5.

Biomedical Instrumentation- I

5.1
1. Which of the following is not a fundamental block in recording systems?

electrodes and transducers

signal conditioner

analysis for the output

writing system

In medical devices, the amplifiers that are used for the amplification purpose of
the input signal must have ___________

low frequency response

high frequency response

average frequency response

frequency response has no role to play in it

________________ amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band.

high pass filter

low pass filter

band pass filter

band stop filter

4. The biopotentials generated by the corneoretinal movement is called?

a) Electroretinogram
b) Electroencephalogram

c) Electrocardiogram

d) Electrooculogram

5. The principal ion that is not involved with producing cell potentials is
______________

a) sodium

b) potassium

c) chlorine

d) hydrogen

6. What is the relatively static membrane potential of quiescent cells called?

a) half-cell potential

b) action potential

c) resting membrane potential

d) cell potential

7. Cells depolarize and action potential is generated as soon as a stimulus is

applied.

a) True

b) False

8. The sodium pump phenomenon occurs after which phase?

a) Action potential

b) Resting potential
c) After potential

d) Hyperpolarization

9. Electrode gel are used to____________

a) increase contact impedance

b) equate contact impedance

c) reduce contact impedance

d) absorb contact impedance

11. All electrode potentials are measured with respect to which reference
electrode?

a) Standard hydrogen electrode

b) platinum electrode

c) calomel electrode

d) hydrogen absorbed on platinum electrode

12. Strain gauges are resistance devices in a Wheat stone bridge configuration
_________

a) which does not require bridge completion circuitry and an excitation

source

b) which requires bridge completion circuitry and an excitation source

c) which neither requires bridge completion circuitry nor an excitation source

d) which requires bridge completion circuitry but does not an excitation

source

13. Which of the following component is not a part of the passive filter?

a) resistor
b) operational amplifier

c) capacitor

d) inductor

14. What is the signal amplitude of EEG?

a) 2-200 μV

b) 2-200mV

c) 2-2000 μV

d) 2-2000mV

15. Before placing the electrodes the skin should be __________

a) wet

b) dry

c) hairy

d) oily

16. Electrodes make a transfer from the __________ in the tissue to the electronic
conduction which is necessary to make measurements.

a) electronic conduction

b) ionic conduction

c) electric conduction

d) impulsive conduction

17. What is the frequency range of ECG?

a) 70-120 Hz

b) 0.05-120 Hz
c) 5-120 Hz

d) 12-120 Hz

18. Accuracy is ______

a) ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading

b) ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading

c) algebraic difference between the indicated value and the true or theoretical
value of the measurand

d) total operating range of the transducer

19. For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in

a. His-bundle areas

b. Epicardium

c. Sinoatrial (SA)node

d. Atrioventricular (AV) node

20. P wave indicates

a. Depolarization of right ventricle

b. Depolarization of left ventricle

c. Depolarization of both atria

d. Atria to ventricular conduction time

21. Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by

a. PR interval

b. P wave

c. U wave

d. The QRS complex

22. Which of the following muscles have the longest refractive period?

a. Skeletal muscles

b. Smooth muscles

c. Cardiac muscles

d. Facial muscles

23. To measure ECG, usually how many electrodes are connected to a patient?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

24. Which of the following represents the enlargement of auricles?

a) Enlargement of P-wave

b) Enlargement of QR segment

c) Depression of ST segment

d) Elevation of ST segment

25. The amplitude of P-wave is

a) 0.5mV

b) 0.25mV

c) 0.15mV

d) 0.75 mV

26. Inverted QRS is seen during which condition

a) Overstress
b) Bradycardia

c) Myocardial infraction

d) Tachycardia

27. Electrodes to measure EEG are placed on ________

a) forehead

b) scalp

c) cheek

d) ears

28. The letter T in the EEG electrode placement system denotes?

a) temporal lope

b) temper lobe

c) trace

d) tympanic

29. The delta wave in EEG ranges from ___________

a) 0.5-4Hz

b) 4-8Hz

c) 8-13Hz

d) 13-22Hz

30. Disturbance in the EEG pattern resulting from the external stimuli is called
________

a) provoked response

b) ckoored response
c) evoked response

d) impulse response

5.2
1. A signal of poor quality that cannot be processed is called chaotic.

a) True

b) False

2. _______ is the superimposed wave of neuron potentials operating in a non-

synchronized manner in a physical sense.

a) VCG

b) ECG

c) EEG

d) PCG

3. ‘Stand by’ mode of operation is generally provided in which instrument?

a) VCG

b) PCG

c) ECG

d) EMG

4. Transcutaneous means ________

a) passing to the skin

b) passing to the bones

c) passing to the heart

d) passing to the lungs

5. Which wave detection is used to differentiate between a Sinus Rhythm and a

Supraventricular Rhythm?

a) P wave

b) QRS complex

c) T wave

d) R wave

6. The heart rate is computed by averaging the most recent _________________

a) 12 P waves

b) 12 R-R intervals

c) 12 QRS complex

d) 12 R waves

7. The four measurements of QRS and a fifth measurement called ________ based
on height, duration and offset to those of the patient’s normal QRS are compared.

a) QRS polarity

b) R-to-R interval

c) Wiggle

d) Distance

8. Increase RR indicates________.

a) Apnea

b) Lungs distress

c) Lung injury

d) hypothyroidism

9. Standard time of detection for apnea condition is

a) a)10 second

b) 30 second
c) c)15 second

d) 5 second

10. Which is the most important physiological parameter monitored in the

intensive care unit?

a) temperature

b) heart rate

c) blood pressure

d) skin color

11. Which of the following instrument is also known as Cardioscopes?

a) Central Monitor

b) Bedside Patient Monitor

c) Cardiac Monitor

d) Blood Pressure Monitor

12. ______ is a blood pressure measuring instrument.

a) Sphygmomanometer

b) Ergometer

c) Treadmill

d) Holtemanometer

13. Where are the electrodes placed for recording fetal electrocardiogram?

a) heart

b) abdomen

c) brain

d) veins

14. Which of the following techniques is used to measure fetal heart rate?

a) ECG
b) FECG

c) PCG

d) VCG

15. What is present in the processing circuit for signal separation?

a) Preamplifier

b) Power Line Hum

c) Notch Filter

d) Band Pass Filter

16. The F channel has a _______ ms pulse generator that is triggered by the fetal
ECG.

a) 5

b) 10

c) 20

d) 30

17. Ambulatory monitoring of ECG is called ____________

a) Event Cardiography

b) Holter Cardiography

c) Real-Time Cardiography

d) Implantable Cardiography

18. Which of the following is not an arrhythmic condition?

a) Cardiographic beat
b) Bradycardia

c) Dropped beat

d) Ectopic beat

19. ____ is a non-invasive method allowing the monitoring of the saturation of a

patient’s hemoglobin.

a) Ear Oximeter

b) Pulse Oximeter

c) Skin-Reflectance Oximeter

d) Intravascular Oximeter

20. What is used as a photo detector in pulse Oximeter?

a) Phototransistor

b) Solar cell

c) Photodiode

d) Photographic plates

5.3
1. Which of the following represents telemetry?

a) Fetching data from inaccessible point

b) Fetching data from accessible point

c) Communication over telephone

d) None of the mentioned

2. Which of the following represents a telemeter?

a) Analog device

b) Digital device

c) Both analog and digital device

d) None of the mentioned

3. All kind of information’s are converted into _______________

a) Magnetic data

b) Electrical data

c) Optical data

d) All of the mentioned

4. Process of utilizing one data link for multiple data transfer is called
________________

a) Multiplexing

b) Over transfer

c) Multiprocessing

d) None of the mentioned

5. Modulation is used for __________________

a) Reducing loss in transmission

b) Amplification of signal

c) Conversion of signal

d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following process is explained as detection?

a) Modulation
b) Demodulation

c) Amplification

d) None of the mentioned

7. PCM stands for ________________

a) Pulse create message

b) Pulse carry modulation

c) Pulse code modulation

d) None of the mentioned

8. TCP stands for ___________

a) Tele Call Protocol

b) Transmission Control Protocol

c) Transmission Carry Protocol

d) Transmission Control Parity

9. Which of the following is false with respect to digital data transmission?

a) LAN is a digital data transmission

b) Can transmit binary data

c) Only restricted to communication between computers

d) Can transmit analog data

10. Why is digital data not easily affected by noise?

a) High power transmission

b) Cannot easily change binary 1 to 0

c) High frequency transmission

d) Low frequency transmission

11. Speed of transmission is increased by channel encoding.

a) True

b) False

12. Video conference is classified in which compression?

a) Real time transmission

b) Lossless transmission

c) Lossy transmission

d) Hybrid transmission

5.5
1. __________ method is based on the absorption of electromagnetic radiation in
the visible, ultraviolet and infrared ranges.

a) Cardiotocography

b) Ultrasonic therapy

c) Spectrophotometry

d) Diathermy

2. The ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power
incident on the sample is known as ________

a) Absorbance

b) Transmittance

c) Optical density

d) Photometric concentration

3. Which section deals with the determinations of the number and characteristics
of the constituents of the blood, particularly the blood cells?
a) Chemistry

b) Hematology

c) Microbiology

d) Blood Bank

4. Which of the following is the most common substance for analysis from the
body?

a) CSF

b) Urine

c) Blood

d) Glucose

5. Most of the ________ processes result in chemical changes in the internal

environment of the human body.

a) micromorphological

b) pathological

c) immunological

d) neuropschycological

6. _______________ is not a source of radiant energy.

a) Tungsten-mercury lamp

b) Tungsten lamp

c) Xenon-mercury arc

d) Deuterium discharge lamp

7. Beer’s law states that the intensity of light decreases with respect to
___________

a) Concentration

b) Distance

c) Composition

d) Volume

8. In Flame emission photometers, the measurement of _____________ is used

for quantitative analysis.

a) Color

b) Intensity

c) Velocity

9. Which of the following gas permeable membrane is used for carbon dioxide
gas sensing electrode?

a) Silicon rubber

b) PVC membrane

c) Fluorocarbon

d) Polythene

10. Which of the following reference electrode is placed in the solution of carbon
dioxide electrode?

a) Calomel electrode

b) Silver/silver chloride electrode

c) Mercury/mercury sulphate electrode

d) Glass electrode

11. Which syringe should be used for sample collection is ABG?

a) Coagulase

b) Potassium

c) Heparin
d) Warfarin

12. Normal PH value in ABG is :

a) 7.2

b) 7.5

c) 7.7

d) 7.4

13. VAG(Venous blood gas) will provide which information different than ABG in
some case:

a) Different hemoglobin level

b) Different potassium level

c) All same values as of arterial blood

d) Different oxygenation level.

