10-08-2025

7501CMD303037250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) one fourth
(4) remain unaffected

2) A student writes following four different expression for the displacement 'y' in a periodic motion :

(a) y = a sin
(b) y = a sinVt

(c)

(d)
Where "a" is maximum displacement V is the speed and T is the time period, then dimensionally :-

(1) a and b are wrong

(2) b and c are wrong
(3) c and d are wrong
(4) d and a are wrong

3) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,

are:-

(1) MT–2
(2) M2LT–3
(3) ML3T–1
(4) LT–3

4) The equation of alternating current is I = I0 where t is time, then the dimensions of 'α' is:-

(1) [M L T–1]
0
(2) [M L T]
0 0
(3) [M L T]
(4) None of these

5) If dimensions of A and B are different, then which of the following operation is valid ?
(1)

(2) e–A/B
(3) A–B
(4) A + B

6) If K = find dimensional formula of K :–

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT4]

7) The dimensional formula of product of two physical quantities P and Q is [ML2T–2] and the
dimensional formula of P/Q is [MT–2]. P and Q respectively are :

(1) force, velocity

(2) work, velocity
(3) force, displacement
(4) momentum, displacement

8) In a particular system the units of length mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equal to

(1) 0.1 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 100 N

9) The function f is given by f = Asinαx + Bcosβt, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

10) The equation of a wave is given by :

where ω is angular velocity and v is the linear velocity. The dimension of K is

(1) [LT]
(2) [T]
(3) [T–1]
(4) [T2]

11)

Which one of the following is unitless quantity?

(1) Velocity gradient

(2) Pressure gradient
(3) Displacement gradient
(4) Force gradient

12) If sum of the magnitude of two forces is 8N and magnitude of resultant is 4N and resultant is
perpendicular to smaller force then find magnitude of forces?

(1) 2, 6
(2) 3, 5
(3) 1, 7
(4) 4, 4

13)

Which of the following equations is dimensionally incorrect ?

(E = energy, U = potential energy, P = momentum, m = mass, v = speed)

E=U+
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as U = , where A
and B are dimensional constants then dimensional formula for AB is :-

(1) [ML7/2 T–2]

(2) [ML11/2 T–2]
(3) [M2L9/2 T–2]
(4) [ML13/2 T–3]

15)
In a system of units if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units then
the dimensional formula of energy is

(1) FA2T
(2) FAT2
(3) F2AT
(4) FAT

16)

The period T of a soap bubble under SHM is given by T = PaDbSc, where P is pressure, D is density
0
and S is surface tension. Then the values of a, b and c are : [Dimension of surface tension is [M1L T–2]

(1)
1
(2) -1, -2, 3

(3)
-1/2

(4)
1, 2,

17) Which of the following is a unit vector ?

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

18) The direction of the angular velocity vector is along

(1) Along the tangent of circular path

(2) Along the direction of radius vector
(3) Along the axis of rotation
(4) Opposite to the direction of radius vector

19) If (Here K is constant) then :-

(1) is parallel to
(2) is antiparallel to
(3) is perpendicular to
(4) Both (1) and (2)

20) Two vectors and have components Ax, Ay, Az and Bx, By, Bz respectively. If + = , then :-

(1) Ax = Bx, Ay = – By, Az = – Bz

(2) Ax = Bx, Ay = By, Az = – Bz
(3) Ax = Bx, Ay = By, Az = Bz
(4) Ax = – Bx, Ay = – By, Az = – Bz

21) If then find out the angle of from x-axis.

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 37°
(4) 53°

22) If and
then find out a unit vector parallel to resultant vector of and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A regular hexagon of side 'a' shown in figure. If , the value of K

is :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

25) With respect to a rectangular cartesian co-ordinate system three vectors are expressed as
, , and where and are unit vectors along the x,y, z axes respectively.
The unit vector along the direction of sum of these vectors is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A physical quantity is a vector quantity only if :-

(1) has both magnitude and direction

(2) follow vector algebra
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) none

27) If = 2 then equals :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3)
(4)

28) If two numerically equal forces P and P acting at a point produce a resultant force of magnitude
P itself, then the angle between the two original forces is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

29) If A and B are two vectors then the value of × is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30) What is the value of |( + )×( – )| if

(1) 0
(2) A2 – B2
(3) A2 + B2 + 2AB
(4) none of these

31) If and are two non collinear unit vectors and , then the value of .
is –

(1) 2

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

32) The dot product of two vectors of magnitudes 3 units and 5 units cannot be :-

(1) – 20
(2) 6
(3) –10
(4) 14

33) If A = 1, B = 2 and , then angle between and is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

34) =?

(1) e1001
(2) 0
(3) 1001
(4) None

35) The slope of the tangent to the curve y = ln (cosx) at x = is

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3)

(4)

36)

(1) ex (cos x + sin x)

(2) ex (cos x – sin x)
(3) ex (sin x – cos x)
(4) None

37) If y = 4x2 + ex + sinx, then find :-

(1) 8x + ex – cosx
(2) 8x + ex + cosx
(3) 8x2 + ex – cosx
(4) 8x2 + ex + cosx

38) At point P, the value of is

(1) zero
(2) positive
(3) negative
(4) infinite

39) The radius of a circular plate increases at the rate of 0.1 cm/sec. At what rate does the area

increase when the radius of plate is cm ?

(1) 1 cm2/sec
(2) 0.1 cm2/sec
(3) 0.6 cm2/sec
(4) 0.29 cm2/sec

40) Find maximum value of Y is :- Y = 10x – 5x2 + 5

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) Not defined

41)

If y = sinx than is :

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) –1

(4)

42)

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3)
(4) none of these

43) Find the value of x1 so that

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

44)

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) –1

45)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Total number of sp2 hybridised ‘C’ in acetylene.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

2) How many secondary carbon atoms does methyl cyclopropane have ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

3) Select the correct priority for principal functional group :- (Acc. to IUPAC)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Assertion :- Pyridine is a heterocyclic compound.

