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Question Paper Name : ECLR7

Subject Name : Paper II Lecturer in Civil Engineering
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Paper II Lecturer in Civil Engineering

Group Number : 1
Group Id : 441009718154
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Group Minimum Duration : 150
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Group Marks : 300

Paper II Lecturer in Civil Engineering

Section Id : 441009723639
Section Number : 1
Section type : Online
Mandatory or Optional : Mandatory
Number of Questions : 150
Number of Questions to be attempted : 150
Section Negative Marks : 0.66
Maximum Instruction Time : 0
Sub-Section Number : 1
Sub-Section Id : 441009726058
Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes

Question Number : 1 Question Id : 44100914542 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A simply supported beam of span 6 m carries a point load of 20 kN at the midspan. The beam has a flexural rigidity EI = 5000 kN·m².
What is the maximum deflection at the centre?
Options :
1. 6.0 mm
2. 8.64 mm
3. 10.8 mm
4. 18 mm
Question Number : 2 Question Id : 44100957311 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A simply supported beam of span 8 m carries a point load of 30 kN at the midspan. The beam has a flexural rigidity EI = 8000 kN·m².
What is the maximum deflection at the centre?
Options :
1. 4 mm
2. 80 mm
3. 40 mm
4. 50 mm

Question Number : 3 Question Id : 441009262508 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A load P acting at an eccentricity e from the centroid of a rectangular column induces:
Options :
1. only bending stress
2. only axial stress
3. axial and bending stress
4. only shear stress

Question Number : 4 Question Id : 441009262514 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a beam subjected to combined bending and shear, the maximum normal stress occurs:
Options :
1. at the centroid
2. on the neutral axis
3. at the top or bottom fibres
4. at mid-depth of the section

Question Number : 5 Question Id : 441009262544 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The slenderness ratio (λ) of a column is defined as:
Options :
1. λ=L/A
2. λ = L / √A
3. λ=L/r
4. λ = √(L / r)

Question Number : 6 Question Id : 441009270619 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What does the shear force in the conjugate beam represent?
Options :
1. The slope of the actual beam at that section
2. The deflection of the actual beam at that section
3. The bending moment of the actual beam at that section
4. The load acting on the actual beam at that section
Question Number : 7 Question Id : 441009286859 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
According to Euler's theory, the buckling load for a column with both ends pinned is directly proportional to:
Options :
1. Young's modulus and the square of the column length
2. Young's modulus and moment of inertia
3. moment of inertia and cube root of column length
4. moment of inertia and column cross-sectional area

Question Number : 8 Question Id : 441009286994 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the expression for the maximum downward deflection at the free end for a cantilever beam of length L subjected to a uniformly
distributed load (UDL) w throughout its length?
Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 9 Question Id : 441009287204 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
When a steel bar is stretched axially and its diameter reduces slightly, which material property primarily governs this lateral contraction?
Options :
1. Young’s modulus
2. Bulk modulus
3. Poisson’s ratio
4. Shear modulus

Question Number : 10 Question Id : 44100940135 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the term for the portion of the balancing moment that is transferred to the connected members?
Options :
1. Bending moment
2. Distributed moment
3. Rotational moment
4. Shear moment

Question Number : 11 Question Id : 44100940163 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the slope deflection method for continuous beams, when calculating the shear force and bending moment diagrams, which of the
following must be considered along with the reactions?
Options :
1. The fixed end moments calculated during the analysis
2. The shear at the midpoint of each span
3. Only the applied loads without considering the moments
4. The deflections at the supports
Question Number : 12 Question Id : 44100957431 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A continuous beam ABC has spans AB = 4 m, BC = 5 m with uniform EI. A UDL of 10 kN/m acts on AB, and a point load of 20 kN acts at
the midspan of BC. Using the Slope Deflection Method, what is the fixed-end moment at B?
Options :
1. −20.53 kN·m
2. −23.83 kN·m
3. −30.12 kN·m
4. −32 kN·m

Question Number : 13 Question Id : 44100968565 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the Moment Distribution Method, initially, all joints are assumed to be:
Options :
1. Pinned
2. Fixed
3. Free
4. Hinged

Question Number : 14 Question Id : 44100968569 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following situations makes the method of joints unsuitable for truss analysis?
Options :
1. The truss is statically determinate.
2. The truss has zero-force members.
3. More than two unknown forces exist at the starting joint.
4. The truss has external roller supports.

Question Number : 15 Question Id : 441009270865 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a common method for truss analysis?
Options :
1. Method of joints
2. Method of sections
3. Moment distribution method
4. Graphical method
Question Number : 16 Question Id : 441009271877 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Determine the degree of kinematic indeterminacy of the given pin-jointed plane frame.

