20-07-2025

6001CMD30302125SRG03 MD

PHYSICS

1) In a closed circuit, the current I (in ampere) at an instant of time t (in second) is given by I = 4 –
0.08 t. The number of electrons flowing in 50 s through the cross section of the conductor is :-

(1) 1.25 × 1019

(2) 6.25 × 1020
(3) 5.25 × 1019
(4) 2.55 × 1020

2) Initially whole system at rest then time taken by block to move from A to B.

(1) 3s
(2) 4s
(3)
(4) 2s

3) Figure represents a part of closed circuit. The potential difference (VA – VB) is :

(1) 24 V
(2) 0 V
(3) 6 V
(4) 18 V

4) The temperature cofficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125 per degree celcius. At 300 K its
resistance is 1 ohm. The resistance of the wire will be 2 ohm at following temperature :-

(1) 1154 K
(2) 1127 K
(3) 600 K
(4) 1400 K

5) Correct temperature (T) and resistivity (ρ) graph for super conductor is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Value of 'x' for maximum power in it.

(1) 2Ω
(2) 3Ω
(3) 4Ω
(4) 1Ω
7) Power of circuit is (Rated voltage & power of bulbs shown in figure)

(1) 6P
(2) 3P
(3) P
(4) 1.5P

8) The equivalent resistance between A and B in the figure is :

(1) R
(2) (2/3) R

(3)

(4)

9) Each Resistance is R. Find RAB :-

(1) R

(2)

(3)

(4)
10)
What will be net resistance between A and B :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3Ω

11) In the network of resistances as shown in figure. the effective resistance between points A and B

is :-

(1) 8 R
(2) 5R
(3) (5/3) R
(4) (8/3) R

12) In the circuit shown in figure, the heat produced in 5 ohm resistance is 10 calories per second.

The heat produced in 4Ω resistance is:-

(1) 1 cal/sec
(2) 2 cal/sec
(3) 3 cal/sec
(4) 4 cal/sec

13) Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The current i3 is equal to

(1) 5 amp
(2) 3 amp
(3) – 3 amp
(4) – 5/6 amp

14) In the above diagram find above value of VA–VB

(1) 6.67 V
(2) 3.33 V
(3) 1.50 V
(4) 2.15 V

15) Two batteries of e.m.f. 4V and 8 V with internal resistances 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in a
circuit with a resistance of 9 Ω as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the

points P and Q are :-

(1)
A and 3V

(2)
A and 4V

(3)
A and 3V

(4)
A and 12V

16) What should be the current in branch BD after switch S is closed :-

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 8A
(4) Zero
17) In the circuit shown the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 4A and 20 V respectively. The
meters are non ideal, then R is :-

(1) Equal to 5Ω
(2) Less than 5Ω
(3) Greater than 5Ω
(4) Between 4Ω and 5Ω

18) P and Q are two points on a uniform ring of resistance R. The equivalent resistance between P

and Q is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Masses of 3 wires of same metal are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their lengths are in the ratio 3 : 2 :
1. The electrical resistances are in ratio :

(1) 1 : 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 27 : 6 : 1

20) Statement-1 : Conductivity of a metallic conductor decreases with increase in temperature.

Statement-2 : On increasing temperature, collision of electrons becomes more frequent and
number of free electrons in the metallic conductor decreases.

Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is a correct explanation for

(1)
Statement–1
Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–1
(3) Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is False
(4) Statement–1 is False, Statement–2 is True

21) Two bulbs one of 200 volts, 60 watts & the other of 200 volts, 100 watts are connected in series
to a 200 volt supply. The power consumed will be

(1) 37.5 watt

(2) 160 watt
(3) 62.5 watt
(4) 110 watt

22) A galvanometer, whose resistance is 50 ohm, has 25 divisions in it. When a current of 4 × 10–4 A
passes through it, its needle (pointer) deflects by one division. To use this galvanometer as a
voltmeter of range 2.5 V, it should be connected to a resistance of:

(1) 6250 ohm

(2) 250 ohm
(3) 200 ohm
(4) 6200 ohm

23) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd`

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current Density (S)

(E) Mobility (T)

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(T), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(T)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(T), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P), (E)-(T)

24) A wire of length and resistance 200Ω is divided into 20 equal parts. The first 10 parts are
connected in series while the next 10 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are
again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is : -

(1) 101Ω
(2) 51Ω
(3) 55Ω
(4) 60Ω

25) A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 45º rough incline as it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 45º incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the
incline is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Find unit vector in direction of friction force acting on block. ,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Contact force between block B & C is

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 50 N

28)

Figure shows N identical blocks connected with identical strings on a smooth horizontal surface. A
constant force is pulling the blocks horizontally. If tension in string connecting 4th and 5th block is
two times that between 8th and 9th block, what is total number of blocks?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

29) A force of 50 N is acting on the block as shown. Then find friction force on the block-

(1) 24 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 50 N

30) In the figure shows blocks are initially at rest on the floor. Mark the correct statement(s) :

(1) When applied force on pulley is 200 N the normal reaction on block A is zero.
(2) When applied force is 400 N acceleration of B is 10 m/s2
(3) When applied force is 240 N acceleration of pulley is 2 m/s2
(4) For a force F = 100 N, normal reaction on B is zero.

31) Match the column

Column – I Column – II

Limiting
a p Has magnitude
friction

b Static friction q Maximum value of static friction

c Kinetic friction r Is a self adjusting force

(1) a → p, b → q, c → r
(2) a → r, b → p, c → q
(3) a → q, b → r, c → p
(4) a → q, b → p, c → r

32) A truck is stationary and has a bob suspended by a light string, in a frame attached to the truck.
The truck, suddenly moves to the right with an acceleration of a. The pendulum will tilt

to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is
(1)

to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is tan–1
(2)

to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is sin–1
(3)

to the left and angle of inclination of the pendulum with the vertical is cos–1
(4)

33) In the given figure, what is the reading of the spring balance ?

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 5 N
(4) Zero

34) There is no friction between 4 kg block and ground and these is friction between 3 kg block and
ground. Find friction force acting on 3kg block. Where F = 11 N as shown :

(1) 6 N
(2) 12 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 9 N

35)

A block of mass m is placed on a rough parabolic surface where x and y are in meter. The
coefficient of friction between block and surface is 0.5. If block is released from rest at point P then
y-coordinate of the point P if relative slipping between block and surface just takes place is:
(1) y = 0.25 m
(2) y = 0.5 m
(3) y = 5 m
(4) y = 7.5 m

36) Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. One has mass m and the other 2m. A force F is
applied on 2m as shown in the figure. Now the same force F is applied from the right on m. In the
two cases respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the two blocks will be :

(1) same
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

37) A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support at A as shown in figure. Another rope is
tied at the end B, and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle θ with

the vertical in equilibrium, then the tension in the string AB is :

(1) F sin θ
(2) F/sin θ
(3) F cos θ
(4) F/cos θ

38) Two blocks A and B of masses 6 kg and 3 kg rest on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the
figure. If coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4, the maximum horizontal force which can
make them move without separation is:-

(1) 72 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 36 N
(4) 20 N

39) A machine gun fires 10 bullets per second in horizontal direction. Mass of each bullet is 80 g and
muzzle velocity is 500 m/s. If the average horizontal force the shooter must apply to keep the
machine gun stationary is F × 102 N, find numerical value of F.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 12

40) A block has been placed on an inclined plane. The slope angle θ of the plane is such that the
block slides down the plane at a constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to:

(1) sinθ
(2) cosθ
(3) g
(4) tanθ

41) In the figure, a block of weight 60 N is placed on a rough surface. The coefficient of friction
between the block and the surfaces is 0.5. What should be the weight maximum W such that the

block does not slip on the surface?

