03-08-2025

1001OMD303361250055 MD

CHEMISTRY

1) In which set there is a considerable large increase in covalent radius is observed ?

(1) N to P
(2) P to As
(3) As to Sb
(4) Sb to Bi

2) Which of the following can be used to make transistors and semiconductor devices ?

(1) C
(2) Ge
(3) I
(4) Sn

3) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Diamond → Show's domgling valency.

(2) Fullerene → Purest allotrope of carbon.
(3) Carbon black → Softest allotrope of carbon.
(4) Graphite → Show's highest thermal conductivity among allotropes of carbon.

4) Correct order of Halogen for the stability of oxides is ?

(1) I > Cl > Br

(2) Cl > Br > I
(3) Br > Cl > I
(4) I > Br > Cl

5) Incorrect statement with respect to ozone is :-

(1) Decomposition of ozone into results in the absorption of energy.

(2) It act as oxidising agent.
(3) It is used as germicide and disinfectant.
(4) Pure ozone is a pale blue gas.

6) In which of the following reactions conc. H2SO4 is used as an oxidising agent ?

(1) 2NaNO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HNO3

(2) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
(3) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
(4) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl

7) Select the correct statement about VA group hydrides [NH3, PH3, SbH3, BiH3]
(A) The thermal stability of hydrides decreases from NH3 to BiH3
(B) The reducing character of hydrides increases from NH3 to BiH3
(C) Bond angle decreases from NH3 to BiH3
(D) Basic nature also decreases from NH3 to BiH3

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, D
(4) A, B, C

8) Consider the following statements for diborane :-

a. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridised.
b. B–H–B angle is 180°
c. There are only 12 bonding electron available of these substance.
d. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atoms.

(1) a, c and d are correct.

(2) a, b and d are correct.
(3) b, c and d are correct.
(4) a, b and c are correct.

9) Allotropic form of phosphorous which show chemiluminescence

(1) White phosphorous

(2) Black phosphorous
(3) Red phosphorous
(4) All of the above

10) The p-p-p bond angle in white phosphorous is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 60°
(4) 120°

11) Transition temperature of α and β sulphur is :-

(1) 393 K
(2) 369 K
(3) 375 K
(4) 383 K

12) The most basic oxide of elements in group 14 of the periodic table is :-
(1) SiO2
(2) GrO
(3) SnO2
(4) PbO

13) Which of the following oxoacids of halogen doesn't exist ?

(1) HOBrO
(2) HOF
(3) HOBrO3
(4) HOIO3

14) Maximum number of atoms in diborane which lies in a plane is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

15) Which of the following is correct statement.

(1) F2 > Cl2 Bond dissociation energy

(2) F > Cl Electron affinity
(3) HF > HCl (Acidic nature)
(4) From F2 to I2 boiling point increases down the group

16) PbI4 does not exist because :-

(1) Iodine is not a reactive.

(2) Pb (IV) is oxidising and I– is strong reducing agent.
(3) Pb (IV) is less stable than Pb (II).
(4) Pb+4 is not easily formed.

17) Which of the following statement is correct ?

Except Radon & Oganesson all inert gases

(1)
occur in the atmosphere.
(2) In dry air by volume Argon is the major constituent among all inert gases.
(3) Oganesson has been synthetically produced by collision of atoms and ions.
(4) All of the above

18) Which of the following option is wrong ?

Ultrapure forms of Germanium and Silicon are used to make transistors and semiconductor
(1)
devices.
(2) Naturally Occurring Carbon contains three stable isotopes.
(3) Tin stone and galena are minerals of Tin and Lead.
(4) 2 & 3 both

19)

Which of the following is an electron deficient molecule ?

(1) LiH
(2) B2H6
(3) LiBH4
(4) B3N3H6

20) Products formed by reaction of F2 & Cl2 with water respectively are :

(1) HF, HCl

(2) H2F2, HOCl
(3) HF, HClO3
(4) H2F2, HClO4

21) Which of the following order is incorrect ?

