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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1

27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
PHYSICS
1. The velocity of a body moving with a uniform acceleration of 2 𝑚/ sec 2 is 10 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐. Its
velocity after an interval of 4 sec is
(1) 12 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 (2) 14 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 (3) 16 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 (4) 18 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
2. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ 𝑚/𝑠. Its velocity (in m/s) at
the point B is:
(1) −2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂
(2) 2𝑖̂ − 3𝑗̂
(3) 2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂
(4) −2𝑖̂ − 3𝑗̂
3. A projectile is thrown with speed 50 m/s at an angle 53° with the horizontal. Taking
horizontal as x -axis and vertical as y-axis, the equation of trajectory of the projectile is
(1) 180𝑦 = 140𝑥 − 𝑥 2 (2) 180𝑦 = 240𝑥 − 𝑥 2
(3) 180𝑦 = 90𝑥 − 2𝑥 2 (4) 180𝑦 = 80𝑥 − 3𝑥 2
4. A particle of mass m has momentum p. it’s kinetic energy will be
𝑝2 𝑝2
(1) 𝑚𝑝 (2) 𝑝2 𝑚 (3) (4)
𝑚 2𝑚
5. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36 km/hr. The
centripetal force is
(1) 250 N (2) 750 N (3) 1000 N (4) 1200 N
6. The relationship between force and position is shown in the given figure (in a one-
dimensional case). The work done by a force in
displacing a body from 𝑥 = 1 𝑐𝑚 to 𝑥 = 5 𝑐𝑚 is:
(1) 20 ergs
(2) 60 ergs
(3) 70 ergs
(4) 700 ergs
7. A particle is displaced through (3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂) m by force 2𝑖̂ 𝑁. The work done is:
(1) 14 J (2) 8 J (3) 6 J (4) 10 J
8. If a person standing on a rotating disc stretches out his hands, the angular speed will
(1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Remain same (4) None of these
9. The value of M, as shown, for which the rod will be in equilibrium is (rod is massless)
(1) 1 kg
(2) 2 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) 6 kg
10. The escape velocity on earth is 11.2 km/s. On another planet having twice radius and 8
times mass of the earth, the escape velocity will be
(1) 3.7 𝑘𝑚/𝑠 (2) 11.2 𝑘𝑚/𝑠 (3) 22.4 𝑘𝑚/𝑠 (4) 43.2 𝑘𝑚/𝑠
11. The distance of Neptune and Saturn from sun are nearly 10 and 1012 meters
13

respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their periodic times will be in
the ration
(1) √10 (2) 100 (3) 10√10 (4) 1/√10

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
12. When load of 5 kg is hung on a wire then extension of 3m takes place, then work done
will be
(1) 75 joule (2) 60 joule (3) 50 joule (4) 100 joule
13. In a U-tube, as shown in the figure, the water and oil are in the left side and right side
of the tube respectively. The height of the water and oil columns are 15 cm and 20 cm
respectively. The density of the oil is: [take 𝜌𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟 = 1000 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3]
(1) 1200 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
(2) 750 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
(3) 1000 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
(4) 1333 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
14. If a particle is executing SHM, with an amplitude A, the distance moved and the
displacement of the body in a time equal to its time period are, respectively:
(1) 2A, A (2) 4A, 0 (3) A, A (4) 0, 2A
15. A simple harmonic wave having an amplitude 𝑎 and time period 𝑇 is represented by
the equation 𝑦 = 5 sin π(𝑡 + 4)𝑚 . Then the value of amplitude (𝑎) in (𝑚) and time
period (𝑇) in second are
(1) a= 10, 𝑇 = 2 (2) 𝑎 = 5, 𝑇 = 1 (3) 𝑎 = 10, 𝑇 = 1 (4) 𝑎 = 5, 𝑇 = 2
16. The graph AB shown in the figure is a plot of the temperature of a body in degrees
Celsius and degrees Fahrenheit. Then:
(1) The slope of the line AB is 9/5
(2) The slope of the line AB is 5/9
(3) The slope of the line AB is 1/9
(4) The slope of the line AB is 3/9
17. The temperature of a body falls from 50°𝐶 to 40°𝐶 in 10 minutes. If the temperature of
the surroundings is 20°𝐶, then temperature of the body after another 10 minutes will be
(1) 36.6°𝐶 (2) 33.3°𝐶 (3) 35°𝐶 (4) 30°𝐶
18. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends upon:
(1) The temperature of the sink only
(2) The temperature of the source and the sink
(3) The volume of the cylinder of the engine
(4) The temperature of the source only
19. If P is the pressure of the gas, then the Kinetic Energy per unit volume of the gas is:
(1) P/2 (2) P (3) 3P/2 (4) 2P
20. The mean kinetic energy of a gas at 300 K is 100 J. The mean energy of the gas at 450 K
is equal to
(1) 100 J (2) 3000 J (3) 450 J (4) 150 J
21. A plane progressive wave cannot be represented by
𝑡 𝑥
(1) 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin(𝜔𝑡 ± 𝑘𝑥) (2) 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 2𝜋 (𝑇 ∓ 𝜆 )
2𝜋
(3) 𝑦 = 𝑎 sin 𝜆
(𝑣𝑡 ∓ 𝑥) (4) 𝑦 = 𝐴 log 𝑥 + 𝐵 log 𝑥
22. Magnetic field lines
(1) Cannot intersect (2) Are always closed curves
(3) Can pass through vacuum (4) All of these