14. In an ABG result, some values are measured, whilst other values are derived.

Commonly:

a) Ph is measured, PCO2, PO2 are derived.

b) Ph, Po2 and PCO2 are measured

c) Ph is derived and PO2, PCO2 are measured

d) Ph, PCO2 and PO2 are derived

15. Blood gas analyzers are frequently not found on all wards. They are usually
found in:

a) ICU

b) Emergency department
c) Both a and b

d) Surgery department

5.4 Cardiac Output Measurement

Indicator Dilution Method
What is cardiac output?

A) The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one hour

B) The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute
C) The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues by the heart
D) The amount of blood stored in the heart chambers
Answer: B) The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute
Explanation: Cardiac output is defined as the quantity of blood delivered by the heart to the
aorta per minute.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a fall in cardiac output?

A) Low blood pressure

B) Reduced tissue oxygenation
C) Increased renal function
D) Acidosis
Answer: C) Increased renal function
Explanation: A fall in cardiac output may result in low blood pressure, reduced tissue
oxygenation, acidosis, and poor renal function.

What is the normal range of cardiac output in adults?

A) 1 to 3 liters per minute

B) 4 to 6 liters per minute
C) 7 to 9 liters per minute
D) 10 to 12 liters per minute
Answer: B) 4 to 6 liters per minute
Explanation: The normal cardiac output in adults ranges from 4 to 6 liters per minute.

Which method involves measuring the stroke volume and multiplying it by the heart rate to
estimate cardiac output?

A) Fick’s method
B) Indicator dilution method
C) Continuous infusion method
D) Direct method
Answer: D) Direct method
Explanation: The direct method of estimating cardiac output involves measuring the stroke
volume and multiplying it by the heart rate.

What is the disadvantage of the continuous infusion method of introducing indicators?

A) It requires surgery
B) It is complicated and difficult to repeat
C) Most indicators re-circulate, preventing accurate measurement
D) It involves catheterization
Answer: C) Most indicators re-circulate, preventing accurate measurement
Explanation: In the continuous infusion method, most indicators re-circulate, preventing
accurate measurement of cardiac output.

In the indicator dilution method, where is the indicator typically injected?

A) Artery
B) Capillary
C) Vein
D) Heart
Answer: C) Vein
Explanation: In the indicator dilution method, the indicator is typically injected into a large vein or
preferably into the right heart itself.

What does the dilution curve represent in the indicator dilution method?

A) Heart rate over time

B) Blood pressure over time
C) Concentration of the indicator over time
D) Stroke volume over time
Answer: C) Concentration of the indicator over time
Explanation: The dilution curve in the indicator dilution method represents the concentration of
the indicator over time.

How is cardiac output calculated from the dilution curve?

A) By multiplying the area under the curve by the average indicator concentration
B) By dividing the area under the curve by the average indicator concentration
C) By subtracting the area under the curve from the average indicator concentration
D) By adding the area under the curve to the average indicator concentration
Answer: A) By multiplying the area under the curve by the average indicator concentration
Explanation: Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the area under the dilution curve by the
average concentration of the indicator.

What does the area under the primary dilution curve represent?

A) Total blood volume

B) Total body surface area
C) Time concentration relationship of the indicator on its first passage round the circulation
D) Cardiac stroke volume
Answer: C) Time concentration relationship of the indicator on its first passage round the
circulation
Explanation: The area under the primary dilution curve represents the time concentration
relationship of the indicator on its first passage round the circulation.

Which method simplifies the evaluation of the dilution curve by plotting it on semilogarithmic
scale paper?

A) Fick’s method
B) Continuous infusion method
C) Bolus injection method
D) Indicator dilution method
Answer: D) Indicator dilution method
Explanation: The indicator dilution method simplifies the evaluation of the dilution curve by
plotting it on semilogarithmic scale paper.

Which statement is true regarding the bolus injection method in the indicator dilution method?

A) It involves continuous infusion of the indicator

B) It requires surgery
C) It results in an exponential decrease in indicator concentration over time
D) It involves administering a small, known quantity of the indicator into the circulation
Answer: D) It involves administering a small, known quantity of the indicator into the circulation
Explanation: In the bolus injection method, a small, known quantity of an indicator is
administered into the circulation.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a fall in cardiac output?

A) Low blood pressure

B) Reduced tissue oxygenation
C) Acidosis
D) Increased heart rate
Answer: D) Increased heart rate
Explanation: A fall in cardiac output may result in low blood pressure, reduced tissue
oxygenation, and acidosis, but it typically leads to a decrease, not an increase, in heart rate.

Which method involves determining cardiac output by the analysis of the gas-keeping of the
organism?

A) Direct method
B) Fick’s method
C) Continuous infusion method
D) Bolus injection method
Answer: B) Fick’s method
Explanation: Fick’s method involves determining cardiac output by the analysis of the gas-
keeping of the organism.

What is the principle of the indicator dilution method?

A) Determining cardiac output by analyzing gas-keeping of the organism

B) Introducing a known amount of indicator into a fluid stream and measuring concentration
difference
C) Measuring stroke volume and heart rate to estimate cardiac output
D) Injecting indicator at a constant rate into the circulation
Answer: B) Introducing a known amount of indicator into a fluid stream and measuring
concentration difference
Explanation: The principle of the indicator dilution method involves introducing a known amount
of indicator into a fluid stream and measuring the concentration difference to estimate volume
flow.

How is the cardiac output curve obtained in the indicator dilution method?

A) By analyzing gas-keeping of the organism

B) By plotting stroke volume over time
C) By measuring heart rate over time
D) By detecting the presence of the indicator in the arterial circulation
Answer: D

Dye Dilution Method Thermal Dilution Techniques

What is the preferred indicator substance used in the dye dilution method?

A) Indocyanine green
B) Oxygen
C) Hemoglobin
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: A) Indocyanine green
Explanation: Indocyanine green dye is the preferred indicator substance used in the dye dilution
method.

Why is indocyanine green preferred over some blue dyes?

A) It requires the patient to breathe oxygen

B) It absorbs light in the 800 nm region of the spectrum
C) It has fewer side effects
D) It is less expensive
Answer: B) It absorbs light in the 800 nm region of the spectrum
Explanation: Indocyanine green is preferred because it absorbs light in the 800 nm region of the
spectrum where both reduced and oxygenated hemoglobin have the same optical absorption.

How is the concentration of cardiogreen measured in the dye dilution method?

A) With a thermometer
B) With an ultraviolet sensor
C) With an infra-red photocell transducer
D) With a pH meter
Answer: C) With an infra-red photocell transducer
Explanation: The concentration of cardiogreen is measured with the help of an infra-red
photocell transducer.
How is the dye injected in the dye dilution method?

A) Into the pulmonary artery

B) Into the left ventricle
C) Into the right atrium
D) Into the femoral artery
Answer: C) Into the right atrium
Explanation: The dye is injected into the right atrium by means of a venous catheter.

What problem arises if the dye concentration exceeds approximately 20 mg/ml of blood?

A) Optical density decreases

B) Optical density remains constant
C) Optical density increases
D) Optical density becomes erratic
Answer: D) Optical density becomes erratic
Explanation: Above a dye concentration of approximately 20 mg/ml of blood, the optical density
rises less with an increase in dye concentration than below this level, causing the optical density
to become erratic.

What does the thermal dilution technique measure?

A) Blood pressure
B) Blood temperature
C) Blood volume
D) Blood oxygen saturation
Answer: C) Blood volume
Explanation: The thermal dilution technique measures blood volume.

What is the principle behind the thermal dilution technique?

A) The integral of temperature change is proportional to cardiac output

B) The integral of pressure change is proportional to cardiac output
C) The integral of oxygen saturation change is proportional to cardiac output
D) The integral of blood flow change is proportional to cardiac output
Answer: A) The integral of temperature change is proportional to cardiac output
Explanation: In the thermal dilution technique, the integral of temperature change is inversely
proportional to cardiac output.

What is the name of the catheter commonly used in thermal dilution techniques?

A) Fick catheter
B) Swan-Ganz catheter
C) Fox-Wood catheter
D) Branthwaite-Bradley catheter
Answer: B) Swan-Ganz catheter
Explanation: The Swan-Ganz catheter is commonly used in thermal dilution techniques.

How is the injectate temperature measured in thermal dilution techniques?

A) With an infrared sensor
B) With a thermometer
C) With a pH meter
D) With a pressure transducer
Answer: B) With a thermometer
Explanation: The injectate temperature is measured with a thermometer in thermal dilution
techniques.

What does the Swan-Ganz catheter contain to measure cardiac output?

A) Thermocouple
B) Thermistor
C) Pressure transducer
D) Flow sensor
Answer: B) Thermistor
Explanation: The Swan-Ganz catheter contains a thermistor to measure cardiac output.

What is used to avoid the formation of bubbles in thermal dilution techniques?

A) Silicone solution in water

B) Silicone solution in ether
C) Sodium chloride solution
D) Ethanol solution
Answer: B) Silicone solution in ether
Explanation: The cuvette tubing should be flushed with a solution of silicone in ether to avoid the
formation of bubbles in thermal dilution techniques.

What type of injector is used for rapid and consistent injections in thermal dilution techniques?

A) Manual injector
B) Pneumatically controlled injector
C) Hydraulic injector
D) Electric injector
Answer: B) Pneumatically controlled injector
Explanation: Pneumatically controlled injectors are used for rapid and consistent injections in
thermal dilution techniques.

What is the preferred injection moment during the cardiac cycle for thermal dilution injections?

A) Systole
B) Diastole
C) Atrial contraction
D) Ventricular relaxation
Answer: B) Diastole
Explanation: The optimum injection moment for thermal dilution injections is during diastole.

What effect can electrosurgical units have on thermal dilution measurements?