Options :
1. 3
2. 9
3. 15
4. 6

Question Number : 17 Question Id : 441009317057 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In moment distribution, the carry-over factor from one end of the beam is _____, if both the ends of the beam is fixed.
Options :
1. 0
2. 0.5
3. 1
4. 2

Question Number : 18 Question Id : 441009317068 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the flexibility matrix approach, the compatibility equations are formed using which of the following?
Options :
1. Displacement relationships
2. Fixed-end moments
3. Unit load method
4. Member stiffness values

Question Number : 19 Question Id : 441009320139 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors at a joint is:
Options :
1. always 1
2. always 0
3. equal to the number of members
4. equal to the number of supports

Question Number : 20 Question Id : 441009320712 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following gives the relationship between the flexibility and stiffness matrices?
Options :
1. The stiffness matrix is the square of the flexibility matrix.
2. The flexibility matrix is the inverse of the stiffness matrix.
3. The stiffness matrix equals the flexibility matrix.
4. There is no relationship between them.
Question Number : 21 Question Id : 441009980691 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In fully developed laminar flow through a horizontal circular pipe, the velocity profile is derived from the Navier-Stokes equations under
steady conditions. If the maximum velocity at the pipe center is denoted as umax, which of the following expressions correctly represents
the velocity at a radial position r within the pipe?

Where: u(r)is the velocity at the radial position r, and R is the radius of the pipe
Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 22 Question Id : 441009848628 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
As per IS 456:2000, the maximum compressive strain in concrete at the outermost compression fibre in bending is taken as _____.
Options :
1. 0.002
2. 0.0035
3. 0.004
4. 0.005

Question Number : 23 Question Id : 441009848692 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of footing is typically continuous and supports a load-bearing wall along its length?
Options :
1. Isolated footing.
2. Combined footing.
3. Strip footing (wall footing).
4. Raft footing.

Question Number : 24 Question Id : 441009800642 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In case of RC beams, the lateral instability of beams can be prevented by limiting_____
Options :
1. width to flexural stress ratio of beam
2. Width to length ratio of beam
3. Depth to flexural stress ratio of beam
4. Length to Direct stress ratio of beam
Question Number : 25 Question Id : 441009848652 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The minimum diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bars in an RCC column is _____.
Options :
1. 8 mm
2. 10 mm
3. 12 mm
4. 20 mm

Question Number : 26 Question Id : 441009848719 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a raft foundation, punching shear around columns is a critical check, similar to isolated footings. The critical perimeter for punching
shear is located at _____.
Options :
1. The face of the column.
2. Half the effective depth (d/2) from the face of the column.
3. The effective depth (d) from the face of the column.
4. The centerline of the column.

Question Number : 27 Question Id : 441009848605 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The maximum percentage of tensile reinforcement in a beam section as per IS 456 :2000(LSM) is _____ of the gross cross-sectional area.
Options :
1. 2.5%
2. 1.5%
3. 4%
4. 6%

Question Number : 28 Question Id : 441009848924 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of loading is NOT considered in the working stress design of bridge decks?
Options :
1. Dead load
2. Live load
3. Temperature stresses
4. Fatigue load
Question Number : 29 Question Id : 441009827423 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following statement and decide which of the given conclusions follow(s) from the statement.

Statement: For the same total span and loading, continuous RC beams and slabs generally result in more economical designs and exhibit
better performance compared to a series of simply supported beams/slabs.

Conclusion I: Continuity allows for the redistribution of bending moments, which can lead to smaller maximum positive moments in spans
and a more uniform stress distribution, enabling more efficient use of reinforcement.
Conclusion II: Continuous members inherently possess greater stiffness and exhibit significantly reduced deflections under service loads
compared to simply supported members.
Options :
1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Both Conclusions I and II follow
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Question Number : 30 Question Id : 441009827348 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Over-reinforced RCC beams are avoided in design.

Reason (R): Over-reinforced beams fail suddenly due to the crushing of concrete before steel yields.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Question Number : 31 Question Id : 441009832751 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the Design Parameters for axially loaded columns with their typical values (as per IS 456:2000).

Column A Column B
(Design Parameters for axially loaded columns ) Typical Values (as per IS 456:2000)
A. Minimum longitudinal steel % for RCC column 1. 6% of gross cross-sectional area
B. Maximum longitudinal steel % allowed 2. 0.8% of gross cross-sectional area
C. Minimum cover thickness for main bars (columns) 3. 40 mm
D. Minimum number of bars for column with circular cross section 4. 6
Options :
1. A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
2. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
3. A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1
4. A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

Question Number : 32 Question Id : 441009848937 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a type of riveted joint in steel structures?
Options :
1. Groove weld
2. Butt joint
3. Chain riveting
4. Lap joint
Question Number : 33 Question Id : 441009849177 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of roof truss is commonly used for long spans?
Options :
1. King post truss
2. Fan type truss
3. Queen post truss
4. Fink truss

Question Number : 34 Question Id : 441009848962 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is NOT a primary mode of failure for a steel tension member as per IS 800:2007?
Options :
1. Gross section yielding.
2. Net section rupture.
3. Block shear failure.
4. Global buckling.