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
23. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating
electromagnetic wave?
(1) A stationary charge (2) A chargeless particle
(3) An accelerating charge (4) A charge moving at constant velocity
24. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the
distance between the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are
(1) 10 cm, 10 cm (2) 15 cm, 5 cm (3) 18 cm, 2 cm (4) 11 cm, 9 cm
25. An object is at a distance of 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. The
image of the object will be:
(1) Smaller in size (2) Inverted
(3) Between the focus and centre of curvature (4) All of the above
26. In Young’s double-slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved
and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe
width becomes:
(1) Half (2) Four times (3) One-fourth (4) Double
27. After passing through a polarizer, a linearly polarized light of intensity I is incident on
an analyser making an angle of 30° with the axes of the polariser. The intensity of light
emitted from the analyser will be:
𝐼 𝐼 3𝐼 2𝐼
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4
(4) 3
28. Match List -I (Spectral Series) with List -II (Corresponding wave number expressions)
List -I (Series) List -II (Wave number in 𝒎−𝟏 )
A. Balmer series 1 1
I. 𝑅 (12 − 𝑛2 )
B. Lyman series II. 𝑅 (
1 1
− 2)
42 𝑛
C. Brackett series 1 1
III. 𝑅 (52 − 𝑛2 )
D. Pfund series 1 1
IV. 𝑅 (22 − 𝑛2 )
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
29. The ratio of nuclear densities and nuclear volumes of 56 4
26𝐹𝑒 and 2𝐻𝑒 are, respectively:
(1) 13:1 and 14:1 (2) 14:1 and 1:1 (3) 1:1 and 14:1 (4) 1:1 and 13:1
30. The dimensional formula for impulse is:
(1) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 ] (2) [𝑀𝐿𝑇 −1 ] (3) [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −1 ] (4) [𝑀2 𝐿𝑇 −1 ]
31. Match List -I with List -II
List -I (Measured values) List -II (Significant figures)
A. 0.001213 I. 2
16 II. 3
B. 2.1 × 10
C. 3.70 III. 1
D. 3000 IV. 4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
32. In the absence of other conductors, the surface charge density
(1) Is proportional to the charge on the conductor and its surface area
(2) Inversely proportional to the charge and directly proportional to the surface area
(3) Directly proportional to the charge and inversely proportional to the surface area
(4) Inversely proportional to the charge and the surface area
33. An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10−9 𝐶𝑚 is aligned at 30° with the direction
of a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 104 𝑁𝐶 −1 . The magnitude of the torque
acting on the dipole is:
(1) 2 × 10−5 𝑁-𝑚 (2) 10−4 𝑁-𝑚 (3) 10−5 𝑁-𝑚 (4) 2 × 10−4 𝑁-𝑚
34. An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest through a potential
difference V in vacuum. The final speed of the electron will be
(1) 𝑉√𝑒/𝑚 (2) √𝑒𝑉/𝑚 (3) √2𝑒𝑉/𝑚 (4) 2𝑒𝑉/𝑚
35. Five capacitors of 10𝜇𝐹 capacity each are connected to a d.c. potential of 100 volts as
shown in the adjoining figure. The equivalent capacitance between the points A and B
will be equal to
(1) 40 𝜇𝐹
(2) 20 𝜇𝐹
(3) 30 𝜇𝐹
(4) 10 𝜇𝐹
36. A wire has a resistance of 6 Ω. It is cut into two parts and both half values are connected
in parallel. The new resistance is:
(1) 12 Ω (2) 1.5 Ω (3) 3 Ω (4) 6 Ω
2
37. The current in a conductor varies with time t as 𝐼 = 2𝑡 + 3𝑡 where 𝐼 is in ampere at t in
seconds. The electric charge flowing through a section of the conductor during t =2 sec
to t =3 sec is:
(1) 10 C (2) 24 C (3) 33 C (4) 44 C
38. An electron, moving in a uniform magnetic field of induction of intensity 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗ , has its
radius directly proportional to:
(1) Its charge (2) Magnetic field (3) Speed (4) None of these
39. A galvanometer has a resistance of 3663 Ω. A shunt S is connected across it such that
1/34 of the total current passes through the galvanometer. The value of the shunt is:
(1) 3663 Ω (2) 111 Ω (3) 107.7 Ω (4) 3555.3 Ω
40. A coil of resistance 400 Ω is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux 𝜙 (Wb) linked
with the coil varies with time t (sec) as 𝜙 = 50𝑡 2 + 4. The current in the coil at t =2s is
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.1 A (3) 2 A (4) 1 A
41. L, C and R represent the value of inductance, capacitance, and resistance, respectively.
The factor which has the same dimensions as that of the inverse of the resonance
frequency is:
𝐿 𝐶 𝑅
(1) √𝐿𝐶 (2) √ (3) (4)
𝐶 𝐿 𝐿
42. When the kinetic energy of an electron is increased, the wavelength of the associated
wave will
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Wavelength does not depend on the kinetic energy (4) None of the above

