Cambridge IGCSE™

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) July 2025

MOCK TEST 1 45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
• There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• Do not use correction fluid.
• Do not write on any bar codes.
• You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
• The total mark for this paper is 40.
• Each correct answer will score one mark.
• Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
• The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 14 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

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1 Oxygen melts at –219 C and boils at –183 C.

At which temperature is oxygen a liquid?

A –225 C B –189 C C –175 C D 25 C

2 The pressure of a sample of gas is decreased. The temperature is kept constant.

Which row describes the effects on the particles?

movement collisions
of particles between particles

A slower occur less often

B slower occur with more force
C no change in speed occur less often
D no change in speed occur with more force

3 Rubidium has two isotopes, 85

37Rb and
87 Rb.
37

Which statement explains why both isotopes have the same chemical properties?

A They have the same number of protons.

B They have the same electronic configuration.
C They have different numbers of neutrons.
D They have different mass numbers.

4 Which pair of elements react to form a compound with a strong attraction between oppositely
charged ions?

A carbon and bromine

B carbon and nitrogen
C sodium and oxygen
D sodium and potassium

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5 Four substances, P, Q, R and S, are described.

● P is diatomic.
● Q is a good conductor of electricity when solid and when molten.
● R is a silver solid with a very high melting point.
● S reacts with oxygen to form a brown gas.

Which substances are metals?

A P and Q B P and S C Q and R D R and S

6 Which diagram shows the covalent bonding in a molecule of carbon dioxide?

A O–C–O B O=C–O C O=C=O D O≡C≡O

7 The bonding, structure and melting point of sodium chloride and sulfur dichloride are shown.

compound bonding structure melting point / C

sodium chloride ionic giant lattice 801

sulfur dichloride covalent simple molecular –121

Why does sulfur dichloride have a lower melting point than sodium chloride?

A The covalent bonds in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the attractive forces between
molecules in sodium chloride.
B The covalent bonds in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the ionic bonds in sodium chloride.
C The attractive forces between molecules in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the attractive
forces between molecules in sodium chloride.
D The attractive forces between molecules in sulfur dichloride are weaker than the ionic bonds
in sodium chloride.

8 Diamond and graphite have giant covalent structures of carbon atoms.

Which statement describes graphite?

A It has a strong, rigid three-dimensional structure.

B It has four strong covalent bonds between each carbon atom.
C It has layers, which can slide over each other.
D It has no delocalised electrons so does not conduct electricity.

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9 Which row explains the malleability and electrical conductivity of a solid metal?

malleability electrical conductivity

A Delocalised electrons can move Delocalised electrons can move
freely through the structure. freely through the structure.
B Delocalised electrons can move Positive ions can move freely
freely through the structure. through the structure.
C Rows of positive ions can Delocalised electrons can move
slide over each other. freely through the structure.
D Rows of positive ions can Positive ions can move freely
slide over each other. through the structure.

10 The equation for the decomposition of ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2CO3, is shown.

(NH4)2CO3(s) → 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

[Mr: (NH4)2CO3, 96]

The total volume of gas produced is 360 cm3 at r.t.p.

Which mass of ammonium carbonate, (NH4)2CO3, is decomposed?

A 0.24 g B 0.48 g C 0.96 g D 1.44 g

11 What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 3.66 g of hydrogen, 37.8 g of
phosphorus and 58.5 g of oxygen?

A H6P2O6 B H4PO4 C H3PO3 D HPO

12 Aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using graphite electrodes.

Which row identifies the product and observations at each electrode during the electrolysis?

anode cathode
product observation product observation
A oxygen bubbles of gas copper electrode turns pink
B copper electrode turns pink oxygen bubbles of gas
C none electrode dissolves copper electrode turns pink
D oxygen bubbles of gas and hydrogen bubbles of gas
electrode dissolves

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13 Molten sodium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Which row shows the products formed at the cathode and anode?

cathode anode

A chlorine hydrogen
B chlorine sodium
C hydrogen chlorine
D sodium chlorine

14 The equation for the formation of ammonia is shown.

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

The reaction pathway diagram for the reaction is shown.

activation
energy
= +250 kJ / mol
total energy
N2 + 3H2 released
energy
= –342 kJ / mol
enthalpy
change
2NH3

progress of reaction

What is the enthalpy change for the reaction?