Question Number : 35 Question Id : 441009849202 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is considered a time-dependent loss of prestress?
Options :
1. Elastic shortening of concrete.
2. Friction in ducts.
3. Anchorage slip.
4. Creep of concrete.

Question Number : 36 Question Id : 441009848948 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the minimum pitch for rivets or bolts as per IS 800:2007?
Options :
1. 1.5 × nominal diameter of the bolt.
2. 2.0 × nominal diameter of the bolt.
3. 2.5 × nominal diameter of the bolt.
4. 3.0 × nominal diameter of the bolt.

Question Number : 37 Question Id : 441009849187 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The primary function of a crane girder in the construction of industrial buildings is to _________.
Options :
1. Support the crane rail and the moving loads from the crane.
2. Support the roof of the building.
3. Resist lateral wind forces on the building.
4. Act as a primary column.
Question Number : 38 Question Id : 441009832742 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Consider the following statement and decide which of the given conclusions follow(s) from the statements.

Statement: The web in a plate girder is designed primarily to resist shear.

Conclusion I: Web thickness can be reduced if stiffeners are provided.
Conclusion II: The web carries most of the bending moment in a plate girder.
Options :
1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Both Conclusions I and II follow
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Question Number : 39 Question Id : 441009827388 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A compound beam may have zero slope at an intermediate pin support depending on the loading and moment distribution.
Reason (R): Intermediate pin supports prevent rotation of the beam section at that point.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Question Number : 40 Question Id : 441009832813 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the items in Column A (Failure Mode of tension member) with their corresponding descriptions/governing factors in Column B.
Column A Column B
(Failure Mode of Tension Member) (Description)
A. Yielding of Gross Section 1. Sudden fracture through bolt holes or cut-outs
2. Non-uniform stress distribution in a connected member where all
B. Rupture of Net Section
elements are not directly connected.
C. Block Shear Failure 3. Failure governed by plastic deformation before rupture
D. Shear lag effect 4. Combination of shear along one plane and tension along another
Options :
1. A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1
2. A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
3. A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
4. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

Question Number : 41 Question Id : 441009801442 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 42 Question Id : 441009980294 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is a dimensionless number used to predict dynamic similarity in fluid flow?
Options :
1. Reynolds number
2. Velocity ratio
3. Pressure head
4. Flow area

Question Number : 43 Question Id : 441009884277 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A flow through a circular pipe is observed to have a Reynolds number of 1800. Which of the following statements correctly describes the
nature of the flow and its characteristics?
Options :
1. The flow is laminar, and viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. The flow is turbulent, and inertial forces dominate over viscous forces.
3. The flow is in transition, with both inertial and surface tension forces balancing.
4. The flow is laminar, but pressure forces are greater than shear forces.

Question Number : 44 Question Id : 441009908946 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Euler's equation of motion along a streamline is derived by applying Newton's second law to a fluid element. Which of the following
correctly represents the assumptions used in deriving Euler’s equation?
Options :
1. The fluid is ideal, incompressible, and non-viscous with uniform temperature.
2. The fluid is compressible, viscous, and under steady flow with gravity ignored.
3. The fluid is ideal, under steady flow, with body and pressure forces considered.
4. The fluid is real, undergoing unsteady flow with shear and body forces neglected.

Question Number : 45 Question Id : 441009909253 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the analysis of fluid flow through rotating machinery such as turbines or pumps, the moment of momentum equation is primarily used
to determine:
Options :
1. The net energy stored within the fluid due to the elevation difference.
2. The rate of angular acceleration of fluid particles in straight pipelines.
3. The torque exerted by the fluid on the rotating blades or vanes.
4. The pressure variation along the length of the rotating shaft.
Question Number : 46 Question Id : 441009801447 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 47 Question Id : 441009980273 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In a rotating flow system, fluid enters with velocity V1, radius r1, and exits with velocity V2, radius r2. If the density ρ and volumetric flow
rate Q remain constant, which expression correctly represents the net torque acting on the system according to the moment of momentum
principle?
Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 48 Question Id : 441009801468 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 49 Question Id : 441009801446 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 50 Question Id : 441009801463 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 51 Question Id : 441009801465 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 52 Question Id : 441009980302 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In laminar flow, the fluid particles:
Options :
1. move in chaotic and random directions
2. follow well-defined and parallel paths
3. accelerate continuously with distance
4. move in circular orbits inside the pipe