Reason :- It has 3π bond and 1 l.p.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Correct IUPAC name of 2–chloro–3–bromo propane is :

(1) 2–Chloro–1–bromo propane

(2) 1–Bromo–2–chloro propane
(3) 1–Chloro–2–bromo propane
(4) 1–Chloro–3–bromo propane

6) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 3-methyl-6-ethyloctane
(2) 3-ethyl-6-methyloctane
(3) 3,6-dimethyloctane
(4) 2,5-diethylheptane

7) The IUPAC name of is:

(1) 1‑Cyclohexyl‑3‑methyl pent-1-ene

(2) 3‑Methyl‑5‑cyclohexyl pent‑1‑ene
(3) 1‑Cyclohexyl‑3‑ethyl but‑1‑ene
(4) 1‑Cyclohexyl‑3,4‑dimethyl but‑1‑ene

8) Assertion (A) : All the carbon atoms in H2C=C=CH2 are sp2 hybridised.
Reason (R) : In this molecule all the carbon atoms are attached to each other by double
bonds. H2C=C=CH2

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

9) IUPAC name of the compounds is :-

(1) 2-nitro-4-bromobenzoic acid
(2) 4-bromo-3-nitrobenzoic acid
(3) 4-bromo-2-nitrobenzoic acid
(4) 4-bromo-3-nitrobenzenecarboxylic anhydride

10) The IUPAC name of compound is :

(1) 2‑Amino‑3‑chloro‑2‑methylpent-2-enoic acid

(2) 3‑Amino‑4‑chloro‑2‑methylpent‑2‑enoic acid
(3) 4‑Amino‑3‑chloro‑2‑methylpent‑2‑enoic acid
(4) All of the above

11) Which of the following pairs have absence of carbocyclic ring in both compounds?

(1) Pyridine, Benzene

(2) Benzene, Cyclohexane
(3) Cyclohexane, Furane
(4) Furane, Pyridine

12) Which of the following numbering is right ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) IUPAC name of given structure will be ?

(1) 3-Aminobutane-2-carbonitrile
(2) 3-Amino-2-methyl butanenitrile
(3) 3-cyanobutan-2-amine
(4) All

14) Which of the following have 1°H only.

(1) CH3—CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

15) The number of π bonds and σ bonds in the structure respectively are :–

(1) 8, 5
(2) 8, 6
(3) 3, 8
(4) 5, 13

16) Correct IUPAC name of

(1) 2,2–Dimethyl ethane–2–ol

(2) 1,1–Dimethyl ethanol
(3) 2–Methyl propan–2–ol
(4) tert. butyl alcohol

17) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid
(2) 2-carboxy-5-formylecyclohexane
(3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid
(4) 4-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal

18) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 2–Ethyl cyclobut 3-en–1–ol

(2) 4–Ethyl cyclobut–2–en–1–ol
(3) 3–Ethyl cyclobut–1–en–4–ol
(4) 4–Ethyl cyclobut–1–en–3–ol

19) 2-methyl-2-butene will be represented as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Assertion : Butane and 2-Methyl butane are homologous.

Reason : Butane is a straight chain alkane while 2-methyl butane is a branched chain alkane.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

21) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 3-methoxy ethylpropanoate

(2) ethyl-4-methoxybutanoate
(3) 1,4-diethoxybutane
(4) 4-methoxy ethylbutanoate

22) The IUPAC name of is :

(1) N-Cyclohexyl benzamide

(2) N-Phenyl-N-cyclohexylmethanamide
(3) N-Phenylcyclohexane carboxamide
(4) N-Cyclohexyl-N-phenylmethylamide

23) Assertion : Parent carbon chain in is of 4C.

Reason : Main functional group is –CHO.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

24) Number of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms present in

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 6

25) 2-Butyne and 1,3–butadiene are

(1) chain isomers

(2) position isomers
(3) functional isomers
(4) tautomers

26) Which of the following is sec-butyl group ?

(1) CH2=CH–
(2) CH3–CH=CH–

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3–
27) The number of carbon atom in the parent carbon chain of the given compound are :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

28) Assertion :- Isopropyl alcohol is a secondary alcohol.

Reason :- –OH attached with 2° carbon.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) Which is Vinyl radical :-

(1) CH2=CH—CH2—
(2) CH2=CH—
(3) CH3—CH2—

(4)

30) The IUPAC name of is

(1) N-cyclohexylbenzamide
(2) N-phenyl-N-cyclohexylmethanamide
(3) N-phenylcyclohexanecarboxamide
(4) N-cyclohexyl-N-phenylmethanamide

31) Which of the following are metamer :-

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH and CH3—O—CH2CH2CH3

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) are :

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Functional group isomer
(3) Position isomer
(4) (2) and (3) both

33) How many primary alcohol are possible for C4H10O :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) are :-

(1) Position isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Metamer
(4) Identical

35) Which of the following represent pair of position isomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3—CH2—NH—CH3 and CH3—CH2—CH2—NH2

(4)

36) The number of alkynes possible with molecular formula C5H8 is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

37) The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show position isomerism :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

38) and are :

(1) Positional isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Functional group isomer
(4) Metamer

39) How many positional isomer are possible for ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

40)

(1) Position isomer

(2) Functional group isomer
(3) Ring chain isomer
(4) None

41) Assertion (A) : Acetone is a functional group isomer of propionaldehyde.

