17-08-2025

1001CTM404016250010 TM

Physics

1) For vector and making an angle θ which one of the following relations is correct :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) If the vectors and are perpendicular to each other then the positive
value of a is :-

(1) zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

3) Angle between and is θ. What is the value of ?

(1) P2Q cos θ

(2) Zero
(3) P2Q sin θ cos θ
(4) P2Q sin θ

4) If , then select the wrong statement from the following :-

(1) ⊥
(2) ⊥ (2 + )
(3)
(4)

5) If three vectors satisfy the relation and , the can be parallel to vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) When , then :
(1) and are perpendicular to each other
(2) and act in the same direction
(3) and act in the opposite direction
(4) and can act in any direction

7) Find unit vector perpendicular to the plane of and

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which is true :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) The magnitude of the vector product of two vectors A and B may not be :

(1) greater than AB

(2) equal to AB
(3) less than AB
(4) equal to zero

10) If then find out the correct one :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

11) If the magnitude of two vectors are 8 unit and 5 units. If one is force and another is displacement
and their scalar product is zero, the angle between force and displacement vector is.

(1) zero
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°
12) The area of a parallelogram whose sides are and is :-

(1) 5 square units

(2) 10 square units
(3) 20 square units
(4) 2.5 square units

13) Two vectors and are perpendicular to each other. The value of 'P'
is :-

(1) 10
(2) –10
(3) –2
(4) 2

14) Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are and will be :

(1) 14 Unit
(2) Unit
(3) Unit
(4) Unit

15) If and . Then find work done .

(1) 0
(2)
(3) 4
(4) 5

16) If , then angle between is:

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

17) The magnitude of scalar product of two vectors is 8 and that of vector product is The angle
between them is

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 150°
18) If find angle between –

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 45º
(4) 90º

19) If and in the figure. Find

(1) 12
(2) 0
(3) 3
(4)

20) If the vectors and form two sides of a triangle, then area of the triangle is:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A vector points towards north while points vertically upwards then the direction
of will be :

(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) South

22) Find the angle between and ?

(1)

(2)

(3) θ = tan–1 (2)

(4)
23) A particle moves in three spells. In the first, second and the third spell displacement vector of

the particle are , , respectively. If the particle

always remains in a plane, value of y is -

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 7

24)

Two vectors and

are :-

(1) Parallel
(2) Perpendicular
(3) Anti-parallel
(4) None of these

25) The modulus of the vector product of two vectors is times their scalar product. the angle
between vectors is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) If for two vectors and , = 0, the vectors :-

(1) are perpendicular to each other

(2) are parallel to each other
(3) act at an angle of 60°
(4) act at an angle of 30°

27) Given and . Which of the following is correct ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) and are anti parallel

28) A vector which is perpendicular to is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All of these

29) The angle between vector and is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 0°
(4) 60°

30) If , then may be :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

Chemistry

1) Mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution is 0.2. The molality of the solution will be :

(1) 13.88
(2) 1.388
(3) 0.138
(4) 0.0138

2) What will be the molality of a solution having 18 g glucose dissolved in 500 g of water :-

(1) 1 m
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 0.2 m

3) Calculate normality of NH4OH when 2g is present in 800ml of solution.

(1) 0.7
(2) 7
(3) 0.07
(4) None of these

4) Molarity of H2SO4 is 18 M. Its density is 1.8 g/cm3, hence molality is :

(1) 18
(2) 100
(3) 36
(4) 500

5) Calculate the no. of Hydrogen ions present in 500 mL of 0.001 M H2SO4 solution ?

(1) 6.02 × 1020

(2) 3.01 × 1020
(3) 3.01 × 1017
(4) 6.02 × 1017

6) Which among the following concentration term depends on temperature?

(1) Mole fraction

(2) Molarity
(3) Molality
(4) Mass percentage

7) 0.1 mol NaOH is dissolved in 10 L of solution, its molarity is :-

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.01 M
(3) 10 M
(4) 0.2 M

8) If 2 moles of A is present in 3 moles of B. Then calculate the mole fraction of A :-

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.7

9) Number of urea molecules present in 10 mL of it's 0.1 M solution is :- (Molar mass of urea = 60 g)

(1) 6.022 × 1023

(2) 6.022 × 1022
(3) 6.022 × 1021
(4) 6.022 × 1020

10) How many moles of solute are there in 500 mL of its 0.1 M aqueous solution ? :-
(1) 0.5 mol
(2) 0.05 mol
(3) 5 mol
(4) 0.2 mol

11) Determine the empirical formula of kelvar used in making bullet proof vest whose percentage
composition by mass is 70.6 % C, 4.2 % H, 11.8 % N and 13.4 % O.