A –592 kJ / mol
B –92 kJ / mol
C +92 kJ / mol
D +592 kJ / mol

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15 Sulfur dioxide is converted to sulfur trioxide in the Contact process.

The conditions used are 450 C and 200 kPa with a vanadium(V) oxide catalyst.

Which row describes and explains the effect of changing conditions on the rate of reaction?

change in conditions effect on rate explanation

A no catalyst lower the activation energy is higher

B higher pressure higher the particles have more kinetic energy
C lower temperature lower the particles collide more frequently
D lower pressure higher there are more particles per unit volume

16 Hydrogen gas reacts with iodine gas to form hydrogen iodide gas in an equilibrium reaction.

H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) ∆H = +26.5 kJ / mol

Which changes increase the yield of HI at equilibrium?

1 adding a catalyst
2 adding more hydrogen gas
3 increasing the pressure
4 increasing the temperature

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

17 The equation for the reaction of carbon with carbon dioxide is shown.

C + CO2 → 2CO

Which row identifies the carbon atom that is reduced and its change in oxidation number?

change in
atom that is reduced
oxidation number

A carbon in CO2 +2 → +4
B carbon in CO2 +4 → +2
C elemental carbon, C 0 → +2
D elemental carbon, C +2 → 0

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18 Aqueous iron(II) sulfate is added to acidified potassium manganate(VII). The purple colour of the
potassium manganate(VII) disappears.

Aqueous potassium iodide is added to acidified potassium dichromate(VI). A dark brown solution
forms.

Which row identifies the role of the iron(II) sulfate and the potassium dichromate(VI) in these
reactions?

iron(II) sulfate potassium dichromate(VI)

A oxidising agent oxidising agent

B oxidising agent reducing agent
C reducing agent reducing agent
D reducing agent oxidising agent

19 Which row shows the difference between a weak acid and a strong acid?

weak acid strong acid

A fully dissociated partially dissociated

B concentrated dilute
C dilute concentrated
D partially dissociated fully dissociated

20 Which substance turns methyl orange red?

A aqueous ammonia
B dilute hydrochloric acid
C aqueous sodium hydroxide
D distilled water

21 Which row describes zinc oxide and calcium oxide?

zinc oxide calcium oxide

A basic acidic
B acidic basic
C amphoteric acidic
D amphoteric basic

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22 Which row shows the properties of a transition element?

colour electrical
catalyst
of oxide conductivity

A yes red good

B yes green poor
C no yellow good
D no white poor

23 Fluorine is the element at the top of Group VII of the Periodic Table.

Which statement describes fluorine?

A It is inert.
B It is monatomic.
C It is non-metallic.
D It is a solid at room temperature.

24 When aluminium is placed in dilute hydrochloric acid, there is no reaction.

When zinc is placed in dilute hydrochloric acid, bubbles of gas are immediately given off.

Which statement correctly explains these observations?

A Aluminium is coated with a layer of aluminium oxide.

B Aluminium is more reactive than hydrogen.
C Aluminium is less reactive than zinc.
D Zinc is less reactive than hydrogen.

25 Which statements about the use of sacrificial protection to prevent iron from rusting are correct?

1 A more reactive metal than iron is used as a sacrificial protector because it

undergoes reduction before iron.
2 Zinc is used as a sacrificial protector because it gains electrons more readily than
iron.
3 Copper is not used as a sacrificial protector because it is less reactive than iron.
4 Magnesium is used as a sacrificial protector because it loses electrons more readily
than iron.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

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26 Aluminium is extracted from its ore by electrolysis.

What is the role of cryolite in this process?

