NEC MODEL MCQ - 3

FUNDAMENTALS OF SURVEY (PART 1)

▪ 1. Which of the following best describes the main principle of surveying?

▪ a) Working from higher accuracy to lower accuracy

▪ b) Working from part to whole

▪ c) Working from whole to part

▪ d) Working from specific to general

▪ 2. In surveying, the term “scale” refers to:

▪ a) The ratio of the distance on the map to the actual ground distance

▪ b) The precision of measurement instruments

▪ c) The difference between angular and linear measurements

▪ 3. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental classification of surveying?

▪ a) Plane Surveying b) Geodetic Surveying

▪ c) Cadastral Surveying d) Aerial Surveying

▪ 4. The primary unit of angular measurement in most modern surveying instruments is:

▪ a) Radians b) Gradians

▪ c) Degrees d) Minutes

▪ 5. Who is considered the father of modern surveying for creating detailed maps of the world during the 16th century?

▪ a) Ptolemy b) Gerhardus Mercator

▪ c) Ferdinand Magellan d) Galileo Galilei

▪ 6. The accuracy of chain surveying depends largely on which of the following factors?

▪ a) Chain length b) Type of soil

▪ c) Temperature d) All of the above

▪ 7. Which method of surveying involves using sight vanes and a scale to take measurements?

▪ a) Theodolite surveying b) Tacheometry

▪ c) Plane table surveying d) Compass surveying

▪ 8. Which of the following is NOT a source of error in chain surveying?

▪ a) Sag in the chain b) Incorrect compass readings

▪ c) Temperature effects d) Improper chaining technique

▪ 9. Which of the following correction is applied to account for the non-horizontal alignment of a chain?

▪ a) Sag correction b) Slope correction

▪ c) Temperature correction d) Tension correction

▪ 10. Tacheometry is used primarily for measuring:

▪ a) Horizontal angles b) Vertical distances

▪ c) Horizontal distances d) Vertical angles

▪ 11. Which of the following is a key difference between triangulation and trilateration?

▪ a) Triangulation uses distances; trilateration uses angles

▪ b) Triangulation uses angles; trilateration uses distances

▪ c) Both use angles

▪ d) Both use distances

▪ 12. In traversing, which method is commonly used to adjust the angular error in a closed traverse?

▪ a) Bowditch’s method b) Gauss’s method

▪ c) Simpson’s method d) Least squares adjustment

▪ 13. For a triangulation system to be classified as first-order, the average error in the length of measured sides should not exceed:

▪ a) 1 in 10,000 b) 1 in 50,000 c) 1 in 100,000 d) 1 in 250,000

▪ 14. In which of the following is the principle of working from whole to part applied?
▪ a) Leveling b) Triangulation c) Compass Surveying d) Tacheometry
▪ 15. Which of the following is a method to account for cumulative errors in traversing?

▪ a) Re-traversing b) Least square adjustment

▪ c) Simpson's rule d) Reciprocal leveling
▪ 16. In spirit leveling, what is the effect of collimation error?
▪ a) Incorrect rod readings b) Curvature error
▪ c) Refraction error d) Variation in horizontal distance
▪ 17. Which of the following types of levelling eliminates both curvature and refraction errors?

▪ a) Differential leveling b) Reciprocal leveling

▪ c) Trigonometric leveling d) Precise leveling
▪ 18. Which of the following is NOT a type of leveling?

▪ a) Trigonometric leveling b) Reciprocal leveling

▪ c) Closed leveling d) Dynamic leveling
▪ 19. Temporary adjustments in leveling include all the following EXCEPT:

▪ a) Focusing the eyepiece b) Adjusting the horizontal axis

▪ c) Centering the bubble d) Calibrating the telescope
▪ 20. Direct leveling is also known as:

▪ a) Geometric leveling b) Indirect leveling

▪ c) Trigonometric leveling d) Spirit leveling
▪ 21. The primary purpose of reconnaissance in topographical surveying is:

▪ a) Collecting detailed ground measurements

▪ b) Identifying control points for the survey
▪ c) Setting up surveying equipment
▪ d) Preparing the final map
▪ 22. The process of locating points that lie on a contour is known as:

▪ a) Triangulation b) Traversing c) Interpolation d) Contouring

▪ 23. Monumentation in topographical surveying refers to:

▪ a) Erecting permanent markers to define control points

▪ b) Drafting maps c) Establishing leveling benchmarks d) Surveying historical landmarks
▪ 24. Which of the following describes the propagation of errors?

a) Errors are carried forward from previous computations

b) Errors are corrected using back-propagation techniques
c) Small errors cancel out larger errors
d) Errors in initial measurements do not affect final results
▪ 25. The least squares method is primarily used in surveying to:

a) Increase precision b) Minimize the sum of squares of observation residuals

c) Eliminate all types of systematic errors d) Adjust linear equations only
 PHOTOGRAMMETRY, REMOTE SENSING AND
IMAGE PROCESSING (PART 2)
▪ 1. Which of the following best defines photogrammetry?

▪ A) The science of measuring distances from aerial photographs

▪ -B) The art of interpreting land use from satellite images
▪ C) The process of obtaining reliable information about physical objects and the environment through the process of recording, measuring, and
interpreting photographic images
▪ - D) The technology of creating three-dimensional models from two-dimensional images

▪ 2. Which principle is central to photogrammetry?

▪ - A) Perspective projection - B) Radiometric calibration

▪ - C) Spectral reflectance - D) Histogram equalization
▪ 3. What is the primary difference between orthophotos and oblique photos in aerial photogrammetry?

▪ - A) Orthophotos have been rectified to remove distortions, while oblique photos have not.
▪ - B) Orthophotos are captured from vertical angles, while oblique photos are captured from angled perspectives.
▪ - C) Orthophotos are used for photogrammetric measurements, while oblique photos are not.
▪ - D) Orthophotos are high-resolution images, while oblique photos are low-resolution
▪ 4. What is 'block adjustment' in photogrammetry?

▪ - A) The process of correcting geometric distortions in a single image - B) The method of adjusting the coordinates of control points to fit a photogrammetric model
▪ - C) The alignment of multiple images to create a composite photograph - D) The calibration of sensors used in aerial photogrammetry
▪ 5. In aerial triangulation, which orientation is concerned with the camera’s position relative to the ground?