(1) C7H5NO2
(2) C7H5N2O
(3) C7H9NO
(4) C7H5NO

12) A hydrocarbon contains 80% C. The vapour density of compound is 15. Molecular formula of
compound is:-

(1) CH3
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H12
(4) All of these

13) In a compound C, H, N atoms are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 ratio by mass. Molecular mass of
compound is 108. Its molecular formula is :-

(1) C2H6N2
(2) C3H4N
(3) C6H8N2
(4) C8H12N2

14) The number of atoms of C and H are 3.6 × 1011 and 14.4×1011 respectively. It's empirical formula
is:

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) CH4
(4) C2H2

15) On reduction with hydrogen, 3.6 g of an oxide of metal left 3.2 g of metal. If the vapour density
of metal is 32. The simples formula of oxide would be :-

(1) MO
(2) M2O3
(3) M2O
(4) M2O5
16)

A compound containg elements X and Y in 1 : 4 mass ratio, if the atomic masses of X and Y are also
same as their mass ratio, the empirical formula of compound should be :-

(1) XY4
(2) XY2
(3) XY
(4) X4Y

17) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its emperial formula is -

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

18) An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives C,
38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CHO
(2) CH4O
(3) CH3O
(4) CH2O

19) A metal oxide has 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the metal is :

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 48

20) The equivalent weight of a metal is double than of oxygen. How many times is the equivalent
weight of it's oxide than the equivalent weight of the metal?

(1) 1.5
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Equivalent weight of H2SO4 is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) Equivalent weight of bivalent metal is 32.7. Molecular weight of its chloride is :–

(1) 68.2
(2) 103.7
(3) 136.4
(4) 166.3

23) 74.5 g of a metallic chloride contains 35.5 g of chlorine. The equivalent mass of metal is :-

(1) 19.5
(2) 35.5
(3) 39
(4) 74.5

24) What is equivalent mass of H3PO3?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The vapour density of chloride of element is 39.5. The equivalent weight of the elements is 3.82.
The atomic weight of the element is :-

(1) 15.28
(2) 7.64
(3) 3.82
(4) 11.46

26) Equivalent weights of X2Y and X2Y3 are 38 and 18 respectively. Find the atomic masses of X and
Y :-

(1) 30, 8
(2) 30, 16
(3) 10, 16
(4) 16, 10

27) 2g of a base whose equivalent weight is 40 reacts with 3 g of an acid. The equivalent weight of
the acid is :
(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 10
(4) 80

28)

Number of HCl molecules present in 10 mL of 0.1 M solution is/are :

(1) 6.022 × 1023

(2) 6.023 × 1022
(3) 6.022 × 1021
(4) 6.022 × 1020

29) What volume of 6M NaOH should be mixed with 1500 ml of 2M NaOH to get two litres of 3M
NaOH ?

(1) 500 ml
(2) 1000 ml
(3) 250 ml
(4) 750 ml

30) 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100mL solution. The molarity is :-

(1) 0.1M
(2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.02 M
(4) 0.0001 M

Biology

1) Arrange the following events of meiosis in ascending order of their occurence & select the
correct option from given below options :
A. Disjunction of homologous chromosomes
B. Centromere division
C. Terminalization of chiasmata
D. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
E. Formation of bivalent
F. Activity of recombinase enzyme
Options :-

(1) E → F → D → C → B → A
(2) E → F → D → C → A → B
(3) F → E → B → C → A → B
(4) F → E → B → C → B → A
2) M phase start with __A__ and usually ends with __B__. Identify A and B :

A B

(1) Cytokinesis Karyokinesis

(2) Karyokinesis Cytokinesis

(3) Karyokinesis DNA replication

(4) Interphase Karyokinesis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) How many events in the list given below occurs in M-phase of meiosis-I?
Replication of DNA, synapsis, bivalent formation, crossing over, terminalization of chiasmata, tubulin
protein synthesis, centriole duplication, seperation of homologous chromosomes, nuclear membrane
disappear, nucleolus disappear

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

4) Which of the following graph correctly represents DNA content (2C) and chromosome number
(2n) of a diploid cell undergoing different stages of cell cycle ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres

(1) Metaphase I
(2) Metaphase II
(3) Anaphase II
(4) Anaphase I

6)

Number of chromatids at metaphase are in each chromosome :

(1) Two each in mitosis and meiosis

(2) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(3) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(4) One in mitosis and two in meiosis

7)

A bivalent consists of :

(1) Two chromatids and one centromere

(2) Two chromatids and four centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres

8)

The correct statement for significance of mitosis is

(1) Equal distribution of chromosomes

(2) Restoration of surface volume ratio
(3) Maintenance of nucleoplasmic index
(4) All above

9)

Which of the following structure(s) is/are not reformed during telophase stage ?