A) Increase accuracy
B) Cause erratic readings
C) Improve signal clarity
D) Have no effect
Answer: B) Cause erratic readings
Explanation: Electrosurgical units can disrupt or scramble the thermodilution temperature curve,
causing erratic readings

Measurement of Continuous Cardiac Output Derived from Aortic Pressure Waveform;

Impedance Technique; Ultrasound Method
Which dye is commonly used in the dye dilution method for recording dilution curves?
a) Bromothymol Blue
b) Indocyanine green
c) Methylene Blue
d) Rhodamine B
Answer: b) Indocyanine green

What is the preferred wavelength for the isobestic wavelength of hemoglobin in the
densitometer used for dye dilution measurement?
a) 700 nm
b) 550 nm
c) 805 nm
d) 400 nm
Answer: c) 805 nm

Which catheter simplifies the technique of cardiac cannulation for thermal dilution
measurement?
a) Swan-Ganz double lumen catheter
b) Ventricular assist device catheter
c) Swan-Ganz triple lumen balloon catheter
d) Pulmonary artery catheter
Answer: c) Swan-Ganz triple lumen balloon catheter

What is the primary signal utilized for computing cardiac output in the pressure pulse contour
method?
a) ECG waveform
b) Blood pressure
c) Aortic pressure waveform
d) Blood flow velocity
Answer: c) Aortic pressure waveform

In the impedance method, what parameter is used to calculate stroke volume?

a) Electrode resistance
b) Thoracic impedance
c) Voltage fluctuations
d) Current flow
Answer: b) Thoracic impedance

What technique can be used to measure blood flow velocity in the ascending aorta?
a) Electrocardiography
b) Impedance plethysmography
c) Ultrasound Doppler
d) Pulse oximetry
Answer: c) Ultrasound Doppler

What is the equation used for calculating blood velocity in the ascending aorta using Doppler
ultrasound?
a) V = Fd × Fo
b) V = C × Fd × Fo
c) V = C × Fd × Fo × cos(q)
d) V = C × Fo / Fd
Answer: c) V = C × Fd × Fo × cos(q)

Which instrument allows for quick and continuous cardiac output and stroke volume
measurement using an esophageal probe?
a) Swan-Ganz catheter
b) Ultrasound Doppler machine
c) Dye dilution densitometer
d) Esophageal ultrasound Doppler instrument
Answer: d) Esophageal ultrasound Doppler instrument
Pulmonary FunctionMeasurement and Analyzers: Spirometry; Measurement of
Volumes.

5.6 Audiometers: Basic Audiometer; Pure Tone

Audiometer; Speech Audiometer; Audiometer
System Bekesy
What is the primary function of an audiometer?
a) Visual acuity testing
b) Identification of hearing loss
c) Measurement of lung capacity
d) Blood pressure monitoring
Answer: b) Identification of hearing loss

Which type of audiometer is primarily used to obtain air-conduction and bone-conduction

thresholds of hearing?
a) Speech audiometer
b) Tone generator
c) Pure-tone audiometer
d) Noise generator
Answer: c) Pure-tone audiometer

What is the purpose of a bone conductor vibrator in pure-tone audiometry?

a) To generate speech stimuli
b) To stimulate the ear not under test
c) To apply masking noise
d) To test bone-conduction thresholds
Answer: d) To test bone-conduction thresholds

What is the function of the attenuator in an audiometer?

a) To control frequency
b) To calibrate output sound levels
c) To generate noise
d) To amplify bone-conducted signals
Answer: b) To calibrate output sound levels

What is the maximum harmonic distortion permitted in pure-tone air conduction audiometry?
a) 1%
b) 2%
c) 3%
d) 4%
Answer: b) 2%

At what intensity level is the threshold of feeling stimulated for frequencies between 500 to 4000
Hz?
a) Approximately 80 dB
b) Approximately 95 dB
c) Approximately 110 dB
d) Approximately 120 dB
Answer: d) Approximately 120 dB

What reference level is used for calibrating auditory acuity measurements on an audiometer?
a) Threshold of hearing
b) Threshold of feeling
c) Threshold of taste
d) Threshold of vision
Answer: a) Threshold of hearing

What technology has been incorporated into recent audiometric products to offer greater
convenience and versatility?
a) Analog circuitry
b) Vacuum tubes
c) Microprocessors and digital technology
d) Hydraulic systems
Answer: c) Microprocessors and digital technology

What type of environment is required for accurate audiometric testing?

a) Noisy environment
b) Soundproof environment
c) Brightly lit environment
d) Environment with background music
Answer: b) Soundproof environment

How much attenuation can be achieved at frequencies between 1000 and 8000 Hz in a sound
isolating enclosure commonly used for audiometric testing?
a) 20 dB
b) 40 dB
c) 60 dB
d) 80 dB
Answer: c) 60 dB
Which range of frequencies do pure-tone audiometers typically cover?
a) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
b) 125 Hz to 8000 Hz
c) 300 Hz to 3000 Hz
d) 100 Hz to 10,000 Hz
Answer: b) 125 Hz to 8000 Hz

What is the purpose of pure-tone audiometry?

a) To determine speech reception thresholds
b) To assess hearing loss
c) To monitor heart rate
d) To measure lung capacity
Answer: b) To assess hearing loss

What advantage does pure-tone audiometry offer over speech audiometry?

a) Greater flexibility in frequency range
b) Simpler setup process
c) Lower cost of equipment
d) Better compatibility with hearing aids
Answer: a) Greater flexibility in frequency range

Which component of a pure-tone audiometer controls the frequency of oscillations?

a) Attenuator
b) Output current amplifier
c) Oscillator
d) Earphone
Answer: c) Oscillator

What is the purpose of the attenuator in a pure-tone audiometer?

a) To calibrate output sound levels
b) To generate test tones
c) To amplify signals
d) To control frequency
Answer: a) To calibrate output sound levels

At what intensity level are pure-tone test tones presented in bone conduction audiometry at 500
Hz?
a) 90 dB
b) 110 dB
c) 60 dB
d) 45 dB
Answer: b) 110 dB

What is the purpose of speech audiometry?

a) To determine bone-conduction thresholds
b) To monitor lung function
c) To assess speech comprehension
d) To measure heart rate
Answer: c) To assess speech comprehension

What advantage does recorded speech material offer in speech audiometry?

a) Greater consistency and variety of test material
b) Lower cost of equipment
c) Improved accuracy of results
d) Compatibility with live-voice speech tests
Answer: a) Greater consistency and variety of test material

What technology did George Van Bekesy incorporate into his audiometric testing method?
a) Analog circuitry
b) Vacuum tubes
c) Microprocessors and digital technology
d) Hydraulic systems
Answer: c) Microprocessors and digital technology

How does the Bekesy method differ from conventional pure-tone audiometry?
a) It uses bone conduction instead of air conduction.
b) It involves live-voice speech testing.
c) It automatically adjusts intensity based on patient response.
d) It covers a wider frequency range.
Answer: c) It automatically adjusts intensity based on patient response.

Biomedical Instrumentation II
6.6 Patient safety: Electric shock hazards; Leakage currents;
Electrical safety analyzer.
What is the purpose of testing receptacles for mechanical tension?
a) To ensure proper wiring
b) To measure line voltage
c) To check for ground resistance
d) To prevent plugs from falling out
Answer: d) To prevent plugs from falling out

What is the minimal mechanical holding force required for each contact in a receptacle?
a) 4 oz
b) 20 G
c) 100 oz
d) 50 G
Answer: a) 4 oz

What does proper polarity of receptacles ensure?

a) Correct line voltage
b) Proper grounding
c) Correct wiring configuration
d) Stable impedance
Answer: c) Correct wiring configuration

How many possible states of the outlet can a receptacle tester with three LEDs test for?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 32
d) 64
Answer: a) 8

What is one potential hazard of reverse wiring or loss of grounding in outlets?

a) Overloading of electrical circuits
b) Fire hazards
c) Voltage fluctuations
d) Power surges
Answer: b) Fire hazards

What is the maximum acceptable ground resistance?

a) 0.1 W
b) 0.2 W
c) 0.5 W
d) 1.0 W
Answer: a) 0.1 W

What is the maximum allowed voltage between a reference ground point and exposed
conductive surfaces for new construction?
a) 20 mV
b) 40 mV
c) 100 mV
d) 500 mV
Answer: a) 20 mV

What is the impedance limit between the reference ground point and receptacle ground contact
for existing construction?
a) 0.05 W
b) 0.1 W
c) 0.2 W
d) 0.5 W
Answer: c) 0.2 W

Why is it important to measure ground resistance in patient care areas?

a) To prevent electrical shocks
b) To reduce energy consumption
c) To ensure stable voltage supply
d) To maintain equipment efficiency
Answer: a) To prevent electrical shocks

What instrument can be used to measure ground resistance?

a) Oscilloscope
b) Voltmeter
c) Multimeter
d) Ohmmeter
Answer: d) Ohmmeter

Which of the following situations increases the risk of electric shock hazards in medical
practice?
a) Dry and smooth skin conditions
b) High-frequency and ionizing radiations
c) Stable environmental conditions
d) Proper grounding of medical equipment
Answer: b) High-frequency and ionizing radiations

What is the primary cause of circulatory arrest induced by low voltage electric shock?
a) Respiratory arrest
b) Muscular contractions
c) Ventricular fibrillation
d) Tissue burns
Answer: c) Ventricular fibrillation

What is the threshold of perception of electric shock according to Bruner (1967)?

a) 2 mA
b) 10 mA
c) 1 mA
d) 5 mA
Answer: c) 1 mA

What is the significance of the "let-go current"?

a) It indicates the threshold of perception.
b) It represents the maximum current a person can withstand without serious after-effects.
c) It measures the resistance of the human body to electrical currents.
d) It determines the level of pain experienced during an electric shock.
Answer: b) It represents the maximum current a person can withstand without serious after-
effects.

What is the primary hazard associated with microcurrent shock?

a) Respiratory paralysis
b) Muscular contractions
c) Ventricular fibrillation
d) Tissue burns
Answer: c) Ventricular fibrillation

At what frequency do muscle contractions and the sensation of electric shock cease to occur?
a) 10 kHz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100 kHz
d) 1 MHz
Answer: c) 100 kHz
According to Whalen et al. (1964), how does the risk of ventricular fibrillation change with the
duration of the current passing through the heart?
a) It increases with increasing duration.
b) It decreases with increasing duration.
c) It remains constant regardless of duration.
d) It varies randomly with duration.
Answer: a) It increases with increasing duration.

What is the relationship between the threshold current for fibrillation and body weight?
a) Linear
b) Exponential
c) Inverse square root
d) Logarithmic
Answer: c) Inverse square root

Which category of patients in hospitals is most susceptible to ventricular fibrillation?

a) General patients
b) Susceptible patients
c) Critical patients
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Critical patients

What is the recommended maximum permissible leakage current through the body for medical
equipment according to the International Electrotechnical Commission?
a) 100 μA for frequencies up to 1 kHz
b) 500 μA for frequencies up to 1 kHz
c) 100 μA for all frequencies
d) 500 μA for all frequencies
Answer: a) 100 μA for frequencies up to 1 kHz

Which type of leakage current flows from the enclosure or part of the enclosure through a
person in contact with an accessible part of the enclosure to earth or another part of the
enclosure?

