20-07-2025

1015CMD303057250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) If mA, mB & mC are the slopes at points A, B and C respectively in the figure shown then :-

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA = mB = mC
(3) mA = mC < mB
(4) mA < mB < mC

2)

Which of the following match is correct :-

(i) (a) y = x2

(ii) (b) y = –x2

(iii) (c) x = y2

(iv) (d) x = –y2

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) a b c d

(2) a c b d
 (3) d c b a

(4) c a d b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which equation will represent to the graph

(1) y = x – 2
(2) y = x + 2
(3) x = y + 2
(4) x = –y + 2

4) Differentiation of x = t2 – et + log t with respect to t is :-

(1)
2t – et +

(2)

(3) t + et + log t
(4) None

5) A particle is performing SHM according to equation then graph between v – x

where v → Velocity
x → displacement

(1) Ellipse
(2) Circle
(3) Parabola
(4) Straight line

6) A stone is dropped into a quite lake and waves move in circles spreading out radially at the speed

of 0.25 m/s. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is m, how fast is the enclosed area
increasing :-
(1)

(2)

(3) 2 m2/s

(4)

7) Slope of given graph at point P is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8

8) Find time when both the particles will cross each other

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two particles P and Q describe SHM of same amplitude A and frequency n along the same
straight line. The maximum separation between two particles is A then find initial phase difference
between the particles.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
10)

For above graph find =

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) None

11)

Equation of following curve is then area under curve between x = 1 to x = 2 is :-

(1) 8 units
(2) 16 units
(3) 4 units
(4) 1 unit

12) If y = 4 sin θ, then find average value of y between to :

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

13) Average acceleration of particle performing SHM in one time period is

(1) Aω2
(2) Zero
(3) 2Aω2
(4) 2Aω

14)

Column-I Column-II

(i) sin(–30°) (p)

(ii) If x << 1 then (1 + x)4 (q) 210

(iii) cos (–60°) (r)

(iv) sum of first 20 natural numbers (s) (1 – 4x)

(t) (1 + 4x)

The correct matches :-

(1) (i)–(p), (ii)–(s), (iii)–(r), (iv)–(q)
(2) (i)–(q), (ii)–(t), (iii)–(r), (iv)–(q)
(3) (i)–(r), (ii)–(t), (iii)–(p), (iv)–(q)
(4) (i)–(r), (ii)–(t), (iii)–(r), (iv)–(q)

15) A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A and time period T. The time required by it to
travel from x = A to x = A/2 is :-

(1) T/6
(2) T/4
(3) T/3
(4) T/2

16) The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple harmonic motion is shown below. The acceleration

of the particle at t = 4/3 s is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

17) A particle excutes SHM on a straight line path. The amplitude of oscillation is 2 cm. When the
displacement of the particle from the mean position is 1 cm, the numerical value of magnitude of
acceleration, is equal to the numerical value of magnitude of velocity. The frequency of SHM (in
second–1) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A particle moves on the x-axis according to the equation x = A + Bsinωt. The motion is simple
harmonic with amplitude :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A + B
(4)

19) A particle is in simple harmonic motion along the x-axis back and forth about the origin. Its
maximum acceleration is 40 cm/s2 and amplitude is 10 cm. At the instant t = 0, it passes the position
x = 5 cm moving in the positive x-direction. Which of the following equations can be used to
represent this simple harmonic motion?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20)

A particle moves along the x-axis according to the equation

x = 4 + 3 sin (2πt)

Here, x is in cm and t in seconds. Select the correct alternative:

(1) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic with mean position at x = 0.
(2) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic with mean position at x = 4 cm.
(3) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic with mean position at x = – 4m.
(4) Amplitude of oscillation is 7 cm.
21) The equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is + 25 x = 0. The time period of the
particle will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The displacement of a particle along the x axis is given by x = 8 sin216t. The motion of the
particle is

simple harmonic motion of frequency

(1)

(2)
simple harmonic motion of frequency

(3)
simple harmonic motion of frequency
(4) not simple harmonic motion

23) The plot of velocity (v) versus displacement (x) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

shown in figure. The time period of oscillation of particle is :- ​

(1)
s
(2) π s
(3) 2π s
(4) 3π s

24) If the displacement (x) and velocity v of a particle executing simple harmonic motion are related
through the expression 4v2 = 25 – x2, then its time period is :-

(1) π
(2) 2π
(3) 4π
(4) 6π
25) The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is 4 cm. At the mean position the speed of the
particle is 16 cm/sec. The distance of the particle from the mean position at which the speed of the
particle becomes 8 cm/s, will be :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) cm
(3) 1cm
(4) 2cm

26)

Two vectors are at an angle of 60° with each other. Their resultant makes an angle of 45°

with . If = 2 units then is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

27)

A particle is moving on a circular path of radius r with uniform velocity v. The change in velocity
when the particle moves from P to Q is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28)

Given that . Two out of the three vectors are equal in magnitude. The magnitude of the
third vector is times that of the either out of the other two. Which of the following can be the
angles between these vectors :-

(1) 45°, 45°, 90°

(2) 45°, 90°, 135°
(3) 90°, 135°, 135°
(4) 30°, 60°, 90°

29)

What will be the angle between the vector and y-axis -

(1) tan–1 (3/2)

(2) tan–1 (2/3)
(3) sin–1 (2/3)
(4) cos–1 (2/3)

30) The direction consines of are

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 2, 2, 2

(3)

(4)

31) What is the unit vector perpendicular to the following vectors and

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A particle moves from position to due to a force N. If

the displacement is in meter then work done will be (use work = )

(1) 100 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 300 J
(4) 250 J

33) Find angle between .

(1) θ = cos–1 (1/3)

(2) θ = cos–1 (1/2)
(3) cos–1 (1/4)
(4) 37°

34) If the three vectors are coplanar and then value of

x is :-

(1) 36/21
(2) –51/32
(3) 51/32
(4) –36/21

35) If and . The magnitude of and are and respectively

then the value of is :-

(1) 5N
(2)
(3) 10N
(4)

36) Given . Find the value of :-

(1) –64
(2) 60
(3) –60
(4) 64

37) Two vectors and have equal magnitude. If magnitude of is equal to n times the
magnitude of , then the angle between and is :

(1)
cos–1

(2)
cos–1

(3)
sin–1

(4)
sin–1

38) The component of vector perpendicular to is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The unit vector along the direction of sum of three vectors , and is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The vector makes 120° with the x-axis and the vector makes 30° with the y-axis. What is
their resultant ?

