EVOLUTION

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[Link] biology is
(a) the study of history of life forms on earth
(b) study of pedigrees of life forms on earth
(c) equivalent to demography
(d) equivalent to anthropology
[Link] to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth's
atmosphere before origin of life consisted of a mixture of
(a) O2, CH4, O3 and H2O
(b) O3, NH3, CH4 and H2O
(c) H2, CO2, NH3 and CH4
(d) CH4, NH3, H2 and H2O vapours
[Link] theory arguments that life on earth came from outer space
through spores?
(a) Theory of panspermia
(b) Cosmozoic theory
(c) Spore theory
(d) More than one option are correct
04. For a long time, it was believed that life came out of decaying and
rotting matter like straw, mud, etc. This was the theory of
(a) catastrophism
(b) spontaneous gene ration
(c) panspermia
(d) chemogeny
05. Who discarded the theory of spontaneous generation once and for
all?
(a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Francesco Redi
(c) Spallanzani
(d) Aristotle
06. Who showed that life did not evolve from killed yeast
in pre-sterilised flasks?
(a) Oparin
(b) Haldane
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Miller
07. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from
pre-existing non-living organic molecules and it precedes chemical
evolution?
(a) SL. Miller
(b) Oparin and Haldane
(c)Charles Darwin
(d) Alfred Wallace
08. Experimental evidence of chemical evolution was
given by
(a) Miller
(b) Haldane
(c) Oparin
(d) All of these
09. Miller synthesised simple amino acids from one of the following
mixtures in his experiment
(a) CH4, NH3, H2, and water vapours at 800°C
(b) H2, O2, N2 and water vapours at 200°C
(c) H2, O2, C2 and water vapours at 2000°C
(d) CH4, NH3, O2 and water vapours at 500°C
10. What did Miller obtained from his experiment?
(a) Amino acids
(b) Organic compounds
(c) Nitrogen bases
(d) All of these
11. On early earth, organic acids were produced by the
combination of H2 with
(a) ammonia and methane
(b) hydrogen
(c) organic matter
(d) sulphates and nitrates
12. The first non-cellular forms of life that originated
3 billion years back was/were
(a) protein
(b) polysaccharide
(c) RNA
(d) All of these
13. The first single cell-like structure initially appeared in
(a) air
(b) mountain
(c) ocean
(d) soil
14. The sequence of origin of life may be
(a) Inorganic materials →Organic materials → Colloidal aggregate
Eobiont → Cell
(b) Organic materials →Inorganic materials → Colloidal aggregate
Eobiont → Cell
(c) Inorganic materials →Organic materials →Eobiont → Cell
Colloidal aggregate
(d) Organic materials →Inorganic materials → Eobiont
→ Cell → Colloidal aggregate
15. The given diagram represents Miller's experiment. Choose the
correct combination of labelling for A, B, C and D.
(a) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 + H2 + H2O + CH4, C-Condensor, D-U-trap
(b) A-Electrodes, B-NH3+ H2+ CO2 +CH4, C-Vacuum pump, D-U-
trap
(c) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 + H2O, C-Condensor, D-Vacuum pump
(d) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 + H2 + H2O+ CH4 C-Boiling water, D-
Vaccum pump
[Link] was the name of the sail ship used by Charles
Darwin during his sea voyage?
(a) HMS Beagle
(b) HSM Beagle
(c) HMS Eagle
(d) HSM Eagle
17. According to Charles Darwin's observations
(a) existing life forms share similarities to the life forms that existed
million of years ago
(b) life forms evolve gradually
(c)any population has built in variations which enable them to survive
in natural conditions
(d) All of the above
18. According to Darwin, those who are better fit in an environment,
(a) leave more progeny than others
(b) leave less progeny than others
(c) are cradicated rapidly due to competition
(d) None of the above
19. Theory of natural selection as the mechanism of evolution was
given by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Darwin
(c) Alfred Wallace
(d) JBS Haldane
20. Scientist who also came to the similar conclusions around the
same time of Charles Darwin was
(a) Alfred Wallace
(b) Hugo de Vries
(c) TH Morgan
(d) Oparin and Haldane
[Link] Archipelago is
(a) a group of islands visited by Wallace
(b) a research paper on evolution written by Wallace
(c) a research paper on ecology written by Wallace
(d) a group of organism studied by Wallace
22. The conclusions drawn by Darwin and Wallace were
(a) All existing life forms share similarities and common ancestors
(b) The ancestors of existing life forms were present a different
periods in the history of earth
(c) The geological history of earth correlates with the biological history
of earth
(d) All of the above
23. Evidence that evolution of life forms has indeed taken place on
earth has come from
(a) fossil studies (palaeontological evidences)
(b) morphological and comparative anatomical studies
(c) biochemical studies
(d) All of the above
24. Fossils are the remains of
(a) hard parts of life forms found in rocks
(b) light parts of life forms found in rocks
(c) proteins and bones of life forms found in rocks
(d) fats and proteins of life forms found in rocks
25. A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates
(a) physiological period in which they existed
(b) geological period in which they existed
(c) conditions in which they were living
(d) All of the above
26. Fossils are useful in
(a) studying extinct organisms
(b) studying history of organisms
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
27. Embryological support for evolution given by Emst Haeckel
includes the