(1) Nucleolus, ER
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Chromosomes

10)

The cell cycle is regulated by a group of special proteins known as :

(1) Enzymes
(2) Hormones
(3) Cyclins and Cdks (MPF)
(4) Antibodies

11)

First chromosome duplication take place in which stage of cell cycle :

(1) Anaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Synthesis phase
(4) Metaphase

12)

In which sub-stage of prophase-I do homologous chromosomes begin to separate but remain

attached at chiasmata and oocytes in some vertebrates can remain arrested for extended periods?

(1) Lepotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

13)

Recombinase activity is seen during :

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Metaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) Telophase-I
14)

If the number of bivalents in a cell undergoing meiosis is 16 then after completion of meiosis the
number of chromosome in each daughter cell is

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 64

15) Label the structure indicated by lines (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).

(1) (i) Chromatid, (ii) Centriole, (iii) Centromere, (iv) Chromosome

(2) (i) Chromosome, (ii) Centriole, (iii) Centromere, (iv) Chromatid
(3) (i) Chromatid, (ii) Centromere, (iii) Centriole, (iv) Chromosome
(4) (i) Chromosome, (ii) Centromere, (iii) Centriole, (iv) Chromatid

16) In plant cell, cytokinesis is -

(1) From centre towards periphery and called centripetal.

(2) From centre towards periphery and called centrifugal.
(3) From periphery towards centre & called centripetal.
(4) From periphery towards centre & called centrifugal.

17) Assertion : Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half, results in the production of
haploid daughter cells from a diploid mother cell.
Reason : Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Which among the following statement is/are INCORRECT regarding cell division?
i. In animal cell the Cytokinesis occur in centripetal order while in plant cell it occurs centrifugally.
ii. Replication of DNA takes place in S-phase of prophase.
iii. Quiescent stage or G0 stage is an inactive stage after G2 phase.
iv. In higher plants mitosis is anastral while in animals it is amphiastral.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

19) At metaphase of mitosis, each chromosome consists of ______ chromatid, ______ centromere
and ______ kinetochores.

(1) 2,1,2
(2) 2,2,2
(3) 2,1,1
(4) 1,1,2

20) A somatic cell that has just completed the S-phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the
same species, has

(1) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

(2) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
(3) Four time the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
(4) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

21) Which is incorrect statement about meiosis ?

Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II
(1)
but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
Meiosis I is initiated after parental chromosomes have replicated to produce sister chromatids
(2)
at the S-phase.
(3) In meiosis-I, prophase-I is subdivided into the four phases based on chromosomonal behaviour.
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II.

22) In cell cycle, changes of which stage are not visible under microscope

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

23) Which division is characteristic of meganucleus of Paramaecium?

(1) Mitosis
(2) Meiosis
(3) Cryptomitosis
(4) Amitosis

24) The cell cycle of a somatic cell usually consists of all the following except

The first part of interphase is called as G1 phase. During this phase, there is maximum increase
(1)
in cell size and there is active synthesis of RNA and proteins.
 In synthetic phase (S-phase), the DNA molecule of each chromosomes replicates by the
(2)
synthesis of a new DNA molecule.
During G2-phase, a cell contains double the amount (4C) of DNA present in the original diploid
(3)
cell.
(4) The cell cycle consists of a short interphase and long M-phase.

25) The G0-phase of cell denotes

(1) Exit of cell from cell cycle

(2) Check point before entering the next phase
(3) Death of cell
(4) Stage of DNA replication

26) Crossing over occurs between _______ chromatids of ______ chromosomes.

(1) non-sister, homologous

(2) non-sister, non-homologous
(3) sister, homologous
(4) sister, non-homologous

27) In which phase does protein synthesis occur for the formation of spindle fibres?

(1) G1 phase
(2) G2 phase
(3) S phase
(4) M phase

28) Which of the following is unique to mitosis and not a part of meiosis?

(1) Homologous chromosomes behave independently

(2) Chromatids are separated during anaphase
(3) Homologous chromosomes pair and form bivalents
(4) Homologous chromosomes cross over

29) Identify the diagram carefully and name the phase of meiosis–

(1) Telophase - I
(2) Anaphase - I
(3) Metaphase - I
(4) Prophase - I

30) The diploid number of chromosomes is 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each
daughter cell after meiosis-I?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

31) How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 250 pollen grains in an angiosperm?