Question Number : 53 Question Id : 441009980663 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The velocity distribution curve of a laminar flow between two fixed parallel flat plates is a:
Options :
1. straight line from one plate to the other
2. parabola with a vertex at the midpoint between the plates
3. sine wave that peaks near one of the plates
4. uniform profile across the entire gap
Question Number : 54 Question Id : 441009980326 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
For the flow of a viscous fluid through a circular pipe, which of the following correctly explains the condition under which the flow is
considered laminar and the expression for the Reynolds number?
where: ρ = density of fluid, V = average velocity, D = diameter of pipe, μ = dynamic viscosity.
Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 55 Question Id : 441009980387 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The head loss due to viscous effects between two sections of a horizontal circular pipe with steady laminar flow is directly proportional to
the:
Options :
1. flow area of the pipe
2. pipe’s roughness factor
3. pressure drop between the two sections
4. change in kinetic energy between the sections

Question Number : 56 Question Id : 441009980399 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A fluid flows steadily through a circular pipe. If the flow is observed to be transitioning from laminar to turbulent behaviour, which of the
following is the most accurate description of the Reynolds number (Re) for this flow?
Options :
1. Re < 2000, indicating a highly ordered flow regime with minimal energy dissipation
2. Re > 4000, signifying a chaotic and unpredictable flow pattern with significant eddy formation
3. 2000 ≤ Re ≤ 4000, suggesting a state where the fluid particles exhibit both streamline movement and initial eddy formation
4. Re = 0, implying a condition of no fluid motion relative to the pipe walls, thus no flow

Question Number : 57 Question Id : 441009980780 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
According to Prandtl’s mixing length theory, what is assumed about the relationship between mixing length and distance from the pipe
wall in turbulent flow through pipes?
Options :
1. Mixing length is inversely proportional to distance from the wall.
2. Mixing length is constant throughout the flow region.
3. Mixing length varies linearly with distance from the wall.
4. Mixing length depends on the pipe diameter only.
Question Number : 58 Question Id : 441009801460 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 59 Question Id : 441009801449 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 60 Question Id : 441009801464 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 61 Question Id : 441009801456 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 62 Question Id : 441009801457 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 63 Question Id : 441009982404 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The theoretical volume of liquid pumped per stroke in a single-acting reciprocating pump is given by AL. What do the symbols A and L
represent in this context?
Options :
1. A: Area of cylinder bore, L: Length of connecting rod
2. A: Cross-sectional area of piston, L: Stroke length of piston
3. A: Annular area of delivery pipe, L: Height of delivery head
4. A: Surface area of crank, L: Length of the crank arm

Question Number : 64 Question Id : 441009982424 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of a geometrically similar pump that would deliver:
Options :
1. unit discharge under unit head
2. unit power under unit head
3. unit discharge under unit speed
4. unit head under unit discharge
Question Number : 65 Question Id : 441009801454 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 66 Question Id : 441009980833 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following represents a primary advantage of triangular weirs over rectangular weirs, particularly regarding the accuracy of
discharge measurement across varying flow rates?
Options :
1. Consistent coefficient of discharge due to stable nappe shape
2. Exclusive utility for high-discharge measurements facilitating laminar flow
3. Elimination of empirical calibration due to simplified discharge formulas
4. Inherent prevention of nappe adherence, removing the need for ventilation

Question Number : 67 Question Id : 441009801462 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 68 Question Id : 441009801470 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 69 Question Id : 441009982407 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the context of fluid flow, Bernoulli’s equation is primarily applied to relate:
Options :
1. pressure, velocity, and elevation
2. force, area, and acceleration
3. flow rate, pipe diameter, and viscosity
4. density, surface tension, and gravity

Question Number : 70 Question Id : 441009830161 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which is the most commonly used equation for uniform flow in open channels?
Options :
1. Continuity equation
2. Specific energy equation
3. Chezy’s equation
4. Energy-momentum equation
Question Number : 71 Question Id : 441009830284 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
To determine the depth after a hydraulic jump in a rectangular open channel, which of the following must be used?
Options :
1. Energy equation
2. Darcy-Weisbach equation
3. Manning’s formula
4. Momentum equation

Question Number : 72 Question Id : 441009800692 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 73 Question Id : 441009830298 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which basin condition causes high and quick surface runoff?
Options :
1. Flat with clay soil
2. Steep and urbanised
3. Forested and permeable
4. Wide and shallow

Question Number : 74 Question Id : 441009830332 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The most commonly used device to measure evaporation is:
Options :
1. Anemometer
2. Class A evaporation pan
3. Tipping bucket gauge
4. Hygrometer
Question Number : 75 Question Id : 441009800691 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

In the case of a tipping bucket rain gauge, each bucket tips when it collects a fixed amount of precipitation, typically:
Options :
1.

2. 0.2 mm
3.

4.