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
43. The light rays having photons of energy 1.8 eV are falling on a metal surface having a
work function 1.2 eV. What is the stopping potential to be applied to stop the emitting
electrons:
(1) 3 eV (2) 1.2 eV (3) 0.6 eV (4) 1.4 eV
44. Out of the following which one is a forward-biased diode?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

45. An LED is constructed from a p-n junction diode using GaAsP. The energy gap is
1.9 eV. The wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to:
(1) 10.4 × 10−26 𝑚 (2) 654 𝑛𝑚 (3) 654 𝑚 (4) 654 × 10−11 𝑚
CHEMISTRY
46. Identify the incorrect statement among the following
(1) 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁 −3 ions have 10 mole electrons
(2) 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂−2 ions have 6.023 × 1022 electrons
(3) 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝐻4 has 10 mole protons
(4) 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 water has 10 mole protons
47. Molecular mass of
(i) 𝐻2 𝑂 (ii) 𝐶𝑂2 (iii) 𝐶𝐻4 are respectively
(1) 18 u, 16 u, 44 u (2) 18 u, 44 u, 16 u (3) 16 u, 18 u, 44 u (4) 44 u, 16 u, 18 u
48. Oxygen has lower ionization enthalpy than nitrogen due to
(1) Half filled p subshell of oxygen atom
(2) Half filled p subshell of nitrogen atom
(3) Complete filled p subshell of oxygen atom
(4) Complete filled p subshell of nitrogen atom
49. The energies 𝐸1 and 𝐸2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelength i.e., 𝜆1 and 𝜆2 will be
1
(1) 𝜆1 = 2𝜆2 (2) 𝜆1 = 4𝜆2 (3) 𝜆1 = 𝜆2 (4) 𝜆1 = 𝜆2
2
50. The number of angular nodes and radial nodes present in 3p orbital is respectively
(1) 2, 3 (2) 1, 1 (3) 1, 2 (4) 2, 1
51. During an adiabatic process
(1) Pressure is maintained constant (2) Gas is isothermally expanded
(3) There is perfect heat insulation (4) The system exchanges heat with surroundings
52. For which change ∆𝐻 ≠ ∆𝐸
(1) 𝐻2(𝑔) + 𝐼2(𝑔) ⇌ 2𝐻𝐼(𝑔)
(2) 𝐻𝐶𝑙(𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐻2 𝑂(𝑙)
(3) 𝐶(𝑠) + 𝑂2(𝑔) ⇌ 𝐶𝑂2 (𝑔)
(4) 𝑁2(𝑔) + 3𝐻2(𝑔) → 2𝑁𝐻3(𝑔)
53. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamics parameter, the criteria for the spontaneity
of any process is
(1) ∆𝑆𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚 + ∆𝑆𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠 > 0 (2) ∆𝑆𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚 − ∆𝑆𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠 > 0
(3) ∆𝑆𝑠𝑦𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑚 > 0 𝑜𝑛𝑙𝑦 (4) ∆𝑆𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠 > 0 𝑜𝑛𝑙𝑦
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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
54. Which is Lewis base?
(1) 𝐻𝐶𝑙 (2) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 (3) 𝐻𝐹 (4) 𝑁𝐻3
−10
55. The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution
would be?
(1) 1.26 × 10−5 𝑀 (2) 1.6 × 10−9 𝑀 (3) 1.6 × 10−11 𝑀 (4) Zero
+ −6 −1
56. At 90°𝐶, pure water has [𝐻3 𝑂 ] = 10 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑒 . What is the value of 𝐾𝑤 at 90°𝐶?
(1) 10−8 (2) 10−6 (3) 10−12 (4) 10−14
57. For the reaction 2𝑁𝑂2 + 𝐹2 → 2𝑁𝑂2 𝐹, following mechanism has been provided,
𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑓𝑎𝑠𝑡
𝑁𝑂2 + 𝐹2 → 𝑁𝑂2 𝐹 + 𝐹 𝑁𝑂2 + 𝐹 → 𝑁𝑂2 𝐹
Thus, rate expression of the above reaction can be written as
(1) 𝑟 = 𝐾[𝑁𝑂2 ]2 [𝐹2 ] (2) 𝑟 = 𝐾[𝑁𝑂2 ][𝐹2 ]
(3) 𝑟 = 𝐾[𝑁𝑂2 ] (4) 𝑟 = 𝐾[𝐹2 ]
1
58. For a reaction 2 𝐴 → 2𝐵, rate of disappearance of ‘A’ is related to the rate of appearance
of ‘B’ by the expression
𝑑[𝐴] 𝑑[𝐵] 𝑑[𝐴] 1 𝑑[𝐵] 𝑑[𝐴] 1 𝑑[𝐵] 𝑑[𝐴] 𝑑[𝐵]
(1) − 𝑑𝑡
=4 𝑑𝑡
(2) − 𝑑𝑡
=2 𝑑𝑡
(3) − 𝑑𝑡
=4 𝑑𝑡
(4) − 𝑑𝑡
= 𝑑𝑡
59. The role of a catalyst is to change
(1) Gibbs energy of the reaction (2) Enthalpy of reaction
(3) The activation energy of the reaction (4) Equilibrium constant
𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂2 /𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝐶𝑢𝐵𝑟/𝐻𝐵𝑟
60. Identify ‘Z’ in the change 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑁𝐻2 → 𝑋→ 𝑍:
280 𝐾