A to lower the operating temperature

B to lower the boiling point of bauxite
C to raise the melting point of bauxite
D to act as a catalyst

27 Which row identifies two greenhouse gases and three processes by which they contribute to
global warming?

two greenhouse gases three processes

A carbon dioxide and methane absorption, creation and reflection of thermal energy
B carbon dioxide and oxygen absorption, creation and reflection of thermal energy
C carbon dioxide and methane absorption, emission and reflection of thermal energy
D methane and oxygen absorption, emission and reflection of thermal energy

28 Which mixture contains all of the elements in a typical NPK fertiliser?

A ammonium nitrate and calcium phosphate

B ammonium phosphate and potassium chloride
C potassium nitrate and ammonium chloride
D potassium carbonate and ammonium nitrate

29 Bromine reacts with but-2-ene.

What is the displayed formula of the product of this reaction?

A B
H Br H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C C C H

H Br H H Br Br H H

C D
H H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C C C H

H Br Br H Br H H Br

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30 Which statement is correct?

A Bitumen is used as a fuel for ships.

B Coal, natural gas and oxygen are all fuels.
C Hydrogen is the main constituent of natural gas.
D Petroleum is separated into useful substances by fractional distillation.

31 Which statement explains why ethanoic acid is saturated?

A The molecule dissociates completely in water.

B There is a carbon–oxygen double bond in the molecule.
C The carbon–carbon bond in the molecule is a single bond.
D All the carbon–hydrogen bonds in the molecule are single bonds.

32 Which statement about compounds in the same homologous series is correct?

A They have the same chemical properties because they have the same number of carbon
atoms.
B They have the same physical properties because they have the same number of carbon
atoms.
C They have different chemical properties because they have different numbers of carbon
atoms.
D They have different physical properties because they have different numbers of carbon
atoms.

33 Which row shows the properties of methane?

gives a positive
soluble state at room
test with
in water temperature
aqueous bromine

A no gas no
B no gas yes
C yes liquid no
D yes liquid yes

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34 The table shows two methods used to make ethanol.

conditions source
type of
method temperature pressure of raw
process catalyst
/ C / atm material

fermentation batch 35 1 yeast sugar cane

adding steam continuous 300 60 acid petroleum
to ethene

Which statement gives an advantage of preparing ethanol by fermentation rather than by adding
steam to ethene?

A Fermentation takes several days to complete.

B Little energy is used in the fermentation process.
C The fermentation of glucose from sugar cane produces pure ethanol.
D Fermentation uses a non-renewable raw material.

35 Which equation represents an addition reaction?

A CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN

B C6H6 + Br2 → C6H5Br + HBr

C NH4Br → NH3 + HBr

D C14 H30 → C2 H4 + C8H18 + C4H8

36 The structure of part of a polymer is shown.

H H H H O H H H H

C N C C C C O C N C C C

H O H H H O H H

How many amide and ester linkages are included in the structure shown?

amide ester
linkages linkages

A 1 0
B 1 1
C 2 1
D 2 2

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37 Which structure represents part of a protein?

A B

H O H O O O

N C N C C C O O

C D

H H O O H O H O

N N C C N C O N C

38 Which piece of apparatus can only measure a single fixed volume?

A a 250 cm3 beaker

B a 50 cm3 burette
C a 100 cm3 measuring cylinder
D a 25 cm3 volumetric pipette

39 Pure solid copper(II) nitrate can be obtained from a mixture of copper(II) nitrate and copper
powder.

Three stages in the method are listed.

X add water and stir

Y crystallise
Z filter

After the three stages, the copper(II) nitrate is washed and dried.

What is the correct order of stages X, Y and Z to obtain pure solid copper(II) nitrate from the
mixture?

A X→Y→Z B X→Z→Y C Y→X→Z D Z→X→Y

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40 Which row describes a test and the observation for aqueous sulfate ions?

test observation
A add dilute nitric acid a gas is produced which
turns limewater cloudy
B add dilute nitric acid and white precipitate forms
aqueous barium nitrate
C add dilute nitric acid and solution decolourises
aqueous potassium manganate(VII)
D add dilute nitric acid white precipitate forms
and aqueous silver nitrate

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The Periodic Table of Elements

Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
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potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

16
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

Cs Ba lanthanoids
Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118

Fr Ra actinoids
Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium nihonium flerovium moscovium livermorium tennessine oganesson
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71

lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).