02-02-2025

1950CMD303021250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) The P-V diagram for an ideal gas in a piston cylinder assembly undergoing a thermodynamic

process is shown in the figure. The process is

(1) adiabatic
(2) isochoric
(3) isobaric
(4) isothermal

2) The specific heat of a gas in a polytropic process (PVx = constant ) is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) 900 calories of heat is supplied to raise the temperature of 150 gm of air from 20°C to 30°C
without any change in its volume. Change in internal energy per gram of air is:

(1) zero
(2) 0.6 calories
(3) 1.2 calories
(4) 6.0 calories

4) The temperature of the source of a Carnot heat engine is 0°C and that of a sink is –39ºC. The
efficiency of the heat engine is.

(1) 39%
(2) 14.3%
(3) 0
(4) None

5) In the cyclic process shown in the V-P diagram, the magnitude of the work done is-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P(P2V2 – P1V1)

6) To find out degree of freedom, the expression is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) During adiabatic expansion of 10 moles of a gas, the internal energy decreases by 50 J. Work done
during the process is

(1) +50 J
(2) –50 J
(3) zero
(4) cannot say

8) P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the adjoining figure. Plots 1 and 2

should correspond respectively to:

(1) He and O2
(2) O2 and He
(3) He and Ar
(4) O2 and N2

9) Heat flows between system and surrounding is zero. What can we say about the thermodynamic
process?

(1) Isothermal
(2) Isochoric
(3) Adiabatic
(4) Isobaric

10) In which of the figure no heat exchange between the gas and the surroundings will take place, if
the gas is taken along curve ?

(curves are isothermal and adiabatic)

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

11) A gas can be taken from A to B via two different processes ACB and ADB.

When path ACB is used, 60 J of heat flows into the system and 30 J of
work is done by the system. If path ADB, is used work done by the system is 10 J. The heat Flow into
the system in path ADB is:

(1) 80 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 40 J

12) In following figure shown two process A and B on a system. Let ΔU1 and ΔU2 be the change in
internal energy of the system in the process A and B. Then :-

(1) ΔU1 > ΔU2

(2) ΔU1 = ΔU2
(3) ΔU1 < ΔU2
(4) ΔU1 ≤ ΔU2

13) The process ΔU = 0, for an ideal gas can be best represented in the form of a graph :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which of the following function does not represent SHM ?

(1) sin 2ωt

(2) sin2 ωt
(3) sin ωt + 2 cos ωt
(4) sin ωt + cos 2ωt

15) A block of mass 1 kg is connected with a massless spring of force constant 100 N/m. At t = 0, a
constant force F = 10 N is applied on the block. The spring is in its natural length at t = 0. The
speed of the block at x = 6 cm from mean position is–

(1) 4 cm/s
(2) 10 cm/s
(3) 80 cm/s
(4) 50 cm/s

16) Which of the following is constant during SHM:

(1) Velocity
(2) Acceleration
(3) Total energy
(4) Phase

17) A particle undergoes SHM with a time period of 2 seconds. In how much time will it travel from
its mean position to a displacement equal to half of its amplitude ?

(1) 1/2 sec

(2) 1/3 sec
(3) 1/4 sec
(4) 1/6 sec

18) The equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is + kx = 0. The time period of the
particle will be :

2π/
(1)

(2) 2π/k
(3) 2πk
2π
(4)

19) If two SHM displacements are given by x = a sin(ωt + π/6) and x' = a cos ωt, then what is the
phase difference between the two SHM's ?

(1) π/3
(2) π/6
(3) π/2
(4) π

20) A particle executing S.H.M. along y-axis has its motion described by the equation y = A sinωt +
B the amplitude of S.H.M. is :-
(1) A
(2) B
(3) A + B
(4)

21) A particle is executing SHM of amplitude A. Which of the following is maximum at the
mean position ?