(1) 60 N

(2)

(3) 30 N

(4)
42) For the given figure, three light springs are shown. Their spring constants are k, 2k and 3k. The
respective compressions springs are x1, x2 and x3. The value of is

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) 6 : 3 : 2
(4) None of these

43) Statement-I: A block of mass m can be hung in any of the following two ways.
In Case-II, string is most likely to break.

Statement-II: Tension in string in both cases is same.

Both statement-I and statement-II are true and the statement-II is the correct explanation of
(1)
statement-I.
Both statement-I and statement-II are true, but the statement-II is not correct explanation of
(2)
statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-II is correct, statement-I is incorrect.

44) A block of mass 1 kg is held against a smooth wall by applying a horizontal force F of 5 N on the
block and another force F2 parallel to plane of the wall. The value of F2 is

(1) 5 N
(2) 10 N
(3)
(4) 15 N

45) Calculate the maximum acceleration of a moving car so that a body lying on the floor of the car
remains stationary. The coefficient of static friction between the body and the floor is 0.15.

(1) 150 ms–2

(2) 1.5 ms–2
(3) 50 ms–2
(4) 1.2 ms–2
 CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following compounds are anti-aromatic ?

(1) (III) and (VI)

(2) (II) and (V)
(3) (I) and (V)
(4) (V) and (VI)

2) Which is incorrect order of stability of reaction intermediates ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following compound is most basic?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) Structure of 4–Chloro–2–ethyl–3– methylpenta –2, 4–dienal is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Indicate the wrongly named compound :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which of the following is most reactive towards SN2 mechanism

(1) CH3–Cl
(2) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl
(3)

(4)

7)

Which one of the following compounds will be most reactive for SN1 reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following cannot undergo E2 reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

9) Which of following reaction does not involves carbocation intermediate ?

(1) Addition of HBr at alkene

(2) SN1 reaction at alkyl halide
(3) Freidal craft alkylation
(4) Halogenation of alkane

10) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
In above reaction product will be -
(1) Meso form
(2) Racemic Mixture
(3) Pure d form
(4) Pure ℓ form

11) Reactivity order of halides forwards dehydrohalogenation (decreasing order)

(1) I > III > II

(2) III > II > I
(3) III > I > II
(4) I > II > III

12) Which of the following is correct decreasing rate of hydrolysis of these halides -

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > IV > III
(4) III > IV > II > I

13)
P is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) Arrange following in order of nucleophilicity

(I) C2H5O (II) C6H5O
(III) (IV)

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) IV > I > II > III

15) Some of the compounds are given below, how many of these compounds will not give SN1

reaction.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

16) The major product obtained in the following reaction is:

(1) (±)C6H5―CH(Ot-Bu)CH2C6H5
(2) C6H5―CH=CH―C6H5
(3) (+)C6H5―CH(Ot-Bu)CH2C6H5
(4) (–)C6H5―CH(Ot-Bu)CH2C6H5

17) SN2 mechanism proceed with formation of transition state. Incorrect for transition state :-
 Carbon atom of transition state simultaneously bonded to incoming nucleophile and outgoing
(1)
leaving group.
(2) It is highly unstable state and can not be isolated.
(3) C-atom of transition state simultaneously bonded to five atom.
(4) C-atom of transition state is sp3d hybridised.

18)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which reaction the product is wrong (major) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Identify product B ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Chloroform and conc.HNO3 react to produce:

(1) CHCl2NO3
(2) CHCl2HNO3
(3) CCl3NO2
(4) CCl3NO3

22)
Product A, B and C are :

(1) Iodoform, Acetylene & Acetaldehyde

(2) Triiodomethane, Ethyne & Acetone
(3) Iodoform, Ethene & Ethylene glycol
(4) Ethene, iodoform & Ethylhydrogen sulphate

23) The alkane that gives only one monochloro product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence of
diffused sunlight is

(1) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
(2) neo-pentane
(3) n-pentane
(4) isopentane

24)
Configuration of Y is :-

(1) R
(2) S
(3) D
(4) L

25)

Choose the correct option ?

(1) SN2 is bimolecular reaction having order = 1.

(2) SN1 is unimolecular reaction having order = 2.
(3) Leaving group ability for both SN1 & SN2 is R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F
(4) In SN1 reaction 100% racemisation occurs

26) Resistance of 0.01 N CaCl2 solution is 210 ohm at 298 K with cell constant 0.84 cm–1. Match the
column.
 Column-I Column-II

Conductance
(i) (a) 4×10–3
(ohm–1)

Specific conductance
(ii) (b) 400
(ohm–1cm–1)

Molar conductance
(iii) (c) 800
(ohm–1cm2mol–1)

Equivalent conductance
(iv) (d)
(ohm–1cm2 eq–1)
(1) (i)→a, (ii)→b, (iii)→c, (iv)→d
(2) (i)→d, (ii)→a, (iii)→c, (iv)→b
(3) (i)→d, (ii)→a, (iii)→b, (iv)→c
(4) (i)→d, (ii)→c, (iii)→a, (iv)→b

27) Identify the correct statement :-

(1) increases with decrease in temperature

(2) increases with increase in concentration
(3) Specific conductance increase with increase in concentration
(4) All of these

28) Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution is
1.4 S m–1. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar conductivity of
0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m2 mol–1 is :-

(1) 5 × 10–4
(2) 5 × 10–3
(3) 5 × 102
(4) 5 × 10–5

29) Equivalent conductance of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl are x1, x2 and x3 S cm2 eq–1 at infinite dilution. If
specific conductance of saturated BaSO4 solution is Y S cm–1, then Ksp of BaSO4 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The ionization constant of a weak acid (HX) is 9 × 10–6 while the equivalent conductance of its
0.01 M solution is 30 S cm2 eq–1. The equivalent conductance of the electrolyte at infinite dilution will
be :-

(1) 100 S cm2 eq–1

(2) 30 S cm2 eq–1
(3) 3 S cm2 eq–1
(4) 1000 S cm2 eq–1

31) From the following molar conductivities at infinite dilution

for Ba(OH)2 = 457.6 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
for BaCl2 = 240.6 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
for NH4Cl = 129.8 Ω–1 cm2 mol–1
What is the for NH4OH :-

(1) 119.15 S cm2 mol–1

(2) 238.3 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 346.8 S cm2 mol–1
(4) 173.4 S cm2 mol–1

32) Equivalent conductance of 0.1 M HA(weak acid) solution is 10 Scm2 equivalent–1 and that at
infinite dilution is 200 Scm2 equivalent–1 Hence pH of HA solution is :–

(1) 1.3
(2) 1.7
(3) 2.3
(4) 3.7

33) Which of the following ion will give highest limiting molar conductivity in water at 298 K?