(1) P + Q
(2) P – Q

(3)

(4)

41) is an unit vector what is the value of b

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3)
(4) 0.93

42) If and are two non–zero vectors such that = and = then the angle
between and is :

(1) 37°
(2) 53°
(3) cos–1(–3/4)
(4) cos–1(–4/3)

43) If and A + B = C then angle between is

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) π

44) Which of the following is an axial vector

(1) Displacement
(2) Force
(3) Velocity
(4) Torque

45) Which of the following group of concurrent & coplanar forces may be in equilibrium ?

(1) A=10 B= 20 C= 40
(2) A=3 B= 5 C= 1
(3) A=20 B= 20 C= 20
(4) A=40 B= 30 C= 5

CHEMISTRY

1) How many compounds among the following are aromatic?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

2) Total number of aromatic species are :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 2

3) Which is aromatic compound -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following is non-aromatic compound :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The number of hetero atoms and lone pair in given compound is/are :-

(1) 3 and 4
(2) 5 and 6
(3) 3 and 6
(4) 3 and 7

6) In which compound all 'C' are in sp2 hybridization:

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
(2) H2C=CH–CHO
(3) CH3–CH2–CN

(4)

7) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2

8) The no. of σ and π bonds are present in given compound.

(1) 8 σ and 4 π
(2) 10 σ and 5 π
(3) 8 σ and 3 π
(4) 9 σ and 4 π

9) Find out the number of olefinic bonds in given compound :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10)

IUPAC name of the following compound is:-

(1) 2-(1-carboxy ethyl)-4-methyl pentanoic acid
(2) 3, 5-Dicarboxy-2-methyl hexanoic acid
(3) 2, 4, 5-Hexane tri carboxylic acid
(4) 2, 3, 5-Hexane tri carboxylic acid

11) Match the list-I and list-II and select the correct answer :-

List - I List - II

(a) CnH2n (p) Alcohol, ether

(b) CnH2n–2 (q) Alkene, cycloalkane

(c) CnH2n+2O (r) Aldehyde, Ketones

(d) CnH2nO (s) Alkynes, Alkadiene

(1) (a - p), (b - q), (c - r), (d - s)
(2) (a - s), (b - r), (c - q), (d - p)
(3) (a - q), (b - s), (c - p), (d - r)
(4) (a - r), (b - p), (c - s), (d - q)

12)

How many functional groups are present in following compound?

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 9

13)

Which of the following have only 2° C-atom?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Correct code is :-

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) only d

14) Select the structure with correct numbering for the IUPAC name of the given compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Whih of the following compound has wrong IUPAC name ?

(1) CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3 Ethyl butanoate

(2)
3–Methyl butanal

(3)
2–Methyl–3–butanol

(4)
2–Methyl–3–pentanone

16) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 1-bromo-1-ethyl-2-floro-2-iodo-1-nitro ethane

(2) 3-bromo-4-fluoro-4-iodo-3-nitro butane
(3) 2-bromo-1-fluoro-1-Iodo-2-nitro butane
(4) 1-fluoro-1-Iodo-2-bromo-2-ethyl-2-nitro ethane
17) Identify Incorrect statement.

(1) Succinic acid has four carbons in principal carbon chain

(2) Correct IUPAC name of First memberof Alkenyne homologous series is pent -1-ene-4 yne.
(3) Phenol is a homocyclic compound
(4) C3H6O2 is correct molecular formula of second member of ester homologous series.

18) The IUPAC name of which of the following compound is not correct?

(1) Cyclohexanoic acid

Benzene - 1, 2, 4 -
(2)
tricarboxylic acid

4-methylcyclohexane
(3)
carboxylic acid

(4) 4-Bromobenzoic acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Arrange the following functional groups in decreasing order of priority in IUPAC :-

(A) (B) –CN

(C) (D)

(1) D > A > C > B

(2) D > C > A > B
(3) A > D > C > B
(4) A > C > D > B

20) Which one is incorrect about given compound :

(1) Aspirin
(2) Acetyl salicylic acid
(3) 2-Ethanoyl oxy benzene carboxylic acid
(4) 2-Alkoxy carbonyl benzene carboxylic acid
21)

Match the following :-

(1) P – ii, Q – iv, R – ii, S – iii

(2) P – iv, Q – i, R – iii, S – ii
(3) P – iv, Q – i, R – ii, S – iii
(4) P – iv, Q – ii, R – i, S – iii

22) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 5-chloro-7-cyano-6-hydroxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-oxo heptanamide

(2) 5-chloro-8-cyano-6-hydroxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-oxo octanamide
(3) 5-chloro-8-cyano-4,4-dimethyl-6-hydroxy-2-oxo octanamide
(4) 5-chloro-7-cyano-4,4-dimethyl-6-hydroxy-2-oxo heptanamide

23) The IUPAC name of the compound :

(1) 1, 4-Dichloro-2, 6-dioxo-4-carbamoyl-1-oic acid

(2) 1, 4-Dichloro-2, 4, 6-dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(3) 1,4-Dichloro-4-formyl-2,6 dioxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid
(4) 2, 4-Dioxo-1, 4-dichlorocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid

24) The initial rate of reaction A + 5B + 6C → 3L + 3M has been determined by measuring the rate
of disappearance of A under the following conditions:-

Experiment [A]0 [B]0 [C]0 Initial rate

No. (M) (M) (M) (M min )
–1
 1. 0.02 0.02 0.02 2.08 × 10–3

2. 0.01 0.02 0.02 1.04 × 10–3

3. 0.02 0.04 0.02 4.16 × 10–3

4. 0.02 0.02 0.04 8.32 × 10–3

Determine the rate law.