Question Number : 76 Question Id : 441009830312 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following process in hydrologic cycle reduces the amount of rainfall available for runoff?
Options :
1. Evapotranspiration
2. Channel flow
3. Rainfall excess
4. Throughfall

Question Number : 77 Question Id : 441009800694 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 78 Question Id : 441009812823 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Infiltration capacity of soil decreases with time during a storm event.
Reason (R): Initially, the soil pores are dry and can absorb more water, but they gradually become saturated.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Question Number : 79 Question Id : 441009812814 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the Following: Environmental Factors and Their Effects.
Column A – Environmental Factors Column B – Effect on Transpiration
A. Wind Speed 1. Decreases due to less vapour pressure difference
B. Atmospheric Pressure 2. Increases removal of water vapour from leaf surface
C. Relative Humidity 3. Increases rate by enhancing molecular activity
D. Temperature 4. Affects evaporation and air vapour capacity
Options :
1. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
2. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Question Number : 80 Question Id : 441009800688 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2. 37 degrees Celsius

3.

4.

Question Number : 81 Question Id : 441009830453 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Unit hydrograph method is used to estimate runoff from:
Options :
1. glacial melt
2. a unit depth of rainfall excess
3. evaporation rate
4. base flow
Question Number : 82 Question Id : 441009800687 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 83 Question Id : 441009800689 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3. 0.45
4.

Question Number : 84 Question Id : 441009830519 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In Dupuit’s theory, drawdown is defined as the:
Options :
1. distance from surface to bottom of aquifer
2. depth of water pumped
3. difference between initial and final water table elevations
4. horizontal distance between two wells

Question Number : 85 Question Id : 441009800684 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 86 Question Id : 441009830526 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The yield of an open well can be improved by:
Options :
1. reducing the diameter
2. increasing evaporation
3. reducing the well lining thickness
4. deepening the well

Question Number : 87 Question Id : 441009822027 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statement and conclusions numbered I and II carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement.

Statement: Dupuit’s assumption simplifies the analysis of groundwater flow to wells by assuming horizontal flow and neglecting vertical
components.
Conclusions:
I. Dupuit’s equation is valid only when the flow to the well is unconfined and radial.
II. Dupuit’s equation can accurately represent all types of aquifer systems.
Options :
1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Both Conclusions I and II follow
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Question Number : 88 Question Id : 441009822052 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Recuperation test is used to determine the yield of an open well.
Reason (R): In a recuperation test, the well is pumped out and the rate of water level rise is observed after pumping stops.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Question Number : 89 Question Id : 441009812836 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the Following: Methods of Runoff Estimation and what they use.
Column A – Method Column B – Uses
A. Rational Method 1)Past rainfall and stream flow data
B. SCS Method 2)Rainfall, land type and soil
C. Hydrograph Method 3)Simple formula with constants
D. Empirical Method 4)Rainfall intensity and area
Options :
1. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
2. A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3
3. A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
4. A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
Question Number : 90 Question Id : 441009821705 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the Following: Unit Hydrograph Terminology and Their Descriptions
Column A – Terms Column B – Descriptions
A. Unit Hydrograph 1. Time from start of rainfall to maximum discharge
B. Base Time [Link] hydrograph resulting from 1 cm effective rainfall
C. Peak Discharge 3. Duration over which runoff occurs
D. Time to Peak 4. Maximum flow rate in the hydrograph.
Options :
1. A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
2. A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
3. A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
4. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

Question Number : 91 Question Id : 441009800734 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 92 Question Id : 441009847172 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of remote sensing system makes use of sensors that detect the reflected or emitted radiation from natural sources?
Options :
1. Active remote sensing
2. Passive remote sensing
3. Microwave remote sensing
4. Radiowave remote sensing

Question Number : 93 Question Id : 441009846861 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following minor instruments is used for reproducing, enlarging or reducing maps?
Options :
1. Pantagraph
2. Hand level
3. Foot rule clinometer
4. Ghat tracer
Question Number : 94 Question Id : 441009847154 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In which station of the triangulation survey are astronomical observations for azimuth and longitude made?
Options :
1. Main station
2. Laplace station
3. Tie station
4. Control station

Question Number : 95 Question Id : 441009847162 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which image interpretation key is called a reference key which contains numerous example images with supporting text?
Options :
1. Selective key
2. Elimination key
3. Dichotomous keys
4. Level keys

Question Number : 96 Question Id : 441009846807 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
The bearing of lines OA, OB and OC are 30°15’,140°30’ and 200°30’, respectively. Find the included angle of AOB.
Options :
1. 110°15’
2. 60°
3. 170°15’
4. 60°15’

Question Number : 97 Question Id : 441009846831 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following is NOT an indirect method of locating the ground points in contouring?
Options :
1. Squares
2. Tacheometric
3. Cross-section
4. Vertical and horizontal control

Question Number : 98 Question Id : 441009800736 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 99 Question Id : 441009800732 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 100 Question Id : 441009800752 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the items under List 1(Description of levelling) with those under List 2 (Types of levelling), and select the correct option.

