SPECIAL LAW

1. The willful engagement, maintenance, control or operation, directly or indirectly of any

lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system, for
favor or consideration.

• Libel
• None of the above
• CYBERSEX
• Child pornography
• Unsolicited commercial communications

2. An owner or manager of a hotel who allows any person to take along with him to such place a
minor is liable under .

• All of the above

• Human trafficking
• Anti-violence against children
• ANTI-CHILD ABUSE LAW

3. The Battered Woman Syndrome under R.A. 9262 is a circumstance.

• exempting circumstance
• all of the above
• mitigating circumstance
• JUSTIFYING CIRCUMSTANCE
• none of the above

4. Maltreating a member or members of a person’s family is torture.

• none of the above

• both of the above
• physical
• MENTAL / PSYCHOLOGICAL

5. If a car was taken by means of violence or intimidation, the crime is .

• Qualified Theft
• None of the above
• CARNAPPING
• Robbery
• Theft
6. Unwanted invitation violates .

• R.A. 11862
• R.A. 11313
• R.A. 7877
• R.A. 11930
• R.A. 9995

7. Trafficking cases committed by a syndicate, or in a large scale, or against a child prescribes in

.

• Imprescriptible
• Fifteen (15) years
• Ten (10) years
• Five (5) years
• TWENTY (20) YEARS

8. Causing the unsuccessful prosecution and/or dismissal of the said drug-related cases,
by any government officer or employee tasked with the prosecution of said
cases, is a punishable act under R.A. 9165.

• unreasonable delay
• through patent laxity
• ALL OF THE ABOVE
• none of the above
• deliberately
• inexcusable neglect

9. Buying and selling of children is .

• child prostitution
• attempted child trafficking
• all of the above
• CHILD TRAFFICKING
• attempted child prostitution
• none of the above

10. refers to any device or group of interconnected or related devices, one or

more of which, pursuant to a program, performs automated processing of data.

• Communication
• Access
• Computer data
• COMPUTER SYSTEM
• Computer
11. is committed by strangers, or the members of the vessel’s complement, or
passengers of the vessel in Philippine waters.

• PIRACY UNDER P.D. 532

• Robbery
• Qualified Piracy
• Piracy under Art. 122, RPC
• None of the above

12. When the offense of sale was not consummated, the accused shall be prosecuted for
of dangerous drugs.

• conspiracy to sell
• mere possession
• none of the above
• ATTEMPTED SALE
• all of the above

13. It is unlawful to capture an image of the private area of person/s without the consent of the
person/s involved. Which is excluded?

• pubic area
• THIGHS
• female breasts
• naked or undergarment and genitals
• buttocks

14. There are at least punishable acts under R.A. 9165.

• 23
• 22
• 24
• 27
• 26
• 25

15. Finance terrorism under Sec. 4, R.A. 10168, dealing with property or funds of designated
persons or attempt or conspiracy to commit said crimes shall be predicate offenses to
.

• Rebellion
• Piracy
• Coup d’ etat
• Kidnapping & Serious Illegal Detention
• MONEY LAUNDERING
16. In illegal numbers games, if the person acts as protector or coddler (Sec. 3, R.A. 9287), his/her
penalty shall be .

• Imprisonment from 12 years & 1 day to 14 years

• Imprisonment from 14 years & 1 day to 16 years
• Imprisonment from 10 years & 1 day to 12 years
• IMPRISONMENT FROM 16 YEARS &1 DAY TO 20 YEARS
• Imprisonment from 8 years & 1 day to 10 years

17. Mere possession of any goods, article, item, object or anything of value which has been the
subject of robbery or thievery shall be evidence of fencing.

• All of the above

• quasi-conclusive
• None of the above
• conclusive
• PRIMA FACIE

18. The act of knowingly using computer data which is the product of , for the
purpose of perpetuating a fraudulent or dishonest design.

• None of the above

• All of the above
• COMPUTER-RELATED FORGERY
• Computer-related Fraud
• Computer-related Identity Theft

19. It is not necessary that the of a sexual favor be articulated in a categorical

manner. It may be discerned, with equal certitude, from the acts of the offender.

• request
• demand
• none of the above
• requirement
• ALL OF THE ABOVE

20. In R.A. 10591, the burden to prove the negative allegation that the accused has no license or
permit to carry a firearm lies with the . In B.P. 881, the burden to adduce
evidence that the accused is exempt from COMELEC gun ban lies with the .