(1) (2) (3) (4)

61. Which chemical reaction leads to the formation of isocyanide?

(1) Reimer Tiemann reaction (2) Carbylamine reaction
(3) Hoffmann bromamide reaction (4) None of the above
62. The correct electronic configuration of Gadolinium (Atomic number = 64) is:
(1) [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 8 6𝑑2 (2) [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 9 5𝑠1 (3) [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 7 5𝑑1 6𝑠 2 (4) [𝑋𝑒]4𝑓 6 5𝑑2 6𝑠 2
63. The fusion of chromite ore (𝐹𝑒𝐶𝑟2 𝑂4 ) with 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 in air gives a yellow solution upon
the addition of water. Subsequent treatment with 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 produces an orange solution
The yellow and orange colours, respectively, are due to the formation of
(1) 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑟𝑂4 and 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 (2) 𝐶𝑟(𝑂𝐻)3 and 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7
(3) 𝐶𝑟2 (𝐶𝑂3 )3 and 𝐹𝑒2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 (4) 𝐶𝑟(𝑂𝐻)3 and 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑟𝑂4
64. IUPAC name of [𝑃𝑡(𝑁𝐻3 )3 (𝐵𝑟)(𝑁𝑂2 )𝐶𝑙]𝐶𝑙 is:
(1) Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV)Chloride
(2) Triamminebromonitrocholoroplatinum (IV)Chloride
(3) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV)Chloride
(4) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV)Chloride
65. According to Crystal Field Theory (CFT), the compound, among the following, that
forms a coloured complex is:
(1) [𝑇𝑖(𝐻2 𝑂)6 ]4+ (2) [𝐶𝑟(𝑁𝐻3 )6 ]3+ (3) 𝐾[𝑉(𝐹)6 ] (4) (𝑁𝐻4 )2 [𝑇𝑖𝐶𝑙6 ]

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
66. One of the essential 𝛼- amino acids is
(1) Lysine (2) Glycine (3) Serine (4) Proline
67. D (+) glucose yields an oxime with hydroxyl amine. The structure of the oxime would
be:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
68. The products formed in the following reaction, 𝐶6 𝐻5 − 𝑂 − 𝐶𝐻3 + 𝐻𝐼 → are
(1) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝑂𝐻 and 𝐶𝐻3 𝐼 (2) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐼 and 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻
(3) 𝐶6 𝐻5 𝐶𝐻3 and 𝐻𝑂𝐼 (4) 𝐶6 𝐻6 and 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐼
69. Select the correct option based on statements below
Assertion (A): −𝑂𝐻, −𝑂𝐶𝐻3 groups are o, p-directing
Reason (R): Ring is activated by the resonance effect of −𝑂𝐻, −𝑂𝐶𝐻3 groups
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
70. On addition of group reagent to the original solution various basic radicals precipitates
in the form of their respective salts. Match the given radicals (column – I) with their
respective salt (column – II) in the form of which they precipitate.
Column – I (Basic radical) Column – II (Precipitates as)
2+ I. Carbonate
A. 𝑃𝑏 (Group – I)
3+ II. Sulphide
B. 𝐴𝑙 (Group – II)
2+ III. Hydroxide
C. 𝑍𝑛 (Group – III)
D. 𝐶𝑎2+ (Group – IV) IV. Chloride
Select the correct option
(1) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II (2) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I
(3) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (4) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
71. Which of the following compound will produce effervescence with sodium bicarbonate?

