. A 1 year old infant cries without tears. This is an indication that?
0/1
a. Eye prophylaxis should be done ASAP
b. Refer immediately to the physician
c. Impaired vision
d. Lacrimal ducts are not yet fully matured.
Correct answer
d. Lacrimal ducts are not yet fully matured.
2. What is the normal average head circumference of a newborn (in centimeters)?
0/1
a. 20
b. 40
c. 35
d. 50
Correct answer
c. 35
3. It is the fine downy hair commonly seen in newborns.
0/1
a. Lanugo
b. Vernix caseosa
c. Caput succedaneum
d. Meconium
Correct answer
a. Lanugo
4. The following are normal characteristics of NB except:
0/1
a. Jaundice after delivery
b. Pink body, blue extremities
c. With full flexion of extremities
d. Vigorous cry
Correct answer
a. Jaundice after delivery
5. Normal respiration of Neonates?
1. Rapid
2. Abdominal
3. Short period of apnea
4. 120-160 per minute
1/1
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,3,4
d. All
Feedback
5. Normal respiration of Neonates?
a. 1, 2, 3
Rationale: Babies breathe in an intermitted fashion – rapidly at first and then not at all, a pattern called
as periodic breathing and is normal for the first few months. They usually such their abdomen in and out
while breathing due to the immaturity of their intercostals muscles, infants uses their abdominal
muscles to pull the diaphragm down for breathing.
Test Taking Strategy: Read each options carefully. Looking into options 4, the rate of 120 to 160 is
normal in an infant’s heart rate not breathing. Use process of elimination.
6. Which of the following is normal in newborn’s respiration per minute?
1/1
a. 30-60bpm
b. 20-30bpm
c. 60-70bpm
d. 70-90bpm
Feedback
6. Which of the following is normal in newborn’s respiration per minute?
a. 30-60bpm
Rationale: A newborn’s respiratory rate is at 30 to 60 breaths per minute.
Test Taking Strategy: Familiarize normal of VS for each age group.
7. The most frequent position of the fetus in relation to the mother pelvis is the:
0/1
a. ROP
b. LOA
c. LOP
d. ROA
Correct answer
b. LOA
8. The usual position of the hand in the newborn is:
*
0/1
a. Open with fingers spread apart
b. Open with fingers flexed apart
c. Close with thumb inside the fingers
d. Close with thumb outside the fingers
Correct answer
c. Close with thumb inside the fingers
9. Which of the following normally rises in the infant just week after birth?
0/1
a. Hematocrit
b. Body weight
c. Bilirubin
d. Temperature
Correct answer
c. Bilirubin
10. Which of the following is the shape of posterior fontanel?
*
1/1
a. Diamond
b. Triangle
c. Round
d. Oblong
Feedback
10. Which of the following is the shape of posterior fontanel?
[Link]
Rationale: Anterior fontanel is diamond shape while the fontanel is triangular.
Test Taking Strategy: familiarize anatomy of newborns
11. Which of the following statement is true?
0/1
a. Infants is immune to pertussis if they are breastfed.
b. Most newborn are susceptible to pertussis
c. Most newborn infants are immune to pertussis
d. Infants are immune to pertussis if the mother has already contracted the disease.
Correct answer
b. Most newborn are susceptible to pertussis
12. A physiologic occurrence in the newborn that males the neonate bleed easily is:
*
0/1
a. Pseudomenstruation
b. Physiologic jaundice
c. Physiologic hypothrombinemia
d. Neonatal hypothermia
Correct answer
c. Physiologic hypothrombinemia
13. Which is not true of the hematologic system of the neonate?
0/1
a. Blood containing high level of vitamin K
b. Blood volume is 10-12 of the body weight
c. Relatively high number of RBC
d. PRC falls during the first 2 to 3 months of life, resulting to hypoprothrombinemia
Correct answer
a. Blood containing high level of vitamin K
14. A mother asked you why her baby had thick vernix caseosa. Which of the following statement is
a correct explanation for this?