• accused, prosecution
• none of the above
• PROSECUTION, ACCUSED
• accused, accused
• prosecution, prosecutor
21. Refers to a computer or a computer network, the electronic medium in which online
communication takes place.

• Cybersecurity
• Critical infrastructure
• Database
• None of the above
• CYBERSPACE

22. Destroying household property is .

• All of the above

• Physical violence
• ECONOMIC ABUSE
• Psychological violence
• Sexual violence

23. Also covers individuals who sexualize children by presenting or talking about them as objects
of sexual fantasy online.

• R.A. 9208
• R.A. 11862
• R.A. 9160
• R.A. 11930
• None of the above

24. Misogynistic, transphobic, homophobic and sexual slurs are violative of .

• R.A. 11862
• R.A. 9995
• R.A. 11313
• R.A. 11930
• R.A. 7877

25. Sexual harassment may be committed in a .

• ALL OF THE ABOVE

• education environment
• work-related environment
• training environment
• employment environment
26. Producing, willingly accessing and knowingly sharing any form of child sexual abuse and
exploitative material (CSAEM) are punishable under .

• R.A. 9160
• R.A. 9208
• R.A. 9995
• R.A. 11930
• R.A. 11862

27. An act of sexual harassment may give rise to civil, criminal and administrative liability in the
part of the offender. Each proceeding can proceed independently of the others. The civil, criminal
and administrative action shall prescribe in years.

• Five (5) years

• THREE (3) YEARS
• Four (4) years
• Two (2) years
• One (1) year

28. An act punishing Online Sexual Abuse as Exploitation of children (OSAEC), penalizing the
Production, Distribution, Possession and Access of Child Sexual Abuse or Exploitation Materials,
amending the Anti-Money Laundering Act 2001 and Repealing the Anti-Child Pornography Act of
2009.

• R.A. 11930
• R.A. 9160
• R.A. 11862
• R.A. 9208
• R.A. 9775

29. The following are prohibited defense under R.A. 9262:

• None of the above

• Being under the influence of illicit drug
• Being under the influence of alcohol
• End of dating relationship prior to the violence
• ALL OF THE ABOVE

30. The period of effectivity of a Barangay Protection Order shall be:

• 5 days • 30 days
• None of the above • 15 DAYS
• 10 days • 20 days
31. To recruit a child to engage in armed activities violates:

• Anti-violence against children

• Anti-child abuse law
• None of the above
• All of the above
• HUMAN TRAFFICKING

32. after is the starting point in the custodial link.

• All of the above

• None of the above
• Seizure, marking
• Seizure, turn-over
• MARKING, SEIZURE

33. When a person is recruited to engage in prostitution with any member of the police force, the
crime is .

• Anti-sexual harassment
• All of the above
• Qualified prostitution
• QUALIFIED TRAFFICKING

34. An firearm used in the commission of a crime shall be considered as a real

firearm and the person who committed the crime shall be punished in accordance with R.A.
10591.

• all of the above

• IMITATION
• altered
• obliterated
• illegally manufactured

35. The four acts included under Sec. 3 of R.A. 9262 are:

• Economic abuse
• ALL OF THE ABOVE
• Physical violence
• Psychological violence
• Sexual violence
36. School officials shall have the authority to impose after due notice and summary hearing,
disciplinary sanctions, in accordance with the school’s guidelines and regulations on the matter,
which shall include but shall not be limited to .

• expulsion
• exclusion
• none of the above
• reprimand
• ALL OF THE ABOVE
• suspension

37. If the motor vehicle engines, engine blocks and chains are not registered with the LTO within
one (1) year after approval of R.A. 10883, it shall be considered as:

• Untaxed importation
• None of the above
• ALL OF THE ABOVE
• Carnapped vehicle
• Coming from an illegal source

38. The failure to deliver the firearm or ammunition within after the death or legal
disability of the licensee shall render the possessor liable for illegal possession of the firearm.

• 6 MONTHS
• None of the above
• 9 months
• One year
• 3 months

39. The State shall exercise extra-territorial jurisdiction over any anti-trafficking act even if
committed outside the Philippines, if the suspect or accused:

• Is a Filipino citizen
• Is a permanent resident of the Philippines
• None of the above
• Has committed the act against a citizen of the Philippines
• ALL OF THE ABOVE

40. Which of the following is not a protection order under R.A. 9262?

• Temporary Protection Order

• Permanent Protection Order
• Barangay Protection Order
• None of the above
• TEMPORARY RESTRAINING ORDER
41. The Anti-OSAEC Law increases the responsibilities and accountability of social media
platforms, electronic service providers and internet and financial intermediaries. They are required
to complete three things or face penalty.