Reason (R) : Aldehydes and ketones are functional group isomers.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of A
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

42) Compound with C4H11N as molecular formula can exhibit

(1) Position isomerism

(2) Metamerism
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) All the three

43) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
(reaction) (stereoisomers)

(A) (P) Homologues

(B) (Q) Functional isomers

(C) (R) Metamer

(D) (S) Chain isomers

&
(1) A→ P; B→ Q; C→ R; D→S
(2) A→S ; B→R; C→ P; D→Q
(3) A→P ; B→ R; C→ Q; D→S
(4) A→Q ; B→P; C→ S; D→R

44) Minimum no. of carbon required in an Alkane to show Position isomerism.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

45) Double bond equivalent is 10 for which of the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which is not found in bacteria ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) DNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm

2) How many of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell ?

Basal body, Cell Membrane, Chromatophore, Lysosome, Ribosome, Nucleolemma, Cytoplasm.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Seven

3) Salt linkage between larger and smaller subunit of ribosome is formed with the help of :-

(1) Ca2+
(2) Na+
(3) Mg2+
(4) K+
4) Spindle fibres are composed of :

(1) Collagen
(2) Actin
(3) Spectrin
(4) Tubulin

5) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell theory to give it a final shape ?

(1) R. Hooke
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Mendel
(4) C.P. Swanson

6) Delimiting structure of animal cell is :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Desmosome

7) Eukaryotic cell differs from prokaryotic cell in possessing :

(1) Nuclear membrane

(2) Ribosome
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cell membrane

8) Read the following statements & select the correct option-

Statement - I: None of the membrane bound organelle is common among prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cell.
Statement - II: Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside the genome DNA which confers
certain unique phenotypes.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

9) In the lipid bilayer of membrane the non polar tail of fatty acid is toward the inner part because
of :-

(1) Protection from aqueous environment

(2) Arrangement of integral protein
(3) Arrangement of extrinsic protein
(4) Movement of protein

10) Bacterial cell wall is mainly composed of :

(1) Cellulose
(2) Chitin
(3) Polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptide chains
(4) Cellulose, Mannans, Galactans and CaCO3

11) Mesosomes are _________ of cell memberane and they are usually in _________ form :-

(1) Evagination, Three

(2) Invagination, Two
(3) Invagination, Three
(4) Evagination, Four

12) According to the size of the organism, which sequence is not correct :

(1) Eukaryotic cell > Prokaryotic cell > PPLO > Virus
(2) Virus < PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Prokaryotic cell > Virus
(4) PPLO < Prokaryotic cell < Eukaryotic cell < Tissue

13) The membranous structure of bacterial cell involved in photosynthesis is :-

(1) Mesosome
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Cristae
(4) Chromatophores

14) The part of chromosome beyond the secondary constriction is known as :-

(1) Chromomere
(2) Satellite
(3) Kinetochore
(4) Centromere

15) The main arena of cellular activity in both plant and animal cell is :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Endomembrane system
(4) Vacuole

16) What is dimension of chloroplast :-

(1) Length 2 - 4 & width 5 - 10
(2) Length 1 - 2 & width 2-4
(3) Length 5 - 10 & width 2 - 4
(4) Length 2 - 4 & width 1 - 2

17) Middle lamellae :

(1) Mainly consists of Ca-pectate

(2) Holds different neighbouring cells together
(3) Is formed as cell plate during cytokinesis
(4) All of the above

18) Where is the genetic material located in prokaryotes?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Enveloped by nuclear membrane
(3) Naked in cytoplasm
(4) None of these

19) The given figure shows various transport processes across the plasma membrane. Identify

transport process (A, B, C & D) :-

A B C D

(1) Simple diffusion Facilitated diffusion Active transport Osmosis

(2) Osmosis Active transport Facilitated diffusion Simple diffusion

(3) Simple diffusion Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Active transport

(4) Facilitated diffusion Simple diffusion Active transport Osmosis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Read the following statements and choose right option regarding them :-
(I) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existance.
(II) Anton von leeuwenhock first saw and described a live cell.

(1) Statement I and II both are incorrect

(2) Statement I correct and II incorrect
(3) Statement I and II both are correct
(4) Statement I incorrect and II correct

21) Non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells :

(1) Centriole
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Centriole & Ribosome
(4) Lysosomes

22) Match the following column and choose the option which is not incorrect :
Column-I Column-II
(1) Hyaloplasm Non-living inclusion
(2) Deutoplasm Living material
(3) Cytosol Liquid matrix of
cytoplasm except organelles
(4) Cell organelles Metabolically inactive

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which structure presents in mitochondria ?

(1) Cisternae
(2) Thylakoids
(3) Oxysome
(4) Flagella

24) Flat membranous tubules connecting thyalkoid different grana are called

(1) Thylakoid lamella

(2) Stroma lamella
(3) Lamella
(4) Grana lamella

25) How many organelle in list given below are unit membranous ?
Nucleus, Nucleolus, Mitochondria, Ribosome, Peroxisome, Centriole, Chloroplast.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

26) Cell recognition and adhesion occurs due to the following component of the plasma membrane

(1) Protein
(2) Lipids
(3) Proteins and lipids
(4) Glycoproteins & glycolipids

27) The secondary cell wall is formed on the :-

(1) Inner (towards middle lamella) side of the cell

(2) Outer (towards middle lamella) side of the cell
(3) Inner (towards membrane) side of the cell
(4) Outer (towards membrane) side of the cell

28) Main site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids is :-

(1) Golgi body

(2) Ribosome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Vacuole

29) Which is not a component of Golgi body?