(1) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]2
(2) Rate = k[A] [C]2
(3) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]
(4) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]1/2

25) For
xA + yB → zC

then x, y and z are

(1) 1, 1, 1
(2) 3, 2, 3
(3) 3, 3, 2
(4) 2, 2, 3

26) The temperature coefficient of a reaction is :-

(1) The rate constant

(2) The rate constant at a fixed temperature
(3) The ratio of rate constant at two temperature
(4) The ratio of rate constant differing by 10°C preferably k308/k298

27) The rate constant of the reaction,

2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 is 3 × 10–3 min–1. At what concentration of H2O2, the rate of reaction will be 2 ×
10–4 Ms–1 ?

(1) 6.67 × 10–3 M

(2) 4 M
(3) 0.08 M
(4) 2 M

28) The mechanism of the reaction

2NO2 + F2 → 2NO2F is :-
(i) NO2 NO + O
(ii) F2 + O + NO NO2F + F
(iii) F + NO2 NO2F
Select the correct option
(1) the reaction is of 3rd order
(2) the molecularity of the reaction is sum of molecularities of all steps
(3) reaction is zero order w.r.t. F2
(4) half life of reaction depends upon initial conc. of NO2.

29) At 300 K the half-life of a sample of a gaseous compound intially at 1 atm is 100 sec. When the
pressure is 0.5 atm the half-life is 50 sec. The order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

30) Match the plots in column I with their orders in column II and mark the appropriate choice. :-

Column I Column II

(A) (i) Zero order

(B) (ii) First order

(C) (iii) Second order

(D) (iv) Third order

(1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)

(2) (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
(3) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
(4) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)

31) Assertion (A) : Rate of reaction increases when temperature is increased.

Reason (R) : Increasing the temperature increases the fraction of molecules which collide with
energy greater than Ea.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

32) Assertion : The molecularity of a reaction is a whole number other than zero, but generally
three or less than three
Reason : The order of a reaction is always whole number.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

33) The activation energy of the reaction, A + B → C + D + 38 kcal is 20 kcal, what would be the
activation energy of the reaction, C + D → A + B

(1) 20 kcal
(2) – 20 kcal
(3) 18 kcal
(4) 58 kcal

34) For an elementary reaction 2A + B → A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to half of its
original volume then rate of reaction will :-

(1) Unchange
(2) Increase four times
(3) Increase eight times
(4) Decrease eight times

35) For a reaction A → 2B, rate constant k is

2 × 10–3 M s–1. If initial concentration of A is 0.1 M. Calculate concentration of B after 20 sec.

(1) 0.02 M
(2) 0.04 M
(3) 0.08 M
(4) 0.09 M

36) For a first order reaction A → B, rate constant is k. Then percentage conversion of A into B after
time t is -

(1) (ekt – 1)
(2) (1 – e–kt)
(3) (1 – e–kt) × 100
(4) e–kt × 100
37) In the reaction A + 2B → 6C + 2D, at time t = 0 value of is 2.6 × 10–2 M s–1. What will be

the value of at t = 0 ?

(1) 15.6 × 10–2 M s–1

(2) 8.5 × 10–2 M s–1
(3) 2.5 × 10–2 M s–1
(4) 5.2 × 10–2 M s–1

38) Consider the reaction A → B, graph between and initial concentration (a) of the reactant is

- Hence graph between t1/2 and "a" will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) For a first order reaction A(g) → 3B(g) + C(s), if total pressure after time t is Pt and after completion
of reaction, pressure is P∞ then select correct relation –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) For an exothermic chemical reaction occurring in two steps as follows :

(i) A + B → X (slow)
(ii) X → AB (fast)
This process can be represented by -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) For the elementary reaction aA + bB → P, rate law is r = k[A]a [B]b. If concentration of A is
doubled, the rate is doubled. If concentration of B is doubled, the rate becomes four times. The
correct relationship is -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42) Statement-I : The Pre-exponential factor A has the same units for all reactions.
Statement-II : e–Ea/RT has no unit.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

43) A complex reaction product complete in three steps having activation energies
; ; respectively. Overall rate constant k is related to

individual rate constant by the equation . Activation energy for the overall reaction is -

(1) 100 kJ/mol

(2) 45 kJ/mol
(3) 150 kJ/mol
(4) 140 kJ/mol

44) The rate constant of a reaction is found to be 3 × 10–3 mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1. The order of reaction is -

(1) zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 1.5

45) For a reaction relation between initial concentration (a) and half life (t1/2) is a2 × t1/2 = constant.
Order of reaction is -

(1) zero
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 3

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion (A) : The segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is a 50% chance of a
gamete containing either allele.
Reason (R) : By the process of mitosis, the alleles of the parental pair separates from each other &
only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

2) Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion-A and other is labelled as reason-R.
Assertion (A) : Presence of more than three alleles of a gene is multiple allelism.
Reason (R) : ABO blood group in human is example of multiple allelism.
In the light of above statements choose correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true.

3) Mendel's work remain unrecognised for long time due to :-

I. Communication was not easy.
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was not accepted
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological problem was unacceptable
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for the existance of factors.
Choose the right combinations

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only II and III
(3) Only III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

4) Consider the following four statements I, II, III and IV and select the correct answer.
I. Mendelian experiments had a large sampling size, which gave greater credibility to the data that
he collected.
II. Recessive allele always influences the appearance of the phenotype even in the presence of a
dominant allele.
III. All the alleles of ABO blood group character can be studied only when population studies are
made.
IV. In F2-generation of a Mendelian monohybrid cross, the tall and dwarf traits were identical to
their parental types and shows blending inheritance.
The correct statements are :

(1) I and III

(2) III and IV
(3) II and IV
(4) II and III

5)

Blood grouping in human beings is controlled by

(1) 4 alleles in which IA is dominant.

(2) 3 alleles in which IA and IB is codominant and i is recessive.
(3) 3 alleles in which none is dominant.
(4) 3 alleles in which i is dominant.

6) Find out the correct match from column I, II and III of following table : –

Column-I Column-II Column-III No. of

Cross type No. of genotypes phenotypes

(A) Monohybrid (I) 9 (1) 8

(B) Dihybrid (II) 27 (2) 4

(C) Trihybrid (III) 3 (3) 2

(IV) 16 (4) 6
(1) A–III–3, B–I–2, C–II–1
(2) A–II–1, B–III–2, C–IV–3
(3) A–I–2, B–III–4, C–II–3
(4) A–III–3, B–II–1, C–I–2

7) Match column-I & II & select the correct options ?