(1) Na+
(2) Ca2+
(3) H+
(4) Cl–

34) The molar conductivity of 0.02 M weak acid HA is 20.2 S cm2 mol–1. If for H+ = 350 S cm2
mol–1 and for A– = 54 S cm2 mol–1 then calculate dissociation constant of weak acid HA :-

(1) 2.5 × 10–3

(2) 5 × 10–4
(3) 2 × 10–6
(4) 5 × 10–5

35) Three Faradays of electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron (II) bromide. The
mass of iron metal (at mass 56) deposited at the cathode is:

(1) 56 g
(2) 84 g
(3) 112 g
(4) 168 g

36) Molar conductance of BaCl2, H2SO4 and HCl at infinite dilution are x1, x2 and x3 respectively.
Equivalent conductance of BaSO4 at infinite dilution will be :-

(1)

(2) x1 + x2 – 2x3
(3) 2[x1 + x2 – 2x3]

(4)

37) The specific conductivity of a saturated solution of AgCl is 3.4 × 10–6 Scm–1. If = 62.3 Scm2
mol–1 and = 67.7 Scm2 mol–1, the solubility of AgCl is :-

(1) 2.6 × 10–5 M

(2) 4.5 × 10–3 M
(3) 3.6 × 10–5 M
(4) 3.6 × 10–3 M

38) During the electrolysis of Ni(NO3)2 solution, water is electrolysed and oxygen is liberated as per
the equation :-
2H2O → 4H+ + O2 + 4e–
when 3 ampere of current is passed for 965 seconds what is the volume of O2 liberated at NTP :-

(1) 0.168 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 5.6 L
(4) 0.112 L

39) If mercury is used as cathode in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution, the ion discharged at
cathode is :-

(1) H+
(2) Na+
(3) OH-
(4) Cl-

40) In an experiment, 0.04 F was passed through 400 mL of a 1M solution of NaCl. What would be
the pH of the solution after the elctrolysis :-

(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 13
(4) 6

41) On electrolysis of aqueous solution of KI in presence of platinum electrodes –

(a) Hydrogen gas is released at cathode.
(b) Oxygen gas is released at anode.
(c) pOH of solution decreases.
(d) There is deposition of potassium at cathode.
Choose the correct option from following

(1) a, b
(2) only a
(3) a, c
(4) a, c, d

42) 6A current with 75% efficiency is passed through a cell for 6h (Z = 4 × 10–4). The amount of
metal deposited will be :

(1) 22.4 g
(2) 36 g
(3) 32.4 g
(4) 38.9 g

43) For electrolysis match column-I with column-II,

Column-I Column-II

(A) Very dilute solution of NaCl (p) O2 evolved at anode

H2 evolved at
(B) Very dilute solution of HCl (q)
cathode

(C) Aqueous NaCl (r) Cl2 evolved at anode

Fairly concentrated solution of

(D) (s) Ag deposited at cathode

(1) A → (p,q), B → (p,q), C → (q,r), D → (p,s)

(2) A → (q,r), B → (q,r), C → (p,q), D → (p,s)
(3) A → (p,q), B → (q,r), C → (p,q), D → (p,s)
(4) A → (q,r), B → (p,q), C → (p,q), D → (p,s)

44) A graph was plotted between molar conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)

and (in mol L–1). Select the correct option :-

(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH)
(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH)
(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)
(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)

45) Molar conductance of an electrolyte increase with dilution according to the equation:

Which of the following statements are true?

A. This equation applies to both strong and weak electrolytes.
B. Value of the constant A depends upon the nature of the solvent.
C. Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2 and MgSO4
D. Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2 and Mg(OH)2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (B) only

(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

BOTANY

1) Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below

Column II
Column I(Prize given to E. Mayr)
(Year)

(a) Crafoord prize i. 1983

(b) International Prize for biology ii. 1994

(c) Balzan prize iii. 1999

iv. 2004

(a) (b) (c)

(1) ii ii iii

(2) ii iii i

(3) iii iv ii

(4) iii ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Statement A: Linnaeus used Systema Naturae as the title of his publication.

Statement B: The word systematics is derived from Greek word “Systema” which means
“systematic arrangement of organisms”.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

3) Select the wrong statement about the rules of binomial nomenclature.

(1) Name of the author appears after the specific epithet and written in abbreviated form.
(2) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined
(3) Biological names are printed in italics to indicate their Latin origin
First world in biological name represents the specific epithet while the second component
(4)
denotes genus name

4)

Assertion : Families are characterized based on vegetative and reproductive features of plant
species.
Reason : Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Poaceae are included in the order Polymoniales
mainly based on the floral characters.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false and reason is true.

5) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

(a) Family i. Tuberosum

(b) Kingdom ii. Polymoniales

(c) Order iii. Solanum

(d) Species iv. Plantae

(e) Genus v. Solanaceae

(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-e, iv-b, v-a
(2) i-e, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a, v-c
(3) i-d, ii-e, iii-b, iv-a, v-c
(4) i-e, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a, v-d

6) a. The body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material.
b. During unfavourable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium.
c. During favourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing
spores at their tips.
d. Spores possess true walls.
e. The spores are dispersed in water currents.
How many of the above statements are correct regarding slime moulds?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

7) Statement A: The three domains system is based on the sequence of 23S t-RNA.
Statement B: In three domain system, 2 domains are assigned to eukaryotes and 1 domain is
assigned to prokaryotes.

(1) A is correct.
(2) B is correct.
(3) Both the statements are correct.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

8) Match Column I with Column II.

Column I (Disease) Column II (Causative agent)

(A) Potato spindle tuber disease (i) Trypanosoma gambiense

(B) Mad cow disease (ii) Xanthomonas citri

(C) Citrus canker (iii) Viroids

(D) African sleeping sickness (iv) Prions

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D- iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B- iv, C- ii, D- i
(4) A-iii, B- iv, C-i, D- ii

9) Select the incorrect option

(1) Each taxonomic category is referred to as unit of classification

(2) The number of common characteristics goes on decreasing from species to kingdom
(3) Taxonomic categories are morphological aggregates, but not distinct biological entities
(4) Species serves as the basic and lowest unit of classification

10) Read the statements w.r.t. species.

(a) Species is the group of individuals with fundamental similarities.
(b) Each species has distinct morphological differences from other closely related species
(c) Species are group of organisms capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offsprings.
(d) All species which have more characters in common are placed in the same genus and assigned to
same specific epithet. Select the incorrect statements.

(1) (b) only

(2) (b) and (d) only
(3) (d) only
(4) (a) and (d)

11) Statement-A: Chrysophytes are microscopic and float passively in water currents (plankton).
Statement-B: Chrysophytes group includes diatoms and golden algae (desmids).

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

12) Assertion (A): Euglenoids body is flexible

Reason (R): Instead of a cell wall, euglenoids have a protein rich layer called pellicle

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

13) Read the given statements

Statement A : Fungi are cosmopolitan.
Statement B : Organisms with loose tissue body organisation are placed in Kingdom fungi.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

14) Given organisms belongs to how many kingdoms according to Whittaker's classification?

Chlorella, Euglena, Physarum, Chlamydomonas, Plasmodium, Mucor

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

15) How many of the given features are associated with incipient nucleus of Monera

Naked DNA, Non-histone proteins, Histone proteins, Linear ss-DNA,

Circular ds-DNA
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

16) Which of the following statements is incorrect about viruses?

(1) Viruses contain either RNA or DNA
(2) Viruses do not exhibit metabolism
(3) Bacteriophages are usually double standard DNA viruses
(4) TMV contains both RNA and DNA as their genetic material

17) Which statement is/are wrong with respect to Archaebacteria ?

(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
(b) Feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of several ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo.
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils.
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell wall

(1) a and e
(2) b and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) only e

18) Which of the following organisms have silica shells on their surface?

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Ciliated protozoans
(3) Marine forms of amoeboid protozoans
(4) Slime moulds

19) If there are five allelic forms for the gene controlling ABO blood group then what will be the
number of possible genotypes?

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 15

20) a. Cyanobacteria contains chlorophyll-a pigment similar to green plants

b. Rhizobium and Nostoc are BGA which can fix nitrogen symbiotically.
c. The structure of cyanobacteria is similar to Gram (+ve) eubacteria.

(1) a and b are correct

(2) a, b and c are correct
(3) b and c are incorrect
(4) a, b and c are incorrect

21) Mycoplasma are insensitive to (a) and sensitive to (b) antibiotic

(a) (b)

(1) Streptomycin Penicillin

(2) Erythromycin Penicillin

 (3) Chloramphenicol Penicillin

(4) Penicillin Chloramphenicol

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) How many fungi from the following box belongs to the class Ascomycetes?