*
0/1
a. The mother frequent sexual intercourse during the late pregnancy
b. Vernix caseosa is produced by the sebaceous glands as protective covering for the skin
c. Thick vernix caseosa is a sign of postmaturity
Correct answer
b. Vernix caseosa is produced by the sebaceous glands as protective covering for the skin
15. Lanugo was found in almost all parts of the body of the newborn. Your correct assessment of
the condition is that this baby is:
0/1
a. Premature
b. Postmature
c. Full term
d. Pre-term
Correct answer
a. Premature
16. Due to the withdrawal of hormone obtained from the mother, the withholding of water and the
loss of feces and urine, the infant during the first few days after birth tend to lose:
0/1
a. 15-20% of his birth weight
b. 1% of his birth weight
c. 10-15% of his birth weight
d. 5-10% of his birth
Correct answer
d. 5-10% of his birth
17. Breastfed babies are believed to have longer periods of physiologic jaundice because of the
presence of which substance which suppresses the action of hepatic enzyme?
0/1
a. Protoporphyrim
b. Prolactin
c. Pregnanediol
d. Glucoronyl transferase
Correct answer
d. Glucoronyl transferase
18. The major energy source for heat production in the neonate is:
0/1
a. Norepinephrine
b. Steroid secretion
c. Subcutaneous fat
d. Brown fat
Correct answer
d. Brown fat
19. Vitamin K is administered to the newborn because he lacks:
0/1
a. Enzymes in his liver
b. Antidiuretic hormone in his kidney
c. Glycogen stones in his liver
d. Bacterial flora in his colon
Correct answer
d. Bacterial flora in his colon
20. Slate color marks of the newborn that appears on the buttocks or lower portion of the backs is:
0/1
a. Jaundice
b. Mongolian spot
c. Milia
d. Tissue turgor
Correct answer
b. Mongolian spot
21. The skull bone over which a cephalhematoma usually lies:
0/1
a. Frontal
b. Occipital
c. Parietal
d. Temporal
Correct answer
c. Parietal
22. Which of the following determines the sex of the baby
0/1
a. Gene in the sperm
b. Gene in the ovum
c. Chromosome
d. Chromosome in the sperm
Correct answer
d. Chromosome in the sperm
23. You assess a newborn baby, which color is not considered normal:
0/1
a. Pink body blue soles
b. Pink soles blue body
c. Pink body pink soles
d. Pink reddish when crying
Correct answer
b. Pink soles blue body
24. Swelling of the head due to pressure during delivery
0/1
a. Molding
b. Mottling
c. Caput succedaneum
d. Cepalhematoma
Correct answer
c. Caput succedaneum
25. Within the few hours after birth the entire skin of normal infant often becomes:
0/1
a. Edematous
b. Red
c. Pale
d. Dry
Correct answer
d. Dry
26. You would expect the baby to have his first stool or meconium within:
0/1
a. 8 to 10 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 2 days
d. 5 days
Correct answer
b. 24 hours
27. The most developed sense of the new born is ______________
0/1
a. Vision
b. Touch
c. Taste
d. Hearing
Correct answer
d. Hearing
28. The respiratory system of the newborn is characterized by which of the following:
0/1
a. Respirations are thoracic
b. Respirations are abdominal and diaphragmatic
c. Respiratory is 50-80/minute
d. Respirations are quite and deep
Correct answer
b. Respirations are abdominal and diaphragmatic
29. The normal hemoglobin concentration in the newborn is:
0/1
a. 20-22 gm/100 ml
b. 9-11/100 ml
c. 11-13 mg/100 ml
d. 17-18 gm/ ml
Correct answer
a. 20-22 gm/100 ml
30. Pneumonia of a 10 month-old is seen in the following:
1/1
a. 30 bpm
b. 40 bpm
c. 50 bpm
d. 60 bpm
Feedback
30. Pneumonia of a 10 month-old is seen in the following:
d.60 bpm
Rationale: Fast breathing for a 10 month-old is >50 breaths per minute
Test Taking Strategy: Recall IMCI concepts. Familiarize VS range for each age group
31. The child has no pneumonia but he has cough and colds for 4 days. What other problems would
you assess?