(a) presence of hair all over the body in adult human

(b) absence of tail bone and presence of wisdom tooth
(c) absence of vestigial gill slits in human's embryo
(d) presence of row of vestigial gill slits in embryo of all vertebrates
28. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many
vertebrates is an example of
(a) convergent evolution
(b) analogy
(c) homology
(d) adaptive radiation
29. Which one of the following options gives one correct example
each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?
[Link] the animals, the same structures developed along the different
directions due to the adaptations to different [Link] is called
(a) convergent evolution
(b)divergent evolution
(c)disruptive evolution
(d) directional evolution
31. Divergent evolution gives rise to
(a) homologous organs
(b) analogus organs
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
32. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution,
select the incorrect option.
(a) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(b) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(c) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(d) Eye of Octopus, bat and man
33. What does presence of homologous organs in different animals
indicate?
(a) Different ancestry
(b) Common ancestry
(c) Independent development
(d) Dependent development
34. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are examples of
(a) vestigial organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) homologous organs
(d) homoplasy
35. Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a
bird?
(a) Wing of a moth
(b) Hindlimb of rabbit
(c) Flipper of whale
(d) Dorsal fin of a shark
36. Diagram given below indicates
(a) analogous organs
(b) homologous organs
(c) convergent evolution
(d) All of these
37. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are
(a) homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
(b) analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
(c) phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution
(d) homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
38. The eyes of Octopus and eyes of cat show different pattems of
structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of