Rhizopus, Penicillium, Yeast, Mucor, Agaricus, Puccinia, Albugo,

Claviceps, Neurospora, Alternaria, Trichoderma, Aspergillus, Ustilago,
Morels, Truffles, Collectrotrichum, Toadstools
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 10

23) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. dianoflagellates

(1) May appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red in colour

(2) Some members release toxin that may even kill other marine animals
(3) Have two flagella, both lies transversely
(4) They are mostly marine organism

24) Match the following.

Column I Column II

a Algal fungi (i) Phycomycetes

b Sac fungi (ii) Basidiomycetes

c Club fungi (iii) Ascomycetes

d Fungi imperfecti (iv) Deuteromycetes

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(3) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

25) Assertion (A): Asexual spores are generally not found in Basidiomycetes fungi
Reason (R): Sex organs are absent in Basidiomycetes fungi

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
26) Select the odd one w.r.t. sexual spore in fungi?

(1) Oospores
(2) Conidiospore
(3) Basidiospores
(4) Ascospores

27) Read the following statements about Viroids :

(i) These were discovered by T.O. Diener
(ii) These are of high molecular weight
(iii) These lack protein coat
(iv) Their RNA is of low molecular weight
(v) May possess capsid.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three

28) Select the odd one w.r.t. basis of classification of kingdom fungi.

(1) Fruiting bodies

(2) Mode of spore formation
(3) Composition of cell wall
(4) Morphology of the mycelium

29) Statement A: Generally, 8 ascospores are formed in one ascus exogenously.

Statement B: Four basidiospores are formed in one basidium endogenously.

(1) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

(2) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect.
(3) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct

30) Which of the following fungal group has aseptate and coenocytic mycelium?

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

31) a. Glycocalyx in bacteria helps in colony formation.

b. Bacterial cell membrane is made up of lipoprotein. This membrane is structurally dissimilar of
that eukaryotes.
c. Mesosomes helps in DNA replication and distribution of daughter cells during cell division.
d. Periplasmic space is analogous to lysosome.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

32) Statement-A :- The bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex in behaviour.
Statement-B:- The vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs.

(1) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

(2) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect.
(3) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct.

33)

How many of the following are the reasons for which Mendel’s work remained unrecognized till
1900.
(a) The communication was not easy in those days and his work could not be widely publicized.
(b) The concept of ‘factors’ as stable and discrete units was not accepted by his contemporaries.
(c) Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomenon was totally new and
unacceptable to many of the biologists of his time.
(d) Though Mendel’s work suggested that factors (genes) were discrete units, he could not provide
any physical proof for the existence of factors or say what they were made of.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

34) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) A single gene product may produce more than one effect.
(2) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that is has information for.
(3) Multiple alleles are located on same locus of homologous chromosomes.
(4) Multiple alleles can be studied in an individual.

35) Assertion (A) : When two pairs of traits (2 different characters) are combined in a hybrid,
segregation of one pair of character is independent of the other pair of character.
Reason (R) : Law of independent assortment cannot be proved by dihybrid cross.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
36) If a pea plant produces 1280 seeds in a dihybrid cross between round-yellow and wrinkled-green
plant. Then how many of these seed are wrinkled-yellow, round-yellow and wrinkled-green,
respectively.

(1) 320, 240, 640

(2) 240,720,80
(3) 320,640,160
(4) 80,720,240

37) In which of the following the phenotypic and genotypic ratio remains the same?

(1) Incomplete dominance in flower color of Mirabilis jalapa.

(2) Inheritance pattern of coat color in cattles.
(3) Inheritance pattern of colour of flowers in Lathyrus odoratus.
(4) Both (1) and (2).

38) Statement A: Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy

Statement B: The phenotypic and genotypic ratio remains the same for the inheritance of flower
colour in Antirrhinum sp..

(1) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect.
(3) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct

39) In F2 generation of a monohybrid cross, 120 plants are obtained. The ratio between homozygous
and heterozygous plants will be

(1) 40:80
(2) 60:60
(3) 20:100
(4) 10:110

40)

(a) When the genes are located on autosomes, inheritance of the character is not dependent on
parental sex.
(b) In test cross phenotypic and genotypic ratio are same.
(c) Test cross helps to find out the genotype of unknown recessive individual.
(d) During gamete formation, each gamete receives only one factor of a pair; so gametes are pure for
a particular trait.
(e) When F1 (heterozygous) individual is crossed with dominant parent then it is termed as test
cross.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

41) A phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1 exhibits

(1) Back cross

(2) Monohybrid test cross
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) Dihybrid test cross

42) Match column I with Column II

Column I (Characters) Column II (Located on Chromosome no.)

i Length of plant a. 1st

ii Pod colour b. 4th

iii Seed colour c. 5th

iv Flower colour d. 1st

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d

43) a. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder.

b. It is caused by the substitution of Valine (Val) by Glutamic acid (Glu) at sixth position of the beta
globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
c. The substitution of amino acid in the α-globin protein results due to the single substitution at the
sixth codon of the α-globin gene from GAG to GUG.
d. The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing
the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like structure.
How many of the above statement are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

44) How many of the followings are the dominant trait in Pisum sativum?

Round seed, Green seed color, Violet flower color, Green pod color,
Axial position of flower
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
45) Theoretically, the modified allele could be responsible for production of
(i) the normal/less efficient enzyme, or
(ii) a non-functional enzyme, or
(iii) no enzyme at all

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct

(2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

ZOOLOGY

1) Centchroman is :

(1) A synthetic non - steroidal contraceptive

(2) Prevents implantation
(3) Available with trade name of 'SAHELI'
(4) All of the above

2) An emergency contraceptive pill is given to a female who is 2 weeks pregnant. This will lead to:

(1) Termination of pregnancy.

(2) Prevention of implantation
(3) Pregnancy is unaffected.
(4) Degeneration of corpus luteum due to negative feedback of LH.

3) Listed below are the objectives of RCH, except

(1) Sex education in schools

(2) Awareness about contraception through audio-visual and print media
(3) Calculation of population growth rate after every ten years
(4) Awareness about STDs, methods of their transmission, prevention and cure

4) How many of following are associated with natural method of contraception? Periodic abstinence,
Lactational amenorrhea, Implant, LNG-20, Diaphragm, saheli, coitus interruptus

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) What is true about "Saheli"?

I. Developed at CDRI, Lucknow.
II. Contains a steroidal preparation.
III. Once-a-week' pill.
IV. Many side effects
V. High contraceptive value.
VI. Very few side effects.
VII. Low contraceptive value.

(1) I, II, III, V and VI

(2) I, III, V and VI
(3) I, II, III, IV and V
(4) I, II, IV and V

6) India was amongst the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a
national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. This programme named as ........
was initiated in...........

(1) RCH, 1997

(2) RCH, 1951
(3) Family planning, 1997
(4) Family planning, 1951

7) How many of the following statements are correct for surgical method or sterilisation?
(A) In vasectomy cut the vasa efferentia so sperms immediately disappear in semen.
(B) It blocks the gamete transport.
(C) it is also called as terminal method of contraception.
(D) Reversibility is very poor.

(1) A, B & C
(2) C & D only
(3) B, C & D
(4) B & D only

8) Diaphragms are the contraceptive devices, used by the females.

I. They are introduced into the uterus.
II. They are placed to cover the cervical region.
III. They act as physical barriers to the sperm entry.
IV. They act as spermicidal agents.
Choose the correct statements.

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) III and IV

9)

MTP act was legalized in

(1) 1951
(2) 1947
(3) 2000
(4) 1971

10)

People in the age group of _______are more vulnerable to STI's.

(1) 15-24 years

(2) 12-15 years
(3) 18-30 years
(4) 60-70 years

11) Which pill is known as "The Abortion Pill"?