Column-I Column-II

(i) Complete dominance (A) ABO blood group

(ii) Incomplete dominance (B) Coat colour in cattle

(iii) Co-dominance (C) Flower colour in snapdragon

(iv) Multiple allele (D) Flower colour in pea

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) D C B A

(2) A B C D

(3) B A D C

(4) C A D B
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour
9) Which of the following proved that Mendel's results pointed to general rules of inheritance rather
than being unsubstantiated ideas : -

(1) His experiments had a large sampling size for greater credibility to data that he collected
(2) Confirmation of his inferences from experiments on successive generations of his test plants
(3) Use of statistical analysis and mathematical logic
(4) All the above

10) Match the following column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A Test cross 1 9:3:3:1

B Monohybrid cross 2 Tt × tt

C Out cross 3 Tt × TT

D Dihybrid cross 4 3:1

Codes
A B C D
(1) 2 4 3 1
(2) 2 4 1 3
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 1 4 2 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11)

Choose correct option based on following statement :-

(i) Emasculation is done in bisexual male parent.
(ii) Emasculation is done in bisexual female parent.
(iii) Emasculation prevent underisable cross-pollination.
(iv) Emasculation is done to prevent self-pollination.

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, iii
(4) ii, iv

12) When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often
superior to both its parents. This phenomenon is called :-

(1) Heterosis
(2) Transformation
(3) Splicing
(4) Metamorphosis

13) In heterozygous condition both the alleles express in :

(1) Colourblindness
(2) AB blood group
(3) Rh factor
(4) A blood type

14) If a tall & pink flowered (TtRr) Mirabilis plant is self crossed, then the offspring would be -

(1) 50% plants will be tall

(2) 50% plants will have Red flower
(3) 25% plants will have white flower
(4) 25% plants will have pink flower

15) In Antirrhinum, two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The offsprings produced were red,
pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of
the two plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR and white by rr genes.

(1) RR
(2) Rr
(3) rr
(4) Both (2) or (3)

16) Select out correct combination.

Incomplete
Genotype Phenotype
dominance

5 types of
(1) AaBb 4 phenotype
gamete

2 types of
(2) AaBb 9 phenotype
gamete

4 types of
(3) AaBb 9 phenotype
gamete

4 types of
(4) AaBb 4 phenotype
gamete
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) In a dihybrid cross, when one pair of alleles show incomplete dominance, genotypic ratio comes
to

(1) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1

18) If the genotypes of husband and wife are IAIB and IAIO : Among the blood types of their children,
how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(1) 2 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

(2) 3 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes, 4 phenotypes
(4) 4 genotypes, 3 phenotypes

19) Which statement is correct :

(A) ABO blood group can be studied in the individual but not in population
(B) Multiple alleles located on same locus of homologous chromosome
(C) Unmodified allele is responsible for production of normal enzyme

(1) Only A
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) A, B and C

20) A character is controlled by 5 alleles. How many genotypes are possible for this character?

(1) 15
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 25

21) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-

(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.

(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype is influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.

22) Identify A, B and C :-

(1) A – CAC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(2) A – CAC ; Y – GAG ; C – Val
(3) A – CTC ; B – GUG ; C – Val
(4) A – CTC ; B – GAG ; C – Glu

23) In Pisum sativum , seed shape and size of starch grains, these two characters are controlled by :-

(1) 2 genes
(2) 1 gene
(3) 7 genes
(4) 4 genes

24) If both parents are carrier for sickle cell anaemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an normal child ?

(1) 100 %
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%

25) The year 1900 AD is highly significant for the genetics its due to :

(1) Discovery of gene

(2) Law of dominance
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Rediscovery of mendelism

26) In a monohybrid cross, pure homozygous plant will be :

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4
27) Mendel performed his researches on pea plants in the :

(1) University of Vienna

(2) University of Austria
(3) Monastery of Brunn
(4) School of Brunn

28) How many genome types are present in a typical green plant cell ?

(1) More than ten

(2) More than five
(3) Three
(4) Two

29) When heterozygous is crossed with homozygous recessive, the cross is called :

(1) Back cross

(2) Lethal cross
(3) Test cross
(4) Parental cross

30) Mendel choose 7 characters which of the following is dominant amongst them :

(1) Constricted pod

(2) Terminal flower
(3) Green pods
(4) Green seed

31) In seven pairs of contrasting characters in pea plant studied by mendel, the number of flower
based characters was :

(1) 1 pair
(2) 2 pair
(3) 3 pair
(4) 4 pair

32) Mendel's principle of segregation means that the gamete cells always receive :

(1) One pair of allele

(2) One quater of the gene
(3) One of the paired alleles
(4) Any pair of alleles

33) Study the following list :

List-1 List-2
 (A) T.H. Morgan (I) Coined the term genetics

(B) G.J. mendel (II) Linkage

(C) Bateson (III) Checker board

(D) R.C. Punnett (IV) Law of heridity

(V) Mutation

The correct match is :

A B C D

(1) III IV I II

(2) II IV I III

(3) I II V IV

(4) IV III II I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) In mendelian dihybrid cross when heterozygous round yellow are selfed crossed, round green
offsprings are represented by the genotype :

(1) RrYy, Rryy, RRYy

(2) Rryy, RRyy, rryy
(3) rrYy, rryy
(4) Rryy, RRyy

35) Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both parents ?