List 1 List 2
P. Difference in elevation between two points is proportional to the difference in atmospheric pressure at the points 1. Profile levelling
Q. Elevation of points is computed from the vertical angles and horizontal distance measured in field 2. Spirit levelling
R. Vertical distance with respect to a horizontal line (perpendicular to direction of gravity) is used to determine the relative difference in elevation between two points 3. Barometric levelling
S. Determine the elevation of points at short measured intervals along a fixed line (centerline of a road, canal, etc.) 4. Trigonometric levelling
Options :
1. P - 4, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 2
2. P - 2, Q - 1, R - 4, S - 3
3. P - 3, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 1
4. P - 4, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 3

Question Number : 101 Question Id : 441009873758 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following laws is assumed to be valid for derivation of Terzaghi's consolidation equation?
Options :
1. Coulomb's law
2. Darcy's law
3. Stoke's law
4. Lambe's law

Question Number : 102 Question Id : 441009873841 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In compaction of fine-grained soils, the soil structure at the wet of optimum is:
Options :
1. dispersed than the structure at dry of optimum
2. flocculated than the structure at dry of optimum
3. coarse grained structure than the structure at dry of optimum
4. fine grained structure than the structure at dry of optimum
Question Number : 103 Question Id : 441009873331 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In friction piles, most of the load is transferred by:
Options :
1. base skin friction
2. skin friction along the length of pile
3. uplift pressure at the base of pile
4. shaft end bearing

Question Number : 104 Question Id : 441009873359 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following does NOT directly depend on the angle of internal friction of soil?
Options :
1. Shear strength
2. Bearing capacity
3. Bearing capacity factor (Nc)
4. Coefficient of compression

Question Number : 105 Question Id : 441009873426 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In active earth pressure diagram for a two layered cohesion-less soil backfill, it was noted that the earth pressure decreased suddenly at the
interface of two different layers. Which of the following is correct with respect to the given information?
Options :
1. The angle of internal friction of upper soil is less than the angle of internal friction of bottom soil
2. The angle of internal friction of upper soil is more than the angle of internal friction of bottom soil
3. The unit weight of upper soil is less than the unit weight of bottom soil
4. The upper soil is in passive pressure and lower soil is in active pressure

Question Number : 106 Question Id : 441009800739 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 107 Question Id : 441009876299 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
For a WBM base course intended to be covered with bituminous surfacing, the maximum permissible flakiness index is:
Options :
1. 30%
2. 25%
3. 20%
4. 15%
Question Number : 108 Question Id : 441009872267 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In this question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true and decide which of them logically follow(s) beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: Water exerts equal pressure in all directions.

Conclusion I: In a backfill, the water table is present at ground level; the active earth pressure due to water will be KA γw z.
Conclusion II: In a backfill, the water table is present at ground level; the passive earth pressure due to water will be KP γw z.

KA: coefficient of active earth pressure, KP: coefficient of passive earth pressure, γw = unit weight of water, z = height of backfill
Options :
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Both I and II follow

Question Number : 109 Question Id : 441009872683 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Read the given statements of Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and select the correct option.

Assertion (A): Pneumatic Caisson is not penetrated to very high depths.

Reason (R): At high depths, pressure is too high for laborers to work.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Question Number : 110 Question Id : 441009872191 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following soil characteristics with their most probable soil classification as per the Indian soil classification system.
Soil Characteristics Soil Classification
A: Clayey soil with liquid limit as 40 1. MH
B: Silty soil with liquid limit as 55 2. GW
C: Coarse grained soil with % of fines less than 5% 3: CI
D: Coarse grained soil with % of fines more than 12% 4. GC
Options :
1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
2. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
4. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Question Number : 111 Question Id : 441009873300 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the following components of well foundation with their functions.

Components Functions
A: Cutting edge 1: Wedge shaped portion that provides shape for well sinking
B: Well curb 2: Provides stability after the well is sunk
C: Sand filling 3: Vertical wall of the well
D: Well steining 4: Bottom edge that helps in sinking
Options :
1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
2. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
4. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Question Number : 112 Question Id : 441009801327 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 113 Question Id : 441009876308 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
According to IRC:37-2018, which binder grade is preferred for higher fatigue resistance in heavily trafficked roads (>30 msa)?
Options :
1. VG10
2. VG20
3. VG30
4. VG40
Question Number : 114 Question Id : 441009801331 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 115 Question Id : 441009876244 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
As per IRC:86-2018, which class of road is intended primarily for access to residences, businesses, or abutting properties, and not through
traffic?
Options :
1. Collector Street
2. Sub Arterial Road
3. Local Street
4. Arterial Road