0/1
a. Ear problem and diarrhea
b. Sore throat and ear problem
c. All of these
d. Diarrhea and sore throat
Correct answer
b. Sore throat and ear problem
32. Accumulation of blood in periosteum?
0/1
a. Cephalhematoma
b. Caput seccedaneum
c. Craniotabes
d. Fontanelles
Correct answer
a. Cephalhematoma
33. Which of the following is not a sign of tetanus neonatorum?
0/1
a. Cough, body malaise, fever
b. Clenched mouth
c. Body spasm
d. Inability to suck
Correct answer
a. Cough, body malaise, fever
34. Undescended testes of the male newborn means:
0/1
a. Phimosis
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Priapism
Correct answer
c. Cryptorchidism
35. Deficiency disease caused by inadequate calories in the diet of infant is:
0/1
a. Kwashiorkor
b. Scurvy
c. IDA
d. Marasmus
Correct answer
d. Marasmus
36. If the baby is born with jaundice, your immediate intervention as a midwife is to:
1/1
a. Wait for one week until the color disappear
b. Refer the baby to a physician
c. Advise the mother not to worry since it is normal
d. Advise the mother to expose the baby to sunlight
Feedback
36. If the baby is born with jaundice, your immediate intervention as a midwife is to:
[Link] the baby to a physician
Rationale: Jaudice appearing immediately after births is a sign of pathologic jaundice from condition
such as ABO and RH incompatibility. Referral is needed
Test Taking Strategy: Differentiate between physiologic and pathologic jaundice
37. A large gestational age baby is one whose:
0/1
a. AOG is 38 weeks and weighs 4100 grams
b. AOG is 40 weeks and weighs more than 2000 grams
c. AOG is 38 weeks and weighs 3000 grams
d. AOG is 42 weeks and weighs more than 2500 grams
Correct answer
a. AOG is 38 weeks and weighs 4100 grams
38. Elena is an 18 months old child who has cough for 7 days with no general danger signs, with
temperature of 37.5C and respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute. How will you classify Elena’s
breathing?
0/1
a. Very fast breathing
b. Fast breathing
c. Slow breathing
d. Normal breathing
Correct answer
b. Fast breathing
39. Jaundice in the first 26 hours of life maybe caused by all of the following, except:
0/1
a. RH incompatibility
b. Bacterial sepsis
c. ABO hemolytic disease
d. Breastfeeding
Correct answer
d. Breastfeeding
40. Blindness among neonate is attributed to:
0/1
a. Gonorrheal conjunctivitis
b. Myopia
c. Retrolental fibroplasias
d. Ophthalmia neonatorum
Correct answer
a. Gonorrheal conjunctivitis
41. Brain damage due to birth injury is common in labor that is:
0/1
a. Precipitate
b. Premature
c. post mature
d. premature rupture of membranes
Correct answer
c. post mature
42. Erythroblastosis fetails can be prevented by:
1/1
a. injection of mother with tetanus toxoid
b. administration of immunoglobulin
c. exposure to sunlight by the mother on the last trimester of pregnancy
d. massive iron intake of the mother throughout the pregnancy
Feedback
42. Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by:
[Link] of immunoglobulin
Rationale: Administration of immunoglobulin decreases hemolysis by blocking receptor sites of
reticuloendothelial cells preventing the lysis of erythrocytes
Test Taking Strategy: Note that the condition is pathologioc. Options a, c and d does not address the
condition
43. Babies who suffered from sudden onset of respiratory distress associated with coughing and
stridor should be suspected of:
0/1
a. Pertussis
b. Pneumionia
c. Diphtheria
d. Bronchial asthma
Correct answer
d. Bronchial asthma
44. Excessive sweating in young infant may be a manifestation of:
0/1
a. Heart failure
b. Phenylketonuria
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. Cystic fibrosis
Correct answer
a. Heart failure
45. A baby who developed noisy breathing on respiration, marked retractions of the chest wall
flaring of nostrils and barking cough, the most likely diagnosis is:
0/1
a. Viral group
b. Bronchiolitis
c. Asthma
d. Foreign body aspiration in the right main bronchus
Correct answer
a. Viral group
46. Which of the following characteristics is NOT an indication of prematurity in a one (1) day old
baby?
1/1
a. A prominent diastasis of the rectus muscle-
b. Absent breast buds
c. A thick layer of vernix
d. Presence of lanugo
Feedback
46. Which of the following characteristics is NOT an indication of prematurity in a one (1) day old baby?
[Link] of lanugo
Rationale: Lanugo can also be found in term newborns. Options a, b and c shows sign of prematurity
Test Taking Strategy: Note for the term “not” Review sign of prematurity
47. The bone which is usually affected is caput succedaneum is:
0/1
a. Frontal
b. Occipital
c. Temporal
d. Parietal
Correct answer
b. Occipital
48. An infant born to a heroin addict is likely to exhibit all of the following EXCEPT:
1/1
a. Prematurity and low birth weight
b. Hyperirritability and coarse tremor
c. Incidence of hyaline membrane disease
d. Vomiting and diarrhea
Feedback
48. An infant born to a heroin addict is likely to exhibit all of the following EXCEPT:
[Link] of hyaline membrane disease
rationale: Heroine use during pregnancy can result to neonatal abstinence syndrome causing
dependence on the baby with symptoms such as excessive crying, irritability, low birth weight,
prematurity, diarrhea and vomitiong. Hyaline membrane sisease is also known as repiratory distress
syndrome and is due to prematurity
Test Taking Strategy: Note for the term “except”