• none of the above

• immediately transmit the proof to law enforcement agencies
• ALL OF THE ABOVE
• preserve evidence
• take down materials that violate the rights of children

42. The prohibition shall apply notwithstanding the consent given by said person/s, except
where consent is allowed.

• Copy or reproduce
• TAKING PHOTO OR VIDEO COVERAGE
• Sell or distribute
• Publish or broadcast
• All of the above

43. Is committed by persons who are not members of the vessel’s complement, nor by passengers
of the vessel, in the high seas or in Philippine waters.

• PIRACY UNDER ART. 122, RPC

• None of the above
• Qualified Piracy
• Robbery
• Piracy under P.D. 532

44. Illegal recruitment when committed by a syndicate or in large scale shall be considered as
offense involving .

• large scale illegal recruitment

• syndicated illegal recruitment
• All of the above
• None of the above
• ECONOMIC SABOTAGE

45. The intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer data,
electronic document or electronic data message, without right, including the introduction or
transmission of viruses.

• Illegal Interception • Illegal Access

• DATA INTERFERENCE • Misuse of Devices
• Cyber-squatting • System Interference
46. The maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of the child includes:

• emotional maltreatment
• psychological & physical abuse
• neglect
• cruelty
• ALL OF THE ABOVE

47. Persistent telling of sexual jokes is what crime?

• R.A. 11862
• R.A. 9995
• R.A. 7877
• R.A. 11313
• R.A. 11930

48. The use of psychoactive drugs to change the perception, memory, alertness or will of a person
is torture.

• psychological
• all of the above
• none of the above
• mental
• PHYSICAL

49. The maltreatment, whether habitual or not, of the child includes:

• emotional maltreatment
• psychological & physical abuse
• neglect
• cruelty
• ALL OF THE ABOVE

50. Receiving/Eliciting services from a child in a massage clinic is .

• ATTEMPTED CHILD PROSTITUTION

• child prostitution
• attempted child trafficking
• all of the above
• none of the above
• child trafficking
51. Carnapping is what kind of crime?

• continued crime
• complex crime
• CONTINUOUS CRIME
• special complex crime
• continuing crime

52. A confession of the accused of the crime he committed before the newspaper reporters without
a lawyer present is .

A. Inadmissible. Because every accused must be assisted by a counsel especially during

confession
B. ADMISSIBLE. MIRANDA RIGHTS DO NOT COVER SPONTANEOUS STATEMENTS NOT
ELICITED THROUGH POLICE QUESTIONING
C. Inadmissible. When an accused is making his confession, he has the right to remain silent
D. Inadmissible. An accused must confess only during custodial investigation through police
questioning

53. Kenneth was invited by policeman to the barangay hall where he made some admissions of
the robbery he committed after being questioned by the policeman. Can Kenneth invoke his
Miranda Rights?

A. No. Miranda rights do not apply because he was not under custodial investigation. He was not
detained or taken into custody.
B. YES. THE CONCEPT OF CUSTODIAL INVESTIGATION IS NOW BROADENED TO
INCLUDE THE PRACTICE OF POLICE IN ISSUING INVITATION TO SUSPECT FOR
QUESTIONING. THE MOMENT HE WAS INVITED, HE IS DEEMED TO BE UNDER B.
CUSTODIAL INVESTIGATION. FROM THIS MOMENT, HE IS ENTITLED TO HIS MIRANDA
RIGHTS.
C. No. Kenneth was not arrested. He voluntary went to the Barangay Hall when he was invited.
D. No. Kenneth was questioned before the barangay hall and not in the police station. Since he
is not under actual custodial investigation, Miranda rights will not apply.

54. Which of the following acts constitute violation of the Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020?

A. Killing a policeman for revenge

B. Organizing a protest against the government’s program of securing vaccines from China which
have low efficacy
C. An incumbent mayor detained by his rival candidate in election
D. BOMBING OF SENATE BUILDING
55. The Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020 allows suspects to be detained without a judicial warrant of
arrest for how many days?