▪ - A) Interior orientation - B) Exterior orientation - C) Relative orientation - D) Absolute orientation

▪ 6. What is the primary function of Ground Control Points (GCPs) in photogrammetry?

▪ - A) To improve the resolution of aerial photographs - B) To provide accurate reference points for geometrical corrections
▪ - C) To enhance the spectral properties of images - D) To calibrate the sensors used in aerial imaging
▪ 7. Which type of aerial photograph has a vertical scale?

▪ - A) Oblique photograph - B) Vertical photograph - C) Stereoscopic photograph - D) Panoramic photograph

▪ 8. What is the primary effect of relief displacement in aerial photographs?

▪ - A) Distortion caused by varying heights of objects relative to the camera’s optical axis - B) Color distortion due to atmospheric conditions
▪ - C) Changes in image resolution caused by the angle of the camera - D) Alteration of the spectral properties of the image
▪ 9. Which method is used to correct for tilt displacement in aerial photographs?
▪ - A) Rectification - B) Orthorectification - C) Radiometric correction - D) Histogram equalization
▪ 10. What is a photo mosaic?

▪ - A) A collection of overlapping aerial photographs used to create a large-scale map - B) A single high-resolution image created from multiple low-resolution photographs
▪ - C) A collage of photographs with varying angles and scales - D) A stereoscopic image created from multiple oblique photographs
▪ 11. In stereoscopic vision, which phenomenon helps in determining depth perception?
▪ - A) Parallax - B) Anaglyph - C) Pseudoscopic vision - D) Histogram stretching
▪ 12. Which digital photogrammetry process involves matching corresponding points between two images?

▪ - A) Image enhancement - B) Image matching - C) Image rectification - D) Feature extraction

▪ 13. What is the primary application of pseudoscopic vision in photogrammetry?

▪ - A) To create an illusion of depth by reversing stereo image pairs - B) To enhance the spectral resolution of images

▪ - C) To correct geometric distortions in images - D) To measure the spectral reflectance of objects

▪ 14. Which type of image matching is typically used for identifying specific features in a scene?

▪ - A) Area-based matching - B) Feature-based matching - C) Histogram-based matching - D) Pixel-based matching

▪ 15. In digital photogrammetry, what is the role of area-based image matching?

▪ - A) To find the best fit of an entire image area against another image - B) To match specific features or landmarks between images

▪ - C) To correct radiometric distortions - D) To enhance the spatial resolution of images

▪ 16. What is the primary function of a sensor in remote sensing?

▪ - A) To collect and record electromagnetic radiation reflected from the Earth's surface - B) To process the data collected from satellite images

▪ - C) To correct geometric distortions in images - D) To enhance the spatial resolution of images

▪ 17. Which resolution type refers to the ability of a sensor to distinguish different wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation?

▪ - A) Spatial resolution - B) Spectral resolution - C) Radiometric resolution - D) Temporal resolution

▪ 18. What is the primary purpose of a spectral reflectance curve in remote sensing?

▪ - A) To measure the amount of radiation reflected by an object across different wavelengths - B) To determine the spatial resolution of a sensor

▪ - C) To correct radiometric distortions in images - D) To calibrate the sensor for accurate image capture

▪ 19. How does electromagnetic radiation interact with the Earth's atmosphere?

▪ - A) It is absorbed, scattered, and reflected by atmospheric particles - B) It is only absorbed by the atmosphere

▪ - C) It passes through the atmosphere without interaction - D) It is only scattered by atmospheric particles
▪ 20. Which type of remote sensing platform is typically used for capturing high-resolution imagery of small areas?

▪ - A) Geostationary satellites - B) Low Earth orbit satellites - C) Aircraft or UAVs - D) Space probes
▪ 21. What is the primary goal of image enhancement in remote sensing?
▪ - A) To improve the visual quality and interpretability of an image - B) To correct geometric distortions
▪ - C) To increase the spectral resolution of an image - D) To classify the image into different categories
▪ 22. Which method is used to correct radiometric distortion in images?
▪ - A) Histogram equalization - B) Geometric rectification - C) Filtering - D) Noise reduction
▪ 23. What is the purpose of image classification in remote sensing?

▪ - A) To categorize pixels in an image into different classes or themes - B) To enhance the color contrast of an image
▪ - C) To correct geometric distortions - D) To match features between different images
▪ 24. In accuracy assessment, what is a common method used to evaluate the performance of a classification algorithm?
▪ - A) Confusion matrix - B) Histogram analysis - C) Radiometric calibration - D) Spectral analysis
▪ 25. Which type of image product is used to create a three-dimensional model of the terrain?

▪ - A) Digital Terrain Model (DTM) - B) Digital Surface Model (DSM)

▪ - C) Orthoimage - D) Digital Elevation Model (DEM)
 CADASTER, LAND USE, AND LAND MANAGEMENT (PART 3)
▪ 1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a cadastre?

▪ - A) To establish land value for taxation purposes - B) To provide a detailed record of land ownership and boundaries

▪ - C) To manage land use planning and zoning - D) To monitor land use changes over time

▪ 2. What historical event is often cited as the beginning of modern cadastral systems?

▪ - A) The introduction of the Domesday Book in England - B) The creation of the Paris Agreement

▪ - C) The development of the Public Land Survey System in the US - D) The establishment of the German cadastre in the 19th century

▪ 3. In digital cadastral surveys, which of the following is NOT a common method used?

▪ - A) GPS survey - B) Total station survey - C) Aerial photogrammetry - D) Manual tape measurement

▪ 4. Which projection system is commonly used for cadastral mapping in Nepal?

▪ - A) UTM (Universal Transverse Mercator) - B) Lambert Conformal Conic - C) Albers Equal Area - D) Nepal National Grid

▪ 5. What is the primary challenge associated with updating cadastral records in Nepal?

▪ - A) Inaccurate historical data - B) Frequent natural disasters - C) Rapid urbanization and land use changes - D) Lack of trained personnel

▪ 6. Which of the following is NOT typically a function of land administration?

▪ - A) Land valuation - B) Land registration - C) Land use planning - D) Land taxation

▪ 7. What is a common objective of land reform initiatives?