49. Under what condition does erythroblastosis fetalis occurs?
0/1
a. Both are positive
b. Both are negative
c. Mother is RH positive and father RH positive
d. Mother is RH negative and father is RH positive
Correct answer
d. Mother is RH negative and father is RH positive
50. Neonatal tetanus continues to kill infants, the main cause of this is:
*
1/1
a. Failure of the midwife to wash her hands before and after delivery of the baby
b. Unhygienic practice applied by the traditional births
c. Inability of the health worker to provide health educational
d. Failure of the mother to have her regular pre-natal
Feedback
50. Neonatal tetanus continues to kill infants, the main cause of this is:
b. Unhygienic practice applied by the traditional births
Rationale: The lack of asepsis in traditional birth especially with instrument predisposes the child in
contacting tetanus
Test taking Strategy: Use process of elimination. Since this is a question about infection, it will talk about
hygiene
51. Which of the following is TRUE for a premature infant?
0/1
a. Fingernails and toenails are soft and short
b. Swallowing and gaggling reflexes is visible
c. Normal sucking is present
d. Fingernails and toenails are hard and long
Correct answer
a. Fingernails and toenails are soft and short
52. Failure to administer vitamin K most often leads to:
0/1
a. Bleeding within 24 hours of delivery
b. Early blood clotting
c. Prolonged prothrombin time
d. Anemia
Correct answer
a. Bleeding within 24 hours of delivery
53. Tonsillitis rheumatic heart disease are complications caused by:
1/1
a. Fungus
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Toxin
Feedback
53. Tonsillitis rheumatic heart disease are complications caused by:
[Link]
Rationale: Rheumatic heart disease is a condition in which heart valves are damage from rheumatic
fever caused by an untreated or undertreated streptococcal infection.
Test Taking Strategy: Recall Streptococcus is a bacteria.
54. A newborn who has a unilateral cleft-lip most likely unable to:
1/1
a. Swallow
b. Breath
c. Suck
d. Salivate
Feedback
54. A newborn who has a unilateral cleft-lip most likely unable to:
[Link]
Rationale: The ability to suck requires a closed environment to form pressure. Looking at the other
option all are intact
Test Taking Strategy: Take note of the affected part.
55. The following are true about caput succedaneum, EXCEPT
0/1
a. Lesion extend beyond suture’s lines
b. Periostal hemorrhage resulting from the truma of labor
c. Edema of the scalp due to pressure during labor and delivery
d. Normal condition which disappear after a few days
Correct answer
b. Periostal hemorrhage resulting from the truma of labor
56. You observed a 1 day old neonate to have icteric sclera and skin. Your correct assessment about
the condition is:
1/1
a. The baby is suffering from a possible blood type incompatibility
b. This is only a physiologic jaundice
c. This is only because the baby was in NPO after birth
Feedback
56. You observed a 1 day old neonate to have icteric sclera and skin. Your correct assessment about the
condition is:
[Link] is only a physiologic jaundice
Rationale: Physiologic jaundice is a common occurrence after 24 hours
Test Taking Strategy: Note of the term “1 day.” Differentiate physiologic and pathologic jaundice.
57. The parents of the baby who were diagnosed to have cystic fibrosis wants to know whether
future offspring will be born with the same problem. They should be advised that their next child will
have the disease is approximately:
1/1
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 0
Feedback
57. The parents of the baby who were diagnosed to have cystic fibrosis wants to know whether future
offspring will be born with the same problem. They should be advised that their next child will have the
disease is approximately:
a.25%
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis has a recessive hereditary pattern. The fact that they have a baby with such
condition means that both of them has a gene for cystic fibrosis, and would need to have both genes for
it to manifest since it has a recessive pattern. C – no disease, c – with disease. Possible offspring would
be CC, Cc, Cc, cc. 1 out of 4 has the chance to have cystic fibrosis.
Test Taking Strategy: Familiarize with type of heredity pattern. And Mendelian Theory of Inheritance.