A) Earth Leakage Current

B) Patient Leakage Current
C) Enclosure Leakage Current
D) Equipment Leakage Current
Correct Answer: C) Enclosure Leakage Current

Explanation: Enclosure Leakage Current flows from the enclosure to earth or another part of the
enclosure through a person or an external conductive part.

What is the recommended maximum resistance of connections for patient equipment grounding
points according to IEC60601-1?

A) 0.1 ohms
B) 1 ohm
C) 0.15 ohms
D) 10 ohms
Correct Answer: C) 0.15 ohms

Explanation: IEC60601-1 recommends that the resistance of connections for patient equipment
grounding points individually should not exceed 0.15 ohms.

Which precaution should be observed to minimize electric hazards in the vicinity of the patient?

A) Using equipment with two-wire power cords

B) Placing other apparatus near patient monitoring equipment
C) Ensuring periodic checks of ground wire continuity are not performed
D) Training staff to recognize potentially hazardous conditions
Correct Answer: D) Training staff to recognize potentially hazardous conditions

Explanation: Training staff to identify potential hazards helps in maintaining a safe environment
for patients and operators.

What type of leakage current is the current that flows through the patient from or to the applied
part of the patient circuits?

A) Earth Leakage Current

B) Enclosure Leakage Current
C) Patient Leakage Current
D) Functional Leakage Current
Correct Answer: C) Patient Leakage Current

Explanation: Patient Leakage Current refers to the current that flows through the patient from or
to the applied part of the patient circuits.

Why are isolated input circuits provided on monitoring equipment?

A) To increase the risk of electric hazards

B) To reduce the effectiveness of monitoring
C) To prevent the flow of hazardous leakage currents to the patient
D) To decrease the complexity of the equipment
Correct Answer: C) To prevent the flow of hazardous leakage currents to the patient

Explanation: Isolated input circuits help prevent the flow of hazardous leakage currents to the
patient, enhancing safety.

What is the major source of potentially lethal currents in medical instruments or equipment?

A) Functional currents
B) Leakage currents
C) Capacitive currents
D) Inductive currents
Correct Answer: B) Leakage currents

Explanation: Leakage currents from live electrical parts to accessible metal parts pose a
potential hazard to patients.
What is the purpose of the grounding wire in medical equipment?

A) To increase electrical resistance

B) To provide a path for leakage current to the patient
C) To drain off leakage current to the earth
D) To isolate the equipment from the power source
Correct Answer: C) To drain off leakage current to the earth

Explanation: The grounding wire ensures that leakage current is safely directed to the earth,
minimizing the risk of electric hazards.

According to IEC60601-1, what are the maximum leakage current limits for Earth Leakage for
Type CF equipment in single fault condition (SFC)?

A) 0.5 mA
B) 1 mA
C) 5 mA
D) 10 mA
Correct Answer: B) 1 mA

Explanation: For Type CF equipment in single fault condition (SFC), the maximum Earth
Leakage limit is 1 mA according to IEC60601-1.

What should be the maximum potential difference between ground points in the same area to
prevent the flow of dangerous leakage currents?

A) 1 V
B) 10 mV
C) 5 mV
D) 100 mV
Correct Answer: C) 5 mV

Explanation: Maintaining a maximum potential difference of 5 mV between ground points helps

prevent the flow of dangerous leakage currents.

Why should operating instructions be regarded as an integral part of electromedical equipment?

A) To increase the weight of the equipment

B) To decrease user comprehension
C) To ensure proper use and minimize the risk of electric hazards
D) To provide additional decoration to the equipment
Correct Answer: C) To ensure proper use and minimize the risk of electric hazards

Explanation: Clear operating instructions are essential for safe and proper use of electromedical
equipment, reducing the risk of electric hazards to users.
6.1 Cardiac pacemakers: Need for Cardiac
Pacemaker; External Pacemaker; Cardiac
Defibrillators: Need for a Defibrillator; DC
Defibrillator; Pacer – cardioverter- defibrillator.

What is the primary function of a pacemaker?

A) To regulate blood pressure

B) To generate impulses for heart muscle contraction
C) To monitor blood oxygen levels
D) To synchronize heartbeats with respiration

Which component of a pacemaker generates stimulating impulses?

A) Lead
B) Electrode
C) Pulse generator
D) Battery
What type of waveforms are commonly used for pacing in pacemakers?

A) Sawtooth waves
B) Sine waves
C) Rectangular waves
D) Triangular waves
What is the purpose of the lead in a pacemaker system?

A) To store electrical charge

B) To sense heart rhythm
C) To carry stimulating impulses to the heart
D) To regulate heart rate
Which electrode arrangement involves placing one electrode on the heart and another
elsewhere in the body?

A) Bipolar system
B) Unipolar system
C) Monopolar system
D) Dual-pole system
When are external pacemakers typically used?

A) For long-term pacing

B) In cases of permanent heart block
C) In emergency situations or short-term pacing
D) As a permanent implant
How are pacing impulses applied in external pacemakers?
A) Through internal electrodes
B) Through a catheter inserted into the heart
C) Through metal electrodes on the body surface
D) Through an implanted device
What is the maximum voltage output of external pacemakers?

A) 5 V
B) 30 V
C) 80 V
D) 150 V
Which mode of pacing ensures synchronization with the patient's intrinsic heart rhythm?

A) Continuous pacing
B) Asynchronous pacing
C) Demand pacing
D) Synchronous pacing
What is the primary advantage of internal pacing over external pacing?

A) Lower voltage requirements

B) Longer battery life
C) Reduced risk of skin burns
D) Greater patient comfort
What is the purpose of a capacitor in a pacemaker circuit?

A) To store electrical energy

B) To generate electrical impulses
C) To sense heart rhythm
D) To regulate heart rate
Which type of pacemaker circuit maintains a constant voltage output regardless of changes in
resistance?

A) Voltage pacemaker
B) Current pacemaker
C) Current-limited voltage pacemaker
D) Voltage-limited current pacemaker
Which type of pacing is typically used for long-term pacing due to permanent heart damage?

A) External pacing
B) Demand pacing
C) Asynchronous pacing
D) Internal pacing
What is the purpose of a refractory period in a pacemaker circuit?

A) To delay pacing impulses

B) To sense heart rhythm
C) To prevent oversensing
D) To reject electrical interference
What is the purpose of a battery check facility in pacemakers?
A) To regulate heart rate
B) To store electrical energy
C) To indicate battery status
D) To sense heart rhythm

What is the primary reason for incorporating external pacing into defibrillators?

A) To synchronize heartbeats with respiration

B) To treat extreme bradyarrhythmias
C) To monitor blood oxygen levels
D) To regulate blood pressure
Answer: B) To treat extreme bradyarrhythmias

Explanation: The text states that a smaller percentage of cardiac arrest victims suffer from
extreme bradyarrhythmias which require pacing, hence external pacing is incorporated into
defibrillators.

Which component of an implantable defibrillator is responsible for sensing heartbeats?

A) High voltage converter

B) Pacing control circuit
C) Sensing circuit
D) Switching circuit
Answer: C) Sensing circuit

Explanation: The text mentions that the sensing circuit detects the heartbeat signal, which is
then used for various functions such as heartbeat monitoring and demand pacing.

What triggers the activation of high-output demand pacing after defibrillation in an implantable
defibrillator?

A) Thyristor switch
B) Fibrillation detection circuit
C) Pacing control circuit
D) High voltage converter
Answer: B) Fibrillation detection circuit

Explanation: After defibrillation, the absence of a heartbeat for 3.5 seconds triggers the
fibrillation detection circuit to deliver the turn-on signal, activating high-output demand pacing.

In situations where the ECG is saturated immediately after defibrillation, what alternative
method is used for detecting heartbeats?

A) Blood oxygen level monitoring

B) Temperature sensing
C) Electroretinography
D) Blood pressure sensing
Answer: D) Blood pressure sensing
Explanation: The text mentions that in situations where the ECG is saturated, a blood pressure
sensor (electret condenser-microphone) is used to detect heartbeats without interference from
the stimulation current.

What is the purpose of storing electrocardiograms in implantable defibrillators?

A) To regulate heart rate

B) To analyze therapies delivered
C) To monitor blood pressure
D) To measure blood oxygen levels
Answer: B) To analyze therapies delivered

Explanation: Electrocardiograms are stored for sensed arrhythmias, which is helpful during
follow-up for analysis of the therapies delivered and detection of malfunctions.

What is the estimated battery life of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators?

A) 1-3 years
B) 4-9 years
C) 10-15 years
D) 16-20 years
Answer: B) 4-9 years

Explanation: The text states that implantable cardioverter-defibrillators make use of lithium-silver
vanadium oxide batteries with an estimated battery life of 4–9 years.

Which material is commonly used for the casing of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators?

A) Stainless steel
B) Titanium
C) Aluminum
D) Plastic
Answer: B) Titanium

Explanation: The text mentions that implantable cardioverter-defibrillators have titanium casing.

What is the primary function of the pacing control circuit in an implantable defibrillator?

A) To sense heartbeats
B) To amplify heartbeat signals
C) To regulate heart rate
D) To control pacing rate and pulse width
Answer: D) To control pacing rate and pulse width

Explanation: The text states that the pacing control circuit controls the pacing rate and pulse
width of high-output demand pacing.

Which type of shocks may accelerate ventricular tachycardia, despite having short charge
times?
A) Low-energy synchronized shocks
B) High-energy unsynchronized shocks
C) Low-energy unsynchronized shocks
D) High-energy synchronized shocks
Answer: A) Low-energy synchronized shocks

Explanation: The text mentions that low-energy shocks may have short charge times but may
accelerate ventricular tachycardia and could be uncomfortable for the patient.

What is the purpose of the switching circuit in an implantable defibrillator?

A) To amplify heartbeat signals

B) To control pacing rate
C) To regulate heart rate
D) To allow the capacitor to discharge its current
Answer: D) To allow the capacitor to discharge its current

Explanation: The text states that the switching circuit is responsible for allowing the capacitor to
discharge its current through the right ventricular electrode after fibrillation detection triggers the
process.

What is the primary cause of ventricular fibrillation?

A) Coronary occlusion
B) Electric shock
C) Abnormalities of body chemistry
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
How is ventricular fibrillation typically resolved?

