = –mbody aframe
=

16)

17)
upthrust = mg + ma
= 7.0 × 105 N

18) m/s2

T – 30 =
T = 40 N
Reading = 2T = 80 N = 8 kgf

19) f = μN
Fcos60 = μ (w + Fsin 60°)

20) I case : ....(1)

II case : ..... (2)
From (1) & (2)

Removed mass = m – m'

or

21)
Let F0 is the reading of dynamometer
F – F0 = M (a)
20 – F0 = (6) (1)

22) From constrained motion

7P = 14 N
P = 2N
Tension in upper cable
⇒ 8P or 16 N

23) T1 cos 60 – T2 cos 60 = ma ... (1)

T1 sin 60 + T2 sin 60 = mg ... (2)
T1 = 2T2 .... (3)
On solving equation

24) F = K1x1 = K2x2

force on wall
F = K1x1

25)
T – 60 g = 60 a ... (1) T –100 g = 100 a' ...(2)

and a + a' = ... (3) By solving (1), (2) & (3)

26) In equilibrium
For ℓ length mass – m
For (ℓ– x) length mass

27) From t = 0 to some time friction increases as applied force increase, then friction becomes
constant after a particular time.

28) Action - Reaction should be on different bodies of same magnitude, same nature and in
opposite direction.

29) From F. B. D of A
F – N – 10 = 2a
From F. B. D of B
N – 20 = 4a

Check by putting F
If F = 15 N , N = 10 N

30)
fmax = μN

=
= 21.25
50 = 30 + f
f = 20 N < fmax
Hence

31) Value of N is decreasing when block A moves from P to Q. At Q point N becomes zero.
Hence it will leave the contact.
32) F - f = ma μmg = 10

30 – 10 = m (10) μ = or 0.5
m = 2 Kg fmax = 10 N (block start at
force = 10 N)

33)

We know Q = CV
Hence (Q1)max = 6 mC while (Q2)max = 12mC
However in series charge is same so maximum charge on C2 will also be 6mC (and not 12mC)

and hence potential difference across C2 will be and as in series

V = V1 + V2
So Vmax = 6kV + 2kV = 8kV

34) Energy density =

Energy = Energy density × volume

= ε E2 × a3
0

Put E =

35) After closing the switch, inner sphere is grounded.

Hence Vinner = 0
Let after closing the switch, charge on inner sphere be q then

Vinner =

36) T1/2 = 0.7 RC

R=

= = 5 × 104
R = 50 × 103 Ω = 50 kΩ

37)
We have find CAB, then circuit can be redrawn like this ........
OR

OR C (2C + CAB) = CAB (5C + 2CAB)

OR

OR

OR CAB =

38)

39)

At t = 0 capacitor behave like short circuit

so

40)

When dielectric is placed

And K1 > K2 > 1 So

Slop of V and d curve is more for K2 than K, But slope for both K1 and K2 is lesser
than for air or vacuum.
 41)
q1 = 3 × 300 = 900 μC
q'1 = 3 × 100 = 300 μC
Δq = 900 – 300
= 600 μC

42) In case 2F force is used to lift 2m mass whereas in all other cases lesser force is used to
lift 2m mass.

43)

For 2Kg limiting friction is fe = 0.6 × 2 × 10 = 12N

Its maximum possible acceleration =

But applied force is 20 N it gives acceleration =

So both block will more together and acceleration = 4m/s2

44) = 9 PF

C' = = =

C' = pF = 40.5pF

45)
By KCL
Q1 + Q2 + Q3 = 0
2 (x – 6) + 2 (x – 6) + 4 (x – 0) = 0

Q = CV
= 2 × 3 = 6 μC

CHEMISTRY

46)

Concept - Square pyramidal geometry, as seen in BrF5 and XeOF4, requires six electron
domains. This corresponds to sp³d² hybridization, which provides the necessary six hybrid
orbitals for the observed shape.

47) hybridisation is sp3d (3 bp, 2 ℓp) T-shape.