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Co-dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Multiple Allele

36) Which of the following characters was not studied by mendel :

(1) Plant height

(2) Position of flower
(3) Colour of pod
(4) Length of pod

37) When two genotype produce the same phenotype due to different environments, one is called
______ of other
(1) Allelomorph
(2) Phenotype
(3) Phenocopy
(4) Phenology

38) In F2 progeny of dihybrid cross, the expected genotypic proportion of individuals homozygous for
both dominant trait :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Same genotypic and phenotypic ratio in F2 generation are obtained in :

(1) Complete dominance

(2) Polygenes
(3) Co-dominance
(4) Blending inheritance

40) TEST cross of a trihybrid will yield a ratio of :

(1) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 : 1

41) Mendel may not able to establish the law of independent assortment, if both characters gene
were located on :

(1) Separate non-homologous chromosome

(2) Same homologous chromosome
(3) Seprate chromosome but different loci
(4) Sex chromosome

42) If an organism is having genotype AaBb then what are the possible combination of gamete after
meiosis

(1) AB, ab
(2) Aa, Bb, Aa, Bb
(3) AA, BB, CC, DD
(4) AB, aB, Ab, ab
43) If a Homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a Homozygous white flowered plant, the
offspring's will be :

(1) All red flowered

(2) All white flowered
(3) Half red flowered
(4) Half white flowered

44) Which is called a "pleiotropic gene" ?

(1) Control characters of human beings only

(2) Control a characters of plants
(3) Control one characters in association with other
(4) Control more than one characters

45) Match the following :

I. Genetics
II. Checker board
III. Haploid
IV. Allele
A. Single set of chromosome
B. Heredity and variation
C. Punnett
D. Factor's which control contrasting expression of a character.

(1) IA IIC IIIB IVD

(2) IB IIC IIIA IVD
(3) IC IIB IIIA IVD
(4) ID IIA IIIB IVC

46) The condition in which only one Allele of a pair is present is called :

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Heterogametic
(4) Hemizygous

47) Theory of linear arrangement of genes on chromosomes was formulated by :

(1) Sturtevant
(2) Morgan
(3) Bateson
(4) Mendel

48) Which of the following crosses would result in 1 : 2 : 1 F2 ratio ?

(1) Yy × yy
(2) yy × yy
(3) Yy × YY
(4) YY × yy

49) Which of following antibody will be produced during allergic reaction ?

(1) IgA
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgD

50) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) T-cells help the B-cells to produce antibody

(2) T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also stimulate B-cells to produce the same.
(3) Health is affected by genetic factors, life style and infection
(4) Gambusia is used to control diseases like malaria, elephantiasis and dengue.

51) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) IgM is the oldest antibody

(2) IgG can cross the placenta
(3) IgA is the secretory antibody
(4) IgE is the largest antibody

52) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin
(4) Antibodies

53) The region of antibody that recognises the antigen is called :-

(1) Paratope
(2) Epitope
(3) Aggretope
(4) Hapten

54) Which provide micro-environment for the development and maturation of B-lymphocytes?

(1) Bone-marrow
(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (3)
55) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. antibody molecule.

(1) It is usually pentameric

(2) Light and heavy chains are bound by disulphide links
(3) Both light and heavy chains form antigen binding domains
(4) The C-terminal of heavy chain is a constant region

56) In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients, contains preformed antibodies
against the snake venom. This type of immunization is :-

(1) Active aquired immunity

(2) Passive aquired immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Non-specific immunity

57) The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment
could be associated with which of the following antibody ?

(1) IgE
(2) IgG
(3) IgA
(4) IgD

58) Anamnestic response is -

(1) Feeble
(2) Low intensified
(3) Highly intensified
(4) primary response

59) Choose the incorrect for spleen :

(1) Large bean shaped organ.

(2) Acts as a filter of blood
(3) It has a small reservoir of erythrocytes
(4) It traps blood-borne micro-organisms

60) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells, including lymphocytes,
are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and
maturation of T-lymphocytes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

61) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Active immunity develops after a lag period

(2) Active immunity is very effective in immunodeficient host
(3) Passive immunity is used for the treatment of Acute infection
(4) No immunological memory is formed by passive immunity

62)

How many antibodies are monomeric

(considering - IgG IgA IgM IgE IgD)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Which biological response modifier activates immune system and helps in destroying the tumor ?

(1) α-interferons
(2) Taxol drug
(3) Cytoleukins
(4) Vincristine drug

64) How many of the below are correct about given diagram :-
(a) Gives cell mediated immunity
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help
B-cell to produce them.
(c) Disulphide bond present
(d) H2L2 molecule
(e) Glyco protein molecule

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

65) For successful grafting or organ transplantation, it is essential to match the tissues of the
recipient and donor. Most successful match will be if the graft is taken from

(1) Parent
(2) Sibling
(3) Identical twin
(4) Fraternal twin

66) Select the correct match w.r.t. type of antibody and its function listed.

Provides passive immunity to

(1) IgA
fetus

Provides active immunity to

(2) IgG
fetus

Can cross placenta to provide

(3) IgE
immunity

Number rises dramatically on

(4) IgG subsequent exposure to antigen
in secondary response
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Which out of the following groups represent auto-immune disorders ?

(1) SCID and diphtheria

(2) Diabetes mellitus (type I) and rheumatoid arthritis
(3) AIDS and cholera
(4) Hepatitis ad leukaemia

68) Which of the following is not used to reduce symptoms of allergy ?

(1) Adrenaline
(2) Cortisol
(3) Histamine
(4) Cetrizine

69) Which one is the correct sequence of steps of phagocytosis ?

(1) Vasodilation → Diapedesis → Adhesion → Chemotaxis → Phagocytosis

(2) Diapedesis → Vasodilation → Adhesion → Chemotaxis → Phagocytosis
(3) Adhesion → Vasodilation → Diapedesis → Chemotaxis → Phagocytosis
(4) Vasodilation → Adhesion → Diapedesis → Chemotaxis → Phagocytosis

70) Cross match the following column-I and Column-II :-

 Column I Column II

(i) Active natural (a) Antiserum

(ii) Active artificial (b) Colostrum

(iii) Passive natural (c) Vaccination

(iv) Passive artificial (d) Infection

i ii iii iv
(1) a b c d
(2) b c d a
(3) c d a b
(4) d c b a
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Which one of the following is immunodeficiency disorder ?

(1) [Link]
(2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Allergy
(4) AIDS

72) The transplantation of tissue in between the individual of same genetic constitution is known as
:-

(1) Autograft
(2) Isograft
(3) Allograft
(4) Xenograft

73) Which vaccine not include in toxoid vaccine ?

(1) Tetanus
(2) Diphtheria
(3) Botulism
(4) Influenza

74) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about N.K. Cell?