(1) Displacement
(2) Acceleration
(3) Momentum
(4) Restoring force

22) A block is executing SHM about a certain mean position. v1 is its speed close to mean position
and v2 is its speed close to extreme. a1 is magnitude of its acceleration close to mean and a2 is
magnitude of its acceleration close to extreme:-

(1) v1 > v2, a1 > a2

(2) v1 > v2, a1 < a2
(3) v1 < v2, a1 < a2
(4) v1 < v2, a1 > a2

23) If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then the time period

(1) Increases by 1%
(2) Decreases by 1%
(3) Increases by 2%
(4) Decreases by 2%

24)

What will be the displacement of a particle in SHM when its velocity is half the maximum velocity :-

(1)
A
(2) A

(3)
A

(4)
A

25) The variation of acceleration (a) and displacement (x) of the particle executing SHM is indicated
by the following curve :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Phase difference between displacement and velocity of a particle executing SHM from mean
position is :-

(1) π
(2) zero

(3)

(4)

27) A particle performs simple harmonic motion about O with amplitude A and time period T. The
magnitude of its acceleration at t = T/8 s after the particle reaches the extreme position would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
X = A cos(ωt)
 where X = displacement at time t
ω = frequency of oscillation Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation
of acceleration 'a' with 't' ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two particles undergo SHM along the same line with the same time period (T) and equal
amplitudes (A). At a particular instant t = 0 one particle is at x = – A and the other is at x = 0. They
move in the same direction. They will cross each other at

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) For a particle undergoing SHM, the velocity is plotted against displacement. The curve will be

(1) a straight line

(2) a parabola
(3) a circle
(4) an ellipse

31) The angular velocity and the amplitude of a simple pendulum are 'ω' and 'A' respectively. At a
displacement x from the mean position its kinetic energy is 'T' and potential energy is 'V'. Then the
ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The kinetic energy of SHM is 1/n times its potential energy. If the amplitude of the SHM be A,
then what is the displacement of the particle?

(1) n A

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is 5s. The spring is cut into four equal parts
and the same mass is now suspended from one of its parts. The period is now :-

(1) 5 s
(2) 2.5 s
(3) 1.25 s
(4) 10 s

34) Spring of spring constants k, 2k, 4k, 8k, ....., 2048 k are connected in series. A mass M kg is
attached to the lower end of the last spring and the system is allowed to vibrate. The time period is
nearly :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Four massless springs whose force constants are 2k, 2k, k and 2k respectively are attached to a
mass M kept on a frictionless plane (as shown in figure). If the mass M is displaced in the horizontal
direction, then the frequency of oscillation of the system is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The time period of a simple pendulum in a stationary train is T. The time period of a mass
attached to a spring is also T. The train accelerates at the rate 5 m/s2. If the new time periods of the
pendulum and spring be Tp and Ts respectively, then :

(1) Tp = Ts
(2) Tp > Ts
(3) Tp < Ts
(4) cannot be predicted

37)

A child swings sitting and standing inside swing as shown in figure, then period of oscillations have
the relation :-

(1) (T)Sitting = (T)Standing

(2) (T)Sitting > (T)Standing
(3) (T)Sitting < (T)Standing
(4) 2(T)Sitting = (T)Standing

38) The potential energy of a spring when stretched by 4 cm. is U. When stretched by 20 cm., its
potential energy will be :–

(1) 25 U

(2)

(3) 20 U

(4)
39) A simple pendulum is oscillating in lift. If lift is going down with constant velocity, the time
period is T1, when lift goes down with some retardation then its time period is T2 then :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 < T2
(3) T1 = T2
(4) Depends upon mass of bob

40) When the displacement is half of the amplitude in SHM, the ratio of potential energy to the total
energy is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

41) How a metallic sphere can be charged without touching it :

(1) By conduction
(2) By induction
(3) By rubbing (friction)
(4) By all the above method

42) An electron at rest has a charge of 1.6 × 10–19 C. It starts moving with a velocity v = c/2, where c
is the speed oflight then the new charge on it is.

(1) 1.6 × 10–19 Coulomb

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)

If a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it acquires a positive charge because -

(1) Protons are added to it.