(1) 50
(2) 63
(3) 626
(4) 312

32) Read the statements carefully & select the correct option :
a. Spireme stage can be observed in prophase-I
b. Chiasmata can be observed in diplotene
c. Centromere do not splits in anaphase-II
d. Cell furrow is the method of cytokinesis in animals

(1) Only a & d are correct

(2) Only c & d are correct
(3) Only b, c & d are correct
(4) Only a, b & d are correct

33) Statement-I :- Crossing over is enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved in this
process is called recombinase.
Statement-II :- Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Both statement are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

34) Which of the following statements best explains why metaphase is considered
ideal for studying chromosome morphology?

(1) Chromosomes are loosely condensed and scattered, making them easier to differentiate.
Chromosomes are maximally condensed and aligned at the metaphase plate, making their
(2)
structure most distinct under a microscope.
(3) Nuclear envelope reforms around chromosomes, making their outlines more visible.
(4) Sister chromatids fuse to form thick chromosomal threads with visible kinetochores at the poles.
35) Match the columns –

Column – I Column – II

a G1-phase i. 4C, 2n

b S-phase ii. 2C, 2n at each pole

c Anaphase iii. 2C, 2n

(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
(4) a – i, b – iii, c – ii

36) Which one of the following set show the similar amount of DNA?

(1) G1 - phase and daughter cell of mitosis division

(2) G1 - phase and G2 - phase
(3) G2 - phase and daughter cell of mitosis division
(4) S-phase and G1 - phase

37) During which stages of mitosis and meiosis, respectively does the centromere of each
chromosome split ?

(1) Telophase , Telophase II

(2) Telophase , Telophase I
(3) Anaphase , Anaphase I
(4) Anaphase, Anaphase II

38) Which of the following best explains why a large cell is more likely to undergo division?

(1) The nucleus enlarges and can control more cytoplasm, enabling sustained growth.
The karyoplasmic index of large cells is high, enhancing nuclear control over cytoplasmic
(2)
functions.
As the cell grows, its volume increases faster than its surface area, reducing efficiency in
(3)
exchange and forcing the cell to divide.
(4) A high surface-volume ratio allows for better nutrient diffusion, triggering mitotic division.

39) The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis

characterizes:

(1) Bivalent
(2) Sites at which crossing over occurs
(3) Terminalization
(4) Synaptonemal complex

40) Match List -I with List - II.

 List -I List -I

(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized

(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase

Interval between mitotic phase and

(c) Quiescent stage (iii)
initiation of DNA replication

(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

41) Which of the following correctly describes the difference between a tetrad and a dyad during
meiosis?

A tetrad forms during metaphase II and consists of two chromatids, while a dyad appears in
(1)
metaphase I and has four chromatids.
A tetrad consists of two homologous chromosomes, each with two chromatids, while a dyad
(2)
consists of a single chromosome with two chromatids.
A dyad is formed during synapsis of homologous chromosomes, while tetrads result from the
(3)
splitting of sister chromatids.
(4) Tetrads separate during anaphase II, while dyads remain attached throughout meiosis.

42) Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between continuous and discontinuous
spindle fibres during metaphase?

Continuous fibres connect centromere to centromere, while discontinuous fibres anchor

(1)
chromosomes to the plasma membrane.
Discontinuous fibres run from pole to pole, while continuous fibres attach to kinetochores and
(2)
help elongate the nucleus.
Continuous spindle fibres extend from one pole to the other without attaching to chromosomes,
(3) while discontinuous fibres run from pole to centromere, connecting to kinetochores of
chromosomes.
Both continuous and discontinuous fibres connect the same chromatid to both poles for equal
(4)
force distribution.

43) Which of the following correctly describes the role of Golgi vesicles and phragmoplast during
cytokinesis in plant cells?

Golgi vesicles fuse directly with the plasma membrane to pull the cytoplasm inward during
(1)
cytokinesis, forming a cleavage furrow.
Phragmoplast is formed by spindle microtubules and ER, guiding Golgi-derived vesicles to the
(2)
equator where they fuse to form the cell plate, marking the beginning of cytokinesis.
Phragmoplast triggers dissolution of the nuclear envelope, allowing direct contact of
(3)
chromosomes with vesicles.
(4) Golgi vesicles form a contractile ring that constricts to divide the cytoplasm symmetrically.
44) The midbody is composed mainly of :

(1) RNA & Actin filament

(2) Centrioles & Chromosomes
(3) DNA & histones
(4) Microtubules & Microfilaments

45) Which of the following statements correctly represents the approximate duration of phases in a
typical cell cycle?