(1) Electronegativity - B > Tℓ > In > Ga > Aℓ

(2) Ionisation energy - B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In
(3) Density - B < Aℓ < Ga < In < Tℓ
Ionic radius (M+3 ion) -
(4)
B+3 < Ga+3 < Al+3 < In+3 < Tℓ+3

22) Which is the correct representation of boiling point of 14th group hydrides.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

Electrodes Carbon
(a) (P)
in batteries black

Adsorbing
(b) (Q) Diamond
poisonous gas

Filler in Activated
(c) (R)
automobile tires charcoal

Sharpening
(d) (S) Graphite
hard tools

a b c d

(1) S P R Q

(2) S P Q R

(3) S R P Q

(4) S Q P R
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) When MnO2 is fused with KOH in presence of atmospheric oxygen a coloured compound is
formed. The product and its colour is :-

(1) K2MnO4, Green

(2) Mn2O3, Brown
(3) Mn2O4, Black
(4) KMnO4, Purple
25) In dilute alkaline solution, MnO4– changes to :-

2–
(1) MnO4
(2) MnO2
(3) Mn2O3
(4) MnO

26) CrO42– (yellow) changes to Cr2O72– (orange) in pH = x and vice-versa in pH = y. Hence x and y are
:-

(1) 6, 8
(2) 6, 5
(3) 8, 6
(4) 7, 7

27) CO forms a volatile carbonyl complex with which of the following metals ?

(1) Na
(2) Sn
(3) Ni
(4) Hg

28) The highest magnetic moment is shown by the transition metal-ion with the outermost electronic
configuration is :-

(1) 3d5
(2) 3d2
(3) 3d7
(4) 3d9

29) Which of the following ions has the maximum M+3/M+2 S.R.P. ?

(1) Mn
(2) Fe
(3) Ti
(4) Cr

30) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the
chromium of the complex :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
31) Which of the following statements is false ?

2–
(1) CrO4 is tetrahedral in shape
2–
(2) Cr2O7 has Cr–O–Cr bond
(3) K2Cr2O7 is used as a primary standard in volumetry
(4) Na2Cr2O7 is less soluble than K2Cr2O7

32) ZnO shows yellow colour on heating due to :

(1) d-d transition

(2) C-T spectra
(3) Higher polarisation caused by Zn+2 ion
(4) F-centres

33) The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (Atomic number Fe = 26) ion is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

34) The element that usually does not show variable oxidation states is :-

(1) V
(2) Ti
(3) Cu
(4) Sc

35) Which one of the following specie is stable in aqueous solution ?

(1) Cr2+
2–
(2) MnO4
3–
(3) MnO4
(4) Cu+

36) The lanthanoide contraction is responsible for the fact that :-

(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius

(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Ce have the same oxidation state

37) Uub is the symbol for the element with atomic number :-

(1) 102
(2) 108
(3) 110
(4) 112

38) The final products obtained for the following reaction is :-

KMnO4(excess) + H2SO4(concentrated and cold) →

(1) Mn2O7
(2) MnO
(3) Mn3O4
+
(4) MnO3

39) The statement that is incorrect about the interstitial compound is :-

(1) they are chemically reactive

(2) they have metallic conductivity
(3) they are very hard
(4) they have high melting points

40) CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give :

2–
(1) Cr2O7
2–
(2) CrO4
(3) Cr(OH)3
(4) Cr(OH)2

41) The catalytic activity of the transition metals and their compound is ascribed to :-

(1) their chemical reactivity

(2) their magnetic behaviour
(3) their filled d-orbitals
(4) their ability to adopt multiple oxidation state and their complex formation ability

42) The colour of transition metal ions is attributed to

(1) exceptionally small size of cations

(2) absorption of ultraviolet rays
(3) incomplete (n–1) d-subshell
(4) absorption of infrared radiations

43) Among the following series of transition metals ions, one where all the metal ions have 3d2
configuration :-

(1) Ti+3, V+2, Cr+3, Mn+4

(2) Ti+2, V+3, Cr+4, Mn+5
(3) Ti+, V+4, Cr+6, Mn+7
(4) Ti+, V+3, Cr+2, Mn+3

44) The yellow colour of chromate changes to orange on acidification due to formation of :-

(1) Cr+3
(2) Cr2O3
2–
(3) Cr2O7
–
(4) CrO4

45) When the same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of
sodium hydroxide, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 9 : 4

BIOLOGY

1) Types of interaction that occur in predation and parasitism are :-

(1) +, +
(2) –, –
(3) +, 0
(4) +, –

2)

Identify the label A, B , C in the given diagram of species diversity of vertebrates :-

(1) A-Mammal, B-Reptile, C-Amphibian

(2) A-Reptile, B-Amphibian, C-Bird
(3) A-Mammal, B-Birds, C-Reptile
(4) A-Reptile, B-Birds, C-Amphibian

3) Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation ?