A. 14 DAYS
B. 3 days
C. 10 days
D. 12 days

56. Which of the following is a non-bailable offense under the “Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020”

A. CONSPIRACY TO COMMIT TERRORISM

B. Membership in a terrorist organization
C. Threat to commit terrorism
D. Proposal or inciting to commit terrorism

57. Allan is the Manager of Caroline in a factory. He kept on asking Caroline for a date. One day
she received a text message from Allan for a sexual favor in exchange for a promotion as
Supervisor of their unit. Upon receipt of the text, Caroline went to the Police Station and filed a
criminal complaint for violation of RA 7877 or Anti Sexual Harassment Act. Allan immediately
moved for the dismissal of the criminal case because Caroline did not accept the sexual favor in
exchange for the promotion and nothing happened to them? If you were the police officer
assigned to the case? Do you agree with Allan’s contention of dismissing the case?

A. NO. THE MERE ACT OF DEMANDING A SEXUAL FAVOR FROM CAROLINE

REGARDLESS OF WHETHER SHE ACCEPTED THE SEXUAL FAVOR IN EXCHANGE FOR
PROMOTION IS NOT RELEVANT IN THE PROSECUTION OF RA 7877 (SEXUAL
HARASSMENT)
B. Yes. The case should be dismissed. Caroline must prove first that she was promoted as a unit
manager because of the sexual favor before Allan can be prosecuted for RA 7877 (Sexual
Harassment).
C. No. Allan should be prosecuted for Acts of Lasciviousness under the Revised Penal Code
instead of RA 7877 (Sexual Harassment)
D. Yes. Allan is not the actual employer of Caroline. He is just a manager where his authority over
her is limited.

58. Juan mocked a transgender who passed by their street by calling him “Bakla at Salot sa
lipunan”. If you were the police handling the case, what offense are you going to charge Juan?

A. Violation of “Anti-Sexual Harassment Act of 1995”

B. VIOLATION OF THE “SAFE SPACES ACT”
C. Violation of Magna Carta of Women
D. Slander by deed
59. Obet killed Mario, his rival in courting Maria. Obet used an unlicensed firearm in killing Mario.
If you were the Police handling the afore-mentioned case what crime or crimes will you charge?

A. HOMICIDE WITH AGGRAVATING CIRCUMSTANCE OF USE OF LOOSE FIREARMS

B. Homicide and separate criminal case for Violation of RA 10591 (Illegal
Possession of Firearms)
C. Violation of RA 10591 (Illegal Possession of Firearms)
D. Homicide

60. Jimuel sought your advice as a law enforcer. He told you that he only has a license to own a
gun but he has no permit to carry it yet. He asked if his private car can be considered an extension
of his residence, such that he can just place the gun inside his car. What advice will you give to
Marlon if any?

A. I WILL ADVISE MARLON TO DESIST FROM PLACING HIS GUN INSIDE THE PRIVATE
CAR BECAUSE A VEHICLE IS NOT CONSIDERED AS EXTENSION OF ONE’S RESIDENCE.
HE SHOULD APPLY FOR A PERMIT TO CARRY LICENSE OTHERWISE HE MAY BE FINED
OR IMPRISONED OR BOTH.
B. I will advise Marlon that he can place the gun inside his car because a motor vehicle can be
considered an extension of one’s own residence.
C. I will advise Marlon to surrender his gun to the Firearms Explosives Office of the PNP and
apply for a permit to carry outside the premises.

61. If Jimuel did not listen to your advice. He was apprehended and a gun was discovered inside
the compartment box of his car. What violation did he commit?

A. VIOLATION OF SECTION 31 OF RA 10591-ABSENCE OF PERMIT TO CARRY OUTSIDE

RESIDENCE
B. Violation of Section 29 of RA 10591-Use of Loose Firearm in the Commission of a Crime
C. Violation of Section 33-Arms Smuggling
D. Violation of SEC. 28. Unlawful Acquisition, or Possession of Firearms and Ammunition

62. The husband has for a long time physically and mentally tortured his wife. After one episode
of beating, the wife took the husband’s gun and shot him dead. Under the circumstances, her act
constitutes:

A. mitigating vindication of grave offense.

B. BATTERED WOMAN SYNDROME, A COMPLETE SELF-DEFENSE UNDER RA 9262.
C. incomplete self-defense.
D. mitigating passion and obfuscation.
63. The chief police of your station ordered you to drop the charge of RA 9262 (VAWC) against
the lesbian partner of the complainant because according to him, only men are liable under RA
9262 (VAWC). Is the contention of your Chief of Police correct?