(1) Interphase lasts 5% and M-phase lasts 95%

(2) Interphase lasts 50% and M-phase lasts 50%
(3) Interphase lasts 95% and M-phase lasts 5%
(4) Both Interphase and M-phase last equal time

46) During anaphase of mitosis, how are chromosomes moved toward opposite poles of the cell?

(1) Only interzonal fibers pull the chromosomes apart

(2) Chromosomal fibers push chromosomes toward the equator
A combination of interzonal fibers pushing and chromosomal fibers pulling moves chromosomes
(3)
to opposite poles
A combination of interzonal fibers pulling and chromosomal fibers pushing chromosomes to
(4)
opposite poles

47) The phenomenon of ‘bouquet formation’ during meiosis is characterized by:

(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(2) Terminal clustering of chromosome ends near the nuclear envelope
(3) Separation of homologous chromosomes
(4) Crossing over at chiasmata

48) During anaphase, chromosomes are pulled toward opposite poles of the cell. This movement is
energy-dependent. Approximately how many ATP molecules are utilized in this process per
chromosome set?

(1) Less than 10 ATP

(2) Around 30 ATP
(3) More than 100 ATP
(4) No ATP is required; the process is passive

49) Which of the following best describes the nature of interkinesis?

(1) It is a long resting phase after meiosis I

(2) It is identical to G2 phase of interphase
(3) It is a short-lived phase without DNA replication
(4) It is the final stage of mitosis
50) If crossing-over during prophase I failed to occur, which of the following would most likely be
affected?

(1) Formation of spindle fibers

(2) Reduction in chromosome number
(3) Genetic variability among gametes
(4) Cytokinesis at the end of meiosis

51) Which of the following best defines the scope of systematics in biological classification?

(1) Only naming and grouping of organisms

(2) Naming, classifying, and identifying organisms without studying evolutionary history
(3) Identification, nomenclature, classification, and understanding evolutionary relationships
(4) Classification based only on morphological traits visible to the naked eye

52) The type of taxonomy that uses computer and statistical programs is called:

(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Numerical taxonomy
(3) Classical taxonomy
(4) Chemotaxonomy

53) Which method of taxonomy is most likely to use polysaccharide profiles in classification?

(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Numerical Taxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(4) Phylogenetic Taxonomy

54) Which of the following statements about tautonyms is true?

(1) Tautonyms are not permitted in zoological nomenclature.

(2) Tautonyms are valid in both botanical and zoological nomenclature.
(3) Tautonyms are allowed only in botanical nomenclature.
(4) Tautonyms are valid under zoological rules but not under plant taxonomy.

55) Which format correctly follows the printing convention of binomial nomenclature?

(1) Mangifera Indica Linn.

(2) Mangifera indica (Linn.)
(3) Mangifera indica Linn.
(4) Mangifera Indica L.

56) Match the following biological processes with their correct descriptions and identify the correct
pair:
 Process Focus

(A) Classification (i) Naming the organism

(B) Nomenclature (ii) Grouped into convenient categories

(C) Identification (iii) Recognizing and comparing traits

(D) Systematics (iv) Arrangement of organisms

(1) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(iii)
(2) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(3) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(iii)
(4) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iv)

57) Which of the following statements is true regarding types of meiosis?

(1) Gametic meiosis is exclusive to lower plants like algae and fungi.
(2) Zygotic meiosis is typically observed during gamete formation in animals.
(3) Sporic meiosis takes place during spore formation in all the plants except algae.
(4) Sporic meiosis occurs in animals during fertilization.

58) Why is there a 50% chance that a gamete receives a paternal chromosome?

(1) Because chromosomes are selected actively by the cell

(2) Due to equal cytokinesis during meiosis II
(3) Because of the random alignment of homologous pairs at metaphase I
(4) Since all maternal chromosomes are suppressed in gametes

59) What is the combined effect of crossing over during prophase I and random alignment at
metaphase I?

(1) Prevents recombination of alleles

(2) Reduces genetic diversity
(3) Enhances the variety of possible gametes
(4) Causes duplication of chromosomes

60) A researcher observes cell division in a unicellular organism under a microscope. The nucleus
appears to divide without any visible spindle formation, chromosomal condensation is absent, and
the process is completed in under 30 minutes. Based on this observation, which of the following
conclusions is most accurate?