(1) Cristae
(2) Vesicle
(3) Tubules
(4) Cisternae

30) The fluidity of the membrane decreases with the help of

(1) Unsaturated fatty acid

(2) Saturated fatty acid
(3) Increasing temperature
(4) Both (1) and (2)

31) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given diagram :-

 A B C D

Peripheral Central Radial Central

(1)
microtubule sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Central Central Central

(2)
bridge microtubule sheath bridge

Interdoublet Central Radial Central

(3)
bridge sheath spoke microtubule

Interdoublet Radial Central Central

(4)
bridge spoke sheath microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Identify structure A,B,C and D is given below in diagram :-

A B C D

Stroma Outer
(1) Granum Stroma
lamella membrane

Outer Stroma
(2) Granum Stroma
membrane lamella

Outer Stroma
(3) Granum Stroma
membrane lamella

Stroma Outer
(4) Stroma Thylakoid
lamella membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C)
and (D). Select the part correctly matched with its function.

(1) Part (A) : Matrix - major site for enzymes of Photosynthesis

(2) Part (D) : Outer membrane - gives rise to inner membrane by splitting
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms infoldings called cristae
(4) Part (C) : Cristae - possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes

34) Which of the following molecules do not moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm ?

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) Proteins
(4) All of the above

35) Which of the following cellular organelles extracts energy from carbohydrates ?

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chromoplast

36) Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotes ?

(1) DNA
(2) Cell membrane
(3) Cell wall
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

37) Match the column :-

Column-I Column- II
(a) Nexin protein (i) Microfilaments
(b) Tubulin protein (ii) A-B linker of cilia
Flagella of
(c) Dyenin protein (iii)
bacteria
(d) Actin protein (iv) ATPase activity
(e) Flagellin (v) Microtubules
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-i, e-iv
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v, e-ii
(3) a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-iii
(4) a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-iii, e-i

38) The usual axonemal arrangement of microtubules is:-

(1) 6 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a pair of centrally located microtubules
(2) 6 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a single centrally located microtubule
(3) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a pair of centrally located microtubules
(4) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a single centrally located microtubule
39) Match the list-I with list II :-

List-I List-II

(a) Chlorophyll (i) Chromatin

(b) 70s Ribosome (ii) Cytoplasm

(c) Axoneme (iii) Stroma

(d) Kinetochore (iv) Cilia

(v) Thylakoids

(vi) Chromosome

(vii) Centriole

a b c d

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (vi)

(2) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (v) (iii) (iv) (vi)

(4) (iii) (ii) (vii) (vi)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Lysosomes are the reservoirs (store houses) of :

(1) hydrolytic enzymes

(2) oxidative enzymes
(3) secretory glycoproteins
(4) RNA and proteins.

41) What is similarity between mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) Both have genetic material by which they perform similar function
(2) Both have porins in inner membrane
Both have endo-symbiotic origin and they increase their number by amitosis like as prokaryotic
(3)
cell
Both are present in all eukaryotic organism except mature mammalian R.B.C and sieve tube of
(4)
phloem

42)

Match the column I with columns II & III :-

Column I Column II Column III

 r-RNA &
(A) Cytoskeleton (i) (p) Fatty seeds
proteins
Only in Breakdown
(B) Peroxisomes (ii) (q)
Plants of H2O2
Protein Protein
(C) Ribosomes (iii) (r)
filaments Synthesis
Mechanical
(D) Glyoxysomes (iv) Catalase (s)
support
(1) A-(i)-p, B-(ii)-s, C-(iii)-q, D-(iv)-r
(2) A-(iii)-s, B-(iv)-q, C-(i)-r, D-(ii)-p
(3) A-(ii)-q, B-(iii)-p, C-(iv)-s, D-(i)-r
(4) A-(iii)-s, B-(i)-r, C-(ii)-p, D-(iv)-q

43) Analyse the following pairs and identify the correct option given :-
I. Chromoplast - Contain pigments other than chlorophyll.
II. Leucoplast - Devoid of any pigment.
III. Amyloplast - Store proteins
IV. Aleuroplast - Store oils and fats
V . Elaioplast - Store carbohydrates

(1) II and III are correct

(2) III and IV are correct
(3) IV and V are correct
(4) I and II are correct

44) Read the following statements :-

(i) Centromere is present in the middle of the chromosome and form two equal arms
(ii) Chromosome has a terminal centromere
(iii) Centromere lies close to the end of the chromosome forming one extremely short and one very
long arm
(iv) Centromere lies away from the middle of the chromosome resulting into one shorter arm and
one longer arm
Select the correct option as per the codes given below :-

Metacentric Submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) Consider the following four statements (a-d), and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence
(b) Schwann observed that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues
of the Plant
(c) cells of all living organisms have mitochondria
(d) Rudolf Virchow explained that new cells arise from pre-existing cells

(1) Statements a and d

(2) Statements b, c and d
(3) Statements a, b and c
(4) Statements a, b and d

46) During swallowing, glottis can be covered by a thin elastic cartilaginous flap called ....A..... to
prevent the entry of food into larynx. Trachea is a straight tube extending upto ....B.... cavity, which
divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra into right and the left primary...C... .
Choose the correct option for A, B and C from the given four option to complete the above
statement.

(1) A-epiglottis, B-bronchi, C- bronchioles

(2) A-epiglottis, B-mid thoracic, C- bronchi
(3) A-epiglottis, B-hind thoracic, C -bronchi
(4) A-epiglottis, B-Pre thoracic, C- bronchi

47) ........(A)........ are used by most of the aqutic ........(B)........ and ........(C)........ whereas
vascularised bags called lungs are used by the ........(D)........ forms for the exchange of gases.

(1) A – Gills, B – Coelentrates

(2) B – Arthropods, C – Molluscs
(3) C – Molluscs, D – Fishes
(4) D – Fishes, A – Gills

48)

Identify the correct option.