Question Number : 116 Question Id : 441009876270 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In the fundamental traffic flow equation q = k × v, which speed is used?
Where;
q = Flow (vehicles per hour)
k = Density (vehicles per kilometre)
v = Speed
Options :
1. Journey speed
2. Time mean speed
3. Free flow speed
4. Space mean speed

Question Number : 117 Question Id : 441009876258 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the maximum longitudinal slope allowed while developing super elevation on urban roads?
Options :
1. 1 in 100
2. 1 in 150
3. 1 in 60
4. 1 in 200
Question Number : 118 Question Id : 441009876316 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In fatigue analysis of cementitious base layers, the model used to calculate fatigue damage at the second level is based on:
Options :
1. Flexural strain at the bottom of bituminous layer
2. Stress ratio and modulus of rupture
3. Modulus of elasticity of granular base
4. Top-down tensile cracking

Question Number : 119 Question Id : 441009801341 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 120 Question Id : 441009860776 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Choose the correct option for Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Bituminous pavements are designed to limit tensile strain at the bottom of the bituminous layer.
Reason (R): Tensile strain at the bottom causes bottom-up fatigue cracking in flexible pavements.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true
Question Number : 121 Question Id : 441009860745 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
As per IRC:SP:77–2008, match the gravel road component with its appropriate function or property.
Gravel Road Component Function / Property
A. Subgrade 1. Provides mechanical interlock and internal friction in pavement
B. Gravel surfacing 2. Sheds water and resists ingress; protects base from wear
C. Gravel and crushed stone 3. Lowest layer of pavement, compacted to support the layers abov
D. Clay in gravel mixtures 4. Contributes true cohesion and reduces permeability

Options :
1. A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
2. A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1
3. A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
4. A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2

Question Number : 122 Question Id : 441009876373 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the common diameter of plate screws used to fasten rails to wooden sleepers?
Options :
1. 16 mm
2. 20 mm
3. 22 mm
4. 24 mm

Question Number : 123 Question Id : 441009876400 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What structural component is provided on the upstream and downstream sides of a paved dip to prevent scour?
Options :
1. Parapet wall
2. Weir crest
3. Curtain wall
4. Side drain

Question Number : 124 Question Id : 441009801335 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 125 Question Id : 441009801338 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 126 Question Id : 441009876383 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
What is the maximum permissible gradient recommended in Indian station yards?
Options :
1. 1 in 400
2. 1 in 500
3. 1 in 600
4. 1 in 1000

Question Number : 127 Question Id : 441009876356 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which sleeper has the highest resistance to track creep?
Options :
1. Wooden sleeper
2. Cast iron sleeper
3. Steel trough sleeper
4. Concrete sleeper

Question Number : 128 Question Id : 441009876389 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In mechanical interlocking systems used in railway signaling, which component is responsible for restricting the movement of signal
levers to prevent conflicting operations?
Options :
1. Gearwheel
2. Control arm
3. Tappet
4. Spring link
Question Number : 129 Question Id : 441009860802 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Choose the correct option based on the statement and the given conclusions.
Statement: Ballast in railway tracks facilitates easy drainage of water.

Conclusion:
I. Ballast must consist of coarse, hard, and durable material.
II. Fine sand is ideal as it retains moisture, which keeps the track cool.
Options :
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Both I and II follow

Question Number : 130 Question Id : 441009861331 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Choose the correct option for Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Marshalling yards are generally located near industrial areas or large terminals.
Reason (R): Marshalling yards are used for sorting, rearranging, and dispatching goods wagons.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Question Number : 131 Question Id : 441009801344 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :

1.

2.

3.

4.
Question Number : 132 Question Id : 441009861339 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the basic requirement with its functional objective in station yard design
Requirement Functional Objective
A. Adequate number of loop lines 1. To allow simultaneous reception and dispatch of trains
B. Proper gradient in yard area 2. To avoid rolling of wagons and ensure safety
C. Efficient signaling and interlocking 3. To ensure safe and fast movement of trains
D. Sufficient platform length 4. To accommodate full-length passenger trains
Options :
1. A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
2. A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
3. A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3
4. A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Question Number : 133 Question Id : 441009800741 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66

Options :
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question Number : 134 Question Id : 441009800745 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following is/are (a) secondary air pollutant(s)?
Options :
1. Ozone
2. Suspended particulate matter
3. Oxides of sulphur
4. Oxides of nitrogen

Question Number : 135 Question Id : 441009832217 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following is NOT the suspended impurities in water?
Options :
1. Bacteria
2. Algae
3. Protozoa
4. Salts
Question Number : 136 Question Id : 441009832312 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
In which one of the following disposal methods is the refuse burned at high temperatures in a furnace?
Options :
1. Controlled tipping
2. Vermicompost
3. Incineration
4. Barging it out into the sea