(1) Sanctuary
(2) National Park
(3) Biosphere reserve
(4) Zoological park

4) Which of the following vertebrate group occupy almost 50 percent space in global biodiversity
chart of vertebrate?

(1) Mammals
(2) Birds
(3) Reptiles
(4) Fishes

5) What type of ecological pyramid would obtained with the following data ?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g

(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass

(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass

6) By the following process the water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and
get precipitated as unavailable salts

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Leaching
(3) Catabolism
(4) Mineralization

7) Which of the following ecosystem produces maximum organic matter?

(1) Temperate Deciduous forest

(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Coniferous forest
(4) Tundra

8) Which of the following is not a step involved in decomposition?

(1) Immobilisation
(2) Fragmentation
(3) Catabolism
(4) Humification

9) Consider the following four condition (I – IV) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to
environment in desert lizards :
(I) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(II) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperatures
(III) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(IV) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis

(1) I and III

(2) II and IV
(3) I and II
(4) III and IV

10) According to Alexander von Humbolt, in the graph of species area relation of area A,B and C,
which of the following area was steeper slope and maximum species richness respectively.

(1) A and B
(2) C and A
(3) C and B
(4) C and C

11) The World Summit on Sustainable development held in :-

(1) 1996
(2) 1992
(3) 2002
(4) 2000

12) Which of the following ecosystem service would carry the heaviest price tag?

(1) Nutrient cycling

(2) Soil formation
(3) Climate regulation
(4) Recreation

13) A migratory fish is ‘X’ with respect to tolerance of narrow range of temperature and ‘Y’ with
respect to tolerance of wider range of salinity. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are :-

(1) X-Eurythermal; Y-Stenohaline

(2) X-Eurythermal; Y-Euryhaline
(3) X-Stenothermal; Y-Euryhaline
(4) X-Stenothermal; Y-Stenohaline
14) The given age pyramid represents a

(1) Fast expanding population

(2) Slowly expanding population
(3) Stable population
(4) Declining population

15) What is a keystone species ?

A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community's
(1)
organization
(2) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many
(3)
other species
A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet
(4)
has a huge impact on the community's organization and survival

16) How much amount of carbon is fixed annually by photosynthesis by plants?

(1) 4 × 1016 kg
(2) 4 × 1013 kg
(3) 4 × 1019 kg
(4) 4 × 1010 kg

17) The annual net primary productivity is ______ and ______ billion tones on land and oceans
respectively :-

(1) 170 and 70

(2) 70 and 55
(3) 55 and 70
(4) 115 and 55

18) In different population interactions when cattle interacts with ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’, respectively the
cattle likely to be ‘Beneficiary’, ‘Neutral‘ and ‘Detrimental’ in :-

(1) A-Cellulolytic bacteria; B-Cattle egret; C-Ticks

(2) A-Cattle egret; B-Cellulolytic bacteria; C-Ticks
(3) A-Streptococcus bacteria; B-Cattle egret; C-Ticks
(4) A-Streptococcus bacteria; B-Cattle egret; C-Cellulolytic bacteria

19) Many species like Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon are not found now a days. What's the
reason ?
(1) Over Exploitation
(2) Alien Species Invasions
(3) Co Extinction
(4) Competition

20) The mechanism that promotes coexistence rather than competitive exclusion can be explained in
:-

(1) Balanus and Chthamalus

(2) Goat and Abingdon tortoise
(3) Five closely related species of warblers
(4) Visiting flamingos and Resident fishes

21) Select the incorrect match :-

(1) Lungs of the planet - Amazon rain forest

(2) Extinction due to over - exploitation - Passenger pigeons
(3) Nile perch - extinction of Cichlid fish
(4) David Tilman - Rivet Popper hypothesis

22) A negative interaction in which Cuckoo lays its eggs in the nest of Crow and lets the crow
incubate them is called:-

(1) Hyperparasitism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Brood parasitism
(4) Proto-coperation

23) When heat gain or heat loss is the functions of ____, heat production is the function of ____ of the
body of an animal

(1) Volume, Surface area

(2) Surface area, Volume
(3) Volume, Volume
(4) Surface area, Surface area

24) Which of the following is not included in "The Evil Quartet".

(1) Over exploitation

(2) Alien species invasions
(3) Co extinction
(4) Competition

25) Which of the following is incorrect for observation made by A.V. Humboldt?