A. Yes. The complainant’s lesbian partner and girlfriend, is not a man for him to be prosecuted for
violation of RA 9262.
B. Yes. Only men are liable for violation of RA 9262
C. NO. A. NO. VAWC MAY LIKEWISE BE COMMITTED AGAINST A WOMAN WITH WHOM
THE “PERSON” HAS OR HAD A SEXUAL OR DATING RELATIONSHIP.
D. None of the above reasons are correct.

64. A husband who committed marital infidelity abroad is not liable for psychological relationship
under RA 9262.

A. True. Marital infidelity should be committed within the Philippine territory for it to be applicable
following the territoriality rule under the criminal law.
B. FALSE. VIOLENCE COMMITTED AGAINST A WOMAN AND/ OR HER CHILDREN, EVEN
WHEN COMMITTED ABROAD IS CONSIDERED AS TRANSITORY OR CONTINUING CRIMES
OR OFFENSES DUE TO THE ANGUISH SUFFERED BEING A MATERIAL ELEMENT OF THE
OFFENSE.
C. True. Perpetrator is out of the country. Hence, the Philippine court has no jurisdiction over his
person.
D. None of the above

65. The minimum age of criminal responsibility under the RA 9344 (Juvenile Justice Law) is:

A. Nine (9) years old

B. Twelve (12) years old
C. FIFTEEN (15) YEARS OLD
D. Seven (7) years old

66. John who is 13 years old committed a serious offense of parricide, what type of intervention
should he undergo under the Juvenile Justice Law?

A. DIVERSION CONTRACT
B. Intensive Institutional Intervention
C. Imprisonment
D. Intervention to be conducted by the Social Worker

67. Which among the choices does “Witness Protection Program” applies?

a. Witness is a police officer, witnessed a crime of murder, and without threats on his life
B. WITNESS IS A CIVILIAN, WITNESSED A CRIME OF MURDER, AND HE IS BEING
THREATENED BY THE PERPETRATOR NOT TO TESTIFY
c. Witness is a civilian, witnessed a crime of less serious physical injuries, and he is being
threatened by the perpetrator not to testify
d. Witness is a police officer, witnessed a crime of murder, and he is being threatened by the
perpetrator not to testify

68. The professor offered a passing grade if the student will have sex with him. What crime is
committed?

A. VIOLATION OF ANTI-SEXUAL HARASSMENT ACT

b. Violation of New Rape Law (RA 8353) for fraudulent machination
c. Violation of New Rape Law (RA 8353) for grave abuse of authority
d. Qualified Seduction

69. Selling of body organs for a consideration is what crime?

a. Medical malpractice for doctors performing surgery

b. No crime since the transaction is voluntarily entered between the seller and the buyer
c. No crime since the body organ will be used to extend someone’s life
D. VIOLATION OF ANTI-TRAFFICKING IN PERSONS ACT AS BODY ORGANS SHOULD NOT
BE TREATED AS A COMMODITY

70. A 9 yrs old girl is videotaped while taking a bath with her stark nakedness, without her consent.
What crime is committed?

a. Violation of Anti-Child Pornography Act in relation to RA 7610

B. VIOLATION OF ANTI-PHOTO AND VIDEO VOYEURISM ACT IN RELATION TO RA 7610
c. Violation of Anti-Photo and Video Voyeurism Act
d. Violation of RA 7610

71. Admission before a media is admissible in evidence when the elements is/are present.

a. None of the above

b. In writing
C. IN THE PRESENCE OF COUNSEL
d. Notarized

72. Jonas caught peeping through a small hole in the bathroom door while young 15-years-old
lady was taking a bath. Jonas is liable for

a. Violation of RA 9262 or Violence Against Women and their Children

B. VIOLATION OF RA 7610- CHILD ABUSE LAW
c. Light Coercion
d. Acts of Lasciviousness
73. Mark who is a regular massage spa-goer went to Hilom Spa. An entrapment operation by the
police was conducted and the one who is giving a massage to him was a found to be fifteen years
old female. What is the criminal liability of Mark?

a. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Statutory Rape
c. Attempt to commit Child Prostitution under RA 7610 (Anti-Child Abuse Law)
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE

74. Juan mocked a transgender who passed by their street by calling him “Bakla at Salot sa
lipunan”. If you were the police handling the case, what offense are you going to charge Juan?

VIOLATION OF THE “SAFE SPACES ACT”

75. Obet killed Mario, his rival in courting Maria. Obet used an unlicensed firearm in killing Mario.
If you were the Police handling the afore-mentioned case what crime or crimes will you charge?