(1) The cell is undergoing mitosis with condensed chromosomes.

(2) The process indicates binary fission, common in all eukaryotes.
(3) The division is amitosis, typical of some primitive and organelle-level divisions.
(4) The organism is undergoing meiosis with rapid chromosomal segregation.
 ANSWER KEYS

Physics

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 4 1 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 2 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 1

Chemistry

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 4 2 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 3 1 1
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 3 2 2 2 2 4 1 2

Biology

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 2 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 1 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 1 4 4 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 3
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

Physics

1)

Theory Based

2)
(If and are perpendicular to each other)

3) is perpendicular to . The dot product of perpendicular vectors is zero.

4)
And , ,2 + , (2 – 3 ) all are in same plane.

5)
are coplaner vectors
and is perpendicular to that plane

6) = AB cos θ
In the problem = – AB i.e. cosθ = – 1
∴ θ = 180°
i.e., and acts in the opposite direction

7)
8)

9)
sin θ ≤ 1

10)

Explain : determine which of the given dot product relationships is correct if

Concept : Cross Product:

and
Dot Product:

Formula :

Calculation : Since , the vector is perpendicular to both and .

=0, = 0 and ( ). =0

Final Answer : (4)

11)
FS cosθ = 0
∴ θ = 90°

12) Area =

⇒ +5
⇒ 5 units

13)
If then

14) Area of parallelogram =

15) =6–6=0

16)

17)

18)

19)

20) Area of triangle

Area

21)

22)
23) Particle is always in plane

⇒ =0

24)

So, cos θ = 0
θ = 90°

25)

26) = 0 ∴ sin θ = 0 ⇒ θ = 0°
Two vectors will be parallel to each other.
 27)

28) Dot product of with (a), (b) and (c) is zero.

29)

30)

cos θ =
= =1

θ=

=
=1

Chemistry

31)

A. Question Explanation:
We're given the mole fraction of a solute in an aqueous solution and need to calculate the
molality of the solution. Molality is defined as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of
 solvent. 1

B. Given Data:

A. Mole fraction of solute (xsolute) = 0.2

B. Solvent is water (aqueous solution)

C. Concept:

A. Mole fraction

B. Molality

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Moles of solute: Assume we have 1 mole of solution. Then, moles of solute = xsolute ×
total moles = 0.2 × 1 = 0.2 moles.

B. Moles of solvent: Moles of solvent = 1 - xsolute = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 moles.

C. Mass of solvent: The solvent is water. The molar mass of water is approximately 18
g/mol. Mass of water = moles of water × molar mass of water = 0.8 moles × 18 g/mol =
14.4 g = 0.0144 kg.

D. Molality: Molality (m) = moles of solute / mass of solvent (in kg) = 0.2 moles / 0.0144 kg
≈ 13.88 mol/kg

E. Final Answer:
The molality of the solution is approximately 13.88 m. So, option 1 is correct.

32)

Molality = × = 0.2m

33) N =

∵ Equivalent of NH4OH =

Volume of solution = litre

∴ N= ⋍ 0.07

34)

18M means, 18 moles of solute in 1 L of solution

density of soln = 1.8 g/m3
Mass of soln = 1000 ml × 1.8 g/ml
= 1800 g
Mass of solvent = 1800g – 18 × 98g
= 1800 g – 1764 g
= 36 g

Molality =

= 500 mol kg–1

35)

Number of H+ = Moles of H+ × NA.

Number of H+ =
Number of H+ = 6.022 × 1020 ions.

36)

Molarity depends upon temperature.

37)

A.. Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate the molarity of a NaOH solution
given the number of moles of NaOH and the volume of the solution.

B. Given Data:

A. Moles of NaOH = 0.1 mol

B. Volume of solution = 10 L

C. Concept: Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of
solution:

Molarity (M) = moles of solute / liters of solution

D. Mathematical Calculation:
Molarity = 0.1 mol / 10 L = 0.01 mol/L = 0.01 M.

Final Answer: The molarity of the NaOH solution is 0.01 M. Therefore, option 2 is correct.

38)

39)

n = M × V(L) = 0.1 × = 10–3 mol 6.022 × 1020 molecules

40)
Ans : 0.05 mol

41)

Let the mass of compound be 100g

C = 70.6g = moles = 5.88 moles

H = 4.2g = moles = 4.2 moles

N = 11.8g = moles = 0.84 moles

O = 13.4 g = moles = 0.84 moles

C : H : N : O = 5.88 : 4.2 : 0.84 : 0.84
C:H:N:O=7:5:1:1
Therefore, empirical formula of Kelvar is C7H5NO.