A) By administering medication
B) Through surgery
C) By applying a high-energy shock to the heart
D) None of the above
Answer: C) By applying a high-energy shock to the heart
Which method of defibrillation involves placing electrodes directly on the heart?

A) External defibrillation
B) Internal defibrillation
C) Implantable defibrillation
D) Biphasic defibrillation
Answer: B) Internal defibrillation
What is the role of a current-limiting inductor in a defibrillator circuit?

A) To increase the discharge speed

B) To decrease the discharge speed
C) To prevent energy loss during discharge
D) To shape the output pulse
Answer: D) To shape the output pulse
Which waveform is commonly used in over 90% of defibrillators currently available in the
market?

A) Square wave
B) Sawtooth wave
C) Sine wave
D) Damped sinusoidal waveform
Answer: D) Damped sinusoidal waveform
What advantage does the biphasic waveform offer in defibrillation?

A) Higher energy delivery

B) Lower risk of side effects
C) Faster discharge time
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Lower risk of side effects
What parameter is the success of defibrillation correlated with?

A) Voltage used
B) Energy stored in the capacitor
C) Current intensity
D) Duration of shock
Answer: B) Energy stored in the capacitor
How is the energy output of a defibrillator typically calibrated?

A) In terms of voltage
B) In terms of current
C) In terms of watt-seconds or joules
D) In terms of capacitance
Answer: C) In terms of watt-seconds or joules
What is the primary advantage of continuous adjustment of energy levels in a defibrillator?

A) It ensures a fixed energy output

B) It allows for rapid charging of the capacitor
C) It enables adjustment for each desired value
D) It reduces the risk of energy loss
Answer: C) It enables adjustment for each desired value

How is the energy delivered by a defibrillator estimated?

A) By measuring the voltage across the electrodes

B) By measuring the current flowing through the electrodes
C) By assuming a value of load resistance simulating the patient's resistance
D) By measuring the capacitance of the defibrillator
Answer: C) By assuming a value of load resistance simulating the patient's resistance
What percentage of their stored energy do most defibrillators deliver to a 50 Ω load?

A) Less than 50%

B) Between 50% and 60%
C) Between 60% and 80%
D) More than 80%
Answer: C) Between 60% and 80%
What safety feature is often included in defibrillators to prevent accidental discharge?

A) Automatic discharge through the electrodes

B) Automatic power-off after use
C) Automatic discharge through a resistance
D) Automatic voltage regulation
Answer: C) Automatic discharge through a resistance
What is the typical charging voltage required for a defibrillator with a 16 microfarad capacitor to
deliver its full output of 400 watt-seconds?

A) 5000 V
B) 7000 V
C) 9000 V
D) 11000 V
Answer: B) 7000 V
What type of waveform is used in a defibrillator with a damping factor less than unity?

A) Sawtooth waveform
B) Square waveform
C) Sine waveform
D) Lown waveform
Answer: D) Lown waveform
What is the primary purpose of an auto-transformer in a defibrillator circuit?

A) To step up the voltage

B) To regulate the current
C) To control the discharge rate
D) To adjust the energy level
Answer: A) To step up the voltage

6.2 Instruments for Surgery

What frequency range is typically used in surgical diathermy units?

A) 10-20 kHz
B) 100-200 kHz
C) 1-3 MHz
D) 10-30 MHz
Correct Answer: C) 1-3 MHz
Explanation: Surgical diathermy units typically operate in the frequency range of 1-3 MHz to
avoid intense muscle activity and electrocution hazards.
What effect does the heating effect of electric current have on tissue in surgical diathermy?

A) It causes tissue to contract.

B) It causes tissue to expand.
C) It cools down the tissue.
D) It tears apart tissue cells by boiling the cell fluid.
Correct Answer: D) It tears apart tissue cells by boiling the cell fluid.
Explanation: The heating effect of electric current in surgical diathermy causes tissue cells to
boil, leading to their tearing apart.
What is the purpose of the indifferent electrode in surgical diathermy?

A) To concentrate current at the tissue.

B) To minimize bleeding.
C) To establish a large area contact with the patient.
D) To generate sparks for fulguration.
Correct Answer: C) To establish a large area contact with the patient.
Explanation: The indifferent electrode establishes a large area contact with the patient,
dispersing RF current so that very little heat is developed at this electrode.

What is the term used for superficial tissue destruction without affecting deep-seated tissues?

A) Coagulation
B) Fulguration
C) Desiccation
D) Hemostasis
Correct Answer: B) Fulguration
Explanation: Fulguration refers to superficial tissue destruction without affecting deep-seated
tissues, achieved by passing sparks from a needle or a ball electrode to the tissue.
What is the main advantage of using high frequency current in surgical diathermy?

A) It requires less power.

B) It reduces the risk of burns.
C) It facilitates elegant and effortless surgery.
D) It decreases the risk of infection.
Correct Answer: C) It facilitates elegant and effortless surgery.
Explanation: High frequency current in surgical diathermy facilitates elegant and effortless
surgery by virtually melting through tissue and sealing vessels.
What voltage range is required to produce electric arcs between a metal electrode and
biological tissue for cutting?

A) 100-200 V
B) 200-500 V
C) 500-1000 V
D) 1000-1500 V
Correct Answer: B) 200-500 V
Explanation: A voltage of approximately 200-500 V is required to produce electric arcs between
a metal electrode and biological tissue for cutting.
What are the typical power levels delivered by solid-state diathermy machines in the cutting
mode?

A) 100 W
B) 200 W
C) 300 W
D) 400 W
Correct Answer: D) 400 W
Explanation: Solid-state diathermy machines deliver around 400 W in the cutting mode.
What is the purpose of blending currents from both RF and spark-gap generators in surgical
diathermy?

A) To increase the frequency range.

B) To reduce power consumption.
C) To adjust the degree of coagulation of wound edges.
D) To improve waveform stability.
Correct Answer: C) To adjust the degree of coagulation of wound edges.
Explanation: Blending currents from both RF and spark-gap generators allows for adjusting the
degree of coagulation of wound edges as needed.
What frequencies are typically used for the audio tone generator in surgical diathermy
machines?

A) 100 Hz, 200 Hz, 500 Hz

B) 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, 2000 Hz
C) 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 1000 Hz
D) 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, 1500 Hz
Correct Answer: D) 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, 1500 Hz
Explanation: The audio tone generator in surgical diathermy machines typically uses
frequencies of 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, and 1500 Hz.
What is the primary function of blocking capacitors in the output circuit of a diathermy machine?

A) To prevent electric arcs.

B) To increase output voltage.
C) To minimize bleeding.
D) To prevent low-frequency signals from appearing in the output circuit.
Correct Answer: D) To prevent low-frequency signals from appearing in the output circuit.
Explanation: Blocking capacitors in the output circuit prevent low-frequency signals from
appearing in the output circuit.
What safety feature is incorporated in modern surgical diathermy machines to enhance safety
during surgery?
A) Thermostat for temperature control
B) Independent RF generator for microsurgery
C) Continuous waveform monitoring
D) Disposable dispersive electrodes
Correct Answer: D) Disposable dispersive electrodes
Explanation: Modern surgical diathermy machines incorporate disposable dispersive electrodes
to enhance safety during surgery.
What happens when the electric field strength exceeds 1 kV/mm in the gap between the cutting
electrode and tissue?
A) The tissue becomes carbonized.
B) The tissue is immediately evaporated.
C) A visible arc forms.
D) The tissue starts to contract.
Correct Answer: C) A visible arc forms.
Explanation: When the electric field strength exceeds 1 kV/mm, a visible arc forms between the
cutting electrode and tissue.
What is the primary function of logic circuits in a diathermy machine?
A) To generate waveform signals
B) To operate the power output circuit
C) To receive external control signals and operate isolating relays
D) To monitor patient vital signs
Correct Answer: C) To receive external control signals and operate isolating relays
Explanation: Logic circuits in a diathermy machine receive external control signals and operate
isolating relays to ensure proper function and safety.
What is the typical range of frequencies used in the operation of solid-state diathermy
machines?
A) 100 kHz - 500 kHz
B) 1 MHz - 3 MHz
C) 10 kHz - 100 kHz
D) 1 kHz - 10 kHz
Correct Answer: A) 100 kHz - 500 kHz

What are the four main categories of risks associated with electrosurgery?

A) Burns, allergic reactions, muscle contractions, tissue damage

B) Burns, electrical interference, explosions, infection
C) Burns, electrical shock, equipment malfunction, chemical exposure
D) Burns, ventricular fibrillation, explosions, pacemaker interference
Correct Answer: B) Burns, electrical interference, explosions, infection
Explanation: The four main categories of risks associated with electrosurgery are burns,
electrical interference with the heart muscles (ventricular fibrillation), explosions, and electrical
interference with pacemakers and other medical electronic equipment.
What is the predominant hazard associated with electrosurgical units?

A) Electrical shock
B) Equipment malfunction
C) Burns
D) Allergic reactions
Correct Answer: C) Burns
Explanation: Burns are the predominant hazard associated with electrosurgical units, often
caused by excess current density or unintended current pathways.
How can burns resulting from small conductive areas between the limbs be prevented?

A) By increasing the power setting of the electrosurgical unit

B) By using wet cloth between the limbs
C) By placing dry cloth between the limbs
D) By reducing the power setting of the electrosurgical unit
Correct Answer: C) By placing dry cloth between the limbs
Explanation: Burns resulting from small conductive areas between the limbs can be prevented
by placing dry cloth between them.
What is the purpose of the capacitor (RF earthed) included between the indifferent lead and
earth in electrosurgical units?

A) To increase the power output

B) To reduce the risk of burns
C) To provide protection against mains current electrocution
D) To enhance waveform stability
Correct Answer: C) To provide protection against mains current electrocution
Explanation: The capacitor (RF earthed) included between the indifferent lead and earth
provides protection against mains current electrocution.
What type of electrosurgical output system is recommended for surgical applications where the
danger of ventricular fibrillation cannot be excluded?

A) Earthed
B) Earth-referenced
C) Isolated
D) Combined
Correct Answer: C) Isolated
Explanation: For surgical applications where the danger of ventricular fibrillation cannot be
excluded, electrosurgical units of the isolated output type (type CF) are recommended as they
offer the best protection against fibrillation.
What is the recommended type of electrosurgical system for most general applications?

A) Earthed
B) Earth-referenced
C) Isolated
D) Combined
Correct Answer: B) Earth-referenced
Explanation: For most general applications, earth-referenced systems (type BF) are
recommended for electrosurgical units.
What is the purpose of the automatic anti-explosion device in some diathermy machines?