(1) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻 (2)

(3) (4) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻

72. Mark the name of the reaction associated with the following conversion
(1) Stephen reaction
(2) Gattermann-Koch reaction
(3) Etard reaction
(4) Rosenmund reaction
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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
73. The following reaction is one of many steps in the laboratory synthesis of cholesterol.
What type of reaction is it?
(1) Reduction reaction
(2) Oxidation reaction
(3) Catalytic hydrogenation
(4) Electrophilic substitution
74. Which of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline
solution of iodine?
(1) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻(𝑂𝐻)𝐶𝐻3 (2) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻(𝑂𝐻)𝐶𝐻3
(3) 𝐶𝐻3 𝑂𝐻 (4) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻2 𝑂𝐻
75. The Lewis acid strength of 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 , 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 and 𝐵𝐹3 is the order
(1) 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 < 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐵𝐹3 (2) 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐵𝐹3 < 𝐵𝐵𝑟3
(3) 𝐵𝐹3 < 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 < 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 (4) 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 < 𝐵𝐹3 < 𝐵𝐶𝑙3
76. Correct statement among the following regarding fluorine is:
(1) Fluorine is stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine
(2) Fluorine is weaker oxidizing agent than chlorine
(3) Fluorine is stronger reducing agent than chlorine
(4) Bond dissociation energy of fluorine is more than chlorine
77. What is the product formed when n-heptane is heated with a mixture of
𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 at 600℃?
(1) Cyclohexane (2) Cyclohexene (3) Benzene (4) Toluene
78. Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic because
(1) The sigma electron density of the C-H bond in acetylene is closer to carbon, which
has 50% s-character.
(2) Acetylene has only one hydrogen on each carbon.
(3) Acetylene contains the least number of hydrogens among the possible
hydrocarbons having two carbons.
(4) Acetylene belongs to the class of alkynes with the molecular formula 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2
79. Which one of the following can exhibit cis-trans isomerism?
(1) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (2) 𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝑙
(3) 𝐶𝑙 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙 (4) 𝐶𝑙𝐶𝐻2 − 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝑙
80. Which of the following is an electrophilic reagent?
(1) 𝑅𝑂− (2) 𝐵𝐹3 (3) 𝑁𝐻3 (4) 𝑅𝑂𝐻
81. Which of the following statements about the inductive effect is correct?
(1) The inductive effect transfers electrons from one carbon atom to another.
(2) The inductive effect operates in both 𝜎 − and 𝜋 − bonds.
(3) The inductive effect does not create any charge in the molecule.
(4) The inductive effect creates partial charges and is distance-dependent
82. According to molecular orbital theory, arrange the nitrogen species in each list in
ascending order of bond order:
(1) 𝑁2− < 𝑁2 < 𝑁22− (2) 𝑁22− < 𝑁2− < 𝑁2
(3) 𝑁2 < 𝑁22− < 𝑁2− (4) 𝑁2− < 𝑁22− < 𝑁2
83. 𝑋𝑒𝐹2 is isostructural with:
(1) 𝑇𝑒𝐹2 (2) 𝐼𝐶𝑙2− (3) 𝑆𝑏𝐶𝑙3 (4) 𝐵𝐶𝑙3

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
84. When 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂3 is converted into 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 the change in the oxidation state of sulfur is from:
(1) 0 to +2 (2) +2 to +4 (3) +4 to +2 (4) +4 to +6
85. The atomic mass of Al is 27. When a current of 5 faraday is passed through a solution of
𝐴𝑙 3+ ions, the mass of Al deposited is:
(1) 27 g (2) 36 g (3) 45 g (4) 9 g
86. Assertion (A): Silver nitrate solution becomes bluish when copper rod is placed in it.
Reason (R): Copper is more electropositive than silver
(1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation
of the assertion
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false
87. The Van’t Hoff factor of a 0.005 M aqueous solution of 𝐾𝐶𝑙 is 1.95. The degree of
ionisation of 𝐾𝐶𝑙 is
(1) 0.95 (2) 0.97 (3) 0.94 (4) 0.96
88. Osmotic pressure is 0.0821 atm at a temperature of 300 K. Find concentration in mole
litre
(1) 0.033 (2) 0.066 (3) 0.33 × 10−2 (4) 3
89. The correct sequence among the following for the below mentioned three chlorides in
decreasing order towards 𝑆𝑁 1 reactivity will be:
(1) (2) (3)