42) Molecular mass = 15 × 2 = 30

∴ C2H6

43) ⇒
E.F. = 3 : 4 : 1 E.M. = 54
C3H4N
M.F. = 2 × E.M.

44)

C H
1 : 4 = CH4

45)

Gram equivalent of metal

= gram equivalent of metal oxide

=
⇒ 3.2 E + 25.6 = 3.6E
⇒ E = 64
Atomic mass of metal = 32 × 2 = 64

⇒ Valency of metal =
Oxide would be : M2O

46)

Mass ratio

Moles ratio =

47)
Empirical formula = SO2

48) Concepts:
• Empirical Formula:
• Percentage Composition:
• Molar Mass:
Formula:
• Mass = Mass/ Molar Mass
Solution:
1. Calculate the percentage of oxygen (O):
° Total percentage = 100%
° %O = 100% - (%C + %H)
° %O = 100% - (38.71% + 9.67%)
° %O = 100% - 48.38 %
° %O = 51.62%
2. Assume a 100g sample:
 ° This means the percentages are numerically equal to the masses in grams.
° Mass of C = 38.71 g
° Mass of H = 9.67 g
° Mass of O = 51.62 g
3. Calculate moles of each element:
° Moles of C = 38.71 g/ 12.01 g/mol = 3.223 mol
° Moles of H = 9.67 g/1.008 g/mol = 9.693 mol
° Moles of O = 51.62 g/ 16.00 g/mol = 3.226 mol
4. Find the simplest mole ratio:
° Divide each mole value by the smallest mole value (3.223 mol):
• C: 3.223/3.223 = 1
• H 9.593/3.223 = 2.976 3
• O: 3.226/3.223 = 1.001 1
5. Write the empirical formula:
Therefore, the empirical formula of the compound is CH3O.

49) Meq. of metal = Meq. of oxygen

50) Eq. wt. of oxygen = 8

Eq. wt. of metal = 2 × 8 = 16
Eq. wt. of metal oxide = Eq. wt of metal +
[Link]. of oxygen = 16 + 8 = 24

= = = 1.5

51) EH2SO4 =

52) MCl2 = 32.7 × 2 + 35.5 × 2 = 136.4

53)

Equivalent weight of metal

= × eq. wt. of Cl

EM = × 35.5 = 39.0

54)

Basicity of H3PO3 = 2

55) Mass of Metal Chloride MClx = M + x × 35.5

= 2 × V.D
= 79
 Mω = Eω × x
MClx = 3.82 × x + x × 35.5 = 79
x=2
Atomic Weight = 3.82 × 2 = 7.64

56)

On solving,
X = 30, Y = 16

57)

Equivalents of acid = equivalents of base.

E= = 60

58) HCl 0.1 M

V = 10 mL = 10 × 10–3 L
moles of HCl = M × V
= 0.1 × 10 × 10–3 = 10–3
No. of molecules = 10–3 NA

59) M1V1 + M2V2 = MfVf

Volume = 500 ml

60) 1. Explaining the question:

The question provides the number of urea molecules in a solution and the volume of the
solution and asks for the molarity.

2. Concept:

Moles

Molarity
3. Solution:
Number of urea molecules = 6.02 × 1020
Avogadro's number NA = 6.022 ×1023

Moles of urea ≈ 0.001 mol

Volume 100 mL = 0.1 L

Molarity = = 0.01 M
 4. Final answer: Option (2). 0.01 M

Biology

61) Explaining the Question – Arrange the following events of meiosis in ascending order of
their occurrence and select the correct option.
Concept – This Question is based on Meiosis – Prophase-|
Solution –

The correct order of events in meiosis is:

A. 1. E. Formation of bivalent:
Homologous chromosomes pair up.

B. 2. F. Activity of recombinase enzyme:

Crossing over occurs.

C. 3. D. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex:

Homologous chromosomes separate slightly.

D. 4. C. Terminalization of chiasmata:
Chiasmata move to the ends of chromosomes.

E. 5. A. Disjunction of homologous chromosomes:

Homologous chromosomes separate.

F. 6. B. Centromere division:
Sister chromatids separate.

Therefore, the correct sequence is E → F → D → C → A → B

Final Answer - 2

62) NCERT-XI, Pg # 163

63) NCERT Pg. # 168-169

64) In S-phase DNA Content become double (2C to 4C) but chromosome number remains same
(2n to 2n), chromosome number becomes double in anaphase of M-phase.
65)

Anaphase I

66)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 10.2.2

67)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 168 # 10.4.1

68)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 10.3

69)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 10.2.3

70)

Cyclins and Caks (MPF)

71)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 163 # 10.1.1

72)

Diplotene, as a part of oocyte maturation arrest.