(1) Depo-Provera
(2) The estrogen only pill
(3) Mifepristone
(4) The combination pill

12)

According to 2011 census, growth rate of population in India is:

(1) More than 2%

(2) Less than 2%
(3) More than 12%
(4) Less than 12%

13)

What are the characteristics of an ideal contraceptive?

(a) User friendly
(b) Easily available
(c) Effective
(d) Reversible
(e) May have lot of side effects
(f) No interference with sexual drive of user
(g) Interfere with sexual act of user

(1) a, b, c, d, f, g
(2) a, b, c, d, e, f, g
(3) a, b, c, d, f
(4) a, b, c, d, e

14) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is

(1) Natural, legal abortion

(2) Induced, legal abortion
(3) Induced, illegal abortion
(4) Natural, illegal abortion

15) Which of the following statement is incorrect about assisted reproductive technology (ART) ?

(1) Their benefits are affordable to large number of people.

(2) Emotional, Religious and social factors are also deterrents in the adoption of these method
(3) All these techniques require extremely high precision handling by specialised professionals.
Our laws permit legal adoption and it is as yet, one of the best methods for couples looking for
(4)
parenthood.

16) Which of the following statements are correct ?

A. In India, family planning programme was initiated in 1951.
B. A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) are
also probable reasons for increase in population.
C. Natural methods of contraception work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms
meeting.
D. If duration of pregnancy is more than 12 weeks and less than 24 weeks, then opinion of 2
registered medical practitioners is needed for MTP.

(1) A, B, C & D
(2) A, C & D only
(3) A, B & C only
(4) A & C only

17) Statement - A : A rapid decline in death rate, MMR and IMR as well as an increase in number
of people in reproducible age are probable reasons for population explosion.
Statement - B : Indian population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.

(1) Statement-A is correct but Statement-B is incorrect

(2) Statement-A is incorrect but Statement-B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

18) Which of the following infections can be transmitted by sharing of injection needles?

(1) HIV & Gonorrhoea

(2) Hepatitis-B and Chlamydiasis
(3) HIV & Hepatitis-B
(4) Trichomoniasis & Gonorrhoea

19) The given structural formulas represent amino acids (labelled by as X, Y and Z)

Identify the correct name of X, Y and Z.

(1) Alanine, serine and glycine respectively.

(2) Tyrosine, cysteine and glutamic acid respectively.
(3) Glycine, alanine and serine respectively.
(4) Cysteine, glutamic acid and tyrosine respectively.

20) In India the population crossed 1.2 billion mark in may 2011 the probable reason for this are, the
decline in
I. MMR
II. Death rate
III. Number of people in reproducible age
IV. IMR

(1) III and IV only

(2) I and II only
(3) I,II,III and IV
(4) I,II and IV only

21) A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian tubes blocked. Which ART method can help her to
conceive a child?

(1) GIFT
(2) IUT
(3) IUI
(4) AI

22) Statement - I:- Reproductive and child health (RCH) care programmes creating awareness
among people about various reproduction related aspects.
Statement - II:- With the help of audio-visual and the print media governmental and non-
governmental agencies have taken various steps to create awareness among the people about
reproduction related aspects.

(1) Both Statements are correct

(2) Statement - I is true, Statement - II is false
(3) Statement - II is true, Statement - I is false
(4) Both Statements are false

23) Read the following statements (A-D)

A. The programmes called family planning were initiated in 1951
B. In the last century an all-round development in various fields significantly improved quality of life
of people
C. Successful implementation of various action plans to attain reproductive health requires strong
infrastructural facilities, professional expertise and material support.
D. Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex determination to legally check increasing menace of
female foeticides.
Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) A, B, C, only
(2) A, B,C, D
(3) A, B, only
(4) B, C, D only

24) A typical fat molecule is made up of three molecule of ---A--- with one molecule of ---B---. The
linkage is called ---C---.

A B C

(1) Glycerol Fatty acid Ester

(2) Fatty acid Glycerol Glycosidic

(3) Fatty acid Glycerol Ester

(4) Fatty acid Glycerol Peptide bond

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Dietary proteins are source of non-essential amino acids only.
(B) Proteins are heteropolymer.
(C) Glycosidic bond and peptide bond are formed by dehydration.
(D) Nitrogenous compound in lecithin is choline
How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

26)

A phosphoglyceride is always made up of:-

Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is
(1)
also attached.
A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate
(2)
group is also attached.
A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group, which is also attached to
(3)
a glycerol molecule.
Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
(4)
attached.

27) Given below are the example of few amino acids :

Glutamic acid, Lysine, Valine, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
How many of the above are neutral amino acids ?

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Three

28) Which of the following structures represents zwitter ion form of a particular amino acid?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Read the following statements and choose the option which have all correct statements :-
(a) The molecular weight of lipids exceed 800 Dalton
(b) Chlorophyll pigment is an example of secondary metabolites.
(c) Some secondary metabolites can be used as drugs for the treatment of human diseases.
(d) The first amino acid in a protein is called as N-terminal amino acid

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, d

30) How do enzymes bring about high rates of chemical conversions ?

(1) By increasing substrate concentration

(2) By decreasing activation energy
(3) By increasing activation energy
(4) By decreasing potential energy

31) The below given bar diagram represents the cellular components with their % of the total
cellular mass. If B represents protein component, then which of the following will represent the
carbohydrates component?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

32) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

Not strictly
(A) Pyrimidines (I)
macromolecule

Thymine, Cytosine
(B) Purines (II)
& Uracil

(C) Lipids (III) Taste

(D) Receptor (IV) Low melting point

(E) Oils (V) Adenine & Guanine

(1) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(2) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II
(4) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I

33) Assertion : Polysaccharides are non-reducing .

Reason : In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is
called the non-reducing end.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

34) Find the incorrect match

Monomer
Organic molecule Example Function
(Composed of)

Fatty acids, Serve as

(1) Lipids Fats,oil
Glycerol reserve food
 Actin, Support,
Amino
(2) Proteins GLUT-4, transport &
acids
Collagen regulation

Nucleic Genetic
(3) DNA, RNA Nucleotides
acids material

Monosac-
charides Glucose Regulatory
(4) Carbohydrates
Disaccharides, only function
Polysaccharides
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Read the following statements carefully and find out pair of statements which are not correct :-
(a) Some secondary metabolites have ecological importance
(b) NaCl, CaCO3, PO4–, CH3COOH, CH4 etc are inorganic constituents of living cell

(c) is a nucleoside as well as found in RNA along with phosphate

(d) Secondary structure of proteins is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of
proteins

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) d, b

36) Select the incorrect statement for given figure:

(1) This is a permanent method of contraception in females

(2) Menstrual flow is not affected after using this method of contraception
(3) Maturation of Graafian follicles permanently ceases after applying this contraceptive method
(4) Reversibility of this technique is very poor

37) Chemical structure of few molecules are given below. Identify these structure and select the
correct option given below.
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A-is triglyceride and it is not a polymer

(2) B-is glycine and it is an optically active and simplest amino acid
(3) C-is methyl uracil and it increases stability of DNA and RNA.
(4) D-is uracil and is found in DNA.

38) Which contraceptive method provides protection against HIV?

(1) IUD
(2) Pills
(3) Condom
(4) Periodic abstinence

39) Assertion : Amniocentesis is often misused.

Reason : Amniocentesis is meant for determining the genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being
used to determine the sex of the foetus, to kill the normal female foetus

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

40) Identify the labeling A, B, C and D and choose the correct option :

A B C D
(1) Vmax Vmax/2 Km Substrate
(2) Vmax/2 Vmax Km Substrate
(3) Vmax Km Vmax/2 Substrate
(4) Vmax Vmax/2 Substrate Km
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a
polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

(1) C60H120O60
(2) C60H102O51
(3) C60H100O50
(4) C60H111O51

42)
In the above diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen, glycosidic bonds represented by
A, B and C are :-

A B C
(1) α-1'-4'' α-1'-4'' β-1'-4''
(2) β-1'-6'' β-1'-4'' β-1'-4''
(3) α-1'-6'' α-1'-4'' α-1'-4''
(4) α-1'-4'' α-1'-6'' α-1'-4'
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which two of the above statements are correct?