(1) Large granular lymphocyte

(2) Kill virus infected cell
(3) Large agranular lymphocyte
(4) Part of innate immunity
75) Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto immune disorder.
Statement-II : The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called auto immunity.
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

76) B-lymphocyte produce an army of __X__ in response to pathogen. These proteins called __Y__.

X Y

(1) Antibiotics Carbohydrates

(2) Proteins Antibodies

(3) Antibodies Antibiotics

(4) Lymphocyte Antibodies

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Statement-I : The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of memory
of the immune system.
Statement-II : Vaccination is passive type of immunity.

(1) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

78) Statement I :- T-lymphocyte produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into

secondary lymphoid organs to fight with them.
Statement II :- H2 L2 molecule produced by B-lymphocyte.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

79) Statement-I : Grafts would be rejected sooner or later. If immunosuppressant not taken.
Statement-II : Cornea is a most successful transplantation which do not get rejected.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

80) Assertion : Interferon protect non-infected cells from further viral infection
Reason : Interferon is secreted by virus-infected cells

(1) Assertion & reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion & reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion & reason are incorrect

81) Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen elicit a highly intensified
anamnestic response.
Reason (R) :- This is the fact that our body appears to have memory of the first encounter.
Choose the most appropriate answer -

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

82) What is true about T-lymphocte in mammals ?

(1) These originate in thyroid gland

(2) They onginate in secondary lymphoid organ
(3) They originate in all primary lymphoid organ
(4) They can respond to antigen after undergoing maturation through thymus

83) Assertion (A) : More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies and
asthma due to sensitivity to the environment.
Reason (R) : They grow up in a protected environment provided early in life.

(1) Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

84) How many of there are correct regarding acquired immunity ?

Pathogen specific, Memory saved of first encounter, Anamnestic response, T-lymphocyte produce
antibody, B-lymphocyte help T-cell to produce antibody.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

85) Mind influences our immune system through

(1) Neural system

(2) Endocrine system
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Circulatory pathway

86) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Health, for a long time was considered as a state of body and mind.
(2) When people are healthy, they are more efficient at work.
Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good
(3)
health.
(4) Health simply means 'absence of disease' or physical fitness.

87) Read the following four statement A-D.

(A) Disease causing organisms are called pathogens.
(B) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host.
(C) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by widal test.
(D) Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes penumonia in human beings.
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

88) Which of the following constitutes 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body?

(1) Thymus
(2) Bone marrow
(3) Tonsils
(4) Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue

89) Assertion (A) :– Everyday we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However only
few of these exposures result in disease.
Reason (R) :– Our body is able to defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall
ability of host to fight the disease causing organism conferred by immune system is called immunity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

90) Choose the incorrectly matched :

(1) Primary immune response → Low intensity
(2) Secondary immune response → high intensity
(3) Physiological barriers → Skin, saliva and tears
(4) Cellular barriers → Leucocytes, PMNL and NK cells
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 4 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 3 1 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 4 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 4 1 2 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 4 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 3 4 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 4 1 2 3 4 2 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

mA < mB < mC

2) 1. Question Explain (30 words):

Match the given graphs with the corresponding quadratic equations. Analyze the direction of
the curve and symmetry to find the correct match.
2. Concept Based (30 words): .

A. Graphs of y = ax2 and y = -ax2 are parabolas opening upwards and downwards, respectively.
B. x = ay2 and x = - ay2 open side ways.
C. Here, a is a positive real No.

4. Calculation (in brief):

A. (i) y = x2 : Parabola opening upward → Match with (a).

B. (ii) y = - x2 : Parabola opening downward → Match with (b).
C. (iii) x = y2 : Parabola opening rightward → Match with (c).
D. (iv) x = - y2 : Parabola opening leftward → Match with (d).

Correct Answer: Option (4)

3) y = mx + c
y = (tan135°)x + 2

4)

5)

x = 10 sin
Here ω = 1 rad/sec.
∴ graph between V-x is circle.

6)
Area A = πr2
=
= 2 m2/s

7) y = 2x2

slope = = 4x

at point ‘P’ (2, 1) = 4 (2) = 8

8)
2θ = 60 + 90 + 60 = 210°
θ = 105°

t=

t=

9)

dmax = 2A sin

A = 2A sin

sin =

Δϕ = rad

10) = Area =

11)

Area A =

= 7 + 1 = 8 unit
12)

13)

aavg =

avg =

14)

sin(–30°) = –sin30° =
(1+x)4 = 1 + 4x

cos(–60°) = cos 60° =

sum of first 20 natural number

=
= 210

15) It is required to calculate the time from extreme position.

Hence, in this case equation for displacement of particle can be written as

x = a sin = a cosωt

⇒ = a cosωt ⇒ ωt =

⇒ .t = ⇒t= .

16)

a = –Aω2 sin ωt

a=–1×
a=

17) velocity, v = ω

Accelerationf =
∵ v = f (given)

∴
2πn =

n=

18)

Question Explanation:
Equation of particle performing SHM is given. We have to find amplitude of SHM.

Concept:
This question is based on Kinematics of shifted SHM.

Solution:
(x –A) = Bsinωt
SHM of particle about x = A and its amplitude is B.

Final Answer:
The correct option is (2)

19)

amax = ω2A
40 = ω2 × 10
ω = 2rad/sec
x = Acos(ωt + ϕ)
at t = 0 x = +5
5 = 10cosϕ

cosϕ = ϕ = 60°
x = 10cos(2t + 60°)

20)

A = 3cm
M.P. = 4 cm
21) + 25 x = 0

ω2 = ⇒ω= ⇒T= s

22)

x = 8sin216t = 4(1–cos32t)

23)

A = 10 cm
Aω = 40 cm/s
ω = 4 rad/sec

T=

24)

25) At mean position velocity is maximum

i.e.,

26)

27)

Change in velocity =
28)

if &
θ = 90, 135, 135

29)

tan θ =

30) Let
∴ Ax = 1, Ay = 1, Az = 1

and

cos α, cos β and cos γ are the direction cosines of

31)

32)
33)

θ = cos–1 (1/3)

34)

If are coplanar
So,

1(–11x –a) + 2(–21) + 3(–7x) = 0

– 32x = 51

x=– .