(a) homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

(b) homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(c) analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(d) analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
39. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary
history evolve similar phenotypic adaptation in response to a common
environmental challenge, is called
(a) natural selection
(b) convergent evolution
(c) non-random evolution
(d) adaptive radiation
40. Evolutionary convergence is the development of
(a) common set of characters in closely related groups
(b) common set of characters in the group of different ancestry
(c) random mating
(d) dissimilar characters in the closely related groups
41. Biochemical similarities are based on study of
(a) similarities in carbohydrates of organisms
(b) similarities in fat (fatty acid) of organisms
(c) similarities in protein and genes of organisms
(d) All of the above
42. Change of lighter coloured variety of peppered moths
(Biston betularia) to darker variety in the industrial era occurred due
to
(a) selection of darker variety for survival
(b) deletion of gene
(c) industrial carbon deposited on the wings
(d) translocation of gene
43. England in 1850s, i.e. before industrialisation set in, it was
observed that there were more white- winged moths on trees than
dark-winged or melanised moths However, in the collection carried
out from the same area, but after industrialisation, Le in 1920, there
were more dark-winged moths in the same area, Le the proportion
was reversed.
Predict the possible reason for such change
(a) Natural selection
(b) artificial selection
(c) Conditional selection
(d) Divergent selection
44. The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form
becomes dominant over the light- coloured form of moth in England
during industrial revolution. This is an example of
(a) appearance of the darker-coloured individuals due to very poor
sunlight
(b) protective mimicry
(c) inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker
environment
(d) natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
45. Natural indicator of industrial pollution is
(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c)lichen
(d) bacteria
46. Industrial melanism is an example of
(a) neo Darwinism
(b) natural selection
(c) mutation
(d) neo Lamarckism
47. Example of anthropogenic evolution is
(a) selection of resistant microbes to pesticides
(b) antibiotic resistant eukaryotic cells
(c) Industrial melanism is Biston betularia
(d) All of the above
48. Evolution is
(a) discontinuous process
(b) stochastic process
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) non-essential process
49. Development of different functional structures from a common
ancestral form is called
(a) differential evolution
(b) adaptive radiation
(c) non-adaptive radiation
(d) regressive evolution
50. The process by which different type of finches were evolved in
Galapagos islands
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) geographic similarity
(c) geographic dissimilarity
(d) adaptive convergence
[Link] original finches from which other finches arose on Galapagos
island were
(a) seed-eating
(b) insectivorous
(c) vegetarian
(d) carnivorous
52. Which one of the following aspects of evolution is shown by
Darwin's finches?
(a) Biogeographic evidence
(b) Industrial melanism
(c) Biochemical evidence
(d) Embryological evidence
53. The diversity in the type of finches and adaptation to different
feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin,
provides an evidence of
(a) origin of species by natural selection
(b) intraspecific variation
(c) intraspecific competition
(d) interspecific competition
54. Australian marsupials are the example
(a) homologous radiation
(b) analogous radiation
(c) adaptive radiation.
(d) convergent radiation
55. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have
occurred in an isolated geographical area, it is
(a) convergent evolution
(b) divergent evolution
(c) natural selection
(d) genetic drift
56. Identify what is indicated in the given diagram?
I. Recombination
II. Adaptive radiation
III. Ecological succession
IV. Different species of penguins by mutation Choose the correct
option.
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Only IV
(d) Only II
57. Identify what the given diagram indicates?
A. Convergent evolution
B. Divergent evolution
C. Recapitulation
D. Parallel evolution.
58. The classical example of adaptive radiation in development of
new species is
(a) Darwin's finches
(b) marsupials of Australia
(c) locomotion in mammals
(d)All of the above
59. Example of convergent evolution is
(a) Darwin finches and marsupial mouse
(b) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf
(c) Placental wolf and Darwin finches
(d) Tasmanian wolf and marsupial mole
60. Which of the following is not an examples of adaptive radiation?
(a) Wombat, numbat, flying phalanger
(b) Darwin's finches
(c) Different mammals in other parts of world
(d) Lemur and spotted cuscus
61. In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to
share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be
referred to as
(a) adaptive radiation
(b) divergent evolution
(c) cyclical evolution
(d) convergent evolution
62. A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the
following conditions will lead to adaptive radiation?
(a) Area with large number of habitats having very low food supply
(b) Area with a single type of vacant habitat
(c) Area with many types of vacant habitats
(d) Area with many habitats occupied by a large number of species
63. What is meant by the term 'Darwin fitness'?
(a) Ability to survive and reproduce
(b) High aggressiveness
(c) Healthy appearance
(d) Physical strength