▪ - A) To increase land taxation rates - B) To redistribute land to enhance social equity

▪ - C) To improve cadastral survey accuracy - D) To standardize land use policies across regions
▪ 8. In land taxation, which approach is characterized by taxing land based on its market value?

▪ - A) Ad valorem tax - B) Fixed-rate tax - C) Land area tax - D) Incremental tax

▪ 9. Which aspect of land markets is most directly influenced by effective land administration?

▪ - A) Land ownership disputes - B) Land market transparency - C) Land use conflicts - D) Land consolidation

▪ 10. Which of the following is a type of land tenure system?

▪ - A) Freehold tenure - B) Leasehold tenure - C) Customary tenure - D) All of the above

▪ 11. What is a primary advantage of formal land registration systems?

▪ - A) They reduce the cost of land transactions. - B) They provide better land tenure security

▪ . - C) They eliminate the need for cadastral surveys. - D) They allow for informal land transfers.

▪ 12. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of land registration systems?

▪ - A) Recording of land boundaries - B) Documentation of land use changes

▪ - C) Issuance of land ownership certificates - D) Management of land disputes

▪ 13. What is a major drawback of informal land registration systems?

▪ - A) High cost of registration - B) Lack of legal recognition - C) Complex procedures - D) Slow update process

▪ 14. Which component is crucial for the effective operation of a Land Information System (LIS)?

▪ - A) High-resolution imagery - B) Accurate and up-to-date data - C) Robust financial management - D) Advanced GIS software

▪ 15. Who are considered primary stakeholders in a Land Information System?

▪ - A) Government agencies and landowners - B) Only private land developers

▪ - C) International organizations and NGOs - D) Academic researchers only

▪ 16. Which of the following is NOT a typical procedure in managing a Land Information System?

▪ - A) Data collection and entry - B) Regular data maintenance - C) Data dissemination and sharing - D) Conducting public opinion surveys
▪ 17. What is a common challenge in maintaining Land Information Systems?

▪ - A) Integration of new technologies - B) Data redundancy - C) Ensuring data accuracy and consistency - D) Excessive data
storage costs
▪ 18. Which land use planning approach emphasizes stakeholder involvement and community participation?

▪ - A) Top-down planning - B) Integrated planning - C) Participatory planning - D) Zoning regulations

▪ 19. What is the main goal of land consolidation?
▪ - A) To increase land taxes - B) To streamline fragmented land parcels for better management
▪ - C) To enforce stricter land use regulations - D) To promote urban sprawl
▪ 20. Which method of land valuation is commonly used to determine the value of agricultural land?
▪ - A) Sales comparison approach - B) Income approach - C) Cost approach - D) Market comparison approach
▪ 21. What legal framework typically governs land valuation in Nepal?
▪ - A) Land Use Act - B) National Land Policy - C) Land Act - D) Land Registration Act
▪ 22. What is a common conflict associated with land governance?

▪ - A) Over-regulation of land use - B) Disputes over land boundaries and ownership

▪ - C) Excessive land taxation - D) Inconsistent land valuation standards
▪ 23. Which policy provides a framework for managing land use in Nepal?

▪ - A) National Land Use Policy - B) Land (Survey and Measurement) Act

▪ - C) Land Consolidation Act - D) Land Taxation Act
▪ 24. Which act governs the surveying and measurement of land in Nepal?
▪ - A) National Land Policy - B) Land Use Act
▪ - C) Land (Survey and Measurement) Act - D) Land Registration Act

▪ 25. What is the main purpose of the National Land Policy in Nepal?
▪ - A) To regulate land taxation
▪ - B) To provide guidelines for land use and management
▪ - C) To oversee land registration processes
▪ - D) To establish land valuation standards
 GEODESY AND GRAVITY FIELD (PART 4 )
▪ 1. _______________________ is one of the earth sciences.

▪ - a) Geodesy - b) Geology

▪ 2. A major topic of geodesy is _________________.

▪ - a) The shape and size of the earth - b) The gravity field of the earth

▪ 3. When traveling north at night, the north pole star appears ________________.

▪ - a) To get higher in the sky - b) To go lower in the sky

▪ 4. When traveling north by day, a man’s shadow at noon becomes ____________________.

▪ - a) Smaller - b) Longer

▪ 5. Erathosthenes, who lived in Alexandria, Egypt, in the third century BC, was a genius who computed the size of the earth from watching a sun dial cast its shadow at noon on
a certain day

▪ . - a) True - b) False

▪ 6. In the 17th century, it was not possible to measure distances and gravity precisely enough to notice that the curvature of the earth was not the same at different places.

▪ - a) True - b) False

▪ 7. Three surfaces of the earth are:

▪ - a) The topography, the geoid, and the ellipsoid - b) The ground, the geoid, and the ellipsoid

▪ 8. Geoidal maps give the geoidal heights in relation to the _______________.

▪ - a) Topography - b) Ellipsoid

▪ 9. AMS is also called as ______________________.

▪ - a) TOPOCOM - b) Ellipsoid
▪ 10. The earth’s attraction called gravity does not cause things to fall.

▪ - a) True - b) False

▪ 11. At the seashore the difference between the denser land mass and the less dense water will have the same effect.

▪ - a) True - b) False

▪ 12. The science of _____________ is necessary to explain and evaluate the influence of gravity and to determine corrections to apply to our measurements.

▪ - a) Geodesy - b) Geology

▪ 13. The deflection of the horizontal is the angle between the observed vertical direction of the plumb line and the normal to the ellipsoidal model.

▪ - a) True - b) False

▪ 14. The angle of deflection equals the angle of ____________________.

▪ - a) Warping - b) Refraction

▪ 15. The level surface which coincides with mean sea level is called _________________.

▪ - a) Ellipsoid - b) Geoid

▪ 16. Astrogeodetic deflections use _________________.

▪ - a) Surface gravity - b) Triangulation

▪ 17. Gravimetry uses _____________________.

▪ - a) Surface gravity - b) Triangulation

▪ 18. Traverse methods use ___________________.

▪ - a) Angles - b) Distances

▪ 19. Longitude refers to __________________.

▪ - a) Set of circles parallel to the equator - b) Set of ellipses

▪ 20. The point at which the Earth is closest to the sun is called ______________.

▪ - a) Perihelion - b) Aphelion
▪ 21. The flattening of the Earth due to its rotation is called ______________.