Question Number : 137 Question Id : 441009800750 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of ponds are open flow through earthen basins specifically designed and constructed to treat sewage and biodegradable
industrial wastewater?
Options :
1. Settling ponds
2. Sedimentation ponds
3. Activated sludge tanks
4. Stabilization ponds

Question Number : 138 Question Id : 441009832194 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of filter is used as an efficient pre-treatment process prior to the sand filtration?
Options :
1. Slow sand filter
2. Pressure filter
3. Biological filter
4. Roughing filter

Question Number : 139 Question Id : 441009822443 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A statement is given followed by two conclusions. Identify which of the given conclusions is/are true based on the following statement.

Statement:
The presence of organic solids in sewage are responsible for creating nuisance, if disposed untreated.

Conclusion:
I. Need only mechanical appliances for the removal of organic solids from sewage in the treatment plant.
II. Dilution alone can prevent the undesirable effects of pollution.
Options :
1. Only conclusion I follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
4. Both conclusions I and II follow.
Question Number : 140 Question Id : 441009802196 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion(A): Groundwater is the principal source of water and major part of the surface water supplies.
Reason(R): In the hydrological cycle, the continuous movement of water on, above and below the earth surface by processes such as
precipitation, evaporation, condensation, and runoff replenish the surface water bodies.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Question Number : 141 Question Id : 441009822409 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the demand of oxygen with the corresponding definition and select the correct option.

Demand of oxygen Definition

A. Calculated amount of oxygen required to fully oxidise hydrocarbons
P. Biochemical oxygen demand
to CO2 and H2O
B. Oxygen required to decompose biodegradable organic matter present
Q. Chemical oxygen demand
in the sewage
C. Oxygen required to oxidise the biodegradable and non-biodegradable
R. Theoretical oxygen demand
organic matter
Options :
1. P-B, Q-A, R-C
2. P-B, Q-C, R-A
3. P-C, Q-B, R-A
4. P-A, Q-C, R-B

Question Number : 142 Question Id : 441009832176 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which type of distribution system is preferred when the source of purified water supply is located on a higher elevation with respect to the
distribution area?
Options :
1. Gravity system
2. Combined gravity and pumping system
3. Pumping system
4. Lateral system

Question Number : 143 Question Id : 441009832240 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following is determined using the BOD test results?
Options :
1. Strength of sewage
2. Size of water treatment plant
3. Temperature
4. Colour of water
Question Number : 144 Question Id : 441009800748 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which of the following pollutants causes mental retardation?
Options :
1. Lead
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Question Number : 145 Question Id : 441009832189 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following processes is generally provided at the intake point to remove floating matter from the surface water?
Options :
1. Aeration
2. Sedimentation
3. Filtration
4. Screening

Question Number : 146 Question Id : 441009832225 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Which one of the following is the primary composition of sewage?
Options :
1. Water
2. Organic solid
3. Dissolved material
4. Inorganic solid

Question Number : 147 Question Id : 441009832246 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A 1% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C. The depletion of oxygen is found to be 4 ppm. Determine the BOD₅ of
raw sewage.
Options :
1. 300 ppm
2. 400 ppm
3. 200 ppm
4. 100 ppm
Question Number : 148 Question Id : 441009822478 Question Type : MCQ
Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
A statement is given followed by two conclusions. Identify which of the given conclusions is/are true based on the following statement.

Statement:
The scouring of smooth interior suface of sewer pipes and the wear and tear of the sewer pipes will not only reduce their life span but will
also reduce their flow carrying capacity.

Conclusions:
I. It is necessary to limit the maximum velocity that will be produced in the sewer pipe at any point of time.
II. It is necessary to check the sewer runs full at any point of time.
Options :
1. Only conclusion I follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Question Number : 149 Question Id : 441009822470 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Select the option that is correct regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All the secondary treatment processes are designed to work under aerobic bacterial decomposition.
Reason (R): The aerobic bacteria are more active and do not produce bad smell and gases as anaerobic bacteria.
Options :
1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Question Number : 150 Question Id : 441009822464 Question Type : MCQ

Correct Marks : 2 Wrong Marks : 0.66
Match the type of industrial solid waste with the corresponding example industries that generate solid waste and select the correct answer
from the given options.

Type of industrial solid waste Type of industry generate solid waste

P. Biodegradable non-hazardous solid waste A. Drug and pharmaceuticals
Q. Non-biodegradable non-hazardous solid waste B. Sugar mills
R. Hazardous solid waste C. Thermal power plant
Options :
1. P-B, Q-A, R-C
2. P-B, Q-C, R-A
3. P-C, Q-B, R-A
4. P-A, Q-C, R-B