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 2 > 3 > 1 (3) 2 > 1 > 3 (4) 3 > 2 > 1
90. Which of the following is the most preferred method for preparing pure alkyl chlorides
from alcohols?
𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑙2
(1) 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂
(2) 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑃𝐶𝑙5 → 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝑃𝑂𝐶𝑙3 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙
(3) 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑆𝑂𝐶𝑙2 → 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝑆𝑂2 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙
(4) 𝑅 − 𝑂𝐻 + 𝑃𝐶𝑙3 → 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂3
BOTANY
91. The branch of biology that deals with the relationship of different groups of organisms
and examines their natural variation and relationships is known as:
(1) Cladistics (2) Systematics (3) Taxonomy (4) Identification
92. Cell in some filamentous cyanobacteria that are specialized for nitrogen fixation are
called:
(1) Phycobilisomes (2) Chromatophores (3) Grana (4) Heterocysts
93. Virus envelope is known as
(1) capsid (2) virion (3) nucleoprotein (4) core
94. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(1) Dryopteris (2) Salvinia (3) Adiantum (4) Equisetum
95. Floridian starch has structure similar to:
(1) Amylopectin and glycogen (2) Mannitol and algin
(3) Laminarin and cellulose (4) Starch and cellulose

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
96. The cells of which of the following regions of the root are responsible for growth of its
length?
(1) Root cap (2) Region of meristematic activity
(3) Region of elongation (4) Region of maturation
97. Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Dianthus (2) Argemone (3) Brassica (4) Citrus
98. Flower is
(1) Modified leaf (2) Modified shoot
(3) Modified petiole (4) Modified pedicel
99. In dicot stem the vascular bundle is
(1) Conjoint, open and with exarch protoxylem
(2) Conjoint, open and with endarch protoxylem
(3) Conjoint and closed
(4) Scattered, each surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
100. In ground tissue system, parenchymatous cells are usually present in
(1) cortex (2) pericycle
(3) pith and medullary rays (4) All of the above
101. Resin, latex and mucilage are found in
(1) Phloem parenchyma (2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Phloem pits (4) None of the above
102. Starch sheath layer in plant stem is also known as
(1) Epidermis (2) Metadermis (3) Endodermis (4) Pith layer
103. The endomembrane system of eukaryotic cell does not include:
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Lysosome
(3) Vacuole (4) Peroxisome
104. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
(1) Nucleoid (2) Ribosomes (3) Cell wall (4) Mesosomes
105. Cytoskeleton comprises of
(1) Microtubule (2) Microfilament
(3) Intermediate filament (4) All of the these
106. In prophase mitosis, which one of the following events occurs in animal cells but not in
plant cells?
(1) Centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the nucleus
(2) Homologous chromosomes do not associate
(3) The nuclear envelope (membrane) breaks down
(4) Nucleoli disappear
107. During S phase
(1) The DNA per cell doubles
(2) The protein per cell becomes half
(3) The chromosomes also get double
(4) The content of a diploid cell increases from C to 2C
108. The two daughter chromatids start moving towards the two opposite poles, this is a
characteristic feature of
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
109. Dark reactions of photosynthesis are actually not totally independent of light as:
(1) The initial reactions occur in the presence of light
(2) The reaction will be inhibited by the presence of light
(3) They can occur during the day as well
(4) They utilize the products of the light reaction.
110. ATP and NADPH produced during photosynthesis, are used in which of the following
reactions?
(1) Catabolic (2) Biosynthetic phase
(3) amphibolic (4) Hydrolytic phase
111. Kranz anatomy can be observed in leaves of:
(1) sorghum (2) spinach (3) mustard (4) tulip
112. The oxidative decarboxylation of Pyruvate occurs in
(1) Mitochondrial membranes (2) Cytoplasm
(3) Peri mitochondrial space (4) Mitochondrial Matrix
113. Glycerol and Fatty acids are the result of breaking down of Fats:
(1) Fatty acids enter at the step of formation of BPGA
(2) Fatty acids enter as acetyl CoA
(3) Fatty acids enter as PGAL
(4) Fatty acids enter as Pyruvate
114. Abscisic acid is known as the stress hormone because it
(1) breaks seed dormancy (2) induces flowering
(3) promotes leaf fall (4) promotes closure of stomata
115. N6-furfurylamino purine and kinetin are derivative of …….
(1) Indol compounds (2) Adenine (3) Carotenoids (4) Terpenes
116. The typical growth curve in plants is:
(1) sigmoid (2) linear
(3) stair-steps shaped (4) parabolic
117. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of
(1) water (2) insects or wind (3) birds (4) bats
118. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:
(1) Papaya (2) Cucumber (3) Castor (4) Maize
119. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of
(1) Papaver (2) Michelia (3) Aloe (4) Tomato
120. Sickle cell anaemia results from
(1) A chromosomal aberration (2) Non disjunction of autosome
(3) A point mutation (4) Blood transfusion reaction
121. Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is
homozygous or heterozygous for a character under consideration is called
(1) reciprocal cross (2) test cross
(3) dihybrid cross (4) Back cross
122. Pairing and separation of a pair of chromosomes would lead to segregation of a pair of
factors they carried. This conclusion was drawn by
(1) Walter Sutton (2) Theodore Boveri
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) Thomas Hunt Morgan