▪ - a) Geoid flattening - b) Oblateness

▪ 22. The first accurate measurement of the Earth's circumference was made by ______________.

▪ - a) Ptolemy - b) Eratosthenes
▪ 23. The prime meridian, which is the starting point for measuring longitude, runs through ______________.

▪ - a) Greenwich, England - b) Paris, France

▪ 24. The rotation of the Earth affects its shape by causing it to ______________.

▪ - a) Flatten at the poles - b) Bulge at the equator

▪ 25. GPS technology uses ______________ to determine the position on Earth.

▪ - a) Radio waves - b) Satellite signals

 GNSS (PART 5 )
▪ 1. Which of the following GNSS observables provides the highest accuracy for distance measurements?

▪ - A) Code pseudo ranges - B) Carrier phase - C) Doppler frequency - D) Signal strength

▪ 2. What is the primary function of a GNSS antenna in the context of carrier phase measurements?
▪ - A) To increase signal strength - B) To reduce multipath errors
▪ - C) To receive and track satellite signals - D) To convert signals to code measurements
▪ 3. In GNSS receivers, which characteristic most significantly impacts the accuracy of carrier phase measurements?
▪ - A) Antenna gain - B) Receiver clock stability - C) Antenna type - D) Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)
▪ 4. What does the term "code pseudo range" refer to in GNSS?

▪ - A) The distance between the satellite and receiver based on carrier phase
▪ - B) The distance calculated using the time delay of a signal
▪ - C) The Doppler shift observed in the satellite signal
▪ - D) The calculated difference between two satellite signals

▪ 5. Which GNSS observable is most affected by atmospheric conditions?

▪ - A) Carrier phase - B) Code pseudo range - C) Doppler frequency - D) Signal strength

▪ 6. In GNSS positioning, what is the primary purpose of the coordinate reference system (CRS)?
▪ - A) To standardize the measurement units of GNSS signals - B) To provide a framework for interpreting GNSS data in a consistent manner
▪ - C) To correct for signal biases introduced by satellite orbits - D) To convert GNSS coordinates to geographic coordinates
▪ 7. Which mathematical model is used for GNSS satellite orbit determination?

▪ - A) Keplerian elements - B) Newtonian mechanics - C) Perturbation theory - D) Geodetic transformations

▪ 8. In point positioning, which method is used to determine the exact location of a GNSS receiver?
▪ - A) Absolute positioning - B) Relative positioning - C) Differential positioning - D) Network positioning
▪ 9. What is the fundamental difference between relative and absolute GNSS positioning?
▪ - A) Relative positioning uses multiple satellites, while absolute positioning uses one
▪ - B) Relative positioning is based on comparisons between measurements from multiple receivers
▪ - C) Absolute positioning provides higher accuracy than relative positioning
▪ - D) Relative positioning requires no satellite observations
▪ 10. How does the mathematical model for GNSS satellite orbit account for perturbations?

▪ - A) By using simplified two-body problems - B) By including additional terms for gravitational and non-gravitational forces
▪ - C) By assuming perfectly circular orbits - D) By neglecting perturbations entirely
▪ 11. What is the primary benefit of linear carrier phase combinations in GNSS processing?
▪ - A) Improved code pseudorange accuracy - B) Enhanced satellite geometry
▪ - C) Reduction of integer ambiguities - D) Better signal-to-noise ratio
▪ 12. Which type of differencing helps mitigate the effects of satellite and receiver clock biases?
▪ - A) Single differencing - B) Double differencing - C) Triple differencing - D) Carrier smoothing of the code
▪ 13. What is the primary error source in GNSS that affects signal propagation through the ionosphere?
▪ - A) Multipath interference - B) Orbital errors - C) Tropospheric delay - D) Ionospheric delay
▪ 14. In GNSS processing, what is the purpose of carrier smoothing of the code?

▪ - A) To enhance signal strength - B) To reduce the impact of multipath errors

▪ - C) To improve code accuracy by combining it with carrier phase measurements - D) To correct for satellite clock errors

▪ 15. What is the main challenge associated with GNSS signal multipath errors?

▪ - A) Reduced signal-to-noise ratio - B) Increased ionospheric delay

▪ - C) Reflected signals arriving at the receiver causing inaccuracies - D) Increased tropospheric delay

▪ 16. What does DOP (Dilution of Precision) measure in GNSS positioning?

▪ - A) The precision of satellite clocks - B) The quality of satellite signal reception

▪ - C) The geometric strength of satellite configurations - D) The accuracy of receiver position estimates

▪ 17. Which factor significantly affects the DOP values in GNSS surveys?

▪ - A) The number of satellites visible - B) The receiver's antenna type

▪ - C) The length of the observation period - D) The atmospheric conditions

▪ 18. How does satellite geometry impact GNSS survey planning?

▪ -A) By influencing the signal-to-noise ratio - B) By determining the required number of satellites

▪ - C) By affecting the accuracy and reliability of position estimates - D) By altering the ionospheric delay

▪ 19. What is the role of GNSS survey specifications in quality assurance?

▪ - A) To standardize the types of GNSS receivers used - B) To define the acceptable levels of error and uncertainty

▪ - C) To ensure proper signal reception conditions - D) To calibrate the GNSS antennas

▪ 20. Which DOP factor represents the overall effect of satellite geometry on positional accuracy?

▪ - A) GDOP (Geometric DOP) - B) PDOP (Position DOP)

▪ - C) HDOP (Horizontal DOP) - D) VDOP (Vertical DOP)

▪ 21. In static GNSS positioning, what is the primary advantage of using rapid static methods?

▪ - A) Increased measurement speed - B) Higher positional accuracy over long periods

▪ - C) Reduced equipment requirements - D) Improved real-time performance

▪ 22. Which positioning method is most suitable for surveying moving objects?

▪ - A) Static positioning - B) Kinematic positioning - C) Pseudo-static positioning - D) Real-time positioning

▪ 23. What is the main difference between semi-kinematic and real-time positioning?

▪ - A) Semi-kinematic requires post-processing, while real-time positioning provides immediate results

▪ - B) Semi-kinematic involves multiple reference stations, while real-time positioning uses a single reference station

▪ - C) Real-time positioning uses code pseudo ranges, while semi-kinematic uses carrier phase

▪ - D) Semi-kinematic requires a high-frequency update rate, while real-time positioning does not

▪ 24. Which GNSS positioning method is characterized by a high update rate and continuous data collection?