(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

44) Which of the following statements are not true?

(A) Glycerol is a 3-carbon compound with three–OH groups.
(B) Waxes are monoesters with only one molecule of fatty acid attached to a monohydroxy alcohol.
(C) Proteins are heteropolymers of nucleotides.
(D) Stearic acid is a unsaturated fatty acid while oleic acid is saturated fatty acid.

(1) A & B only

(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A & D only

45) Identify the correct set of statements out of the following?

(a) ES complex formation is a transient phenomenon.
(b) In transition state, substrate is bound to the enzyme's, active site.
(c) If P is at higher level than ‘S’ the reaction is an exothermic reaction.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below?

(1) a, b & c are correct

(2) a is correct & b, c are incorrect
(3) a, b are correct & c is incorrect
(4) a, b & c are incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 4 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 3 2 4 1 1 1 3 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 3 2 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 2 4 2 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 2 4 1 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 2 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 4 3 1 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 4 4 3 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 4 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 2 4 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 3 3 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 3 4
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 1 3 1 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

q=

q=
q = 200 – 100 = 100 C
q = ne

n = q/e = = 6.25 × 1020

2) Answer: 2s

3) Given ⇒ A part of an electric circuit is shown in the figure, in which a cell and two resistors

are connected, as shown : To determine ⇒ The

potential difference between points A and B i.e. VA – VB = ?
Concept ⇒ Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law (KVL) between two points of an electric circuit.
Formula ⇒ No formula is required.
Calculation ⇒ On applying the KVL between points A & B :
VA + 3 Volts – (3 Amp).(1) – (3 Amp).(6Ω) = VB
⟹ VA + 3 Volts – 3 Volts – 18 Volts = VB
⟹ VA – 18 Volts = VB
⟹ VA – VB = 18 Volts

4) Given ⇒ A conducting wire is provided :

Temperature coefficient of resistance ⇒ α = 0.00125°C–1
Initial Temperature
⇒ T1 = 300 K = (300 – 273)°C = 27°C
Initial Resistance ⇒ R1 = 1Ω
Final Temperature ⇒ T2
Final Resistance ⇒ R2 = 2Ω
To find ⇒ The value of the final temperature T2 = ?
Concept ⇒ The dependence of resistance on temperature.

Formula ⇒

⇒ 2 × [1 + 0.03375] = 1 × [1 + 0.00125 × T2]

⇒ 2 × (1.03375 = (1 + 0.00125T2)
⇒ 2.0675 = 1 + 0.00125T2
⇒ 2.0675 – 1 = 0.00125T2
⇒ 1.0675 = 0.00125T2

⇒ T2 = 854°C ⇒ T2 = (854 + 273)K

⇒ T2 = 1127 K

5)

At a critical temperature resistivity of a super conductor is zero.

6) Answer : 1Ω

7) Answer : 1.5P

8) No current will flow in forthest Δ from terminal A & B ∴

Equivalent resistance =

9)

Effective circuit is

RAB =

10) Explanation : Question asking to solve complex ladder circuit.

Concept : Trick to solve ladder circuit is by assuming Req.

As since thus circuit is repeating again and again till so we will assume its Req = x
Now
x2 + 6x = 9+ 3x
x2 + 3x - 9 = 0

11) Balanced W.S.B.

12)

Also heat produced per sec i.e.,

⇒ P4 = = 2 cal/s

13) Suppose current through different paths of the circuit is as follows. After applying KVL for
loop (1) and loop (2)
We get ⇒

and ⇒

Hence

14) Question Explanation :

The circuit consist of multiple resistors in series and parallel. The goal is to find the voltage
difference VA – VB Using circuit analysis.
Concept - Ohm's Law. (wheat stone bridge)

Formula Used: Ohm's Law: V= IR Voltage divider rule :

from Balanced Bridge Condition -

Then remaining 100Ω Between A &Y ⇒

Calculation - According to the question we need to find voltage drop across 200Ω resister,
across A&B in the diagram.
Voltage division Rule .
15)

ENet = 8V – 4V = 4V
Rnet = 9 + r1 + r2 = 9 + 1 + 2 = 12Ω

so, ⇒ I = =

⇒ VP – VQ = I(9) = = 3V

16)

Here VAB = VAD, so if current in 1Ω is I1 then current in 3Ω is and VBC = VDC, so if current in

2Ω is I2, then current in 4 Ω is

By KCl I1 + = I2 +
i.e. total current through battery

so or 8I1 = 9I2 .....(1)

we have to find I3, by KCl

I3 = I1 – I2 or I3 = – ......(2)
Use KVL along loop ABC A through battery
25 – I1 – 2I2 = 0 .....(3) ; by (1) & (3)

25 = I1 + 2I2 = I1 + 2

⇒ 25 = I1 ⇒ I1 = 9 A .....(4)
by eq (4) & (1), I2 = 8A
by eq (2) I3 = 9 – 8 = 1A

17)

Measured value of R = = 5Ω
But current in R will actually be less than I, so R should be greater than 5Ω.
18)

RPQ = .... (1)

∵ R1 + R2 = R

⇒ R2 =

Similarly R1 = put in (1)

RPQ =

19) R ∝

⇒ R1 : R2 : R3 = = 27 : 6 : 1

20) Question Explanation : We have to identify the correct statements about conductivity of
a metallic conductor.
Concept : This question is based on Behavior of Electrons in Metallic Conductors with
Temperature.
Solution : Increased temperature leads to more frequent collisions which reduce electron
mobility and thus conductivity. Number of free electrons in a conductor are independent of
temperature.

21)

Here supply voltage is equal to rated voltage

22) Ig = 4 × 10–4 × 25 = 10–2 A

2.5 = (50 + R) 10–2 ∴ R = 200 Ω

23) (A)
(B) J = σE = E/ρ ⇒ ρ = E/J

(C)

(D) i = neAυd

J = neυd

(E) Mobility =

24) Wire resistance = 200Ω

Divided into 20 equal parts

so each part resistance =

Req. = 10 × 10 + = 101 Ω

25) Case I: for rough incline plane

time taken to slide down

Case II : For smooth incline plane

Acc to question
26)

Friction opposes the slipping of block with respect to plank so its direction is opposite to the
direction of velocity of block with respect to plank.

27)

28) To solve this, we assume the tension in the string connecting the kth block from the pulling
end (Block N) to the (k+1)th block (from the pulling end) pulls (N−k) blocks. Given the tension
in the string connecting the 4th and 5th block is two times that between the 8th and 9th block:
1. Tension pulling (N−4) blocks: TN−4​=(N−4)ma
2. Tension pulling (N−8) blocks: TN−8​=(N−8)ma
3. Set up the relationship: (N−4)ma=2×(N−8)ma
4. Solving for N: N−4=2N−16⟹N=12.

29)

30) When applied force is 400 N acceleration of B is 10 m/s2

31) Static friction is a self–adjusting force, it can be greater than, less than or equal to kinetic
friction. Limiting friction
Kinetic friction

32)
Due to pseudo force on the bob it will tilt to left.

Tsinθ = ma ...(i)
Tcosθ = mg ...(ii)

tanq = ⇒ θ = tan–1

33)

T – mg = 0 [ Equilibrium of block]
T – 10 = 0
T = 10
Reading of spring balance is same as tension is spring balance.

34) The friction force acting on the 3kg block is 6 N.