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
123. The concept of X body was given by
(1) T.H. Morgan (2) Walter Sutton
(3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Henking
124. The inducer of lac operon is:
(1) Beta galactosidase (2) Galactose
(3) Lactose (4) Glucose
125. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material come from the experiments of
(1) Griffith (2) Hershey and chase
(3) Avery, Macleod and McCarty (4) Hargobind Khorana
126. The beginning of understanding genetic transformation in bacteria was made by
(1) Frederick Griffith (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Watson and Crick (4) TH Morgan
127. hn – RNA undergoes two additional processing. Out of which, in one of them an
unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5’ – end of hnRNA.
This is known as
(1) capping (2) tailing (3) splicing (4) termination
128. The logistic growth curve of animal population growth is more realistic than J shaped
curve because:
(1) Asexual mode of reproduction is rare in higher animals
(2) Resources are finite and become limiting sooner or later
(3) Most animals are conformers rather than regulators
(4) Abiotic factors affect animals more than plants
129. A broad – based, pyramid shaped age structure is characteristic of a population that is:
(1) Growing rapidly (2) At carrying capacity
(3) Stable (4) Shrinking
130. The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to the following factors, except:
(1) Detritus rich in sugars
(2) Warm and moist environment
(3) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(4) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
131. World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in
(1) Brazil (2) Argentina (3) Sweden (4) South Africa
132. One out of the following is not responsible for biodiversity loss.
(1) Alien species invasion (2) Co-extinction
(3) Ex-situ conservation (4) Deforestation
133. Diversity can be understood by which of the following terminology?
(1) Heterogeneity (2) Homogeneity (3) Homozygosity (4) Heterotrophic
134. Which one of the following areas in India is a hot spot of biodiversity?
(1) Eastern Ghats (2) Gangetic plain (3) Sunder bans (4) Western Ghats
135. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of biodiversity losses?
(1) Over-exploitation, habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Climate change only
(3) Over-exploitation only
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation only

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following is not an Echinoderm character?
(1) Exclusively marine (2) Radial symmetry in adults
(3) Water canal system (4) Water vascular system
137. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called
(1) Ostia (2) Oscula
(3) Choanocytes (4) Mesenchymal cells
138. Which of the following features is not present in the phylum – Arthropoda?
(1) Metameric segmentation (2) Parapodia
(3) Jointed appendages (4) Chitinous exoskeleton
139. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin
and penguin is correct?
(1) Penguin is homeothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
(2) leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
(3) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining
three
(4) All are bilaterally symmetrical
140. The terga sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by
(1) Cementing glue (2) Muscular tissue
(3) Arthrodial membrane (4) Cartilage
141. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is
(1) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium (4) Squamous epithelium
142. Smooth muscles occur on
(1) Viscera (2) Internal organs (3) Blood vessels (4) All the above
143. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the structure of proteins:
(1) They are heteropolymers containing strings of amino acids.
(2) The first amino acid in the primary structure is the N-terminus amino acid
(3) Only left helices are observed in proteins
(4) Tertiary structure is absolutely essential for many biologic functions of the proteins
144. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Cellulose is a polysachharide
(2) Uracil is a pyrimidine
(3) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid
(4) Sucrose is a diasaccharide
145. Which of the following is a homopolysaccharide?
(1) Heparin (2) Inulin (3) Pectin (4) Hyaluronic acid
146. How many of the following are purines?
Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, thymine, Cysteine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Guanine,
Thymosin
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 3
147. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is
(1) equal to that in the blood (2) more than that in the blood
(3) less than that in the blood (4) less than that of carbon dioxide