A) To prevent electrical interference

B) To increase power output
C) To prevent burns
D) To make sparks generated at the active electrodes innocuous
Correct Answer: D) To make sparks generated at the active electrodes innocuous
Explanation: The purpose of the automatic anti-explosion device in some diathermy machines is
to make sparks generated at the active electrodes innocuous.
What precaution is recommended regarding the location of the electrosurgical unit if flammable
gases are used in the operating room?

A) Place the unit close to the patient

B) Place the unit outside the zone where flammable gases are used
C) Use explosion-proof electrodes
D) Increase the power output of the unit
Correct Answer: B) Place the unit outside the zone where flammable gases are used
Explanation: If flammable gases are used, it is recommended to place the electrosurgical unit
outside the zone where these gases are used.
What is the typical range of RF leakage current achieved in modern solid-state machines?

A) 1 mA - 10 mA
B) 10 mA - 50 mA
C) 50 mA - 100 mA
D) 100 mA - 200 mA
Correct Answer: C) 50 mA - 100 mA
Explanation: Modern solid-state machines generally achieve RF leakage figures of around 50
mA to 100 mA.
What safety feature is incorporated in some diathermy machines to ensure that high frequency
current is not switched on until the active electrode is surrounded by protective gas?

A) Automatic shutdown
B) Thermostat control
C) Foot-switch control
D) Automatic anti-explosion device
Correct Answer: D) Automatic anti-explosion device
Explanation: An automatic anti-explosion device in some diathermy machines ensures that high
frequency current is not switched on until the active electrode is surrounded by protective gas.
What output system configuration connects the indifferent electrode conductively to protective
earth?

A) Earth-referenced
B) Earthed
C) Isolated
D) Combined
Correct Answer: B) Earthed
Explanation: The earthed output system configuration connects the indifferent electrode
conductively to protective earth.
Which type of electrosurgical unit output system offers the best protection against ventricular
fibrillation?

A) Earthed
B) Earth-referenced
C) Isolated
D) Combined
Correct Answer: C) Isolated
Explanation: Isolated output systems offer the best protection against ventricular fibrillation.
What is the primary hazard associated with sparks generated during electrosurgery in the
presence of flammable gases?

A) Electrical shock
B) Burns
C) Explosion
D) Tissue damage
Correct Answer: C) Explosion
Explanation: Sparks generated during electrosurgery in the presence of flammable gases pose
the hazard of explosion.
What does the capacitor in the output circuit of an electrosurgical unit effectively block?

A) High frequency currents

B) Low frequency currents
C) RF leakage currents
D) Spark generation
Correct Answer: B) Low frequency currents
Explanation: The capacitor effectively blocks the passage of low frequency currents in the
output circuit of an electrosurgical unit.
What does the term "laser" stand for?
A) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
B) Light Aberration through Stimulated Emission of Radiation
C) Light Amplification through Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
D) Light Aberration by Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
Correct Answer: A) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
Explanation: The term "laser" stands for "Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of
Radiation."
What distinguishes the laser beam from the output of conventional sources of light?

A) Lack of directionality
B) Lack of coherence
C) Lack of monochromaticity
D) Lack of energy density
Correct Answer: B) Lack of coherence
Explanation: The laser beam differs from the output of conventional sources of light by having
spatial and temporal coherence.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of laser light?

A) Monochromaticity
B) Directionality
C) Incoherence
D) High energy density
Correct Answer: C) Incoherence
Explanation: Laser light is characterized by monochromaticity, directionality, and high energy
density. It is coherent, not incoherent.
What is necessary to achieve laser action?

A) Spontaneous emission
B) Population inversion
C) Absorption of light
D) Atomic excitation
Correct Answer: B) Population inversion
Explanation: Laser action requires population inversion, where more atoms are in the excited
state than in the ground state.
What is the primary principle behind the operation of a laser?

A) Spontaneous emission
B) Stimulated emission
C) Absorption of light
D) Atomic excitation
Correct Answer: B) Stimulated emission
Explanation: The primary principle behind the operation of a laser is stimulated emission.
What is the function of the resonator in a laser system?

A) To pump energy into the medium

B) To control losses experienced by the cavity
C) To create population inversion
D) To produce coherence in the emitted light
Correct Answer: B) To control losses experienced by the cavity
Explanation: The resonator provides the means to control the laser by adjusting the losses
experienced by the cavity.
Which class of gain media includes gas, liquid, and solid materials?

A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Solid
D) Semiconductor
Correct Answer: C) Solid
Explanation: Gas, liquid, and solid materials are all types of gain media used in lasers.
What determines whether a laser is pulsed or continuous?

A) The gain medium

B) The pumping mechanism
C) The resonator design
D) The wavelength
Correct Answer: B) The pumping mechanism
Explanation: The pumping mechanism largely determines whether a laser is pulsed or
continuous.
What term is used to describe the transverse waves sustained within a laser cavity?

A) TEMij modes
B) Axial modes
C) Resonant modes
D) Excited modes
Correct Answer: A) TEMij modes
Explanation: Transverse waves sustained within a laser cavity are known as TEMij modes,
where the subscripts represent the number of transverse nodal lines.
What process can be deliberately employed to delay oscillation within a laser cavity?

A) Q-switching
B) Population inversion
C) Resonator design
D) Stimulated emission
Correct Answer: A) Q-switching
Explanation: Q-switching is a process that can be deliberately employed to delay oscillation
within a laser cavity.
What is the primary characteristic of laser light that distinguishes it from conventional sources of
light?

A) Monochromaticity
B) Directionality
C) High density energy
D) Spatial coherence
Answer: A) Monochromaticity
Explanation: Laser light is characterized by being monochromatic, meaning it consists of a
single pure wavelength.
What is the active medium typically used in a ruby laser?

A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Solid
D) Semiconductor
Answer: C) Solid
Explanation: The active medium in a ruby laser is a ruby crystal, which is a solid material.
Why is the ruby laser usually operated in short bursts or pulses?

A) To increase the overall energy output

B) To prevent heating and physical damage to the crystal
C) To improve the coherence of the laser beam
D) To enhance the directionality of the laser beam
Answer: B) To prevent heating and physical damage to the crystal
Explanation: Continuous wave operation of the ruby laser can lead to heating up of the crystal,
causing physical damage.
What is the wavelength of emission for a ruby laser?

A) 490 nm
B) 630 nm
C) 694 nm
D) 10600 nm
Answer: C) 694 nm
Explanation: The wavelength of emission for a ruby laser is approximately 694 nm, which lies in
the red region of the spectrum.
How does the Nd:YAG laser differ from the ruby laser in terms of population inversion?

A) Nd:YAG laser requires higher energy pumping

B) Nd:YAG laser achieves population inversion relative to an excited state
C) Nd:YAG laser operates at a lower wavelength
D) Nd:YAG laser is less efficient in generating coherent light
Answer: B) Nd:YAG laser achieves population inversion relative to an excited state
Explanation: Nd:YAG laser achieves population inversion with respect to another excited state,
making it easier to achieve than in the ruby laser.
What is the primary advantage of the Nd:YAG laser in biomedical applications?

A) Narrow bandwidth
B) Low power consumption
C) High output energies
D) Continuous wave operation
Answer: C) High output energies
Explanation: Nd:YAG lasers are known for their high output energies, making them suitable for
various biomedical applications.
How is the helium-neon laser typically pumped?

A) By electrical discharge in the gas

B) By optical pumping
C) By electron pumping
D) By radio frequency excitation
Answer: A) By electrical discharge in the gas
Explanation: Helium-neon lasers are typically pumped by an electrical discharge in the gas,
which excites the atoms to produce laser emission.
What is a characteristic feature of the helium-neon laser compared to the ruby laser?

A) Higher power output

B) Continuous operation
C) Narrower linewidth
D) Shorter wavelength
Answer: B) Continuous operation
Explanation: Helium-neon lasers are capable of continuous operation, unlike the pulsed
operation of the ruby laser.
What is the primary application of the argon laser in ophthalmology?

A) Retinal detachment treatment

B) Interstitial photo-coagulation
C) Scanning laser ophthalmoscopy
D) Control of gastric haemorrhage
Answer: A) Retinal detachment treatment
Explanation: Argon lasers are commonly used for photo-coagulation in the treatment of retinal
detachment.
How does the argon laser achieve photo-coagulation in ophthalmology?

A) By emitting ultraviolet radiation

B) By producing high-energy pulses
C) By absorption of laser light by blood vessels
D) By transmitting laser light through clear fluids
Answer: C) By absorption of laser light by blood vessels
Explanation: The argon laser achieves photo-coagulation by the absorption of its light by blood
vessels, leading to thermal coagulation.
What is a limitation of the endoscopic photo-coagulator system using the argon laser?

A) Difficulty in controlling severe bleeding

B) High power consumption
C) Incompatibility with flexible endoscopes
D) Limited tissue penetration
Answer: A) Difficulty in controlling severe bleeding
Explanation: One limitation of the system is the difficulty in controlling severe bleeding, as it is
more effective for low to moderate bleeding ulcers.
How does the argon laser compare to xenon arc light sources in terms of tissue coagulation?

A) Argon laser requires less power for comparable coagulation

B) Argon laser produces less overall heating in the globe
C) Argon laser can achieve deeper tissue penetration
D) Argon laser has broader spectral lines
Answer: A) Argon laser requires less power for comparable coagulation
Explanation: The argon laser can achieve comparable tissue coagulation with less power than
xenon arc light sources.
What is the advantage of using a quartz fibre waveguide in laser endoscopy?

A) Higher power transmission

B) Greater tissue penetration
C) Enhanced flexibility
D) Reduced scattering
Answer: C) Enhanced flexibility
Explanation: Quartz fibre waveguides offer enhanced flexibility, allowing for easier navigation
through the biopsy channel of an endoscope.
Why is it necessary to cool the plasma tube in an argon ion laser system?

A) To improve coherence of the laser beam

B) To reduce cathode erosion
C) To increase laser output power
D) To prevent damage to the laser crystal
Answer: B) To reduce cathode erosion

Why is laser light significantly more effective and potentially dangerous compared to
conventional light sources of the same power?

A) Laser light is non-collimated

B) Laser light is non-coherent
C) Laser light has higher power density
D) Laser light has lower irradiance
Answer: C) Laser light has higher power density
Explanation: Laser light is coherent and collimated, resulting in higher power density at the
target, making it more effective and potentially dangerous.

What is a potential danger associated with laser light in surgical applications?