(1) Species richness increases with increase of explored area

(2) S = CAZ
(3) The larger the explored area, more is steepness of slope of line
(4) Log S = log C + A log Z

26) Western Ghats come under "Hot Spot" category because of :-

(1) High elevation

(2) Tropical climate
(3) Evergreen forest
(4) High endemism

27) An ecosystem is an interacting system of

(1) Communities
(2) Communities and their environment
(3) Populations
(4) Individuals

28) Who among the following have recently put price tags on ecosystem services i.e. nature's life-
support services?

(1) E.P. Odum and et al

(2) Dr. R. Mishra and P. Maheshwari
(3) Elton and Tansley
(4) Robert Constanza et. al.

29) An assemblage of population of plants, animal, bacteria and fungi that live in an area and
interact with abiotic environment all these together form :-

(1) Biological community

(2) Ecology
(3) Ecosystem
(4) Environment

30) Threat to the indigenous cat fishes in our rivers due to introduction of ?

(1) Nile perch

(2) Clarias gariepinus
(3) Lantana
(4) Parthenium

31) Temperature, Water, Pathogen, Light, Predator, Soil, Parasites, Competitors.

How many of the above given are the most important key elements for variation in condition of
different habitats ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 6

32) Find odd one with respect to Alien species invasions in India :

(1) Parthenium
(2) Lantana
(3) Ophrys
(4) Clarias

33)

Select the statement which best explains commensalism :-

(1) One organism is benefited

(2) Both the organisms are benefited
(3) One organism is benefitted, other is not affected
(4) One organism is benefitted, other is affected.

34) Arrange the following taxa according to the impact of danger on them in Ascending order :-
Mammals, Amphibians, Gymnosperm, Birds

(1) Mammals → Birds → Gymnosperm → Amphibian

(2) Birds → Mammals → Gymnosperm → Amphibian
(3) Amphibian → Birds → Mammals → Gymnosperm
(4) Gymnosperm → Amphibian → Mammals → Bird

35)

Predator are important for a natural ecosystem because :–

(a) They keep prey population under control.
(b) Help in maintaining species diversity
(c) They are used in biological control method.

(d) They reduce the intensity of competition among competiting prey species.
(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) All of the above

36) Process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another
species is best defined as :-

(1) Competition
(2) Predation
(3) Commensalism
(4) Amensalism

37) The total mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called

(1) Gross primary productivity

(2) Standing state
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Standing crop

38) Plants capture only ____ of PAR & sustains the entire world :

(1) 1 – 15%
(2) 1 – 10%
(3) 2 – 10%
(4) 2 – 20%

39) In a field experiment, when all the Pisaster starfish were removed, more than 10 invertebrate
species became extinct within a year, because of :-

(1) Intra-specific competition

(2) Inter-specific competition
(3) Environmental struggle
(4) Interference competition

40) Assuming that the energy transfer efficiency between trophic levels is 10%, how much
‘productivity’ of plants is required to produce 100 kg of tiger biomass if the plants are eaten by deer
and deer in turn are eaten by tiger?

(1) 100 kg
(2) 1000 kg
(3) 10,000 kg
(4) 1,00,000 kg

41) In a hypothetical population of 100 individual having ‘r' = 0.5/female/year, what will be the
population size in 6 years (with e = 2.72) showing exponential rate of growth ?

(1) 1218
(2) 739
(3) 2012
(4) 448

42) Which of the following is not the reason of higher biodiversity in tropical regions :-

(1) Lesser seasonal variations

(2) More availability of light
(3) Higher amount of rainfall
(4) Short evolutionary time

43) Which of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramids ?

(1) it does not accomodate a food web

(2) it has not given any place to saprophytes
(3) it does not take into account of omnivores
(4) it does not accommodate a simple food chain

44) Which sacred groove is found in Rajasthan ?

(1) Khashi and Jaintia hills

(2) Sarguja area
(3) Chanada and Bastar areas
(4) Aravali Hills

45) Ecology at the level of organism tries to understand how different organisms are adapted to
their environment in terms of not only survival but also reproduction. This referred as :-

(1) Developmental ecology.