HOMICIDE WITH AGGRAVATING CIRCUMSTANCE OF USE OF LOOSE FIREARMS

76. Jonas caught peeping through a small hole in the bathroom door while a young 15-year-old
lady was taking a bath. Jonas is liable for

VIOLATION OF R.A. 7610 – CHILD ABUSE LAW

77. Mark who is a regular massage spa-goer went to Hilom Spa. An entrapment operation by the
police was conducted and the one who is giving a massage to him was a found to be a fifteen
years old female. What is the criminal liability of Mark?

ATTEMPT TO COMMIT CHILD PROSTITUTION UNDER RA 7610 (ANTI-CHILD ABUSE LAW)

78. PO2 Manabat clicked the “like” and “share” button in the facebook post of PO3 Manuel
imputing PO1 Eric is a druglord protector and a gambler at the casino even if it was not true. PO1
Eric subsequently filed an online libel case under Cybercrime Prevention Act against PO3 Manuel
and PO2 Manabat. Will the case against the both of them prosper?

YES. EXCEPT FOR PO2 MANABAT. ONLY PO3 MANUEL AS THE ORIGINAL AUTHOR IS
LIABLE FOR ONLINE LIBEL BECAUSE HIS POST TEND TO DISHONOR AND DISCREDIT
PO1 ERIC

79. What is the criminal liability of PO3 Manuel? If any?

ONLINE LIBEL UNDER CYBERCRIME PREVENTION ACT OF 2012

20. What is the criminal liability of PO2 Manabat? if any

NONE. NO CRIMINAL LIABILITY. ONLY THE ORIGINAL AUTHOR, NOT THOSE WHO
RECEIVE OR REACT TO THE POST CAN BE PENALIZED.
 CHAIN OF CUSTODY, ROLE AND OTHER RELATED JURISPRUDENCE

1. Which of the following evidence requires strict compliance of the chain of custody rule?
A. Firearm used in connection to a murder case
B. NINE (9) GRAMS OF METHAMPHETAMINE IN THE PROSECUTION OF RA 9165
C. Knife used in Robbery
D. Marked Money in drugs buy bust operation

2. Chain of custody is the chronological documentation that shows

A. Seizure and Custody
B. Testimony about every link in the chain as to Control and transfer
c. Analysis and Disposition of Physical evidence
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

3. How many hours upon confiscation of dangerous drugs, that these must be submitted to the
PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a qualitative and quantitative examination?
A. 12 Hours
B. 24 HOURS
C. 36 Hours
D. 21 Hours

4. In case of non-observance of the provision, the apprehending/seizing officers must state in his
affidavit the following:
A. The justification or explanation of non-observance
B. The steps they have taken in order to preserve the integrity and evidentiary
value of the seized/confiscated items
C. ALL OF THE ABOVE
D. None of the above

5. Which of the following is a violation of chain of custody rule?

A. THE POLICE OFFICERS HAD A PHYSICAL INVENTORY AND PHOTOGRAPH OF THE
SEIZED/ CONFISCATED ITEMS IN THE PRESENCE THE ACCUSED ONLY WITHOUT THE
ELECTED PUBLIC OFFICIAL AND REPRESENTATIVES OF THE DOJ AND THE MEDIA;
B. The police officers sealed the dangerous drugs in a container or evidence bag and signed by
the apprehending/ seizing officer for submission to the forensic laboratory for examination;
C. In warrantless seizures, the police officers marked the seized items in the presence of the
violator at the place where the drugs were seized;
D. None of the above
6. Which of the following should come first?
A. MARKING OF THE SEIZED ILLEGAL DRUGS
b. Taking photos of the evidence
c. Identification of the illegal drugs in open court
d. Inventory in the presence of the witnesses

7. PCpl Matikas saw the accused in a Robbery but unfortunately he does not have in his
possession a copy of the Warrant of Arrest. Can PCpl Matikas affect the arrest of the accused?
A. YES, HE COULD ARREST THE ACCUSED IMMEDIATELY AND BRING HIM TO THE
POLICE STATION
b. Yes, it is his duty even if he is doubtful.
c. Yes, he need not have a copy of warrant of arrest in his possession provided he
can provide a copy to the accused when they reached the police station.
d. Yes, he needs to arrest him without informing him of his rights.