Oxygen is utilised by the organisms to indirectly break down nutrients molecules like sucrose in
(1)
cells
(2) Amphibians always respire only through moist skin
(3) Insects have a network of tubes for respiration
(4) Coelenterates also have respiratory organs

49) Assertion :-The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the
thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung cavity. (Pulmonary cavity) Reason :- Lungs have no
muscles so we cannot directly alter the pulmonary volume.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

50)
Read the following statements :-
(A) Respiration is a catabolic process during which CO2 is released
(B) Respiration is a catabolic process during which energy is released
(C) Respiration is a anabolic process during which O2 is utilized
(D) Respiration is a anabolic process during which glucose is utilized

Which of the following in the correct answer

(1) A & B are correct
(2) C & D are correct
(3) B & C are correct
(4) A & D are correct

51) Identify the statement out of the following which is NOT correct?

(1) The nasal cavity humidifies and warms up the air before it enters our lungs.
(2) Vital capacity and lung volumes can be used to measure lung function.
(3) The visceral pleura and the chest wall are in direct contact with each other.
(4) The right lung is made up of three lobes, but the left lung only has two lobes

52) Study the following statements about breathing.

(A) It is a process which provides oxygen to the body
(B) In this process water is produced in the cell.
(C) This process helps the body to get rid of carbon dioxide
(D) In this process food breaks down to release energy
The combination of statements that gives the correct functions of breathing is:

(1) A and C only

(2) C and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) B and D only

53)

Which of the following factors raise P50 value and shift the HbO2 dissociation curve to right?
(a)Rise in PCO2
(b)Fall in temperature
(c)Rise in H+
(d)Fall in DPG

(1) a and b are correct

(2) b and d are correct
(3) a and c are correct
(4) a, b and c are correct

54) Select the wrong statement :-

(1) Trachea is supported by 'c' shaped rings

(2) These rings are composed of hyaline cartilage
(3) These rings are incomplete on ventral surface of Trachea
(4) These rings prevent Trachea from collapsing

55) Human has the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration with the help of
additional muscle in :-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Vertebrae
(3) Sternum
(4) Abdomen

56) Find out the correct options from the given statements
A. P50 value of HbF is higher than P50 of HbA
B. Affinity of myoglobin with O2 is more than Hb
C. Affinity of HbA with O2 is more than HbF
D. CO has higher affinity with Hb than O2

(1) A and D
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) B and D

57) Which of the following structures are supported by incomplete cartilagenous rings ?
a. Tracheae, b. 1° bronchi, c. 2° bronchi,
d. 3° bronchi, e. initial bronchioles,
f. respiratory bronchioles, g. duct of alveoli
h. alveoli

(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) a, b, c, d, e and f
(3) a, b, c, d, e f and g
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f, g and h

58) Read the following statement carefully and find out the correct answer :-
(i) Branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprise the lungs
(ii) Lungs are covered by a double layered pleura
(iii) Pleural fluid reduces friction on the lung surface
(iv) Very thin, regular walled and vascularised bag like structures called alveoli
How many statements are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

59) Read carefully and arrange the given steps of expiration in the human body :
(I) Relaxation of the diaphragm
(II) Reduction of the pulmonary volume
(III) Expulsion of air from the lungs
(IV) Increase in intra-pulmonary pressure
Choose the correct option :-
(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) I → II → IV → III
(3) IV → III → II → I
(4) IV → II → III → I

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60)

(i) Increased intrapulmonary pressure

(ii) Decreased thoracic cavity volume
(iii) Contraction of Diaphragm and EICM
(iv) Increased thoracic cavity volume
(v) Relaxation of diaphragm and EICM

How much of the above events are related with initiation of normal inspiration ?
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

61) By the contraction in diaphragm the volume of thoracic chamber increases in the :-

(1) Dorso-ventral axis

(2) Antero-posterior axis
(3) Antero-ventral axis
(4) Dorso-posterior axis

62)

In normal expiration. Which muscle contracts :-

(A) Diaphargm
(B) EICM
(C) IICM

(D) Abdominal muscles

(1) A, B and D
(2) C and D
(3) A and C
(4) No muscle contract during Normal expiration
63) Select the correct combination :-

(1) IC = TV + ERV
(2) FRC = ERV + IRV + TV
(3) RV = IRV
(4) VC = ERV + IRV + TV

64) Different respiratory volumes are given below :

I. Tidal Volume = 500 ml
II. Residual volume 820 ml
III. Inspiratory Reserve Volume = 2500 ml
IV. Expiratory Reserve Volume = 975 ml
The expiratory capacity (EC) is :-

(1) 3500 ml
(2) 1795 ml
(3) 1475 ml
(4) 3000 ml

65) Amount of air remains in lungs (alveoli) after normal expiration and after forceful expiration are
respectively :-

(1) FRC and RV

(2) RV and FRC
(3) ERV and RV
(4) FRC and ERV

66) If tidal volume of a person is 500 ml and anatomical dead space volume is 150 ml. What will be
the pulmonary ventilation rate ? (Breathing rate = 12 / minute) :-

(1) 6000 ml/min.

(2) 4200 ml/min.
(3) 1800 ml/min.
(4) 7800 ml/min.

67) Total lung capacity is the

(1) Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration
(2) The maximum volume of air a person can breath in after a forced expiration
(3) Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration
(4) Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration

68) Ratio of tidal volume to inspiratory reserve volume is approximately equal to ratio of

(1) TV to VC
(2) TLC to FRC
(3) RV to TLC
(4) EC to VC

69) Correct sequence of layers of diffusion membrane from blood capillary to alveolar wall is :-

Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of alveolar capillaries and basement

(1)
substance respectively
Endothelium of alveolar capillaries, basement substance and thin squamous epithelium of
(2)
alveoli respectively.
Endothelium of alveolar capillaries, thin squamous epithelium of alveoli and basement
(3)
substance respectively.
Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli basement substance and endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(4)
respectively.

70) Find out partial pressure of O2 and CO2 in oxygenated blood.