73)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 168

74) Pair of homologous chromosomes are called bivalents. So if mother cells has 16 bivalents
i.e., 32 chromosomes, daughter cells after Meiosis will have 16 chromosomes.

75)

(i) Chromatid, (ii) Centriole, (iii) Centromere, (iv) Chromosome

76)

In plant cell, cytokinesis is from centre towards periphery and called centrifugal.

77) NCERT-XI, Pg#167

78) Replication of DNA takes place in S-phase of interphase G0 stage is result of cell exiting
from G1 phase.

79)

At metaphase of mitosis, each chromosome consists of 2 chromatid, 1 centromere, 2

kinetochores.

80)

Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA

81)

3rd statements is incorrect, because meiosis involves pairing homologous chromosomes and
recombination of homologous chromosomes.

82) Interphase
In cell cycle, changes of Interphase are not visible under microscope.

83) Amitosis
Amitosis is the characteristic of cartilage cells, mega nucleus of Paramecium and foetal
membranes.

84) The cell cycle consist of a long interphase and a short M–phase (correct statement)

85) Exit of cell from cell cycle.

The G0–phase of cell denotes exit of cell from cell cycle.

86) non sister, homologous

Crossing over occurs between non–sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

87)

G2 phase tubulin is responsible.

88) Homologous Chromosomes behave independently.

89) Metaphase–I
During metaphase–I, bivalents arrange on equator.

90) Meiosis–I is reductional division. Hence if the mother cell has 8 chromosomes, after
meiosos–I the progeny cells will have 4 chromosomes or 8 chromatids.

91) Each microspore mother cell or pollen mother cell (PMC) on reduction (meiosis) gives rise
to 4 pollen grains. So, 63 meiotic divisions are required to produce 250 pollen grains in an
angiosperm.

92) Only a, b and d are correct.

Centromere splits in anaphase–II

93)

Both statement are correct

94)

Chromosomes are maximally condensed and aligned at the metaphase plate, making their
structure most distinct under a microscope.

95)

a – iii, b – i, c – ii

96)

G1 - phase and daughter cell of mitosis division

97)

Anaphase, Anaphase II

98)
As the cell grows, its volume increases faster than its surface area, reducing efficiency in
exchange and forcing the cell to divide.

99)

Sites at which crossing over occurs

100)

a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

101)

A tetrad consists of two homologous chromosomes, each with two chromatids, while a dyad
consists of a single chromosome with two chromatids.

102)

Continuous spindle fibres extend from one pole to the other without attaching to
chromosomes, while discontinuous fibres run from pole to centromere, connecting to
kinetochores of chromosomes.

103)

Phragmoplast is formed by spindle microtubules and ER, guiding Golgi-derived vesicles to the
equator where they fuse to form the cell plate, marking the beginning of cytokinesis.

104)

Microtubules & Microfilaments

105) Interphase lasts 95% and M phase lasts 5 %

106) A combination of interzonal fibers pushing and chromosomal fibers pulling moves
chromosomes to opposite poles

107) Terminal clustering of chromosome ends near the nuclear envelope

(Seen during leptotene; facilitates homologous pairing in zygotene.)

108) Around 30 ATP

109) It is a short-lived phase without DNA replication

110) Genetic variability among gametes

Explanation: Without crossing-over, homologous chromosomes cannot exchange genetic
material, reducing variability.

111) Identification, nomenclature, classification, and understanding evolutionary relationships

112) Numerical taxonomy

113) Explanation: Polysaccharides are chemical compounds used in chemotaxonomy.

114) Explanation: Tautonyms like Rattus rattus are valid in zoology but not valid in plant
nomenclature (ICBN).

115) Explanation: The correct format uses italics (or underlining), with Genus capitalized,
epithet lowercase, and author’s name in short, non-italic.

116) Classification → grouping; Nomenclature → naming; Identification → comparing traits;

Systematics → naming & grouping)

117) Explanation: Sporic meiosis is characteristic of higher plants, where both diploid and
haploid stages exist.

118) Explanation: The random alignment of homologous pairs at metaphase I allows each
gamete a 50% chance to inherit either a maternal or paternal chromosome.

119) Explanation: Both processes increase the total number of genetically unique gametes,
thereby enhancing variation.

120) Explanation: The absence of spindle fibers and chromosomal condensation, along with a
short division time, strongly indicates amitosis.