58. A condition characterized by protrusion of the loop of intestine at the base of the cord is known
as:
0/1
a. Meningocele
b. Omphalocele
c. Hemangioma
d. Hematoma
Correct answer
b. Omphalocele
59. The best indication that a newborn’s intestinal tract is patient is:
0/1
a. You are able to insert a rectal thermometer
b. You are able to insert a rectal tube
c. You are able to confirm the passage of meconium
d. You are able to insert your little finger
Correct answer
c. You are able to confirm the passage of meconium
60. Opthalmia neonatorum in the newborn occurs as a consequence of contract with which of the
following?
0/1
a. Monilia
b. Gonococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. Syphilis
Correct answer
b. Gonococcus
61. Alcohol intakeduring pregnancy is likely to cause the fetus to have an:
*
0/1
a. Impaired intellectual capacity
b. Lower blood count
c. Accelerated long bone development
d. Increased heart rate
Correct answer
a. Impaired intellectual capacity
62. Mumps is a viral disease which causes:
0/1
a. Sterility in male
b. Sterility in female
c. No effect
d. Frigid to both male and female
Correct answer
a. Sterility in male
63. Brachial Nerve Paralysis is caused by:
*
0/1
a. Bilateral corssing of suture line
b. Fetal head is pressed against soft tissue
c. Difficult delivery of the head/shoulders of the a big baby
d. Forcep delivery
Correct answer
c. Difficult delivery of the head/shoulders of the a big baby
64. A baby with a characteristics shrill cry may indicate a problem with the:
0/1
a. Gastrointestinal system
b. Central nervous system
c. Respiratory system
d. Urinary system
Correct answer
b. Central nervous system
65. Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear caused by:
*
0/1
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Candida albicans
d. Hemophilus influenza
Correct answer
d. Hemophilus influenza
66. Premature rupture of the fetal membranes may cause:
0/1
a. Anencephaly
b. Sepsis neonatorum
c. Hydrocephalus d
d. Caput succedaneum
Correct answer
b. Sepsis neonatorum
67. Protein malnutrition is known as:
1/1
a. Dehydration
b. Marasmus
c. Kwashiorkor
d. Underweight
Feedback
67. Protein malnutrition is known as:
[Link]
Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein malnutrition. A notable symptom is the presence of
edema due to deficiency in albumin.
Test Taking Strategy: Differentiate Kwashiorkor and Marasmus.
68. Which of the following characteristics is NOT TRUE for a premature infant?
1/1
a. Soft ears and receding chin
b. Abdomen protrude
c. Engorgement of the breast
d. Head is relatively large with prominent eyes
Feedback
68. Which of the following characteristics is NOT TRUE for a premature infant?
[Link] of the breast
Rationale: Option a shows underdeveloped external structures, protrusion of abdomen shows weak and
immative abdominal wall muscles. Since growth of infants are cephalocaudal, the extremities will be
relatively smaller as compared to the head.
Test Taking Strategy: Use process of elimination
69. An infant of respiratory distress will show all the following EXCEPT:
0/1
a. Respiration between 30-40
b. Cyanosis
c. Respiratory grunt
d. Flaring of the nostrils
Correct answer
a. Respiration between 30-40
70. In assessing the NB, APGAR score which determines the absence of difficulties in adjusting to
extrauterine life is?
1/1
a. 3-4
b. 0-3
c. 7-10
d. 4-6
Feedback
70. In assessing the NB, APGAR score which determines the absence of difficulties in adjusting to
extrauterine life is?
c.7-10
Rationale: APGAR score of 8-10 indicates good extra-uterine adaptation.
Test Taking Strategy: Note that the higher the APGAR score the better.
71. What month the baby can say & understand mama and papa?
0/1
A. 8 months
B. 10 mos
C. 1 yr
D. 5 mos
Correct answer
C. 1 yr
72. Which of the following factors affect the growth and dev’t?
1. Nutrition
2. Heredity
3. Genetics
0/1
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1 & 2
C. 2
D. 2 & 3
Correct answer
A. 1, 2, 3
73. Separation anxiety starts at:
0/1
A. 6-8 months
B. 9-10 months
C. 2-3 months
D. 4-5 months
Correct answer
D. 4-5 months
74. Until what month can you call a baby as infant/
1/1
A. 0-24 months
B. 1-12 years
C. 1-12 months
D. 24 months
Feedback
74. Until what month can you call a baby as infant/
c.1-12 months
Rationale: An infant is a term typically used to young children under the age of 1.