(1) PO2 = 104 mmHg PCO2 = 40 mmHg

(2) PO2 = 159 mmHg PCO2 = 0.3 mmHg
(3) PO2 = 40 mmHg PCO2 = 45 mmHg
(4) PO2 = 95 mmHg PCO2 = 40 mmHg

71) Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissues occur by :-

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Active transport
(3) Fascilitated diffusion
(4) Sodium symport

72) The amount of oxygen delivers to tissue by two litre of blood under normal condition is
approximately:-

(1) 5 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 50 ml

73) The most important primary factor in determining the percent saturation of haemoglobin with
oxygen is :-

(1) Partial pressure of oxygen

(2) Acidity
(3) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
(4) Temperature

74) Number of O2 molecule binds with each Fe++ of haemoglobin is/are :-

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 20
(4) 1.34

75) Which of the following factor is not favourable for oxyhaemoglobin formation in alveoli ?

(1) High pO2

(2) Low pCO2
(3) Low pH
(4) Low temperature

76) In comparison to adult haemoglobin, the oxy-haemoglobin dissociation curve of foetal

haemoglobin is situated towards :-

(1) Right side

(2) Left side
(3) Either Right or Left side
(4) No change

77)

CO2 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when :-

(1) is low and is high

(2) is low and is Low
(3) is high and is low
(4) is high and is high

78)
Select 1 & 2 from given options

(1) (1) in tissue, (2) in Lungs

(2) (1) in blood, (2) in Lungs
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) (1) in lungs, (2) in Tissue

79)

Which of the following are the stages of respiration in correct order ?

A - Gaseous transport
B - Cellular respiration

C - Diffusion of O2 & CO2 between blood & tissues

D - Breathing
(1) A-D-C-B
(2) D-A-C-B
(3) D-A-B-C
(4) D-C-B-A

80) Consider the given statements and select correct statement for transport of oxygen
(a) 70% of oxygen is carried as bicarbonates
(b) About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBCs in blood
(c) It is carried by hemoglobin as carb-aminohemoglobin

(1) a , b
(2) b , c
(3) Only b
(4) Only c

81) Carbon dioxide entering erythrocytes reacts with water to form carbonic acid, the enzyme is :-

(1) Carbonic anhydrase

(2) Carboxy peptidase
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Oxidoreductase

82) Chloride shift occurs in response of ?

(1) H+
(2) K+
–
(3) HCO3
(4) Na+

83)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

84) Statement-1 : Role of oxygen is significant in regulation of respiration.

Statement-2 : Chemosensitive area present on carotid artery.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
85) Assertion (A) : A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called
respiratory rhythm centre.
Reason (R) : A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly
sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

86) Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by :-

(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood

(2) Carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood
(3) Oxygen content in the venous blood
(4) Oxygen content in the arterial blood

87) Statement I : Emphysema is a acute disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which
respiratory surface is decreased.
Statement II : Cigarette smoking is major cause of emphysema.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

88) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in lungs of stone mine workers is characterstic feature of :-

(1) Asthma
(2) Occupational Respiratory Disorder
(3) Emphysema
(4) Pleurisy

89) Statement–1 : Respiratory disorders like asthma are often triggered by allergic reactions.
Statement–2 : In asthma, the airways become inflamed and narrowed, making it difficult to
breathe.

(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

(2) Only Statement 1 is true.
(3) Only Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.

90) Correct informations about conducing part of respiratory tracts are :-

(i) Starting with external nostrils up to terminal bronchioles.
(ii) Transportation of atmospheric air to the alveoli.
(iii) Clears air from foreign particles.
(iv) Humidifies and brings the air to body temperature.

(1) (i) & (ii)

(2) (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 1 1 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 2 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 3 4 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 3 1 2 2 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 4 4 3 1 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) P =

F→ ; v→

Then P →

2) Since, LHS is displacement, so RHS should have dimensions of displacement. Also argument
of a trigonometric function should be dimensionless. In expression (2) argument is not
dimensionless and in expression (3) a/T has not the dimensions of displacement.

3) and =
⇒

So

4) dimensionless

5)

Conceptual : Quantities having different dimensions can not be added or subtract.

6) = [LT–4]

7)

Ans. (3)

Force × Displacement

8) Option (1)

Force has dimensional formula M1L1T–2 or

For new system 1 unit of force :

⇒
= 104 dyne = 104 ×10–5 N = 0.1 N

9)

sin(αx) :
0 0 0
[αx] = M L T

Similarly cos(βt) :
0 0 0
[βt] = M L T

⇒ [T–1]

10) What is asked :

An equation is given & we have to determine the dimension of 'K'

Concept :
Based on Dimensional analysis : Argument of trigonometry function must be dimensionless.

Formula used :
w = T–1 (Angular velocity)
n = L (distance)
v = LT–1 (velocity)

Calculation :

y = A sin

T–1 k = M°L°T°
k = M°L°T
k = [T]

11)

Displacement gradient

12) …(1)
…(2)
Sub. this in equation (2)

…(3)
a=5
b=3

13)

14)

15)

E ∝ F x Ay Tz
[M1 L2 T–1] = [MLT–2]x [LT–2]y [T]z
= [M]x [L]x+y [T]–2x–2y+z
Here, x = 1
x+y=2
⇒y=2–1=1
⇒ –2x – 2y + z = –2
–2 – 2 + z = –2
z = +2
So, E = [F1 A1 T2]

16)

T = Pa Db Sc
0 0
⇒ [M L T1] = [M L–1 T–2]a [ML–3]b [MT–2]c
= Ma+b+c L–a–3b T–2a–2c
⇒ a+b+c=0
–a – 3b = 0
–2a – 2c = 1
⇒a+c=

b= , a= ,c=1

17) .

18)

Angular velocity is axial vector.