35) y = 0.25 m

36)
F – N = 2 ma1 [Newton`s II law for block A]
N = ma1 [Newton`s II law for block B]
⇒ N= N = 2 ma2 [Newtons II law for
block A]
F – N = ma2 [Newtons II law for block B]
⇒ N = 2F/3 so the ratio is 1 : 2

37) Point B is massless so net force on it must be zero otherwise

it will have ∞ acceleration.
⇒ F – Tsinθ = 0
[Equilibrium of A in horizontal direction]

⇒ T=

38) Frictional force on block B

= µmBg = 0.4 × 3 × 10 = 12 N

Hence, acceleration =
Hence, maximum force
F = (mA + mB)a = (6 + 3) × 4 = 36 N

39)

40) Because the block is sliding down the inclined plane with constant speed, hence
mg sinθ – µkmg cosθ = 0
or tanθ = µk

41) Frictional force,

F = µR = 0.5 × mg = 0.5 × 60 = 30N
Now, F = T1 = T2 cos45°
or 30 = T2 cos45°
and W = T2 sin45°
∴ W = 30 N

42) and

43) Here,

In Case-II, is more, so is lesser. It means tension in Case-II is more than that in Case-I.
So, in Case-II, sting is most likely to break.
Hence, statement I is correct.

. So, tensions in strings in both cases are not same.

Hence, statement II is incorrect.

44) From free body diagram of block,

 45)
N = mg ...(i)
f = ma ...(ii)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Conceptual

47) Aro. > anti aro > non-aro. is incorrect stability order
Aro. > non-aro. > anti-aro is correct stability order

back bonding (resonance) to vacent 3d orbital of Cl.

48) Lone pair is localised in

∴ it is most basic

49)
4–Chloro–2–ethyl–3–methylpenta–2, 4–dienal

50)
Hex–3–en–2–one

51)
Rate of SN2 reaction electrophilicity at the carbon where leaving group is attached

52) SN1 reaction rate ∝ stability of carbocation ∝ leaving ability of group

53) β-Hydrogen is absent.

54) ⇒ Since Halogenation of alkane is an example of free radical substitution reaction, hence
here intermediate formed is free radical and not carbocation.

55) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-298

56)

Due to product stability.

57)

rate of hydrolysis depends on stability of carbocation.

58) DMSO favours mechanism.

59)

60)

SN1 ∝ stability of C+

61) t-BuOK is a bulky strong base and it undergoes dehydrohalogenation reaction more readily
at higher temperature to form alkene. The reaction is proceeds via E2-mechanism.

62) NCERT XII Pg. # 294

In T.S. C is sp2 hybridsed.
63)

64)

65) NCERT XII, Pg. # 309, Part - 2

66)

67)

68) neo-pentane, contains all

equivalent hydrogen atoms, so it will give only one monochloro derivative on chlorination with
Cl2 in the presence of diffused sunlight.

69)

In presence of pyridine path is SN2, & swart reaction is also SN2 reaction so configuration will
not changed.

70) Leaving group ability for SN1 and SN2 reactions are same ie R–I > R–Br > R–Cl > R–F

71)
72) On dilution (κ) ↓ es

73) κ =
For given 0.2 M electrolyte solution
k = 1.4 S m–1 = 1.4 × 10–2 S cm–1

∴ = 1.4 × 10–2 × 50 cm–1

For 0.5 M electrolyte solution

=
= 5 S cm2 mol–1
= 5 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1

74)

λeq BaSO4 = λeq BaCl2 + H2SO4 - λeq HCl

λeq BaSO4 = x1 + x2 - x3
λm = λeq × V.F. = 2 (x1 + x2 - x3)

λm =

S=

KSP (BaSO4) = S2 =

75) Ka = Ca2

76) Ba(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl —→ BaCl2 + 2NH4OH

457.6 + 2 × 129.8 = 240.6 + 2
 (NH4OH) = 238.3 S cm2 mol–1

77) α = = 0.05
[H ] = cα = 0.05 × 0.1 = 0.005
+

pH = – log 5 × 10–3 = 2.3.

78) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 83

79) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 85, Part-1, In text Q.3.9

80) For 1 mol Fe+2 required

81)

82)

A. Calculate the limiting molar conductivity of AgCl: Λ°m(AgCl) = λ°(Ag⁺) + λ°(Cl⁻) Λ°m(AgCl) =
62.3 S cm² mol⁻¹ + 67.7 S cm² mol⁻¹ Λ°m(AgCl) = 130.0 S cm² mol⁻¹
B. Use the relationship between limiting molar conductivity, specific conductivity, and solubility
to find the molar solubility (s): Λ°m(AgCl) = (κ × 1000) / s 130.0 S cm² mol⁻¹ = (3.4 × 10⁻⁶ S
cm⁻¹ × 1000 cm³ L⁻¹) / s 130.0 = (3.4 × 10⁻³) / s s = (3.4 × 10⁻³) / 130.0 mol L⁻¹ s = (3.4 / 130)
× 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ s ≈ 0.02615 × 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ s ≈ 615 × 10⁻⁵ mol L⁻¹
C. Round the solubility to two significant figures as per the given data: s ≈ 2.6 × 10⁻⁵ M

83)

​
= 0.168 L​​

84)

Conceptual

85)

At cathode
 No. of Equ. of OH– = No. of Faraday charge
OH– ⇒ 4×10–2 equivalent
⇒ 4×10–2 mol

pOH = –log(10–1) ⇒ pOH = 1

pH = 13

86)

aqueous KI solution
at anode
2I– → I2 + 2e–
at cathode
2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH–
[OH–] ↑, pOH↓

87) W = Zit

= 4 × 10–4 × 6 × × 6 × 3600
= 38.9 g

88)

A. (A) Very dilute solution of NaCl:

A. At the cathode, H from water is reduced in preference to Na: NH2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH–
(H2 evolved)
B. At the anode, OH– from water is oxidized in preference to Cl– (in very dilute solution):
4OH– → O2+ 2H2O + 4e–(O2 evolved)
C. So, A → (p, q)
B. (B) Very dilute solution of HCl:
A. At the cathode, H+ is reduced: 2H+ + 2– → H2 (H2 evolved)
B. At the anode, OH– from water is oxidized in preference to Cl–(in very dilute solution):
4OH–→O2+2H2O + 4e– (O2 evolved)
C. So, B → (p, q)
C. (C) Concentrated solution of NaCl:
A. At the cathode, H+ from water is reduced: 2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH– (H2 evolved)
B. At the anode, Cl– is oxidized in preference to OH– (in concentrated solution): 2C–→ Cl2 +
2e–(Cl2 evolved)
C. So C→(q,r)
D. (D) Fairly concentrated solution of AgNO3:
A. At the cathode Ag+ is reduced Ag++ e– ---> Ag (Ag deposited)
B. At the anode water is oxidized 4OH --> O2 + 2H2O + 4e– (O2 evolved)
C. So D → (p, s)

89)
 90)

⇒ This equation can be applied to strong electrolyte, not weak electrolyte.

⇒ Value of constant a depend on temperature, nature of solvent and types of ion of electrolyte.

⇒ BaCl2 is 2-1 type and mgSO4 is 2-2 type electrolyte and for different type of electrolyte value
of A is different.

⇒ BaCl2 is 2-1 type and Mg(OH)2 is also 2-1 type electrolyte so both have same value of A.
Only B and D is correct.