Test Taking Strategy: Examine the choices carefully. Note that options a and d is similar, and option c
uses years instead of months.
75. Daily weight would:
0/1
A. Monitor growth and development and when the weight is low, it signifies malnutrition.
B. Monitor growth and development
C. Indicate malnutrition if the weight goes down
D. Indicates growth and development
Correct answer
C. Indicate malnutrition if the weight goes down
76. Moro reflex disappear?
1/1
A. 4 months
B. 3 months
C. 2 months
D. 1 months
Feedback
76. Moro reflex disappear?
c.2 months
Rationale: Moro reflex peaks during the first month and disappears after two months.
Test Taking Strategy: Familiarize reflexes in infants
77. Which of the following is not the principle of Growth and Development?
0/1
A. Cephalocaudal
B. Different rates
C. Refined to gross
D. Proximodistal
Correct answer
C. Refined to gross
78. If baby Grace length is 23 inches, she is 3 months now, what is her length at the age of 5
months?
*
0/1
A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27
Correct answer
B. 25
79. How many grams of weight increase per month for the first 6 months?
1/1
A. 500
B. 400
C. 300
D. 600
Feedback
79. How many grams of weight increase per month for the first 6 months?
d.600
Rationale: From birth to 6 months a baby might increases weight for 140g to 200g per week. Around
560g to 800g per month
Test Taking Strategy: Familiarize growth rate for each age group.
80. The baby is placed in vertical position touching a flat firm surface, the baby’s response is by
alternating flexion and extension as if he is stepping. By assessment, this is:
1/1
A. Baby’s development is from extremities to upper body part
B. Baby’s response is normal, referred as dancing reflex
C. The baby must be referred for a neurological examination
D. The baby’s development is slow
Feedback
80. The baby is placed in vertical position touching a flat firm surface, the baby’s response is by
alternating flexion and extension as if he is stepping. By assessment, this is:
[Link]’s response is normal, referred as dancing reflex
Rationale: A stepping or dancing reflex in which a baby appears to take steps or dance when help
upright with his or her feet touching a solid surface.
Test Taking Strategy: Examine each choices. Options c and d are similar
81. Motor development of a 1-year old child:
0/1
A. Stand with assistance
B. Cruises
C. May take few steps with assistance
D. Bowel control
Correct answer
C. May take few steps with assistance
82. When a baby drinks from a cup and eats well with his fingers, he is usually between:
0/1
A. 6-7 months
B. 5-6 months
C. 7-8 months
D. 9-12 months
Correct answer
D. 9-12 months
83. When the mother touches baby’s cheek and he opens his mouth and turn to find the nipple, the
baby is exhibiting:
1/1
A. Grasping reflex
B. Rooting reflex
C. Sucking reflex
D. Swallowing reflex
Feedback
83. When the mother touches baby’s cheek and he opens his mouth and turn to find the nipple, the
baby is exhibiting
[Link] reflex
Rationale: This reflex starts when the corner of the baby’s mouth is stroked, the baby will turn his or her
and open the mouth to follow or root in the direction of the stroking
Test Taking Strategy: Recall each type of reflex
84. The developmental task of an infant is to develop:
0/1
A. Trust
B. Autonomy
C. Identity
D. Initiative
Correct answer
A. Trust
85. The first permanent tooth that erupts usually is the:
1/1
A. Lateral incisors
B. First molar
C. Pre molar
D. Central incisors
Feedback
85. The first permanent tooth that erupts usually is the:
[Link] molar
Rationale: The first permanent teeth to emerge are usually the maxillary and mandibular first molars
Test Taking Strategy: Familiarize teeth development. Also note for the clue “first molar”
86. In a neonate, the sense which is considered the LEAST sensitive is the sense of:
1/1
A. Sight
B. Hearing
C. Smell
D. Taste
Feedback
86. In a neonate, the sense which is considered the LEAST sensitive is the sense of:
[Link]
Rationale: The environment of the womb is dark, hence there is very little use of vision because of the
absence of light.
Test Taking Strategy: Consider the type former type of environment the newborn lived.
87. After the initial APGAR score, the midwife should repeat it after which of the following minutes?
*
0/1
A. 20
B. 5
C. 15
D. 10
Correct answer
B. 5
88. The baby weighs 2,800 grams at birth. On her third day she weighs 2,700 grams. As a midwife,
what are you going to do?