▪ - A) Rapid static positioning - B) Semi-kinematic positioning

▪ - C) Pseudo-kinematic positioning - D) Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS)

▪ 25. In GNSS, what is the primary purpose of a Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS)?

▪ - A) To provide real-time correction data for users - B) To track satellite health and status

▪ - C) To calibrate GNSS antennas - D) To measure ionospheric delay

 FUNDAMENTALS OF GIS (PART 6)
▪ 1. Which of the following is NOT a core component of a GIS system?

▪ A) Hardware B) Software C) Data D) Satellite

▪ 2. Who is considered the father of modern GIS?

▪ A) Roger Tomlinson B) Ian McHarg C) Jack Dangermond D) Carl Steinitz

▪ 3. Which of the following best describes a spatial data model?

▪ A) A database used for storing 2D maps B) A representation of spatial phenomena with geometric entities

▪ C) A set of tools for digitizing paper maps D) A method for creating satellite imagery

▪ 4. Which of the following spatial objects is NOT part of the vector data model?

▪ A) Points B) Lines C) Polygons D) Pixels

▪ 5. In the raster data model, spatial data is represented as:

▪ A) Points, lines, and polygons B) A grid of cells or pixels

▪ C) A set of interconnected triangles D) None of the above

▪ 6. The TIN data model is primarily used for representing:

▪ A) Statistical data B) Continuous surfaces C) Vector data D) Categorical data

▪ 7. Which of the following is a conformal projection?

▪ A) Mercator B) Robinson C) Goode’s Homolosine D) Mollweide

▪ 8. Which coordinate system is commonly used in global positioning systems (GPS)?

▪ A) UTM B) State Plane C) WGS 84 D) NAD 83

▪ 9. Which of the following is a key difference between cartography and GIS?

▪ A) Cartography is a static representation, while GIS allows for dynamic analysis

▪ B) Cartography deals only with 2D maps, GIS only with 3D data
▪ C) Cartography requires advanced programming skills, GIS does not
▪ D) Cartography is for planning, GIS is for design
▪ 10. Which of the following parameters is NOT commonly adjusted when defining a projection?
▪ A) Scale factor B) Latitude of origin C) Ellipsoid height D) Longitude of central meridian
▪ 11. The process of aligning spatial data to a known coordinate system is called:
▪ A) Rectification B) Transformation C) Georeferencing D) Digitization
▪ 12. Which of the following is a primary source of GIS data?

▪ A) Scanned maps B) Satellite imagery C) Topographic maps D) GPS coordinates

▪ 13. Which of the following methods is commonly used for surface modeling in GIS?
▪ A) Contouring B) Buffering C) Network analysis D) Kriging
▪ 14. In contouring, what do closely spaced contour lines indicate?
▪ A) Flat terrain B) Steep slope C) Deep valley D) Shallow slope
▪ 15. Which operation involves assigning the value of a cell based on the values of its neighboring cells?

▪ A) Buffering B) Overlay analysis C) Focal operation D) Zonal statistics

▪ 16. Which type of vector data operation combines overlapping features to create new features?
▪ A) Dissolve B) Intersection C) Buffering D) Union
▪ 17. Which of the following map projections is best suited for displaying polar regions?

▪ A) Azimuthal equidistant B) Mercator C) Cylindrical D) Conic

▪ 18. Which type of georeferencing uses control points and a transformation algorithm to match maps to a coordinate system?

▪ A) Direct Georeferencing B) Polynomial Transformation

▪ C) Rasterization D) Affine Transformation
▪ 19. Which is an advantage of TIN over the raster data model for representing terrain?

▪ A) Simpler data storage B) More accurate representation of surface features

▪ C) Requires less processing power D) Better suited for large areas
▪ 20. Which aspect of geographic features is least likely to be preserved in any map projection?

▪ A) Area B) Distance C) Direction D) Shape

▪ 21. Which topological rule in vector data prevents two polygons from sharing the same boundary line?

▪ A) Planarity B) Containment C) Connectivity D) Adjacency

▪ 22. Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy of the location of spatial data?

▪ A) Attribute accuracy B) Positional accuracy

▪ C) Logical consistency D) Thematic accuracy
▪ 23. Which process converts vector data into raster format?

▪ A) Digitization B) Interpolation
▪ C) Rasterization D) Georeferencing
▪ 24. What type of transformation is used to convert geographic coordinates from one coordinate system
to another?
▪ A) Affine transformation B) Helmert transformation
▪ C) Polynomial transformation D) Linear transformation

▪ 25. Which surface modeling technique is best suited for creating continuous surfaces from irregularly
spaced data points?
▪ A) Inverse Distance Weighting (IDW) B) Buffering
▪ C) Thiessen Polygons D) Contour interpolation
 ENGINEERING SURVEY (PART 7)
▪ Q1: What is the primary responsibility of a construction surveyor during a project?

▪ a) Designing building plans b) Setting out and verifying the accuracy of construction layouts
▪ c) Supervising workers d) Performing geotechnical analysi
▪ Q2: Which of the following tasks is NOT typically the responsibility of a construction surveyor?

▪ a) Providing control points b) Measuring completed work

▪ c) Designing structural elements d) Verifying as-built locations
▪ Q3: In which phase of construction is the construction surveyor involved in setting out control points?
▪ a) Preliminary planning b) Design c) Pre-construction d) Post-construction
▪ Q4: What does a construction surveyor primarily use to establish site elevations?
▪ a) Theodolite b) Level c) Total station d) GPS
▪ Q5: Which instrument is commonly used for accurate horizontal and vertical measurements in a construction survey?

▪ a) Theodolite b) Dumpy level c) EDM (Electronic Distance Measurement) d) Total station

▪ Q6: What is the most common method for conducting an as-built survey?
▪ a) Laser scanning b) Aerial photogrammetry c) Ground-based measurements d) Drone survey
▪ Q7: Which of the following is NOT a key feature of a geodetic control survey?

▪ a) High precision b) Large-scale projects

▪ c) Short baseline measurements d) Global positioning systems
▪ Q8: Which type of survey is focused on establishing precise locations for global and regional reference?