64. Survival of the fittest is possible due to the
(a) overproduction
(b) favourable variations
(c) environmental changes
(d) inheritance of acquired characters
65. Darwinian fitness can be estimated by
(a) how long different individual in a population survive
(b) number of offspring produced by different individuals in population
(c) individual have a large size in population
(d) species recover after mass extinction
66. Which of the following are the two key concepts of
Darwinian theory of evolution?
(a) Genetic drift and mutation
(b) Adaptive radiation and homology
(c) Mutation and natural selection
(d) Branching descent and natural selection
67. Which concept was not included Charles Darwin's
theory of natural selection?
(a) Survival of the fittest
(b) Struggle for existence
(c) Overproduction of offspring
(d) Punctuated equilibrium
68. What is the difference between natural selection and sexual
selection?
(a) Sexual selection occurs during sexual intercourse
(b) Natural selection is a type of sexual selection
(c) Sexual selection is an example natural selection
(d) Sexual selection occurs within demes
69. Which of the following situations would most likely result in the
highest rate of natural selection?
(a) Reproduction by asexual method
(b) Low mutation is an stable environment
(c) Little competition
(d) Reproduction by sexual method
70. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to the
(a) intraspecific competition
(b) interspecific competition
(c) competition within closely related species
(d) reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of
interfering species
71. Which one of the following was not explained by Darwinism?
(a) Natural selection
(b)Smuggle for existence
(c) Arrival of the fittest
(d) Origin of species
72. Which of the following factors was not taken into account by
Darwin in his theory of natural selection?
(a) Struggle for existence
(b) Discontinuous variations
(c) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(d) Survival of the fittest
73. Lamarck's theory of evolution is also known as
(a) theory of use and disuse of organs
(b) theory of genetic characters
(c) theory of spontaneous characters
(d) theory of impose characters
74. Who proposed that long neck of giraffes evolved due to foraging
of leaves on tall trees?
(a) Lamarck
(b) Darwin
(c) Malthus
(d) Aristotle
75. What was the Lamarck's explanation for long necked giraffes?
(a) Stretching of necks over many generations
(b) Short neck suddenly changed into long one
(c) Natural selection
(d) Mutation
76. Which of the following differences between Lamarckism and
Darwinism are incorrect?
77. Hugo de Vries put forth his idea of mutation by his work on
(a) pea plant
(b) Drosophila
(c) evening primrose
(d) maize plant
78. Who proposed the concept of saltation?
(a) Darwin
(b) Mendel
(c) de Vries
(d) Thomas Malthus
79. What does the term 'Saltation' imply?
(a) Excess of species at a given area
(b) Reduced number of species due to saline environment
(c) Occurrence of variations gradually, step by step
(d) Single step large mutations
80. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries are
(a) random and directionless
(b) small and directional
(c) small and directionless
(d) random and directiona
81. Hardy-Weinberg principle is the
(a) stable allele frequency in a population
(b) genetic structure of an evolving population
(c) varying allele frequency in a population
(d) phenotypic structure of a non-evolving population
82. Genetic equilibrium refers to the phenomenon in which
(a) the trait remains constant in a population
(b) the total genes remain constant in a population
(c) the total genes keeps on varying in a population
(d) traits keeps on varying in a population
83. Change in gene frequency of a population means
(a) evolution is in progress
(b) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not achieved
(c) there may be a selection, migration or mutation
(d) All of the above
84. Hardy-Weinberg principle can be expressed as
85. A gene locus has two alleles A. a. If the frequency of dominant
allele is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the
population?
(a) 0.16(AA), 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa)
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
86. Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) Ramapithecus-Man-like
(b) Dryopithecus - Ape-like
(c) Fossil of man-like bones were discovered Ethiopia and Tanzania
(d) Australopithecus - Probably lived in western Africa desert
87. First human like hominid is known as
(a) Neanderthal man
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Dryopithecus
(d) Homo erectus
88. Brain (cranial) capacity of Homo habilis was
(a) 750-850 cc
(b) 750-800 cc
(c) 650-800 cc
(d) 550-700 cc
89. The fossil finding suggest that closest fossil to Homo Habilis was
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Homo sapiens
(c) Dryopithecus
(d) Neanderthal man
90. The extinct human who lived 10,00,00 to 40,000 years ago, in
Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows,
retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a
lumbering gait and stooped posture was
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Neanderthal human
(c) Cro-Magnon human
(d) Ramapithecus
 ANSWERS

01. A 11. A 21. A 31. A 41. C 51. A 61. D 71. C 81. A

02. D 12. D 22. D 32. D 42. A 52. A 62. C 72. B 82. B
03. A 13. C 23. D 33. B 43. A 53. A 63. A 73. A 83. D
04. B 14. A 24. A 34. C 44. D 54. C 64. B 74. A 84. D
05. A 15. A 25. B 35. C 45. C 55. A 65.B 75. A 85. B
06. C 16. A 26. C 36. B 46. B 56. D 66. D 76. B 86. D
07. B 17. D 27. D 37. B 47. D 57. B 67. D 77. C 87. B
08. A 18. A 28. C 38. C 48. C 58. D 68. C 78. C 88. C
09. A 19. B 29. A 39. B 49. B 59. B 69. D 79. D 89. A
10. D 20. A 30. B 40. B 50. A 60. D 70. B 80. A 90. B