19)
If K +ve
If K –ve

20)

21) θ = 53°

22)

23)

Ax = A cos 45° =

Ay = A sin 45° =

24)
25)

26)

Conceptual.

27) θ = 0°

28)

29)

30)

so

31)

o
32)

–AB≤ ≤AB

33)
AB cos θ =
(1) (2) cos θ =

cos θ =
θ = 30°

34) (constant) = 0

35) y = ℓncosx

36)
= ex(– sinx) + cosx ex
= ex(cosx – sinx)

37) y = 4x2 + ex +sin x

= 8x + ex + cos x

38)

Tangent to the curve at P is making obtuse angle (θ > 90o)

39) A = πr2

= 0.29 cm2/sec

40)

y = 10 x – 5x2 + 5

= 10 – 10 x = 0
x=1
(y)max = 10 × 1 – 5 × 12 + 5 = 10
41) 1. Asking About: We are asked to find the value of the definite integral

which represents the area under the curve of sin(x) from x = 0 to .

2. Concept: The integral of a function gives the area under the curve of that function between
the specified limits. In this case, we need to calculate the area under the curve of sin(x)

between 0 and .
3. Formula: The indefinite integral of sin(x) is:

where C is the constant of integration.

4. Solution/ Explanation: To solve the definite integral, we apply the fundamental theorem
of calculus:

Now, evaluate this expression at the upper and lower limits:

=−0+1=1
5. Final Answer: The value of the integral is 1.
Answer: Option (1) 1.

42)

43) = Area under curve from 0 to x1

= Area of triangle

15 =

44)

45)

=
CHEMISTRY

46)
So sp2 "C" is zero.

47)

48) Correct priority order for principal functional group →

(According to IUPAC)

49) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

50)
1–Bromo–2–chloro propane

51)
3-ethyl-6-methyloctane

52)
1‑Cyclohexyl‑3‑methyl pent-1-ene

53) A is not correct but R is correct.

54)
4-bromo-2-nitrobenzoic acid
or
4-bromo-2-nitrobenzenecarboxylic acid.

55)
3‑Amino‑4‑chloro‑2‑methylpent‑2‑enoic acid

56)

57) Right numbering according to IUPAC

58)
“3-Amino-2-methyl butanenitrile.”

59)

60)
π=5
σ = 13

61)
2–Methyl propan–2–ol

62)
4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid

63)
4–Ethyl cyclobut–2–en–1–ol
64) The structure of 2-methyl-2-butene is

65) Homologous compound constitute a service in which they have same functional group and
similar chemical property. The member of series differ by number of repeating units (–CH2)
they contain. Hence, they have the same general formula.

66)

67)
N-Phenylcyclohexane carboxamide

68) Select C of –CHO (oxo) so that PCC becomes long.

69)
No of sp2 hybrid carbon = 6

70)
For both D.U. will be same & they are functional isomers

71)
72)

73)

74)

Vinyl radical ⇒ CH2=CH—

Allyl radical ⇒ CH2=CH—CH2—

75) N-Phenylcyclohexanecarboxamide.

76)
MF and Functional group is same and different arrangement of atoms/group around PVFG So
metamers

77)

Since functional group is different so they are functional group isomers.

78)

C4H10O ⇒ D.U. = 0
(i) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—OH

(ii)
2 Primary alcohols possible
79)
They are identical

80)

(1) → Identical

(2) →Position isomer

(3) → Functional group isomer

(4) → Chain isomer

81)

82)

So minimum 5 carbon required.

83) 3° and 2° Amine are different functional group so FGI.

84)

85)
F.G. → Phenol F.G. → alcohol
⇒ Phenols & alcohols are different functional group.

86) Aldehydes and ketones are functional group isomers.

87)
All type of isomerism possible.

88) (A) are homologs.

(B) are metamers.

(C) are functional isomers.

 (D) & are chain isomers.

89) Minimum 6 carbon required in alkane to show P.I.

90)
Double bond equivalent = Total no. of π-bonds + Total no. of cycle
=7+3
= 10

BIOLOGY

91)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which of the given cellular components is not
present in bacteria. It provides four options: Mitochondria, DNA, Ribosome, and Cytoplasm,
and asks to identify which one bacteria do not have.

Underlying Concept: Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, meaning they lack membrane-
bound organelles. They do have DNA, ribosomes, and cytoplasm, but they do not have
mitochondria, which are found only in eukaryotic cells.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that mitochondria are called the 'powerhouses of the cell' and
are only found in eukaryotic cells, not prokaryotes like bacteria.

Common Mistakes: Confusing bacteria with eukaryotic cells and assuming that all cellular
components are present in bacteria.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: DNA is present in bacteria as they contain their genetic
material. Ribosomes are present for protein synthesis. Cytoplasm is the fluid inside cells where
organelles reside. Only mitochondria are absent because bacteria produce energy differently.

92) NCERT, Page No. # 128-129

93)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which ion helps to form the salt linkage between the
larger and smaller subunits of a ribosome. In simpler terms, it wants to identify the specific
 charged particle that stabilizes the connection between these two parts of the ribosome.

Underlying Concept: Salt linkages in biological molecules refer to the interactions between
oppositely charged ions or groups that help stabilize the structure. Ribosomes are made of two
subunits, and their interaction is stabilized by positively charged ions. Among common metal
ions, magnesium ion (Mg^{2+}) is known to play a key role in stabilizing the ribosome
structure by neutralizing the negative charges on the RNA and forming salt linkages between
subunits.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Mg^{2+} ions are frequently involved in stabilizing RNA
and ribosome structures because of their +2 charge, which can effectively neutralize negative
charges.