(2) Behavioral ecology
(3) Synecology
(4) Physiological ecology
 ANSWER KEYS

CHEMISTRY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 2 4 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 3 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 4 1 2 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 3 4 2 4 1 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 1 4 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

CHEMISTRY

1)

Correct answer is option (1)

N to P

2)

Correct answer is option (2)

Ge

3)

Explanation -
The question asks you to identify which of the given statements about the properties of
different carbon allotropes (Diamond, Fullerene, Carbon black, Graphite) is not correctly
matched with the allotrope.

Concept: (Allotropes of carbon & their properties)

Solution :
Graphite → Show's highest thermal conductivity among allotropes of carbon.

A. This is incorrect while Graphite does conduct heat well, Diamond has the highest thermal
conductivity of the carbon allotropes.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

4)

Correct answer is option (1)

I > Cl > Br

5)

Explanation : Identify the false statement about ozone (O3) among its decomposition energy,
oxidizing ability, disinfectant use, and color.
Concept : (Properties of Ozone (O3))
Ozone decomposition (2O3 → 3O2) is exothermic, releasing energy, not absorbing it, making
statement 1 incorrect. Ozone acts as a strong oxidizing agent, a germicide, and a disinfectant,
and pure ozone is a pale blue gas, all of which are correct. The instability of ozone drives its
decomposition, releasing energy as it reverts to the more stable O2 form.
Final Answer – Option(1)
 6)

Correct answer is option (3)

Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

7)

Correct answer is option (1)

A, B, C, D

8)

Question Explanation – Evaluate the given statements about diborane (B2H6) regarding
hybridization, bond angles, electron count, and terminal bonds to identify the correct
combination.

Concept –

A. a. Boron is approximately sp3 hybridized.

A. This is correct. Boron in diborane uses sp3 hybridization to form its bonds.

A. b. B–H–B angle is 180°.

A. This is incorrect. The B-H-B bridge bonds have an angle less than 180 degrees.

A. c. There are only 12 bonding electron available of these substance.

A. Diborane contains 12 valence electrons. 3 from each boron, and 1 from each hydrogen.
Therefore there are 12 bonding electrons. This is correct.

A. d. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atoms.
A. This is correct. Each boron atom in diborane has two terminal B-H bonds. Therefore, the
correct statements are a, c, and d.

Final Answer – Option(1)

9)

Correct answer is option (1)

White phosphorous
 10) Asking about : The P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus.

Concept : Structure of white phosphorus, bond angles.

Formula : None directly applicable.

Solution/Explanation :
• White phosphorus exists as P4 molecules, which have a tetrahedral structure.
• However, the bond angles in this tetrahedron are highly strained due to the small size of the
phosphorus atoms.
• The P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus is 60°.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

11) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question is asking about the transition temperature between two allotropic forms of
sulfur: alpha (α) sulfur and beta (β) sulfur.
Concept: (Allotropic forms of Sulphur)
Allotropic Forms: Sulfur exists in different crystalline form, α-sulfue (rhombic) and β-sulfur
(monoclinic) being the most common.

A. Transition Temperature: This is the temperature at which one allotropic form converts to
another.
B. 369 K: At 369 K (or 96°C), α-sulfur transitions to β-sulfur.

Therefore, the correct answer is 369 K.

Final Answer: Option-2

12) Asking for :

Identifying the most basic oxide among the group 14 oxides.

Concept : Basic character of oxides, trends in the periodic table, inert pair effect.

Formula : None directly applicable.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
• The basic character of oxides decreases as we move across a period and increases as we
move down a group.
• In group 14, the oxides show a trend from acidic (SiO2, GeO2) to amphoteric (SnO2) to basic
(PbO).
• PbO is the most basic oxide among the given options due to the inert pair effect, which
makes the +2 oxidation state more stable for lead.
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

13) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question asks you to identify which of the following oxoacids of halogen does not exist.
Concept: (Oxyacids of halogens)
Fluorine, due to its high electronegativity and small size, only forms one stable oxoacid, HOF
 (hypofluorous acid). Therefore, option 2, "HOF" is the existing oxoacid, while "HOBrO" is not a
known stable compound.
Key point:

A. HOBrO3: is a possible oxoacid of bromine (bromic acid).

B. HOlO3: is a possible oxoacid of iodine (periodic acid).
C. HOF: is the only stable oxoacid of fluorine.

Answer: Option-1

14) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
The question asks you to determine the maximum number of atoms in a diborane
(B2H6) ) molecule that can lie in the same plane.
Concept: (Planarity in B2H6)
The two boron atoms and the four terminal hydrogen atoms lie in one plane.