8. Gashe witness the killing of Gab. Avvin, the culprit cut the tongue of Gashe in order for him not
to tell anyone what he saw. Is Gashe still qualified to become a witness?
No, Gashe has already lost his power to perceive and make known his perception to others
a. No, Gashe has no more ability to speak so he can no longer convey what he
saw.
b. Yes, Gashe is qualified since he was still sane and is just that he cannot convey what he had
seen but other person can do it for him.
C. YES, GASHE CAN STILL BE A WITNESS SINCE HE HAD PERSONAL KNOWLEDGE OF
THE INCIDENT AND HE CAN CONVEY WHAT HE PERCEIVED TO OTHERS THROUGH SIGN
LANGUAGE AND THROUGH WRITING.

9. Stanorio was arrested by the police upon complaint of Diham for he was caught stealing in his
house. During the custodial investigation, Stanorio immediately waived his right to counsel and
he voluntarily confessed the circumstances of his stealing. Is the confession admissible as
evidence?
A. THE CONFESSION IS INADMISSIBLE BECAUSE IT WAS NOT MADE IN WRITING AND
WAS WITHOUT THE PRESENCE OF COUNSEL.
b. the confession is admissible since it was done in the presence of the police.
c. the confession in admissible because Stanorio made it voluntarily.
d. the confession is inadmissible because Stanorio is was just confused when he
made it.

10. After conducting a buy-bust operation, the operating team failed to photograph the seized
drug evidence. What is the remedy so that the case which is being filed against the offender will
not be dismissed?
a. Prepare a scripted photography
b. Notify the court of the failure of the operating team.
C. STATE IN THE AFFIDAVIT THE REASONS AND CIRCUMSTANCES WHY THE OPERATING
TEAM FAILED TO PHOTOGRAPH THE SEIZED EVIDENCE.
d. Inform the prosecutor of the operating team’s failure to photograph

11. Jose was involved in a reckless driving, he hit a person passing the pedestrian lane who
sustained serious physical injury. In the police station, he refused to get tested for drugs on the
ground that it violates his rights against self-incrimination
a. No, his right against self-incrimination is waives as soon as he was arrested and taken into
custody
b. No. this privilege may be invoked only if it related to testimonial compulsion. The taking of blood
or urine for drug testing is permissible
C. YES, THE OBJECTION WAS PROPER AS THE RIGHT TO SELF-INCRIMINATION IS A
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT THAT AFFECTS LIBERTY AND IS NOT WAIVED SIMPLY BECAUSE
THE ACCUSED IS UNDER POLICE CUSTODY

12. Mike was charged with rape. Mike’s father, Manual, approached Juan, the victim’s father,
during the preliminary investigation and offered P1 Million to Juan to settled the case. Juan
refused the offer During trial, the prosecution presented Juan to testify on Manuel’s offer and
thereby establish and implied admission of guilt. Is Manuel’s offer to settle admissible in evidence?

A. YES, THE OFFER TO SETTLE BY THE FATHER OF THE ACCUSED, IS ADMISSIBLE IN

EVIDENCE AS AN IMPLIED ADMISSION OF GUILT
b. No. The offer to settle is not competent evidence to prove the guilt of the accused
c. No. the offer to settled violates rules on evidence this making it hearsay.

13. Which of the following evidence are considered as fruit poisonous tree thereby making it
inadmissible as evidence in court?
a. Extra judicial confession made without the presence of the counsel
b. Unlicensed firearm not include in the search warrant
c. Wiretapped recording which was obtained without the court order for the
prosecution of violation of anti-terrorism law
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE

14. Mark Jocell was caught in flagrante delicto selling drugs for P200,000.00. The police officers
confiscated the drugs and the money and brought them to the police station where they prepared
the inventory in the presence of a Barangay Treasurer, local news reporter and a representative
of the DOJ and all of them signed the receipt. Upon trial, the defense contested the presence of
the Barangay Treasurer as he is not an elected public official required under Section 21 of the
Drugs Law? Is the contention of the defense correct?

NO. BARANGAY TREASURER IS NOT AN ELECTED PUBLIC OFFICIAL BUT ONLY AN

APPOINTED ONE.

15. Who are not elected officials contemplated under Section 21 of RA 9165 for the purposes of
marking and inventory of the seized drugs?

DISTRICT SUPERVISOR.

16. Police Officer Ace seized the shabu in an individual plastic sachet from the accused and turned
them over to Police Officer Michael (Investigator) but failed to mark it. Was there a violation of
Chain of Custody Rule under Section 21?

YES. POLICE OFFICER ACE VIOLATED SECTION 21 OF RA 9165 WHEN HE FAILED TO

MARK IT HIMSELF. THE RULE PROVIDES THAT EVERY PERSON WHO TOUCHED THE
OBJECT MUST DESCRIBE HOW AND FROM WHOM IT WAS RECEIVED, WHERE IT WAS,
AND WHAT HAPPENED TO IT WHILE IN THE WITNESS'S POSSESSION.