▪ a) Cadastral survey b) Topographic survey c) Geodetic control survey d) Construction survey

▪ Q9: In a project control survey, what is a primary consideration?

▪ a) Boundary delineation b) Establishing control points

▪ c) Creating contour maps d) Calculating cut and fill quantities
▪ Q10: When transferring vertical levels underground, which method is commonly used?

▪ a) Theodolite with vertical circles b) Plumb line transfer

▪ c) Weisbach triangle method d) Laser leveling
▪ Q11: In the Weisbach triangle method, the vertical and horizontal angles of the triangle should sum to:
▪ a) 180 degrees b) 270 degrees c) 360 degrees d) 90 degrees
▪ Q12: What is the primary challenge when transferring levels underground?

▪ a) Limited visibility b) Atmospheric pressure changes

▪ c) Length of line of sight d) Lack of direct sunlight
▪ Q13: Which of the following components is part of the substructure of a building?
▪ a) Roof truss b) Foundation c) Beams d) Walls
▪ Q14: In construction surveying, what is the main purpose of setting out a structure?
▪ a) To verify project costs b) To define exact locations and alignments of structures
▪ c) To calculate earthworks d) To inspect materials
▪ Q15: Which technique is commonly used in setting out large bridges?

▪ a) Trigonometric leveling b) GPS measurements c) String line method d) Aerial triangulation

▪ Q16: What is a topographic survey primarily used for in construction projects?
▪ a) Establishing legal property boundaries b) Creating a three-dimensional representation of the terrain
▪ c) Verifying material quantities d) Setting out underground utilities
▪ Q17: Which method is frequently employed in setting out pipelines?

▪ a) Right-angle intersection method b) Radial method c) Offset method d) Polar coordinates

▪ Q18: When conducting a road survey, what is the primary concern during the setting out stage?
▪ a) Estimating material quantities b) Ensuring smooth vertical alignment
▪ c) Monitoring traffic flow d) Plotting drainage systems
▪ Q19: What is one of the major considerations when setting out a bridge over water?

▪ a) Flow of traffic b) Impact of water currents on piers

▪ c) Proximity to other structures d) Size of the bridge deck
▪ Q20: Vertical control in underground construction is essential for:

▪ a) Aligning horizontal control points

▪ b) Ensuring proper depth for foundations and utilities
▪ c) Setting out the width of the structure
▪ d) Verifying material strength
▪ Q21: Which of the following is an advantage of using a total station in construction surveys?

▪ a) Limited range of operation b) Requires manual data recording

▪ c) High precision and efficiency d) Only suitable for small projects
▪ Q22: The setting out of water supply pipelines typically involves:
▪ a) Aerial surveying techniques b) Longitudinal profiles and cross sections
▪ c) Boundary surveys d) Structural analysis
▪ Q23: What is one of the major considerations when setting out a bridge over water?

▪ a) Flow of traffic b) Impact of water currents on piers

▪ c) Proximity to other structures d) Size of the bridge deck
▪ Q24: During the construction of a high-rise building, the vertical control is typically transferred from:
▪ a) Ground level to each floor b) Roof to ground level
▪ c) External GPS stations d) Foundation to substructure
▪ Q25: Which of the following is a primary purpose of an as-built survey?

▪ a) Ensuring compliance with design plans b) Measuring material quantities

▪ c) Providing future maintenance data d) Estimating cost overruns
 CARTOGRAPHY AND GEOVISUALIZATION (PART - 8)
▪ 1. Which of the following is not a classification of maps?

▪ - A) General-purpose maps - B) Thematic maps - C) Statistical maps - D) Political maps

▪ 2. When enlarging a map, which of the following best describes the change in map scale?
▪ - A) Scale becomes larger - B) Scale becomes smaller
▪ - C) Scale remains constant - D) Scale becomes irrelevan
▪ t 3. Which map type is best suited for showing the distribution of a particular phenomenon, such as population density?

▪ - A) General-purpose map - B) Thematic map

▪ - C) Topographic map - D) Navigational map
▪ 4. Which term refers to the process of creating a reduced version of a map?
▪ - A) Enlargement - B) Reduction - C) Generalization - D) Simplification
▪ 5. In cartography, the 'scale' of a map is primarily used to determine:
▪ - A) The accuracy of map projections - B) The level of detail represented
▪ - C) The color schemes used - D) The type of map symbols
▪ 6. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used map projection?
▪ - A) Mercator - B) Albers Equal-Area
▪ - C) Robinson - D) Orthographic
▪ 7. The term 'scale factor' in map projections refers to:

▪ - A) The ratio of map distance to ground distance - B) The degree of distortion in a map projection
▪ - C) The adjustment of colors in a map - D) The change in map size due to digital processing
▪ 8. Which map projection is most commonly used for navigational charts?

▪ - A) Mercator - B) Mollweide - C) Eckert IV - D) Goode’s Homolosine

▪ 9. What is the primary purpose of map sheet numbering systems?

▪ - A) To denote map scale - B) To facilitate map indexing and retrieval

▪ - C) To determine map color schemes - D) To standardize map symbols
▪ 10. Which numbering system is used for topographic base maps in Nepal?

▪ - A) UTM - B) BGS - C) Gauss-Krüger - D) SRS

▪ 11. What is the primary objective of visual hierarchy in map design?

▪ - A) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the map - B) To prioritize the most important information for the map reader
▪ - C) To ensure accurate geographic representation - D) To standardize the use of map symbols

▪ 12. In cartography, 'visual variables' refer to:

▪ - A) Colors and symbols used on the map

▪ - B) The size and shape of map features

▪ - C) The spatial arrangement of map elements

▪ - D) The type of projection used

▪ 13. Which of the following is a principle of effective map design?

▪ - A) Overloading the map with information - B) Using excessive colors

▪ - C) Clear and consistent symbolization - D) Ignoring the map’s purpose
▪ 14. Which measurement scale is commonly used for thematic maps to show continuous data?

- A) Nominal scale - B) Ordinal scale - C) Interval scale - D) Ratio scale

▪ 15. What type of map is designed to present statistical data about a particular theme?