(2) Protons are removed from it.
(3) Electrons are added to it.
(4) Electrons are removed from it.
44) When 1019 electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is

(1) – 1.6 C
(2) + 1.6 C
(3) 10+19 C
(4) 10–19 C

45) One metallic sphere A is given positive charge where as another identical metallic sphere B of
exactly same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge. Then

(1) Mass of A and mass of B still remain equal

(2) Mass of B increases
(3) Mass of B decreases
(4) Mass of A increases

CHEMISTRY

1) + HI —→ major product is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Arrange the following in order of their reactivity toward dehydrohalogenation :-

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > III > I > II
(4) I > II > III > IV
3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following yield But-2-ene on dehydration with con. H2SO4 ?

(1) 2-Methyl-2-butanol
(2) 2-Propanol
(3) 2-Methyl-2-propanol
(4) Butan-2-ol

5) The compound which reacts with HBr obeying Markownikoff's rule is :-

(1) H2C=CH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which one is not possible

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following is major product in the following reaction ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) Peroxide effect occurs in the presence of peroxide with :-

(1) HCl
(2) HBr
(3) HI
(4) None

9) Among the following, the true property is -

(1) Non-planar
(2) C+ is sp2-hybridised
(3) Electrophile can attack C+
(4) All of these

10) Choose the chain terminating step

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

(1) a
(2) c
(3) d
(4) e

11)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) major product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

13) major product.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None

14) What is the main product of this reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) During chlorination of methane to methyl chloride, the propagation step is represented by

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) Solutions which distill without any change in composition in liquid and vapour phase :-

(1) Saturated
(2) Supersaturated
(3) Ideal
(4) Azeotrope

17) Mol fraction of vapours of A above solution in mixture of A and B where XA = 0.4, and
, ?

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.25
(4) 1.2

18) The molal depression constant for four liquids P, Q, R and S respectively are 1.84, 2.20, 3.15 and
3.92. If 0.1 M urea solution is made in all the solvents than which solution will show maximum
depression in freezing point :-

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

19) The vapour pressure of the solution of two liquids A(P° = 80 mm) and B(P° = 120 mm) is found
to be 100 mm when XA = 0.4. The result shows that :

(1) Solution exhibits ideal behaviour

(2) Solution shows positive deviations
(3) Solution shows negative deviation
(4) None of these

20) Which of the following forms ideal solution :-

(1) C6H5 Cl – C6H5 Br

(2) C6H6 – C6H5CH3
(3) Hexane-heptane
(4) All of above

21) When a concentrated solution is separated from a dilute solution by SPM, which is the best
description of what is occurring ?

(1) Solute molecules flow from the solution of higher concentration

(2) Solute molecules flow from the solution of lower concentration.
Solvent molecules move in each direction with an overall movement from concentrated to the
(3)
dilute solution
Solvent molecules move in each direction with an overall movement from dilute to concentrated
(4)
side of the solution.

22) If liquid A and B form an ideal solution then

(1) Enthalpy of mixing is zero

(2) Entropy of mixing is zero
(3) Free energy of mixing is zero
(4) Free energy as well as entropy of mixing are each zero

23)

The freezing point of a 0.05 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water is :

(Kf = 1.86 K molality–1)

(1) –1.86°C
(2) –0.93°C
(3) –0.093°C
(4) 0.093°C

24) An aqueous solution freezes at

–0.186ºC (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1). The elevation in Boiling point of the solution
is

(1) 0.186
(2) 0.512

(3)

(4) 0.0512

25) Total number of electrons present in 18mL of water (d=1g mL–1) is :

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 6.02 × 1022
(3) 6.02 × 1024
(4) 6.02 × 1025

26) An organic compound found to contain 0.032% sulphur. What would be the minimum molecular
mass of organic compound :-

(1) 103
(2) 101
(3) 105
(4) 106

27) 250 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in excess of O2 gave 1.25 L of CO2 and 1.5 L of
water vapours under same conditions. Molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is :-

(1) C4 H8
(2) C4 H10
(3) C5 H10
(4) C5 H12

28) Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is 89600.
Calculate the no. of iron atom per molecule of haemoglobin :-

(1) 400
(2) 40
(3) 4
(4) 4000

29) In the completion of reaction :-

2A + 3B —→ C + D 40 g of A and 20 g of B are totally consumed to produce 30 g of C. The mass
of D produced is
(1) 40 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 30 g
(4) 10 g

30) 8 mL of CO2 is passed over red hot coke. Calculate the volume of CO liberated according to the
equation :-
CO2(g) + C(s) → 2CO(g)

(1) 8 mL
(2) 16 mL
(3) 24 mL
(4) 4 mL

31) Which of the following statement is correct if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are
in the order A < B < C?