35)

= 10 N

36)

=
3=
9 = 4 + 9 + 2A1A2 cos θ

12 + 2 A1A2 cos θ – 72
12 – 4 –72
⇒ 8 – 72
⇒ – 64

37) Let θ be angle between vectors and .

 (Given)

Then,
A2 + 2AB cos θ + B2 = n2 [A2 – 2AB cos θ + B2]
A2 + 2A2 cos θ + A2 = n2 [A2 – 2A2 cos θ + A2]

2A2 + 2A2 cos θ = n2 [2A2 – 2A2 cos θ]

[n2 + 1] cos θ = (n2 – 1) ⇒ cosθ =

or θ = cos–1

38)

Componant of parallel to

Componant of perpendicular to

39)

40)
 41) =1
0.09 + b2 + 0.16 = 1
b=

42)
4(A2 + B2 + 2ABcosθ) = A2 + B2 – 2ABcosθ
3A2 + 3B2 + 10AB cosθ = 0
12B2 + 3B2 + 20B2 cosθ = 0
20B2cosθ = –15B2

cosθ =

43)
= A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
A2 + B2 + 2AB = A2 + B2 + 2AB cos θ
2AB = 2AB cos θ
cos θ = 1
θ = 0°

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) Cyclic resonance must be present b/w 2π, 6π, 10π, 14π,....,e–.

47)

compounds 1, 4, 5, and 6 follow Huckel's Rule

48)

49) Non planer

50)

Atoms different from carbon present in ring are called as Heteroatoms. & compound is said to
Heterocyclic.
→ Here in the given structure

Number of Heteroatoms & Lone pair are therefore 3 & 6 respectively.

51) Question Explanation :-

The question asks in which compound all 'c' atoms are in sp2 hybridization.

Concept :-
Hybridization :- Intermixing of orbitals.
Hybridization can be determined by following.

Formula :- n = no. of σ bond + ℓp

if n = 4 means sp3, n = 3 means sp2 n = 2 means sp hybridization take place.

Answer Explanation :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3
sp3 sp3 sp3

(2) O
||
H2C=CH–C–H
sp2 sp2 sp2

(3) CH3 – CH2 ≡ N

sp3 sp3 sp

(4) sp2

sp2 sp2 sp3

Therefore option (2) compound have all 'c' atom in sp2 hybridization state.

Final Answer : Option (2)

52)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Number of 2º (secondary) carbon in given structure

Key Concept:
Carbon atom attached to two carbon is called as 2º/secondary carbon.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

∴ Number of 2º carbon are :- 8

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

53)
σ-bond = 8 π-bond = 4

54)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Number of olefinic bonds in the given structure.

Key Concept:
Double bond between carbon and carbon atom is called as olefinic bond.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

∴ has two olefinic bonds.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.
 55)
Hexane-2,3,5-tricarboxylic acid
or
2,3,5-Hexane tricarboxylic acid.

A. Here 3 functional groups are of same priority, so all are excluded for the selection of PCC.
B. Three -COOH are at C-2, C-3 & C-5.
C. Suffix used for PFG = carboxylic acid because the carbon of -COOH is not part of PCC.

56)

Compound General formula

(i) Alcohol, Ether CnH2n+2O
(ii) Alkene, Cycloalkane CnH2n
(iii) Aldehyde, Ketone CnH2nO
(iv) Alkyne, Alkadiene CnH2n–2

57) Solution/Explanation:

Answer is 8

58)

Only 2°C atom

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

59)

Numbering should be according to priority of F.G.

60)
Correct name is 3-methyl-butan-2-ol

61)

62)

First member of alkenyne Homologous series is

CH ≡ C – CH = CH2 But-1-ene-3-yne

63)
correct IUPAC name is cyclohoxene carboxylic acid

64)

Priority order of FG

> > > –CN

65)

preffix of
is Ethanoyloxy not alkoxy carboxyl

66) = Sec. butyl

= Iso butyl

= Tert pentyl

= Iso pentyl

67)
5-chloro-7-cyano-6-hydroxy-4,4-dimethyl-2-oxo heptanamide

68)
1,4-Dichloro-4-formyl-2,6 dioxohexane-1-carboxylic acid

69)

divide equation 1 and 2

⇒ 2x = 2 ⇒ x = 1
Similary divide equation 1 and 3
y=1
divide equation 1 and 4
z=2
r = k[A] [B] [C]2

70) xA + y B → zC

so ....(1)

Given ....(2)

so x = 3, y = 3 , z = 2
Answer is option (3). (3, 3, 2)

71)

72)

r = k [H2O2]1
2 × 10–4 × 60 M min–1
= 3 × 10–3 min–1 [H2O2]
[H2O2] = 4M

73)

Step (i) is RDS

r = k [NO2]1
order w.r.t F2 is zero

74)

21 = 21–n

75) t1/2 ∝ n≠1

t1/2 of first order =

76) NCERT Pg. # 114

77) Molecularity may be 1, 2 and 3 only order of reaction can be a fractional value.

78) Given Data:

: ΔH = –38 Kcal.
(Ea)f = 20 Kcal.

= 58 Kcal.
Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct
79)

r1 = k[A]2[B]1 ...(1)
volume becomes half concentration becomes double
r2 = k[2A]2 [2B]1 ...(2)

80) A → 2B
0.1 – x 2x
x = kt = 2 × 10–3 × 20
x = 0.04
[B] = 2 x = 0.08 M

81) %DOD = %α = (1 – e–kt) × 100

82)
⇒ ROA (C) = 6 × 2.6 × 10–2
= 15.6 ×10–2 M s–1

83) For first order reaction t1/2 = constant.

84) A(g) → 3B(g) + C(s)

t = 0 P0
t=∞0 3P0 0

0 0
3P = P∞ ⇒ P =

85) For first step Ea is higher and for second step Ea is lower

86) r = k[A]1 [B]2 a = 1 and b = 2

87) A and rate constant k having same unit.

 is unit less term.

88) = =140

89) k = mol1–n Ln–1 s–1 = mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1

so, 1 – n = – 1/2 ⇒ n = 1.5

90) a2 × t1/2 = constant.