A) Loss of power with distance

B) Induction of anaesthesia
C) Ignition of flammable gases
D) Reduction in power density
Answer: C) Ignition of flammable gases
Explanation: Laser light can ignite flammable gases, posing a risk in surgical environments
where anaesthetic gases are used

6.3
What is the advantage of using high frequency energy in thermotherapy?

A) High frequency energy causes less discomfort

B) High frequency energy provides deeper tissue penetration
C) High frequency energy stimulates motor nerves
D) High frequency energy produces skin burns
Answer: B) High frequency energy provides deeper tissue penetration
Explanation: High frequency energy allows for deeper tissue penetration compared to simple
heat application, making it advantageous in thermotherapy.
How does diathermy differ from externally applied sources of heat?

A) Diathermy produces discomfort and skin burns

B) Diathermy transfers heat through the skin
C) Diathermy involves direct heating within the body tissues
D) Diathermy uses infrared lamps for heating
Answer: C) Diathermy involves direct heating within the body tissues
Explanation: Diathermy produces heat directly within the body tissues, unlike externally applied
sources of heat which transfer heat through the skin.
What is the typical frequency of the alternating current used in short-wave diathermy?

A) 60 Hz
B) 27.12 MHz
C) 2 kHz
D) 100 Hz
Answer: B) 27.12 MHz
Explanation: Short-wave diathermy typically uses alternating current with a frequency of 27.12
MHz.
How is the heating of tissues accomplished in short-wave diathermy?

A) By infrared radiation
B) By direct contact with hot surfaces
C) By high frequency alternating current
D) By microwave radiation
Answer: C) By high frequency alternating current
Explanation: Tissues are heated in short-wave diathermy by the application of high frequency
alternating current.
What is the purpose of the resonator circuit in a short-wave diathermy machine?

A) To generate high frequency oscillations

B) To regulate the intensity of current
C) To provide thermal delay
D) To monitor and adjust tuning
Answer: D) To monitor and adjust tuning
Explanation: The resonator circuit in a short-wave diathermy machine is used to monitor and
adjust tuning to ensure maximum energy delivery to the patient.
What technique is used to localize heat to specific regions during diathermy treatment?

A) Capacitor plate method

B) Inductive heating
C) Thermal delay
D) Automatic tuning
Answer: A) Capacitor plate method
Explanation: The capacitor plate method is used to localize heat to specific regions during
diathermy treatment by placing metal electrodes on the body over the region to be treated.
How is tuning adjustment managed during short-wave diathermy treatment?

A) Manually adjusted by the operator

B) Automatically adjusted by a servo-motor
C) Controlled by the patient's movement
D) Not adjusted during treatment
Answer: B) Automatically adjusted by a servo-motor
Explanation: Tuning adjustment during short-wave diathermy treatment is automatically
managed by a servo-motor, which adjusts the tuning capacitor to maintain resonance.
Which method of short-wave diathermy application uses coiled cables wrapped around the
patient's body?

A) Capacitor plate method

B) Inductive heating
C) Contraplanar technique
D) Coplanar technique
Answer: B) Inductive heating
Explanation: Inductive heating in short-wave diathermy involves coiled cables wrapped around
the patient's body to generate electrostatic and magnetic fields for tissue heating.
What controls the intensity of treatment in short-wave diathermy machines?

A) Sensation of warmth felt by the patient

B) Position of the resonator coil
C) Anode voltage
D) Filament heating current
Answer: A) Sensation of warmth felt by the patient
Explanation: The intensity of treatment in short-wave diathermy machines is typically controlled
by the subjective sensation of warmth felt by the patient.
Which component prevents the passage of current through the anode circuit until the filament
attains adequate temperature?

A) Oscillating circuit
B) Patient circuit
C) Thermal delay
D) Mains filter
Answer: C) Thermal delay
Explanation: The thermal delay component prevents the passage of current through the anode
circuit until the filament of the valve attains adequate temperature.

What is the most commonly used microwave frequency for therapeutic heating?

A) 100 MHz
B) 500 MHz
C) 2450 MHz
D) 10 GHz
Answer: C) 2450 MHz
Explanation: The most commonly used microwave frequency for therapeutic heating is 2450
MHz.

How are microwaves transmitted to the patient's body in microwave diathermy?

A) Through direct contact with metal electrodes

B) Through a coupling medium
C) Through a cable wrapped around the body
D) Through infrared lamps
Answer: B) Through a coupling medium
Explanation: Microwaves are transmitted to the patient's body in microwave diathermy through a
coupling medium, allowing them to be directed towards the portion of the body to be treated.

What is the effective depth of microwave penetration into tissues?

A) 1 cm
B) 3 cm
C) 10 cm
D) 5 cm
Answer: B) 3 cm
Explanation: The effective depth of microwave penetration into tissues is about 3 cm.
How are microwaves produced for therapeutic heating?

A) By a piezo-electric crystal
B) By a resonator system
C) By a magnetron
D) By a power amplifier
Answer: C) By a magnetron
Explanation: Microwaves for therapeutic heating are produced by a device called a magnetron,
which generates high frequency currents of high power.
What is the typical efficiency range of a magnetron?

A) 80-90%
B) 60-80%
C) 40-60%
D) 20-40%
Answer: C) 40-60%
Explanation: The typical efficiency of a magnetron is usually in the range of 40 to 60%.
How is dosage controlled in ultrasonic therapy?

A) By varying the frequency of ultrasound

B) By adjusting the length of the cable connecting the transducer
C) By changing the intensity of ultrasound
D) By modifying the duration of the exposure
Answer: D) By modifying the duration of the exposure
Explanation: Dosage in ultrasonic therapy is controlled by modifying the duration of the
exposure among other variables like frequency and intensity.
What is the most widely adopted frequency range for ultrasonic therapy?

A) 3-5 MHz
B) 1-2 MHz
C) 5-7 MHz
D) 2-3 MHz
Answer: B) 1-2 MHz
Explanation: The most widely adopted frequency range for ultrasonic therapy is approximately
1-2 MHz.
What is the primary therapeutic effect of ultrasound?

A) Direct mechanical effect

B) Thermal effect
C) Electrical effect
D) Chemical effect
Answer: A) Direct mechanical effect
Explanation: The primary therapeutic effect of ultrasound is the direct mechanical effect, often
referred to as micro-massage.
How is ultrasonic energy emitted from the transducer in ultrasonic therapy?

A) Through metal electrodes

B) Through a coupling medium
C) Through direct contact with the body
D) Through infrared radiation
Answer: B) Through a coupling medium
Explanation: Ultrasonic energy is emitted from the transducer in ultrasonic therapy through a
coupling medium, allowing it to pass into the body tissues.
In which mode of ultrasonic operation is the predominant effect not the heating effect?

A) Continuous mode
B) Pulsed mode
C) Mains frequency modulated mode
D) Amplitude modulated mode
Answer: B) Pulsed mode
Explanation: In pulsed mode operation of ultrasonic therapy, the predominant effect of
ultrasound is not the heating effect but the direct mechanical effect (micro-massage).
Why is a water bath sometimes used during ultrasonic therapy?

A) To increase the intensity of ultrasound

B) To reduce the frequency of ultrasound
C) To avoid mechanical contact with tissues
D) To increase the depth of penetration of ultrasound
Answer: C) To avoid mechanical contact with tissues
Explanation: A water bath is sometimes used during ultrasonic therapy to avoid mechanical
contact with tissues, especially if there is a wound or an uneven part such as joints.
What is the typical range of ultrasonic intensity used in therapy?

A) 5-10 W/cm2
B) 3-6 W/cm2
C) 0.5-3 W/cm2
D) 1-4 W/cm2
Answer: C) 0.5-3 W/cm2
Explanation: The typical range of ultrasonic intensity used in therapy is usually between 0.5 and
3 W/cm2.
What determines the therapeutic efficiency of ultrasonic therapy?

A) The frequency of ultrasound

B) The length of exposure
C) The intensity of ultrasound
D) The correct ultrasonic intensity and duration for a given indication
Answer: D) The correct ultrasonic intensity and duration for a given indication
Explanation: The therapeutic efficiency of ultrasonic therapy depends on determining the correct
ultrasonic intensity and duration for a given indication, among other factors.

What is the minimum intensity of current required to produce a response if the stimulus is of
infinite duration?
a) Rheobase
b) Chronaxie
c) Accommodation
d) Faradic current
Answer: a) Rheobase
Explanation: Rheobase is the minimum intensity of current that will produce a response if the
stimulus is of infinite duration.

Which theory suggests that electrical impulses stimulate the production of natural, morphine-like
substances in the body to block pain messages from reaching the brain?
a) Gate Control Theory
b) Endorphin Release Theory
c) Faradic Theory
d) Galvanic Theory
Answer: b) Endorphin Release Theory
Explanation: The Endorphin Release Theory suggests that electrical impulses stimulate the
production of endorphin and enkaphalins in the body, blocking pain messages from reaching the
brain.

Which waveform is optimally and equally effective in relieving pain according to investigations
mentioned in the text?
a) Sinusoidal waveform
b) Triangular waveform
c) Square waveform
d) Exponential waveform
Answer: c) Square waveform
Explanation: Investigations mentioned in the text indicate that square waveforms are optimally
and equally effective in relieving pain.

What is the main advantage of exponentially progressive current for the treatment of severe
paralysis?
a) It reduces muscle fatigue
b) It provides selective stimulation for the paralyzed muscles
c) It produces chemical effects in the tissue
d) It generates a tingling or massaging sensation
Answer: b) It provides selective stimulation for the paralyzed muscles
Explanation: The main advantage of exponentially progressive current is its ability to provide
selective stimulation for the paralyzed muscles without stimulating the surrounding healthy
tissues.

What is the term used for the technique of introducing drugs into the body through the skin by
electrolytic means?
a) Iontophoresis
b) Electroporation
c) Galvanization
d) Electrolysis
Answer: a) Iontophoresis
Explanation: Iontophoresis is the technique of introducing drugs into the body through the skin
by electrolytic means.

What is the term used for the surgical placement of electrodes close to the spinal cord for the
relief of pain?
a) Electroacupuncture
b) Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)
c) Spinal Cord Stimulation
d) Magnetic Stimulation
Answer: c) Spinal Cord Stimulation
Explanation: Spinal cord stimulation refers to the surgical placement of electrodes close to the
spinal cord for the relief of pain.

What is the range of frequencies for stimulation pulses in spinal cord stimulation devices?
a) 1 to 100 Hz
b) 10 to 1500 Hz
c) 100 to 1000 Hz
d) 500 to 2000 Hz
Answer: b) 10 to 1500 Hz
Explanation: Stimulation pulses in spinal cord stimulation devices typically have frequencies
ranging from 10 to 1500 Hz.