Final Answer: Option-3

15)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which among the given statements about halogen
molecules and their properties is correct. The statements cover bond dissociation energy,
electron affinity, acidic strength, and boiling points of halogen elements and their compounds.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves the chemical properties and trends of halogens
(Group 17 elements). Key concepts include bond dissociation energy (BDE), electron affinity,
acidic strength of hydrogen halides, and the effect of molecular mass and intermolecular
forces on boiling points.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that boiling points generally increase with molecular mass due to
stronger London dispersion forces. For electron affinity, chlorine is an exception where it has
higher electron affinity than fluorine due to atomic structure. Acidic strength of hydrogen
halides increases down the group due to weaker H-X bonds making it easier to release H+.
BDE does not simply decrease down the group; fluorine's small size leads to bond repulsion
that lowers its bond strength compared to chlorine.

Common Mistakes: Assuming fluorine always has the highest bond dissociation energy or
electron affinity. Confusing acidic strength order of hydrogen halides. Ignoring the role of
intermolecular forces in boiling point trends.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: - 'Fâ‚‚ > Clâ‚‚ Bond dissociation energy' is incorrect
because Clâ‚‚ has higher BDE than Fâ‚‚; Fâ‚‚ has repulsion between lone pairs weakening its
bond. - 'F > Cl Electron affinity' is incorrect as Cl actually has greater electron affinity than F.
- 'HF > HCl (Acidic nature)' is incorrect since HF is a weak acid compared to HCl due to very
strong H-F bond making it less likely to lose H+. The only correct statement is about boiling
points increasing from Fâ‚‚ to Iâ‚‚ due to increasing molar mass and stronger van der Waals
forces.

16)

Correct answer is option (2)

Pb (IV) is oxidising and I– is strong reducing agent.

17)

Correct answer is option (4)

All of the above

18)

Correct answer is option (2)

Naturally Occurring Carbon contains three stable isotopes.

19)

Explanation -
The question asks to identify which of the given molecules has a central atom with an
incomplete octet of electrons, making it electron deficient.

Concept - Coordinate Bond

Solution -

B2​H6​ (diborane) is electron deficient because the boron atoms do not achieve a complete octet
through simple two-center two-electron bonds; its bonding involves three-center two-electron
bonds, leaving the boron effectively short of an octet.

Final Answer - Option (2)

20)

Correct answer is option (1)

HF, HCl

21)

Correct answer is option (4)

Ionic radius (M+3 ion) -
B+3 < Ga+3 < Al+3 < In+3 < Tℓ+3
 22)

Correct answer is option (1)

23)

Correct answer is option (3)

(3) S R P Q

24)

Correct answer is option (1)

K2MnO4, Green

25)

Correct answer is option (2)

MnO2

26)

Correct answer is option (1)

6, 8

27)

Correct answer is option (3)

Ni

28)

Correct answer is option (1)

3d5

29)

Correct answer is option (1)

Mn

30)

Correct answer is option (1)

31)

Correct answer is option (4)

Na2Cr2O7 is less soluble than K2Cr2O7

32)

Correct answer is option (4)

F-centres

33)

Correct answer is option (4)

34)

Correct answer is option (4)

35)

Correct answer is option (2)

36)

Correct answer is option (3)

Zr and Hf have about the same radius

37)

Correct answer is option (4)

38)

Correct answer is option (1)

Mn2O7

39)

Correct answer is option (1)

they are chemically reactive

40)
 Correct answer is option (2)
CrO42–

41)

Correct answer is option (4)

their ability to adopt multiple oxidation state and their complex formation ability

42)

Correct answer is option (3)

incomplete (n–1) d-subshell

43)

Correct answer is option (2)

Ti+2, V+3, Cr+4, Mn+5

44)

Correct answer is option (3)

Cr2O72–

45)

Correct answer is option (1)

1:1

BIOLOGY

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NCERT-XII, Pg. # 267

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NCERT-XII, Pg. # 260

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60)

A keystone species is a species that plays a critical role in maintaining the structure and
functioning of an ecosystem, despite having a relatively small biomass or number of
individuals. Its impact on the ecosystem is disproportionately large compared to its
abundance. Keystone species can influence the population dynamics of other species, the
composition of the community, and overall ecosystem health.
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78)

In case of commensalism one organism get benefited and other is unaffected.

In commensalism (+o) relationship occur between two organisms.
Hence option 3 is correct.

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