(1) B evaporates more readily than A

(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A evaporates more readily than C
(4) A and B evaporate at the same rate

0 0
32) If PA and PB are 108 and 36 torr respectively. What will be the mole fraction of A is vapour
phase if B has mole fraction in solution 0.5.

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.75
(3) 0.60
(4) 0.35

33) Which of the following graph does not represents ideal behaviour for a binary liquid solution :-

(1) A graph between PA and XA (mole fraction of liquid A) is linear

(2) A graph between PA and XB (mole fraction of liquid B) is linear
(3) A graph between Ptotal and XA or XB is linear
(4) A graph between Ptotal and XA is non-linear

34) The mass of a non-volatile solute (molecular mass = 40) which should be dissolved in 114g
octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80% will be

(1) 20g
(2) 30g
(3) 10g
(4) 40g

35) A, B, C, D are four liquids having B.P, 40°C, 90°C, 100°C, 150°C respectively. Which will have
highest vapour pressure at same temperature ?

(1) D
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A

36) Most reactive compound for electrophilic addition reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) P, [Major] P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) both are correct

(4) None

38) The reagent needed for converting :-

(1) H2/Lindlar catalyst

(2) Catalytic Hydrogenation
(3) LiAlH4
(4) Na/Liquid NH3

39) Which of the following alkane cannot be obtained by catalytic hydrogenation of alkene or alkyne?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Which of the following reactions is a termination step in the free radical chlorination of
methane?

(1) Cl2 + Cl• → Cl• + Cl2

(2) Cl2 → 2Cl•
(3) •CH3 + Cl• → CH3Cl
(4) CH4 + Cl• → HCl + •CH3

41) Incorrect match is/are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

42) Give reactivity order towards EAR.

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)
(4) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)

43)
Major product of the above Rxn is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

(1) Identical
(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers

45)
A & B are related as :

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Homomers
(4) Homologues

BIOLOGY

1) As the anther matures and dehydrates, the micropores dissociate from each other and develop
into

(1) Microsporangium
(2) Male gametophytes
(3) Megasporangium
(4) Male gametes

2) Which of the following structure is diploid ?

(1) Antipodals
(2) Synergids
(3) Secondary nucleus
(4) Gamete

3) The male gametes of angiosperms are :-

(1) Uniflagellate
(2) Biflagellate
(3) Non-motile
(4) Multiflagellate

4) In Angiosperms pollen tube develops from :-

(1) Generative cell

(2) Male gametes
(3) Vegetative cell
(4) Generative nucleus

5) What is the direction of micropyle of anatropous ovule ?

(1) Left
(2) Right
(3) Downward
(4) Upward

6) Mature male gametophyte is made up of

(1) One cells

(2) Two cells
(3) Three cells
(4) Four cells

7) Polygonum type of embryosac, at maturity has :-

(1) 4 nuclei
(2) 14 nuclei
(3) 8 nuclei
(4) 18 nuclei

8) Fibrous bands present in endothecium of anther wall is made up of :-

(1) Sporopollenin
(2) α-cellulose
(3) Pectin
(4) Liguin

9) Sporogenous tissue :-

(1) Is haploid and produces pollen grains.

(2) Is the central tissue of megasporangia which produces megaspores after mitosis.
(3) Occupies the centre of each microsporangia.
(4) Is peripheral tissue of cereal endosperm

10) Group of cell at chalazal end of embryosac is known as :-

(1) Egg cell

(2) Egg apparatus
(3) Synergids cell
(4) Antipodal cell

11) In flowering plants, how many divisions are required for the formation of mature male
gametophyte from microspore?

(1) 1 meiotic division is required

(2) 1 meiotic and 1 mitotic divisions are required
(3) 2 mitotic divisions are required
(4) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic divisions are required

12) The two cells with which pollen grains are discharged, are :-

(1) Larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell

(2) Larger vegetative cell and smaller body cell
(3) Smaller vegetative cell and larger body cell
(4) Smaller generative cell and larger vegetative cell

13) Which part of pollen exhibit a fascinating array of pattern and design ?