0/1
A. Refer to the nearest clinic for loss of weight
B. Call a doctor immediately
C. Give frequent feeding to hasten weight gain
D. Do nothing since it is physiologic
Correct answer
D. Do nothing since it is physiologic
89. The average newborn length in inches is:
1/1
A. 16
B. 22
C. 18
D. 20
Feedback
89. The average newborn length in inches is:
d.20
Rationale: Average newborn length is 18 in to 22 in.
Test Taking Strategy: Note the term average
90. Which of the following APGAR score reflects good oxygenation and ventilation which does NOT
need vigorous resuscitation?
0/1
A. 8-10
B. 0-3
C. 4-6
D. 5-7
Correct answer
A. 8-10
91. Developmental issue regarding attachment is appropriate for discussion during which of the
following month.
*
1/1
A. 5
B. 12
C. 9
D. 7
Feedback
91. Developmental issue regarding attachment is appropriate for discussion during which of the
following month.
d.7
Rationale: By 7 or 8 months an infant will have a special response to a specific person especially with the
primary care giver. Stranger anxiety is also present by this time.
Test Taking Strategy: Take note that by 7 months stranger anxiety is present because of attachment with
primary caregiver.
92. The infants weight should be double in which of the following months?
0/1
A. 3
B. 12
C. 6
D. 9
Correct answer
C. 6
93. The first deciduous teeth usually appear between:
0/1
A. 9 and 12 months
B. 5 and 9 months
C. 12 and 18 months
D. Before 5 months
Correct answer
B. 5 and 9 months
94. You measured the head circumference of the baby and you noticed that it is bigger than his
chest by 2 cm, your evaluation is:
1/1
A. Abnormal it may lead to hydrocephalus
B. Referral to the nearest clinic/hospital
C. The difference is normal
D. The baby should be closely watched
Feedback
94. You measured the head circumference of the baby and you noticed that it is bigger than his chest by
2 cm, your evaluation is:
[Link] difference is normal
Rationale: Average head circumference is 33 to 35 c, and chest circumference is 30 to 33cm. a 2 cm
differences is normal
Test Taking Strategy: Note the cephalocaudal form of development. Also examine options a, b and d,
they all indicate that there is something abnormal.
95. An infant enjoys being held, and holding him develops his sense of:
0/1
A. Independence
B. Love
C. Security
D. Trust
Correct answer
D. Trust
96. A breastfed infant weighed 3.4 kgs at birth. At 4 days old, he now weigh 3.2 kgs. Which is the
most appropriate action that you would take?
0/1
A. Notify the physician for this is abnormal
B. Tell the mother that feeding is inadequate
C. Monitor the baby closely during each feeding
D. Reassure the mother that most babies normally lose this much weight
Correct answer
D. Reassure the mother that most babies normally lose this much weight
97. Negativism and ritualistic behaviors are normal characteristics of:
1/1
A. Preschoolers
B. Toddlers
C. Infants
D. Adolescents
Feedback
97. Negativism and ritualistic behaviors are normal characteristics of:
[Link]
Rationale: Negativism and ritualism are characteristics of toddlers.
Test Taking Strategy: Note normal behaviors for each age groups.
98. A mother asks about the “soft spots” on their baby’s head. You would explain that the anterior
fontanel closes by the:
1/1
A. 12th to 18th month and the posterior by the 3rd month
B. 3rd month and the posterior by the 12th to 18th month
C. 12th month and the posterior by the 5th month
D. 4th month and the posterior by the 4th month
Feedback
98. A mother asks about the “soft spots” on their baby’s head. You would explain that the anterior
fontanel closes by the
a.12th to 18th month and the posterior by the 3rd month
Rationale: The anterior fontanel closes between 9 months and 18 months, while the posterior around 1
to 3 months
Test Taking Strategy: Note that the posterior fontanel closes first before the anterior
99. Fear of strangers reach its height at:
0/1
A. Six moths
B. Seven months
C. Eight months
D. Ten months
Correct answer
B. Seven months
100. The mother of a 3 month old infant is concerned because the infant does not sit by herself:
Which statement best reflects average sitting ability?
*
0/1
A. Most babies sit steadily at 4 months, she is normal
B. Most babies sit steadily at 3 months, she is slightly delayed
C. Sitting ability and the age of first tooth eruption are correlated
D. Most babies do not sit steadily until 8 months, she is normal
Correct answer
D. Most babies do not sit steadily until 8 months, she is normal
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