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
148. Which of the following match is correct?
(1) Emphysema: reduction of surface area of alveoli
(2) Pneumonia: occupational disease with asbestos
(3) Silicosis: inflammation of alveoli
(4) Asthma: excessive secretion of bronchial mucus due to infection with mycobacterium
species
149. Which of the following is true about pleural membranes except
(1) outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining
(2) inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface
(3) pleural fluid is present between them
(4) It increases friction on the lung surface
150. In a surface ECG the QRS complex represents:
(1) Atrial depolarization (2) Atrial repolarization
(3) Ventricular depolarization (4) Ventricular repolarization
151. There is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood [of Rh -ve mother] to small
amounts of Rh +ve blood from the fetus during the:
(1) First trimester of any pregnancy
(2) Third trimester of the second pregnancy only
(3) Delivery of the child
(4) There is no such possibility
152. An increase in the blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of:
(1) Erythropoietin (2) Atrial natriuretic factor
(3) Renin (4) Aldosterone
153. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water
(4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes
154. Consider the following statements:
I. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit
II. The neurotransmitter released at the neuro-muscular junction is Acetylcholine.
III. Myosin head has ATPase activity.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) I and II only (2) I and III only (3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
155. Which of the following joints would allow no movement?
(1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint
(3) Synovial joint (4) Ball and socket joint
156. Given diagram shows bone of the left human hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain
mistakes in labelling. Two of the wrongly labelled bones are
(1) tibia and tarsals
(2) femur and fibula
(3) fibula and phalanges
(4) tarsals and femur

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
157. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
(1) membrances of synaptic vesicles (2) pre-synaptic membrane
(3) tips of axons (4) post-synaptic membrane
158. When a neuron is in resting state, i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
(1) equally permeable to both 𝑁𝑎+ and 𝐾 + ions
(2) impermeable to both 𝑁𝑎+ and 𝐾 + ions
(3) comparatively more permeable to 𝐾 + ions and nearly impermeable to 𝑁𝑎+ ions
(4) comparatively more permeable to 𝑁𝑎+ ions and nearly impermeable to 𝐾 + ions
159. Oxytocin helps in
(1) Ovulation (2) Lactation but not childbirth
(3) Childbirth but not lactation (4) both Lactation and Childbirth
160. Glucocorticoids do not:
(1) Stimulate gluconeogenesis
(2) Cause lipolysis
(3) Cause proteolysis
(4) Stimulate cellular uptake and utilization of amino acids
161. Seminal plasma is rich in:
(1) Sucrose, calcium and certain enzyme
(2) Glucose, sodium and certain enzymes
(3) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(4) Fructose, sodium and certain enzymes
162. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called:
(1) Spermiation (2) Spermatocytogenesis
(3) Spermiogenesis (4) Spermatolysis
163. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce
(1) estrogen only (2) progesterone
(3) human chorionic gonadotropin (4) relaxin only
164. Natural methods for contraception works on the principle of:
(1) Preventing fertilization (2) Preventing implantation
(3) Preventing ovulation (4) Preventing embryo development
165. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred
into
(1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube (3) Fimbriae (4) Cervix
166. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
(1) Syphilis (2) Acquired Immuno-Deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
(3) Trichomoniasis (4) Encephalitis
167. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of
(1) Analogous organ (2) Homologous organs
(3) Vestigial organs (4) Retrogressive evolution
168. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
(1) divergent evolution (2) micro-evolution
(3) co-evolution (4) convergent evolution

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FULL MODEL EXAM - 1
27th March 2025/ 180 Questions/ 720 Marks/ 180 Minutes
169. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by plasmodium:
(1) Vivax (2) Ovale (3) Malariae (4) Falciparum
170. Infection with Hemophilus influenza, especially in children can cause:
(1) Diptheria (2) SARS (3) Pneumonia (4) Dysentery
171. Interferons are secreted by:
(1) Liver (2) Spleen
(3) Virus infected cells (4) Lymphocytes
172. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that
(1) Water is pure
(2) water is highly polluted
(3) water is less polluted
(4) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
173. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(1) mechanical process (2) chemical process
(3) biological process (4) physical process
174. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
(1) Separation (2) Purification
(3) Preservation (4) culture media preparation
175. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome (2) Yeast artificial chromosome
(3) Plasmid (4) All of these
176. The end result of precipitation of DNA in suspension is seen
(1) In the form of dark solution (2) In the form of effervescence
(3) In the form of fine threads (4) In the form of bubbles
177. A gene, whose expression helps to identify transformed cells is known as
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector (3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene
178. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(1) Purification of product
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product
(3) availability of oxygen throughout the process
(4) Ensuring anaerobic condition in the culture vessel
179. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
(1) Humulin First therapeutic rDNA product approved for human use
(2) RNAi Silencing of mRNA with the help of dsRNA
(3) Rosie Transgenic sheep producing alpha 1 antitrypsin
(4) Golden rice Vitamin A enriched rice variety
180. Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of
(1) Escherichia (2) Mycobacterium
(3) Rhizobium (4) Saccharomyces

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