(1) Intine
(2) Exine
(3) Pollen kit
(4) Germpare

14) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n

15) Tapetum of flowering plant is :-

(1) Diploid and uninucleate

(2) Haploid and uninucleate
(3) Diploid and multinucleate
(4) Polyploid and multinucleate

16) Pollen kitt is generally found in :-

(1) Anemophilous flowers

(2) Entomophilous flowers
(3) Hydrophilous flowers
(4) Malacophilous flowers

17) Megasporangium (along with its protective integuments) is called :-

(1) Ovary
(2) Ovule
(3) Carpel
(4) Pollen sac

18) Pollens can be stored at which temperature:-

(1) –196°C
(2) 196°C
(3) 100°C
(4) 0°C

19) Pick the odd one out family with respect to pollen viability in months.

(1) Rosaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Leguminosae
(4) Cucurbitaceae

20) Which of the following statement about sporopollenin is incorrect?

(1) Exine is made up of mainly sporopollenin

(2) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic materials
(3) Exine has aperture called micropyle where sporopollenin is absent
(4) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids

21) The pollen grain represents:-

(1) Microsporangium
(2) Male gametophyte
(3) Female gamete
(4) Microsporophyll

22)
Choose the correct option :-

(1) A = Funicle B = Hilum

(2) D = Integument E = Nucellus
(3) E = Embryo sac A = Hilum
(4) A = Raphe C = Mircopyle

23) One ovule is present in the ovary of:-

(1) Paddy
(2) Papaya
(3) Watermelon
(4) Orchids

24) The distal end of filament is attached to :-

(1) Petal
(2) Thalamus
(3) Carpel
(4) Anther

25) Which one of the following statements is not true?

(1) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

(2) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
(4) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes

26) Nucellus is found in :-

(1) Embryo
(2) Anther
(3) Endosperm
(4) Ovule

27) Megasporogenesis is :-

(1) Formation of microspore from megaspore mother cell

(2) Formation of megaspore from microspore mother cell
(3) Formation of megaspore from megaspore mother cell
(4) Formation of microspore from microspore mother cell

28) Dehiscence of anther in most of angiosperm is :-

(1) Transverse
(2) Porous
(3) Valvular
(4) Longitudinal

29) Stamen is also known as :-

(1) Megasporophyll
(2) Microsporangium
(3) Microsporophyll
(4) Megaasporangium

30) The major pigments in green algae are...........and the stored food is..........

(1) Chl a, Chl d, Starch

(2) Chl a, Chl c, Floridean starch
(3) Chl a, Chl b, Starch
(4) Chl a, Chl c, Manitol

31) In liverworts, sporophyte is differentiated into :-

(1) Only Foot

(2) Foot and Seta
(3) Seta and Capsule
(4) Foot, Seta and Capsule

32) Which of the following is used as a fuel and has a good capacity of water absorption ?

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchantia
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Funaria

33) In algae, the most common type of asexual spore is:

(1) Zoospore
(2) Chlamdospore
(3) Hypnospore
(4) Akineye

34) Read the following statements w.r.t. brown alga:

(i) Gracilaria belong to brown algae.
(ii) Gametes are always without flagella.
(iii) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous, or oogamous.
(iv) common forms are Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and Fucus.
(v) Gametes are pyriform (pear shaped) and bears two laterally attached flagella.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Five

35) Match the column:

Column-I Column-II

A. Carrageen (i) Brown algae

B. Algin (ii) Red algae

C. Agar-agar (iii) Gelidum

(iv) Gracilaria
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii, iv), C-(iv)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii, iii), C-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii, iv)
(4) A-(i, ii), B-(iii), C-(iv)

36) The sexual reproduction in spirogyra is:

(1) Isogamous involving flagellated gametes

(2) Oogamous involving one flagellated and the other non-flagellated gamete
(3) Isogamous involving non-flagellated gametes
(4) Anisogamous involving flagellated gametes

37) In 40% angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at

(1) Four-celled stage

(2) Three-celled stage
(3) Two-celled stage
(4) Five-celled stage
38) Pollen allergy is caused by pollens of

(1) Rose
(2) Clematis
(3) Parthenium
(4) Sunflower

39) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d.