▪ - A) General-purpose map - B) Topographic map - C) Thematic map - D) Navigational map

▪ 16. Generalization in cartography refers to:

▪ - A) The process of increasing the level of detail in a map

▪ - B) The simplification of map features to improve readability
▪ - C) The use of various color schemes
▪ - D) The application of a specific map projection
▪ 17. Which typographic principle focuses on maintaining consistency in map text?

▪ - A) Font choice - B) Font size - C) Font style - D) Typographic grammar

▪ 18. What is the primary purpose of using color theory in map design?

▪ - A) To enhance the aesthetic value of the map - B) To improve the legibility and differentiation of map features
▪ - C) To standardize map symbols - D) To ensure accurate geographic representation
▪ 19. Which color model is most commonly used for digital map design?

▪ - A) CMYK - B) RGB - C) HSV - D) Lab

▪ 20. Which type of generalization technique involves combining similar features into a single representation?

▪ - A) Smoothing - B) Aggregation - C) Simplification - D) Selection

▪ 21. In digital cartography, what is the primary distinction between raster and vector data models?
▪ - A) Raster models use discrete elements, while vector models use continuous data
▪ - B) Raster models use continuous data, while vector models use discrete elements
▪ - C) Raster models are better for large-scale maps, while vector models are better for small-scale maps
▪ - D) Raster models are more accurate than vector models

▪ 22. Which of the following is a key feature of web cartography?

▪ - A) Static map elements - B) Fixed map scales
▪ - C) Dynamic and interactive maps - D) Limited data accessibility
▪ 23. What does the acronym OGC stand for in the context of web cartography?

▪ - A) Open Geospatial Consortium - B) Online Geospatial Cartography

▪ - C) Operational Geospatial Computing - D) Organization for Global Cartography
▪ 24. Which step in digital cartography involves converting geographic data into a format suitable for mapping?
▪ - A) Data acquisition - B) Data processing - C) Data visualization - D) Data storage
▪ 25. What does the term 'Dynamic Visual Variables' refer to in digital cartography?
▪ - A) Fixed symbols that do not change - B) Map elements that can be adjusted in real-time
▪ - C) Static color schemes - D) Predefined map projections
 PROJECT PLANNING, DESIGN AND IMPLEMENTATION (PART - 9)
▪ 1. What is the primary purpose of using different line types in engineering drawings?

▪ - A) To enhance aesthetic appeal - B) To differentiate between various components and features

▪ - C) To standardize paper sizes - D) To indicate the drawing scale
▪ 2. In orthographic projection, which view typically represents the top view of an object?

▪ - A) Front view - B) Side view - C) Plan view - D) Isometric view

▪ 3. Which projection method shows the object with equal scale along all three axes?

▪ - A) Orthographic projection - B) Perspective projection

▪ - C) Isometric projection - D) Dimetric projection
▪ 4. What is the purpose of sectional views in engineering drawings?
▪ - A) To show the external appearance of the object - B) To display hidden internal features
▪ - C) To represent the object in perspective - D) To provide detailed dimensions
▪ 5. Which scale is commonly used for enlarging engineering drawings?

▪ - A) 1:1 - B) 1:2 - C) 2:1 - D) 1:10

▪ 6. The time value of money concept implies that:
▪ - A) Money's value decreases over time due to inflation - B) Money's value increases with higher interest rates
▪ - C) Money received today is worth less than the same amount received in the future - D) Money's value is constant regardless of time
▪ 7. Which method calculates the value of an investment by discounting future cash flows to present value?

▪ - A) Payback Period - B) Net Present Value (NPV)

▪ - C) Internal Rate of Return (IRR) - D) Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR)
▪ 8. In the context of depreciation, which method allocates equal expense each year over the asset's useful life?

▪ - A) Declining Balance Method - B) Sum-of-the-Years'-Digits Method

▪ - C) Straight-Line Method - D) Units of Production Method
▪ 9. Which of the following is NOT typically considered in the analysis of engineering projects?

▪ - A) Project cash flow - B) Taxation system in Nepal

▪ - C) Project financing methods - D) Aesthetic design preference
▪ 10. What does the Discounted Payback Period method account for?

▪ - A) Time value of money - B) Project duration - C) Total investment cost - D) Risk factors
▪ 11. Which project management tool uses nodes and arrows to depict project tasks and their dependencies?

▪ - A) Gantt Chart - B) PERT Chart - C) CPM Diagram - D) Bar Chart

▪ 12. What is the main difference between resource leveling and resource smoothing in project scheduling?

▪ - A) Resource leveling adjusts project duration, while smoothing does not

▪ - B) Resource leveling minimizes resource usage, while smoothing maximizes it

▪ - C) Resource leveling adjusts the start and finish times, while smoothing adjusts the resource allocation

▪ - D) Resource leveling increases project costs, while smoothing decreases them

▪ 13. In which phase of the project life cycle is the project scope defined and detailed planning takes place?

▪ - A) Initiation - B) Planning - C) Execution - D) Closure

▪ 14. What is the primary purpose of using a Critical Path Method (CPM) in project scheduling?
▪ - A) To identify the longest sequence of dependent tasks - B) To minimize project costs
▪ - C) To allocate resources efficiently - D) To create a Gantt chart
▪ 15. Which of the following is a key output of the project monitoring and controlling phase?
▪ - A) Project charter - B) Risk register - C) Performance reports - D) Project scope statement
▪ 16. What is the primary focus of project risk management?
▪ - A) To avoid all risks - B) To identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks
▪ - C) To increase project costs - D) To enhance project scope
▪ 17. Which document outlines the terms and conditions of the contract between the project owner and the contractor?
▪ - A) Project Plan - B) Scope Statement - C) Tender Document - D) Contract Agreement
▪ 18. What is the main purpose of project financing?
▪ - A) To increase project scope - B) To provide the necessary capital to execute the project
▪ - C) To develop project schedules - D) To evaluate project performance
▪ 19. Which type of project management information system is designed to manage project resources and timelines?
▪ - A) Financial Management System - B) Human Resources Management System
▪ - C) Project Management Software - D) Customer Relationship Management System
▪ 20. In contract management, what is typically included in the tendering process?