Which theory suggests that by electrically stimulating sensory nerve receptors, a gate
mechanism is closed in a segment of the spinal cord, preventing pain-carrying messages from
reaching the brain?
a) Endorphin Release Theory
b) Faradic Theory
c) Gate Control Theory
d) Rheobase Theory
Answer: c) Gate Control Theory
Explanation: Gate Control Theory suggests that by electrically stimulating sensory nerve
receptors, a gate mechanism is closed in a segment of the spinal cord, preventing pain-carrying
messages from reaching the brain.

Which type of electrode material is commonly used for TENS electrodes to provide
conductance?
a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Silver
d) Carbon-loaded silicon rubber
Answer: d) Carbon-loaded silicon rubber
Explanation: TENS electrodes are commonly made from carbon-loaded silicon rubber to provide
conductance.

What is the duration of each burst of pulses in the treatment of idiopathic scoliosis using
electrical stimulation?
a) 1 second
b) 5 seconds
c) 10 seconds
d) 1.6 seconds
Answer: d) 1.6 seconds
Explanation: Each burst of pulses in the treatment of idiopathic scoliosis using electrical
stimulation lasts for 1.6 seconds.

What type of waveform is generated by passing a brief, high-current pulse through a coil of wire
in magnetic stimulation?
a) Square waveform
b) Triangular waveform
c) Sinusoidal waveform
d) Exponential waveform
Answer: a) Square waveform
Explanation: Magnetic stimulation generates a square waveform by passing a brief, high-current
pulse through a coil of wire.

Which parameter can be controlled in modern spinal cord stimulation devices?

a) Voltage only
b) Frequency only
c) Amplitude only
d) Frequency, pulse width, and amplitude
Answer: d) Frequency, pulse width, and amplitude
Explanation: Modern spinal cord stimulation devices allow for the modification of frequency,
pulse width, and amplitude.

What is the primary effect of galvanic current on tissue?

a) Mechanical
b) Chemical
c) Thermal
d) Electrical
Answer: b) Chemical
Explanation: The primary effect of galvanic current on tissue is chemical, causing the movement
of ions and their collection at the skin areas beneath the electrodes.

What is the main field of application of faradic surge current?

a) Treatment of paralysis
b) Treatment of pain
c) Treatment of functional paralysis
d) Treatment of disuse atrophy
Answer: c) Treatment of functional paralysis
Explanation: The main field of application of faradic surge current is in the treatment of
functional paralysis.

Which technique is described as providing continuous, mild electrical stimulation to block pain
signals?
a) Magnetic Stimulation
b) Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)
c) Spinal Cord Stimulation
d) Galvanic Stimulation
Answer: b) Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS)
Explanation: Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) provides continuous, mild
electrical stimulation to block pain signals.

What is the duration of each pulse in a typical spinal cord stimulation device?
a) 100 to 600 ms
b) 1 to 10 ms
c) 10 to 100 ms
d) 1 to 100 μs
Answer: d) 1 to 100 μs
Explanation: Each pulse in a typical spinal cord stimulation device has a duration ranging from 1
to 100 μs.

6.5 Anesthesia machine, Ventilators and Infusion pumps

Anesthesia machine

1. What mixture of gases are used in anesthesia?

a) O2 and N2O
b) O2 and CO2
c) CO2 and N2O
d) O2 , CO2 and N2O

2. The oxygen flush system provides a higher flow of oxygen of ________ L/min when the
patient’s need for oxygen is greater than the amount the breathing circuit can provide.
a) 25-50
b) 35-75
c) 55-95
d) 65-105

3. One of the methods to measure changes in the levels of consciousness during

anesthesia is ________
a) Auditory Evoked Potential
b) Visual Evoked Potential
c) Tactile Evoked Potential
d) Speech Evoked Potential

4. AEP stands for ________

a) Auditory Evoked Potential
b) Auxiliary Evoked Potential
c) Audiovisual Evoked Potential
d) Ambulatory Evoked Potential
5. What causes the pre-selected volume of air to flow into the patient by communicating
directly with a breathing circuit?
a) Nebulizer
b) Microcontroller
c) Bellows
d) Humidifier

6. What is the function of a nebulizer?

a) To supply moisture in the form of droplets
b) To maintain temperature
c) To maintain the gas levels of individual gases
d) To check the safety of valves

7. What is one of the crucial reasons for lung compliance to fall?

a) Wet gases
b) Dry gases
c) High temperature gases
d) Low temperature gases

8. _______ is the most commonly used material for vaporizer.

a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) copper
d) Brass

9. The gas pressure supplied by the hospital is maintained at the wall outlet at______
kPa.
a) 275-345
b) 245-325
c) 266-376
d) 225-315

10. Which of the following is known as laughing gas?

a) CO2
b) N2O
c) NO2
d) B2O
Ventilators

1. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a
structure.
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation

2. For comfortable working, the ___________ content should be limited to

about 0.6% by volume.
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Carbon dioxide

3. The difference of temperature between the outside air and inside air tends to
the deposition of moisture in the room surfaces known as ___________
a) Ventilation
b) Diffusion
c) Condensation
d) Dissipation

4. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause

proper ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
c) Temperature
d) Moisture

5. The rate of amount of water vapour present to the amount it would have
contained, had it been saturated, is known as the ___________ the temperature
being same.
a) Relative humidity
b) Saturated air
c) Dry bulb temperature
d) Wet bulb temperature

6. For working a temperature of 21 degree Celsius, range of 30% to 70% of

____________ is desirable.
a) Saturated air
b) Dry bulb temperature
c) Relative humidity
d) Wet bulb temperature
7. The ________________ plays an important role in the comfort of persons
affected by ventilation system.
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Purity of air
c) Volume of room
d) Health of occupant

8. It is quite evident that the incoming air for ventilation should be ________ in
summer and ________ in winter before it enters the room.
a) cool, warm
b) warm, cool
c) humid, dry
d) dry, humid

9. __________________ is an index which combines the effect of air

movement, humidity and temperature.
a) Saturated air
b) Effective humidity
c) Dry bulb temperature
d) Effective temperature

10. The value of ______________ depends on type of activity, geographical

conditions, age of occupants, etc.
a) Saturated air
b) Relative humidity
c) Effective temperature
d) Condensation

11. In ______________ system, the use is made of doors, windows, ventilators

and skylights to make the room properly ventilated.
a) Artificial ventilation
b) Air conditioning
c) Natural ventilation
d) Mechanical ventilation

12. In _____________ system, some mechanical arrangement is adopted to

provide enough ventilation to the room.
a) Natural ventilation
b) Skylight
c) Artificial ventilation
d) Man made

13. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under
________ type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man made
d) Doors
 14. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room
by exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust

15. _______________ system is just the reverse of the exhaust system.

a) Air conditioning
b) Exhaust
c) Plenum
d) Supply

Infusion Pumps

1. Cannula acts like an access point for _________

a) catheters
b) syringe
c) scalpel
d) mes

2. Long periods of cannulization can lead to ___________

a) Inflammation in the area
b) Heart Diseases
c) Increase in uric acid
d) Death

3. How is monitoring done for stomach wash?

a) Air insufflation while listening to the stomach
b) Auscultation
c) Patting the stomach
d) Ultrasound

4. Which gas is used for insufflation in surgical processes?

a) Carbon Di Oxide
b) Helium
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen

5. What is the difference between the infusion pump and syringe pump?
a) Syringe Pumps are used when a larger amount of medication has to be sent in while
infusion pumps are used for smaller doses of medication
 b) Infusion pump injects into the abdomen and syringe pump injects in the blood vessels
c) Infusion Pumps are used when a larger amount of medication has to be sent in while
syringe pumps are used for smaller doses of medication
d) Syringe pump injects into the abdomen and infusion pump injects in the blood vessels

6. What are feeding tubes made of?

a) Bakelite
b) Polyurethane
c) Polyvinyl Chloride
d) Poly ethane

6.4 Hemodialysis Machine

Q1. Which of the following mineral should be consumed in limited
quantities by those undertaking Dialysis is:

a. Mo

b. Fe

c. Zn

d. K

Q2. Aside from conventional use, Dialysis may also use in the scenarios
of

a) Blood Transfusions

b) Acute Poisoning

c) Extreme Fever

d) None of these
 Q3. Which of the following can be the side effect of the
Haemodialysis?

a) Nausea

b) Cramps

c) Weakness

d) All of the above

Q4. Which of the following is the access for the treatment that is used in the
Peritoneal Dialysis?

a) Graft

b) Catheter

c) Dialysis Machine

d) Fistula

Q5. How many types of dialysis are there?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 6

d) 4

Q6. Which of the following is the main principle of Dialysis?

a) Capillary action

b) Reverse – Osmosis

c) Adhesion

d) None of the above

Q7. The Immunosuppressant drugs can be consumed with

1. Major Viruses

2. Kidney Transplant

3. Peritoneal Dialysis

4. None of the above

Q8. The area near the gut according to the kidney dialysis is termed as

1. Renal Cavity

2. Vertebral Cavity

3. Peritoneal Cavity

4. None of these

Q9. What is the composition of the membrane that is used in Dialysis?

a) Polyvinyl Chloride

b) Polyethylene

c) Cellulose

d) None of the above

Q10. Which of the following parts work as a kidney in Dialysis?

a) Haemolyser

b) Nephrolyser

c) Dialyser

d) None of these

Q11. Which of the following is the correct definition for the Dialysis?
a) The Stomach is Implanted.

b) The Waste materials are removed.

c) Substituent of the liver enzymes.

d) None of the above

Q12. Which type of Dialysis can be performed at home?

a) Haemodialysis

b) Peritoneal Dialysis

c) Perfusion

d) None of these

1. Dialysis commonly refers to ___________

a) heamo dialysis
b) chemo dialysis
c) liver dialysis
d) pancreatic dialysis

2. The latest form of dialysis machine being used has what kind of membrane
arrangements
a) Parallel Plate
b) Hollow Fibre
c) Coil Tube
d) Hollow Plate

3. Dialysis can also be used in situations of _________

a) extreme fever
b) acute poisoning
c) low blood pressure
d) blood transfusions
4. How does the doctor diagnose dialysis?
a) GFR via Blood Test
b) Number of WBCs in Blood Test
c) Presence of blood in urine
d) Low urine quantity

5. When a subclavian vein or a femoral vein is used for dialysis, what kind of
incision/insertion is made?
a) Catheter
b) Shunt
c) Graft
d) Fistula