Correctly identify

(1) a-Endothecium, b-Tapetum, c- Microspore mother cell, d- Middle layers

(2) a-Tapetum, b- Endothecium, c- Microspore mother cell, d- Middle layers
(3) a-Endothecium, b- Middle layer, c- Tapetum , d-Microspore mother cell
(4) a-Endothecium, b- Microspore mother cell, c-Middle layer, d- Tapetum

40) Which statement is incorrect?

(1) Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and exhibit fascinating array of patterns and designs
The mature pollen grains has two cells, the bigger is vegetative cell and the smaller is
(2)
generative cell which floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell
(3) Carrot grass pollens cause pollen allergy
(4) Pollen grains of Pea and Rose maintain viability for months

41) Where does reduction division take place in the life cycle of liverwort ?

(1) Sporangium
(2) Capsule
(3) Ascus
(4) Ovule

42) Arrange the following events of life cycle of bryophytes in correct sequence :-
I. Germination of spore
II. Gametes formation
III. Formation of gametophyte
IV. Fertilization
V. Embryo formation

(1) I,III,IV,V,II
(2) II,IV,I,V,III
(3) I,III,II,IV,V
(4) V,I,II,III,IV

43) Gemmae are structures of asexual reproduction among .......... ?

(1) Liver worts

(2) Mosses
(3) Pteridophyte
(4) Algae

44) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 mm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

45)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.

Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

46) Which of the following is a content of spermatic cord?

(1) Dartos muscle

(2) Cremaster muscle
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Vasa efferentia

47) Which accessory sex gland in human being is unpaired ?

(1) Bartholin's gland

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Cowper gland
(4) Prostate gland
48) After some time of ejaculation, semen liquifies due to presence of an enzyme which is found in
secretion of:-

(1) Vagina
(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Prostate
(4) Cowpers gland

49) Identify the structure shown below and its location in the human, and select the right option.

Structure Site of occurrence

(1) Testis Abdominal cavity

(2) Penis Abdominal cavity

(3) Seminiferous tubules Testis

(4) Prostate Below the urinary bladder

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

50) Which of the following chemical is responsible for concentration of testosterone inside the
seminiferous tubules ?

(1) ICSH
(2) ABP
(3) Inhibin
(4) Androgens

51) Which of the following release inhibin to control spermatogenesis ?

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sustentacular cells
(4) Theca interna

52) All of the following structures are the part of intra testicular genital duct system except :-

(1) Seminiferous tubules

(2) Rete testis
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Vas deferens

53) Each testis is connected with the wall of scrotum through a flexible and fibrous structure which
is called :

(1) Spermatic fascia

(2) Gubernaculum
(3) Dartos muscles
(4) Cremaster muscles

54) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify ejaculatory

duct :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

55) Identify the A, B, C & D in the diagram.

(1) A → Vasa efferentia, B → Vas deferens, C → Seminal vesicle, D → Prostate

(2) A → Vas deferens, B → Vas efferens, C → Prostate, D → Seminal vesicle
(3) A → Epididymis, B → Ureter, C → Prostate, D → Bulbourethral gland
(4) A → Rete testis, B → Ureter, C → Bulbourethral gland, D → Prostate

56)

How many of the following are secondary sex organs in males ?

Uterus, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Prostate, Fallopian tube, Seminal vesicles, Penis, Vagina, Testes,
Bulbourethral glands
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Four

57) Which cells provide nutrition to male germ cells (sperm) ?

(1) Macrophage
(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Leydig cells
(4) Sertoli cells

58) Which sequence is correct for male genital tract?

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Seminal vesicle →
(4)
Urethra

59) Which of the following hormone responsible for milk formation in Human female ?

(1) Prolactin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

60)

Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma ?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Spermatogonia
(d) Leydig cells
(e) Bulbourethral gland
(f) Prostate gland

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e, f
(4) only b, e, f

61) Which hormone act on the uterine muscles during parturition ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Prolactin

62)

Identify the correct sequence of events of reproduction in human?