1–n=–2

BIOLOGY

91) Asking about:

This question is asking about the process of allele segregation during gamete formation and
whether the reason provided accurately explains the assertion.

Concept:
The question involves the concepts of:

• Meiosis: The type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and egg cells).
• Law of Segregation: Mendel's law stating that allele pairs separate during gamete
formation, and each gamete receives only one allele from each pair.

Solution:

Assertion (A):
This is true. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes (which carry the alleles) separate
randomly. This means there's an equal chance for a gamete to receive either allele from the
parental pair.
Reason (R):
This is false. Mitosis is a type of cell division that produces identical copies of the parent cell.
It does not involve the separation of homologous chromosomes or the formation of gametes.
The separation of alleles occurs during meiosis, not mitosis.
Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is:
3. (A) is true but (R) is false

92) NCERT Pg. # 62

 93) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 81

94)

NCERT Pg. No. # 54, 61

95)

NCERT Pg. No. # 63

96)

Module Pg. No. # 9, 13

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 76, 77

98) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 54

99)

NCERT Pg. No. # 54

100)

Module Pg. No. # 13, 14, 15

Explanation:

A. A Test cross is a cross between a heterozygous individual and a homozygous recessive

individual (Tt × tt).
B. B Monohybrid cross involves a cross between two individuals differing in a single trait,
resulting in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio (Tt × Tt).
C. C Out cross refers to a cross between,Tt × TT
D. D Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two traits, with a typical 9:3:3:1 phenotypic
ratio(TtGg × TtGg).

The correct answer is : (1) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1

101)

NCERT Pg. # 71

102)

Stronger hybrid

103)
 NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61

OR Stronger hybrid

104)

Module Pg. No. # 17

105) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

106)

(1:2:1) × (1:2:1)
→1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

107)

Geno type not change

108) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 77

109)

NCERT Pg. No. # 60, 61

110)

Module Pg. No. # 20

111) NCERT-XII Pg. # 62

112) NCERT Pg. # 89

113)

NCERT Pg. No. # 62

114)

Module Pg. No. # 15

115) Module Pg # 06

116) NCERT-XII, Pg # 57
117) Module Pg. No. # 7

118) Module Pg. No. # 5

119) NCERT-XII, Pg # 58

120) NCERT-XII, Pg # 54

121) NCERT-XII, Pg # 54

122) NCERT-XII, Pg # 59

123) NCERT-XII, Pg # 67,54,57

124) NCERT-XII, Pg # 63

125) NCERT-XII, Pg # 61

126) NCERT-XII, Pg # 54

127)

Mimic a generic trait due to environment factors.

128) NCERT-XII, Pg # 63

129) NCERT-XII, Pg # 61

130) NCERT-XII, Pg # 58/57 OR (1:1) × (1:1) × (1:1)

131)

NCERT Pg. No. # 64

132) Module Pg. No. # 11

 133)

134) NCERT-XII, Pg # 69

135) NCERT-XII, Pg # 53/57/56

136) Module Pg. No. # 5

137) NCERT-XII, Pg # 67

138)

Monohybrid cross

139)

NCERT Pg. No. 153

140) Explanation:
T-helper cells do not produce antibodies. They play a key role in stimulating B-cells to produce
antibodies, but they do not produce antibodies themselves.

The incorrect statement is: 2. T-helper cells themselves produce antibodies and also
stimulate B-cells to produce the same.

141) Explanation:
lgE is actually involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. It triggers the release of
histamine from mast cells, leading to allergy symptoms.
Why other options are correct:

A. lgM is the oldest antibody: lgM is the first antibody produced during a primary immune
response.
B. lgG can cross the placenta: lgG is the only antibody class that can cross the placenta,
providing passive immunity to the fetus.
C. lgA is the secretory antibody: lgA is found in mucosal secretions like saliva, tears, and
breast milk, providing localized immunity.

Correct Answer : 4. lgE is the largest antibody.

142)
NCERT Pg. No. 150

143)

Allen module

144) Explanation: B-lymphocytes, or B cells, develop and mature in the bone marrow. This is
where they acquire their ability to recognize specific antigens and produce antibodies.

Correct Answer: 1. Bone-marrow

145)

NCERT Pg. No. 146

146) NCERT Pg. 152

147) Explanation :
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is typically associated with IgE antibodies.
IgE is involved in allergic reactions, including responses to environmental antigens like pollen,
dust mites, and certain foods

Answer : (1)

148)

NCERT Pg. No. 151

149)

NCERT-XII Pg#137

150)

NCERT-XII, Page # 149

151)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 136

152)

NCERT-XII, Page # 147

153)

NCERT XII, Page # 142

154)

NCERT Page no. 135

155) Explanation:
Identical twins share virtually identical genetic makeup. This means their tissues are also
nearly identical, minimizing the risk of immune rejection by the recipient's body.

Correct Answer: 3. Identical twin

156) Explanation:
IgG is the most abundant antibody in the blood and plays a crucial role in the body's immune
response. After the first exposure to an antigen, the body produces IgM initially, and on
subsequent exposure, IgG levels increase significantly in what is called the "secondary
immune response." This makes IgG a key player in long-term immunity and memory.

The correct match with respect to the type of antibody and its function is: (4) IgG:
Number rises dramatically on subsequent exposure to antigen in secondary response

157) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 137

158)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 153

159) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150,151, Para 8.2.1

160) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 150, Para-8.2.1

161) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153, Para-8.2.6

162) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 151, Para-8.2.2

Module-1, Pg. # 161

163) NCERT XII Pg. # 152. Para-8.2.4

164) NCERT XII Pg. # 151, Para-8.2.1

165) NCERT Page No. # 137(E)/150(H)

166) NCERT Page No. # 135

167) NCERT Page No. # 136

168) NCERT Page No. 135

169) NCERT Page No. 135

170)

NCERT Pg. # 154

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135

172)

NCERT-Pg. # 138

173) NCERT Pg. No. 153

174) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 151

175) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 145

176) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 145, 146 Para. 8.0

177) NCERT-Pg. # 130,131

178) NCERT-XII Pg. # 154 Para. = 8.2.7 (E)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 166 Para. = 8.2.7 (H)

179) NCERT XII, Pg. # 150

180) NCERT-XII, Pg # 134-135