▪ - A) Budget estimation - B) Risk assessment

▪ - C) Solicitation of bids - D) Performance evaluation
▪ 21. Which of the following is a primary responsibility of the Nepal Engineers Association (NEA)?
▪ - A) Issuing engineering licenses - B) Setting national construction standards
▪ - C) Promoting engineering education - D) Regulating engineering fees
▪ 22. Which principle of professional ethics emphasizes the need for engineers to act with integrity and honesty?
▪ - A) Competence - B) Confidentiality - C) Accountability - D) Integrity
▪ 23. What is the primary goal of occupational health and safety regulations in engineering?
▪ - A) To reduce project costs - B) To ensure a safe working environment for engineers and workers
▪ - C) To enhance project design - D) To increase project duration
▪ 24. Which contemporary issue in engineering involves the sustainable use of resources and minimizing environmental impact?

▪ - A) Cost management - B) Sustainability and environmental stewardship

▪ - C) Project scope changes - D) Contract disputes
▪ 25. What does the regulatory environment in engineering typically address?

▪ - A) Market competition - B) Ethical practices and standards

▪ - C) Technological advancements - D) Project management techniques
 SPATIAL DBMS AND SPATIAL DATA INFRASTRUCTURE (PART 10 )
▪ 1. Which of the following is NOT a core component of a Spatial Database Management System (SDBMS)?

▪ - A) Spatial Data Storage - B) Spatial Query Processing

▪ - C) Data Interoperability - D) Data Access Language
▪ 2. In SDBMS, what does the term 'spatial indexing' refer to?
▪ - A) Organizing spatial data to minimize storage requirements
▪ - B) Creating an index to speed up spatial query processing
▪ - C) Converting spatial data into a different format
▪ - D) Encrypting spatial data for security purposes
▪ 3. Which database access language is commonly used for querying and managing spatial databases?
▪ - A) SQL - B) NoSQL - C) XML - D) HTML
▪ 4. What is a primary purpose of a Spatial Data Infrastructure (SDI)?

▪ - A) To standardize database access protocols

▪ - B) To enhance data interoperability and accessibility
▪ - C) To ensure data encryption and security
▪ - D) To simplify the database design process

▪ 5. Which component of an SDI involves defining and documenting data attributes and structures?

▪ - A) Metadata - B) Data Accessibility - C) Data Interoperability - D) Clearinghouse

▪ 6. Which standard is commonly used in SDI for describing spatial metadata?

▪ - A) ISO 19115 - B) WMS - C) WFS - D) XML Schema

▪ 7. Which data model represents data as interconnected records using nodes and links?
▪ - A) Hierarchical Model - B) Network Model - C) Relational Model - D) Entity-Relationship Model
▪ 8. In an Entity-Relationship (ER) model, what does a ‘relationship’ represent?

▪ - A) The attributes of an entity - B) The connection between entities

▪ - C) The data storage structure - D) The constraints applied to data
▪ 9. Which UML diagram is used to represent the structure of a database in a conceptual manner?

▪ - A) Use Case Diagram - B) Class Diagram - C) Sequence Diagram - D) Activity Diagram

▪ 10. What is the purpose of a ‘primary key’ in an SQL database?

▪ - A) To enforce uniqueness of records - B) To establish relationships between tables

▪ - C) To specify data types for columns - D) To define access permissions
▪ 11. Which SQL clause is used to filter records based on a specified condition?

▪ - A) SELECT - B) WHERE - C) JOIN - D) GROUP BY

▪ 12. What does the SQL command 'ALTER TABLE' do?

▪ - A) Deletes a table from the database - B) Modifies the structure of an existing table
▪ - C) Inserts data into a table - D) Creates a new table
▪ 13. Which type of database management system is specifically designed to handle spatial data?

▪ - A) Object-Oriented DBMS (OODBMS) - B) Relational DBMS (RDBMS)

▪ - C) Hierarchical DBMS - D) Network DBMS
▪ 14. What is the purpose of spatial joining in a spatial database?

▪ - A) To merge two spatial datasets based on their spatial relationship - B) To transform spatial data into different coordinate systems
▪ - C) To back up spatial data for security purposes - D) To delete duplicate spatial records
▪ 15. Which standard is used to define the interface for spatial databases in the Open Geospatial Consortium (OGC)?

▪ - A) Web Map Service (WMS) - B) Simple Features Specification (SFS)

▪ - C) Web Feature Service (WFS) - D) Geography Markup Language (GML)
▪ 16. What is PostGIS?

▪ - A) A GIS software application - B) An extension for PostgreSQL to handle spatial data

▪ - C) A spatial database management system - D) A data mining tool for spatial data
▪ 17. In a spatial database, what is the function of spatial indexing?

▪ - A) To speed up spatial queries by indexing spatial attributes - B) To convert spatial data into different formats
▪ - C) To create backups of spatial data - D) To visualize spatial data on a map
▪ 18. Which of the following is a common spatial data type?

▪ - A) Integer - B) String - C) Polygon - D) Date

▪ 19. What does the term 'spatial data mining' refer to?

▪ - A) Extracting patterns and knowledge from spatial data - B) Transforming spatial data into different formats
▪ - C) Organizing spatial data for visualization - D) Encrypting spatial data for security
▪ 20. Which component of NSDI is responsible for managing and disseminating metadata?

▪ - A) Clearinghouse - B) Client-Server Architecture

▪ - C) Metadata Repository - D) Policy Framework
▪ 21. What is the primary goal of the policy component in an NSDI?
▪ - A) To define standards for spatial data - B) To manage metadata repositories
▪ - C) To establish data sharing and access guidelines - D) To implement spatial data mining techniques
▪ 22. In an NSDI, what does the term 'clearinghouse' refer to?
▪ - A) A centralized system for managing and accessing spatial data - B) A repository for storing spatial metadata
▪ - C) A tool for spatial data analysis - D) A database management system for spatial data
▪ 23. Which architectural model is commonly used in NSDI for providing spatial data services?

▪ - A) Peer-to-Peer Model - B) Client-Server Model

▪ - C) Hybrid Model - D) Distributed Model
▪ 24. Which standard is commonly used for metadata in NSDI to ensure interoperability?

▪ - A) ISO 19115 - B) FGDC CSDGM - C) Dublin Core - D) XML Schema

▪ 25. What is the role of organizational structure in NSDI?

▪ - A) To define how data is organized and accessed

▪ - B) To manage metadata and standards

▪ - C) To establish governance and management frameworks

▪ - D) To handle spatial data processing and analysis