Gametogenesis → Gestation →
(1) Insemination → Fertilisation →
Implantation → parturition
Gestation → Gametogenesis →
(2) Insemination → Implantation →
Fertilisation → parturition
Gametogenesis → Insemination →
(3) Gestation → Fertilisation →
Implantation → Parturition
Gametogenesis →Insemination→
(4) Fertilisation → Implantation →
Gestation → parturition

63) If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the
gametes will not be transported from :-

(1) Testis to epididymis

(2) Epididymis to Vasdeferens
(3) Ovary to uterus
(4) Vagina to uterus

64) A five week old embryo has Wolffian and Mullerian duct and after completing seven week one of
two duct is disappeared due to secretion of hormone 'A'. Identify the hormone 'A' and what will be
the sex of embryo in future ?

(1) Testosterone, male

(2) AMH, male
(3) Estrogen, female
(4) Inhibin, female

65) Which statement is correct ?

(1) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called foreskin

The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate and paired
(2)
bulbourethral gland
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Breast are secondary sex organ

66) Sperm are temporarily stored and matured in :-

(1) Prostate
(2) Epididymis
(3) Ampulla
(4) Rete testis

67) The penis is?

(1) The male primary sex organ.

(2) The male external genitalia
(3) Facilitate insemination
(4) Both (2) and (3)

68) Mediastinum testis is formed by :-

(1) Tunica vasculosa

(2) Tunica albugenia
(3) Tunica vaginalis
(4) Tunica propria

69) Vas deferens is evolved from :-

(1) Caput part of epididymes

(2) Corpus part of epididymes
(3) Vasa efferentia
(4) Cauda part of epididymes

70)

How many hormones in the list given below secreted by Sertoli cells :-
ABP, LH, FSH, AMH, Inhibin

(1) one
(2) three
(3) two
(4) four

71) Ejaculation of semen is controlled by :-

(1) Parasympathetic nervous system

(2) Sympathetic nervous system
(3) Central nervous system
(4) Enteric nervous system
72)
In above chart identify A, B, C and D :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) If all sertoli cells of both testis were destroyed then what will be happen ?

(1) Secondary sexual characters of male will not be developed

(2) Level of testosterone will be low
(3) Sperms will not be produced
(4) Libido will be lost

74) Which of the following is not true about columnar cells of testes which can phagocyte the dead
sperm cells ?

(1) These can synthesize progesterone from testosterone.

(2) These are the basis of blood testes barrier.
(3) These are also called sustentacular cells which occur in all animals.
(4) Both (1) & (3).

75) The correct sequence of coverings around the testes of human from outside to inside is:
A – Tunica vaginalis
B – Tunica albuginea
 C – Tunica vasculosa

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, A, C
(3) C, B, A
(4) C, A, B

76) Which duct of the embryo gives rise to epididymis?

(1) wolffian duct

(2) mullerian duct
(3) stensons duct
(4) whartons duct

77) The common duct formed by the union of vas deferens and duct from seminal vesicle is:

(1) Urethra
(2) Mullerian duct
(3) Spermatic duct
(4) Ejaculatory duct

78) Which of the following sugars in semen is a source of energy for the sperm?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Fructose
(3) Glucose
(4) Galactose

79) The function of the male secondary sex organ is to:-

(1) Transfer spermatozoa to the female

(2) Regulate sperm production
(3) Produce sperms
(4) Produce male sex hormones

80) The urethra passes through the _____ of the penis.

(1) tunica albuginea

(2) prepuce
(3) corpus spongiosum
(4) corpora cavernosa

81) Size of testes in cm :-

(1) 2–3 width 4–5 length

(2) 3–4 width 4–5 length
(3) 1–3 width 2–3 length
(4) 2–3 length 4–5 width

82) Enlargement of lower jaw,hunch back and overall gorilla like appearance may be a symptom of?