48)

49)

(1) Bond order of is 1.5 and is also 1.5.

(2)
1 pπ – pπ 1 pπ – pπ
1 pπ – dπ 2 pπ – dπ
(3) s and p block elements are main group elements.
(4) sp hybridisation is called diagonal hybridisation.

50) H–O–O–H O=O

B.O. = 1 B.O. = 2 B.O. = 1.5

51) Intermolecular H-bond ∝ Boiling point

∝ Viscosity

52)

53) is order of dipole moment based upon q × d values of all

bonds and vector sum of all bond moments.

54)

Vapour pressure ∝
order of boiling point is
PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 < SbH3
So, minimum vapour pressure of SbH3.

55) (P) Along the I.N.A. ⇒ σ

(Q) p + d ⇒ π bonding
(R) Opposite phase → π antibonding
(S) Opposite phase → σ bond (s–s)

56) XeF2, I3– → Linear (planar)

BCl3 → Plane triangle (planar)
XeF4 → Square planar (planar)
[XeF5]– → Pentagonal planar (planar)
ClF3 → Bent 'T' - shape (planar)
H2O → 'V' - shape (planar)

57) NaCl Ionic

58) HNO3

Maximum covalency of Nitrogen = 4

59) L.E. ∝

60) Due to large size of I–.

61)
The three bond moments, which are 120° apart and equal in magnitude, have resultant zero.

It's net dipole moment equals to the .

62)

b.p ∝ molar mass or surface area

CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4 < SnH4
63)

Ortho nitrophenol, salicylaldehyde ⇒

Intra H–bonding
Para nitrophenol ⇒ inter –H bonding.

64)

Hybridisation same, ℓp at central atom same

⇒ EN of central atom ∝ bond angle

65) As the electronegativity of central atom increases the bond angle increases due to
repulsion between bond pair and bond pair as bond pairs are more close to the central atom.

66)

Due to intramolecular H-bonding in o-hydroxy benzoic acid

67) sp3 – tetrahedral, dsp2 - square planar

sp3d – trigonal bipyramidal, d2sp3-octahedral

68) Bond order = [Nb - Na]

69) In vapour phase of sulphur S2 molecule has 2 unpaired es–

70) NCERT Pg.#131

(Only π orbitals are used so 2π bonds present only)

71) B.E. = Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

EN = F > Cl > Br > I

72)

I.E. → B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In

due to Lanthanoid contraction & Transition contraction

73)

EN has no direct correlation with EA.

74)

Acidic character H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te

Top to bottom size increases
so, bond length increases, so bond strength decreases.

75) Both has same no of valence electron.

76)

(A) 3rd Alkali metal : Li Na K Rb Cs ⇒ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
(B) 2nd Transition element : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d2
(C) 2nd Noble gas : 1s2 2s2 2p6
(D) 2nd Halogen : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

77)

NCERT-XI (Part-1) Pg. # 91

78)

Boron exhibits a diagonal relationship with Silicon.

79) Concept : Element 115 is called Ununpentium (Uup)

80)

1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p6, 4d10, 5s2, 5p5
belong's to p-block
for p-block = 12 + no of pe–
= 12 + 5
group no. = 17

81) • Natural transuranic elements (A) like Neptunium (Np) and Plutonium (Pu) match with
(S).
• d-block elements (B) such as lron (Fe) and Cobalt (Co) correspond to (R).
• Diagonally related elements (C) like Beryllium (Be) and Aluminium (Al) match with (Q).
• Typical elements (D) such as sodium (Na) and Magnesium (Mg) correspond to (P).

82) Transitional contraction.

83) Solution/Explanation :
F>O>N>C
(4) (3.5) (3) (2.5)
 Final Answer - F > N < O > C

84) Concept : +ve charge

In case of ion's of same atom +ve charge has less size & –ve charge has more size.