BOTANY

91) NCERT Pg no. 2

92) NCERT Pg no. 5

93) NCERT Pg no. 4

94) NCERT Pg no. 7

95) NCERT Pg no. 6, 7

96) NCERT Pg no. 15

97) MODULE Pg no. 19

98) NCERT Pg no. 14, 16, 21

99) NCERT Pg no. 5, 6

100) NCERT Pg no. 6

101) NCERT Pg no. 14

102) NCERT Pg no. 15

103) NCERT Pg no. 11, 16

104) NCERT Pg no. 12, 16, 17

105) MODULE Pg no. 25

106) NCERT Pg no. 20

107) MODULE Pg no. 33

108) NCERT Pg no. 16

109) MODULE Pg no. 22

110) MODULE Pg no. 31

111) MODULE Pg no. 34

112) NCERT Pg no. 17, 18

113) NCERT Pg no. 15

114) NCERT Pg no. 17, 18

115) NCERT Pg no. 18

116) NCERT Pg no. 16-18

117) NCERT Pg no. 21

118) NCERT Pg no. 16

119) MODULE Pg no. 48, 51

120) NCERT Pg no. 17, 18

121) MODULE Pg no. 23, 24

122) NCERT Pg no. 13

123) MODULE Pg no. 7, 8

 124) NCERT Pg no. 62,69

125) NCERT Pg no. 64

126) NCERT Pg no. 64

127) NCERT Pg no. 59, 61

128) NCERT Pg no. 60

129) NCERT Pg no. 58

130) NCERT Pg no. 59, 62

131) NCERT Pg no. 58

132) MODULE Pg no. 9

133) NCERT Pg no. 74

134) NCERT Pg no. 55

135) NCERT Pg no. 60

ZOOLOGY

136)

Module + NCERT : Pg #: 58

137)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 46

138)

Calculation of population growth rate after every ten years

139) Periodic abstinence: This is a natural method.

Lactational amenorrhea: This is a natural method.
Coitus interruptus: This is a natural method.
Therefore, there are three natural methods: periodic abstinence, lactational amenorrhea, and
coitus interruptus.

140)

Factual

141)

Family planning, 1951

142) NCERT-XII Pg. # 45

143)

Conceptual

144)

NCERT XII Pg. # 64

145) NCERT XII, Page # 64

146)

Mifepristone

147)

India's population growth rate has been declining over the years. As of recent data (up to
2024), the annual population growth rate is around 0.8% to 1%, which is less than 2%.

148) Ideal contraceptive Should be -

(a) User friendly
(b) Easily available
(c) Effective
(d) Reversible
(e) do not have side effect. or least side effect
(f) Cheap
(g) do not inter five with sexual act of user.

149) NCERT page- 46

 150) NCERT Pg.# 64

151) 12th NCERT Page No. : 57, 59, 60, 62

152) Statement A: A rapid decline in death rate, MMR (Maternal Mortality Rate), and IMR
(Infant Mortality Rate), as well as an increase in the number of people in reproductive age, are
probable reasons for population explosion.
This statement is true. When death rates decline significantly, while birth rates remain high,
it leads to a rapid increase in population size. This is a key factor contributing to population
explosion.
Statement B: Indian population was approximately 350 million at the time of independence.
This statement is also true. At the time of India's independence in 1947, the population was
indeed around 350 million.

153)

To solve this, you need to understand that sharing needles poses a high risk of transmitting
bloodborne infections. These are infections that spread through contact with infected blood.
HIV & Hepatitis B: Both HIV and Hepatitis B are bloodborne viruses. Sharing needles can
directly transmit these viruses from one person to another.

154)

Question Explanation : Identification- x, y, z

Concept : This question is based on Amino acid

Solution :

x→ → Glycine

y→ → Alanine

z→ → Serine

Final Answer : option (3)

155)

A. The correct answer is 4. I, II and IV.

A. I. MMR (Maternal Mrtality Rate): A decline in MMR indicates imprved maternal
healthcare, leading to more women surviving childbirth, contributing to population
 growth.
B. II. Death rate: A general decline in the verall death rate (due to improvements in
healthcare, sanitation, and living conditions) directly contributes to population growth.
C. IV. IMR (Infant Mortality Rate): A decline in IMR indicates improved infant
healthcare, leading to more infants surviving, contributing to population growth.

Therefore, the decline in MMR, the overall death rate, and IMR are the primary reasons for
population growth.

156)

NCERT page- 48

157) Statement I is correct because RCH programs focus on spreading awareness about
reproductive health. Statement II is also correct as both government and non-government
agencies use audiovisual and print media to educate the public on reproductive health issues.
Since both statements are true.

158)

All of these statements hold true:

A: Family planning programs really did kick off in India back in 1951.
B: The last century brought about major advancements across various fields, which have
greatly enhanced our quality of life.
C: To effectively implement reproductive health action plans, we need strong infrastructure,
skilled professionals, and adequate material support.
D: A legal ban on amniocentesis for sex determination was put in place to fight against female
foeticide.
Together, these statements underscore the strides made towards improving reproductive
health and the overall well-being of society.

159)

A typical fat molecule (triglyceride) consists of:

Three molecules of fatty acids (A)
One molecule of glycerol (B)
Ester bonds (C) connecting them

160)

→ Proteins are heteropolymer.

→ Glycosidic bond and peptide bonds are form due to dehydration.
→ Choline is directly attached to glycerol by ester bond.
B, C and D statements are correct.

161)

A phosphoglyceride always has:

 A. Glycerol backbone * Fatty acids (can be saturated or unsaturated) attached to the
glycerol.

B. The phosphate group is also attached to the glycerol.

Basically, it's a glycerol with fatty acids and a phosphate group attached.

162)

The neutral amino acids in the list are Valine, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, and Tryptophan. These
amino acids do not have acidic or basic side chains, so they remain neutral at physiological pH.

163)

164) NCERT XI Pg.# 146,149 (E/H)

165)

NCERT [Link] 156

166) NCERT Pg. No.109

167) Ncert Pg No 147, Table 9.4

168) Most polysaccharides (like starch, glycogen, cellulose) are non-reducing because their
anomeric carbon atoms are involved in glycosidic bonds, making them unavailable to act as
reducing agents.
In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is called
the non-reducing end. The reason doesn't explain why polysaccharides are non-reducing.

169)

Conceptual

170) NCERT XI, Page # 145

171) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61/68(H) Fig: 4.4(b)

172)

A-is triglyceride and it is not a polymer

173)

Condom

174)

Conceptual

175)

Factual

176) When 10 glucose molecules (C6H12O6) are linked by dehydration reactions, each reaction
removes one water molecule (H2O). For 10 glucose molecules, 9 dehydration reactions occur,
removing 9 water molecules.
Carbon atoms: 10 × 6 = 6010 \times 6 = 6010 × 6 = 60.
Hydrogen atoms: 10 × 12 − 9 × 2 =120 − 18 = 10210 times 12 – 9 times 2 = 120 – 18 =
10210 × 12 − 9 × 2 = 120 −18 = 102.
Oxygen atoms: 10 × 6 − 9 = 60 − 9 = 5110 times 6 – 9 = 60 – 9 = 5110 × 6 − 9 = 60 − 9 =
51.

177) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 148 fig. 9.2

178) Endothermic process = Requires energy input.

1. N(g) + e– → N–(g)
Nitrogen has half-filled 2p3 shell → resists gaining electron → endothermic
2. Ne–(g) + e– → Ne2–(g)
Neon is a noble gas, already stable. Ne– is unstable → gaining another e– ® highly
endothermic
3. Be(g) + e– → Be–(g)
Be has filled 2s2 → doesn't want extra e– → endothermic

179)

Conceptual

180)

A. (a) ES complex formation is a transient phenomenon: This is correct. The enzyme-

substrate complex is formed briefly during the catalytic process.
B. (b) In the transition state, the substrate is bound to the enzyme's active site: This is also
correct. The enzyme stabilizes the transition state, which is crucial for lowering the
activation energy.

C. (c) If P is at a higher level than 'S,' the reaction is an exothermic reaction: This is
incorrect. If the product (P) has a higher energy level than the substrate (S), the reaction
is endothermic (requires energy input), not exothermic (releases energy). Exothermic
means the products have lower energy then the reactants.