(1) Acromegaly
(2) Simmond's disease
(3) Gigantism
(4) Dwarfism

83) Amino acid derivative hormones are :-

(1) Glucagon, Adrenaline, Nor adrenaline

(2) Insulin, Nor adrenaline, MSH
(3) Adrenaline, Nor-Adrenaline, Thyroxine
(4) Thyroxine, Nor adrenaline, ACTH

84)

Calcium homeostasis is maintained by a group of hormones. Which hormone increases Calcium in

bones?

(1) T3
(2) Calcitonin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) PTH

85)

I. Sleep-wake cycle
II. Body temperature
III. Pigmentation
IV. Metabolism
V. Defence capability

All of the above written activities are influenced/regulated by :-

(1) Pineal gland
(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Adrenal gland

86) Which of the following is not a deficiency related disorder ?

(1) Cretinism
(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) Exophthalmic goitre
87) Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II

A. PRL a. Gonadotropins

B. TSH b. Glucocorticoids

C. ACTH c. Thyroid hormone

D. LH and FSH d. Mammary glands

A B C D

(1) a b c d

(2) b a c d

(3) d c b a

(4) d c a b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Mary is about to face an interview. But during the first five minutes before the interview she
experiences sweating, increased rate of heartbeat, respiration, etc. Which hormone is responsible
for her restlessness ?

(1) Estrogen and progesterone

(2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
(3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(4) Insulin and glucagon

89) ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of _______ hormones called _____ from adrenal
cortex. Complete the above sentence by filling appropriate blanks :-

(1) Protein, Sex corticoids

(2) Long peptides, Mineralocarticoids
(3) Short peptides, Mineralocorticoids
(4) Steroid, Glucocorticoids

90) The steroid hormone responsible for balance of water and electrolytes in our body is :-

(1) Insulin
(2) Melatonin
(3) Testosterone
(4) Aldosterone
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 1 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 4 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 3 4 4 4 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 4 3 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 4 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 1 4 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 1 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 4 1 1 4 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 2 1 4 3 3 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) P = constant
⇒ Isobaric process

7) In adiabatic expansion, dQ = 0,
∴ dW = –dU = – (–50 J) = 50 J

9) In adiabatic process heat is zero (Q = 0)

10) B → Adiabatic → V P ↓ (more steep)

A → Isothermal → V P ↓ (less steep)

(C,D) → positive slope

13)
⇒ ΔT = 0
Tf = Ti
Pf Vf = Pi Vi

17) x = A sin t ; for x =⇒ = A sin t

Solving, t =

23) Vmax = ωA = 0.2 m/s

a = – ω2 x = 0.4 m/s2
ω2 = 4 ⇒
ωA = 0.2
2 × A = 0.2

31) V = Kx2

T= K(A2 – x2)
 33)

37) , ∵ effective length ℓSitting > ℓStanding

40) x =

CHEMISTRY

48)

49)

52) follows markonikov's rule

53) Peroxide effect occurs with HBr in the presence of peroxide.

81)
[More stable C⊕]

83)

Birch catalyst → Anti addition

 86)
So option (2) is incorrect.

87) Reactivity toward EAR ∝ Stability of carbocation

(ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i)

88)

89)

90)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Page no. 6

93) NCERT XII, Page # 27

97) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 27

99) NCERT Pg. # 22

100) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 27(E)

102) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

103) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

104) NCERT-XII, Page#26

107)

NCERT-XII Pg# 24

110) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 23

111) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 22

112) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 28

131) NCERT XI pg.# 44

132)

NCERT XI, Pg # 29

133) NCERT Pg # 35

134)

NCERT Pg. # 28,29

135)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23,24

137)

NCERT Pg. # 44
141)

Sertoli cells, also known as sustentacular cells or nurse cells release inhibin.

145)

NCERT Pg. 43

149)

NCERT Pg. 54

151) NCERT Pg. # 54

152)

NCERT XII - Page no 27

155)

NCERT XII - Page no 43 + 44 + 47

156)

Application type - Allen module.

162)

NCERT Page # 31
ABP : - Androgen binding protein secretes from sertoli cells. FSH acts on sertoli cells and
stimulates secretion of some factors.

167)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 27

168)

NCERT Pg. 44

172)

NCERT Pg. No. 241

173) NCERT 337, 338

175)

NCERT Page # 242

179)

NCERT Page # 244

180) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 335 para(22.2.7)