85) Fe ≈ Co ≈ Ni Atomic radii order

86) I.E ⇒ Be+2 > Li+ > He > He–

87) Ca(g) → Ca+(g) + e– : This represents the first ionization energy of Ca.

88)

IE ⇒ B < C < O < N

89) NCERT, Pg # 88, Fig.-3.5

Li Na K
Na is placed between Li & K in same group. So property will be intermediate.

90) Sudden jump in between 2nd IP & 3rd IP decide 2 electron in outermost shell.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 75

92) NCERT Pg. # 72

93) NCERT Pg # 74

94)

NCERT Pg. # 74 to 76

95) NCERT Pg # 72

96)
NCERT Pg. # 72

97) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 72

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 73

99)

NCERT Pg. # 72

100) NCERT Pg. # 73

101)

NCERT Pg. # 75

102)

NCERT Pg. # 72

103) NCERT Pg. # 76

104)

NCERT Pg. # 74

105) NCERT, Pg. # 72

106) NCERT Pg. # 76

107) NCERT Pg. # 74

108)

NCERT Pg. # 75

109)

NCERT Pg. # 74

110) NCERT Pg. # 74

111) NCERT, Pg # 76

112) NCERT XI Pg. # 76

113) NCERT_Pg. No. # 67

114)

NCERT Pg. No. # 65

115) NCERT Page No. 64

116) NCERT_Pg. No. # 59

117) NCERT Pg. No. # 59

118) NCERT Pg. No. # 66

119) NCERT_Pg. No. # 67

120) NCERT_ Pg. No. # 67

121) NCERT_Pg. No. # 66

122) NCERT_Pg. No. # 63, 68

123) NCERT_ Pg. No. # 79

124) NCERT_Pg. No. # 64

125) NCERT_Pg. No. # 60

126) NCERT_Pg. No. # 63

127) NCERT_Pg. No. # 65

128) NCERT_Old_Pg. No. 79

129) NCERT_Pg. No. # 60

130) NCERT_Pg. No. # 60

131)

NCERT_Pg. No. # 62

132) NCERT_Pg. No. # 64

133) Old NCERT_Pg. No. # 79

134) NCERT Pg. No. # 60

135) NCERT_Pg. No. # 61

136) NCERT_Pg. No. # 80

137) NCERT-Pg. No. 80

138) NCERT_Pg. No. # 80

139) NCERT_Pg. No. 81

140) NCERT_Pg. No. 82

141) Only statement-II is correct.

NCERT_Pg. No. # 82

142) NCERT_Pg. No. # 83

143) NCERT_Pg. No. # 83, 84

144) NCERT old Pg. No. # 101

145)

NCERT_Pg. No. 102

146) NCERT_Pg. No. 103

147) NCERT_Pg. No. # 103

148) NCERT_Pg. No. 104

149) NCERT Pg. No. # 112

150) NCERT Pg. No. # 112

151) NCERT Pg. No. # 112

152) NCERT_Pg. No. # 113

153) NCERT_Pg. No. 113

154) NCERT_Pg. No. # 113

155) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
NCERT Pg. No. # 112

156) NCERT_Pg. No. # 114

157)

NCERT Page No. # 114

158) NCERT_Pg. No. 114, 115

159)

NCERT Page No. # 225

160)

NCERT Page No. # 227

161)

NCERT Page No. # 227

162)

NCERT Page No. # 218

163)

NCERT Page No. # 226

164)

NCERT Page No. # 226

165)

NCERT Page No. # 222

166)

NCERT Page No. # 226

167)

NCERT Page No. # 220

168)

NCERT Page No. # 227

169)

NCERT Page No. # 227

170) NCERT Page No. # 218

171)

NCERT Page No. # 218

172)

NCERT Page No. # 222

173)

NCERT Page No. # 223

174)

NCERT Page No. # 225

175)

NCERT Page No. # 226

176)

NCERT Page No. # 224

177)

NCERT Page No. # 221

178)

NCERT Page No. # 218

179)

NCERT Page No. # 220

180)

NCERT Page No. # 225