Common Mistakes: Assuming monovalent ions like Na^{+} or K^{+} play the main role in
binding ribosome subunits, when in fact divalent ions like Mg^{2+} are more important for
such stability.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Ca^{2+}, Na^{+}, and K^{+} are other common ions
but they do not specifically help form salt linkages between ribosomal subunits. Na^{+} and
K^{+} are monovalent and less efficient, and Ca^{2+} is not typically involved in ribosome
stabilization.

94) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the primary protein component of spindle fibers, which are essential
structures for cell division.

Concept:
This question is based on cytoskeleton.

Explanation :
"Spindle fibres are made up of microtubules composed of tubulin."

Final answer: 4

95) NCERT XI pg.# 126

96) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126, IIIrd para V line

97)

The correct answer is: 1. Nuclear membrane

Explanation:

A. Nuclear membrane: Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus surrounded by a nuclear

membrane, which is absent in prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotes have a nucleoid region where
genetic material is not enclosed by a membrane.
B. Ribosome: Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells possess ribosomes, but they differ in size.
 Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S, while prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
C. Cytoplasm: Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have cytoplasm as the site for various
cellular processes.
D. Cell membrane: Both types of cells have a cell membrane, which regulates the movement of
substances in and out of the cell.

Thus, the distinguishing feature of eukaryotic cells is the presence of a nuclear membrane

98)

Both statement I and statement II are correct

99)

Protection from aqueous environment

100)

Polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptide chains

101)

NCERT-XI Pg # 128

102)

Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Prokaryotic cell > Virus

103)

Chromatophores

104)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 102

105)

NCERT Pg # 126

106) NCERT Page No. 136

107)

All of the above

108)

Naked in cytoplasm

109)

(Answer 1)

110) NCERT XI Pg. # 125

111)

Ribosomes

112)

(Answer 3)

113)

Oxysome

114)

Stroma lamella

115)

(Answer 3)

116)

Glycoproteins & glycolipids

117)

Inner (towards membrane) side of the cell

118)

Golgi body

119) Cristae
120)

Saturated fatty acid

121) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 99

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 136, Fig–8.8

123)

Part (B) : Inner membrane - forms infoldings called cristae

124)

(Answer 1)

125)

Mitochondria

126)

Endoplasmic reticulum

127) Module 01 Pg. # 185,186, and 194

128)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137

129)

(Answer 3)

130)

hydrolytic enzymes

131) Module-6 Pg.# 193-196

132)

A-(iii)-s, B-(iv)-q, C-(i)-r, D-(ii)-p

133)

NCERT Page No. # 135

134)

(Answer 3)

135)

Statements a and d

136)

A-epiglottis, B-mid thoracic, C- bronchi

137)

B – Arthropods, C – Molluscs

138)

NCERT Pg. # 268

139)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

140)

A & B are correct

141)

The visceral pleura and the chest wall are in direct contact with each other.

142)

A and C only

143)

a and c are correct

144)
These rings are incomplete on ventral surface of Trachea

145) NCERT (XI) Pg # 271

146)

B and D

147)

a, b, c, d and e

148) NCERT Pg. 184

149)

NCERT XI Pg # 270

150)

Statement (iii) and (iv) related with inspiration

151) NCERT XI Pg # 270

152)

No muscle contract during Normal expiration

153) NCERT Pg. # 275

154)

A. Question: Calculate the expiratory capacity (EC) given the tidal volume, residual volume,
inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume.

B. Given Data:

A. Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 ml

B. Residual Volume (RV) = 820 ml

C. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) = 2500 ml

 D. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 975 ml

C. Concept: Respiratory volumes and capacities, specifically expiratory capacity.

D. Explanation:

Expiratory capacity (EC) is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a normal
inhalation. It is the sum of the tidal volume (TV) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV).

EC = TV + ERV

Substituting the given values:

EC = 500 ml + 975 ml EC = 1475 ml

155) NCERT XI, Pg. # 272

156)

NCERT PAGE NO. 185

157)

Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration

158)

RV to TLC

159) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 273, Para-1

160)

PO2 = 95 mmHg PCO2 = 40 mmHg

161)

Simple diffusion

162)

(Answer 3)

163)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 189

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 274

165)

Low pH

166)

Left side

167)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 274

168)

(1) in lungs, (2) in Tissue

169) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 270

170)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 189

171)

Carbonic anhydrase

172)

Chloride shift occurs in response of HCO3–

173)

A. Question: Identify the correct statements regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood.
B. Given Data: Four statements (A, B, C, and D) about CO2 transport are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the physiological mechanisms of carbon dioxide
transport in the blood.
D. Explanation:

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC: This is correct. Red

blood cells (RBCs) contain a high concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is
crucial for the rapid conversion of CO2 and water into bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and protons
(H+). This facilitates the transport of CO2.
​ B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma: This is also correct.
While the majority of carbonic anhydrase is in RBCs, small amounts are also present in
plasma, contributing to CO2 conversion there as well, though to a lesser extent.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO 2 to the tissues: This is
incorrect. 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the lungs (not
tissues). The tissues produce CO2, which is then picked up by the blood.
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin: This is correct.
About 20-25% of CO2 binds to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohaemoglobin. This is one of the
ways CO2 is transported in the blood.
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 1: A, B and D.

174)

Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

175) Question:
To Evaluate the truthfulness of an assertion and a reason.
Explanation:
Assertion (A): A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called
respiratory rhythm centre.
This is true. The respiratory rhythm center, located in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem,
is responsible for generating the basic rhythm of breathing.
Reason (R): A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly
sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
This is also true. A chemosensitive area, also located in the medulla, is highly sensitive to
changes in CO2 and H+ concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Which both statements are accurate, the centre influence the respiratory rate. Specifically, it
wants to know the mechanism by which this brain centre can modify breathing patterns.

176)

Carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood

177)

Statement I is incorrect & II is correct

178) NCERT-XI, Pg#276

179)

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

180) NCERT, Pg. # 270, 17.1.1