17. Which of the following offense under RA 9165 that an accused is not allowed to enter into a
plea bargaining?

SALE OF DANGEROUS DRUGS WHERE THE SEIZED SHABU IS 2 GRAMS ONLY

CIVIL DISTURBANCE MANAGEMENT

1. As an offensive formation, the line is used to push or drive crowd straight back, across an open
area, or up a city street.
a. Arrow formation
b. Point formation
c. Wedge formation
D. LINE FORMATION
2. This formation is the preparatory while a waiting for any eventuality or rally made by the group
of demonstrators.
a. Line formation
b. Point formation
A. COLUMN FORMATION
d. Arrow formation

3. This formation is use to support the first line of defense by blocking/pushing the mob away from
the protected area if they act violently.
A. DOUBLE LINE FORMATION
a. Box formation
b. Wedge formation
c. Arrow formation

4. This formation is use to protect the troops against any object which thrown to them from the
mobs.
a. Box formation
b. Wedge formation
C. UMBRELLA FORMATION
d. Double line formation

5. This formation consist of four square the purpose of which is to provide all around security
when the crowd/mobs are wanting to encircle the CDM contingent and be ready for dispersal
A. BOX FORMATION
a. Wedge formation
b. Umbrella formation
c. Double line formation

6. This formation is use when the troops is positioned within the intersection of the road facing the
mob which they are an open area.
A. “U” FORMATION
b. Point formation
c. Column formation
d. Arrow formation

7. This formation is use for a situational like small crowd subject for dispersal, while the two squad
flank general support facing outside.
A. “T” FORMATION
b. “U” formation
c. Umbrella formation
d. Double line formation

8. This formation is used to split/penetrate the crowd/mobs and other squad protecting as flank
when the situation call for escorting VIP or executive of person/ property.
a. Line formation
b. Point formation
c. Column formation
D. ARROW FORMATION
9. This formation is use to split the crowd/mobs employing the two squads for the purpose, the
other two squad in general support facing the crowd ready `for any reaction of violence.
a. Line formation
b. Point formation
c. Column formation
D. ARROW FORMATION
10. The wedge is an offensive formation that is used to penetrate and split crowds into smaller
groups.
a. Line formation
B. WEDGE FORMATION
c. Column formation
d. Point formation
11. The unlawful event involving a planned or spontaneous demonstration by a group of people
in public area?
a. Civil Disorder
b. Illegal Assembly
C. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
d. Disturbance

12. This shall include any highway, boulevard, avenue, road, street, bridge or other thoroughfare,
park, plaza, square, and/or any open space of public ownership where the people are allowed
access.
A. PUBLIC PLACE
b. Public Thoroughfare
c. Freedom Parks
d. Public Conveyance

13. This is a coordinated unit tactics utilized by law enforcement to control crowds, stop unlawful
activity and disperse or arrest violators.
a. CDM Tactical Movement
b. CDM Contingent
C. CDM FORMATION
d. CDM Deployment

14. This kind of formation that is utilized when the crowd becomes unruly and will start attacking
the control force. CDM contingent must be in double line to avoid casualties or possible injuries?
a. Arrow Formation
b. Double Line Formation
C. BOX FORMATION
d. Alternative Formation

15. It is an Act ensuring the free exercise by the people of their right peaceably to assemble and
petition the government for their redress grievance against the government and for other
purposes.
a. RA 6464
b. PD 1866
c. BP 885
D. BP 880
16. It means any rally, demonstration, march, parade, procession or any other form of mass or
concerted action held in a public place for the purpose of presenting a lawful cause; or expressing
an opinion to the general public on any particular issue; or protesting or influencing any state of
affairs whether political, economic or social; or petitioning the government for redress of
grievances.
a. Public Crusade
b. Public Organization
C. PUBLIC ASSEMBLY
d. Public Re-Union

17. It is a formation used during the conduct of negotiation between the leader of the crowd and
the CDM ground commander?
a. Arrow Formation
b. Cover Formation
C. “U” FORMATION
d. Baton Charge Formation

18. It means the highest degree of restraint that the military, police and other peace keeping
authorities shall observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the same?
a. Patience
B. MAXIMUM TOLERANCE
c. Minimum use of force
d. Aggressiveness

19. It is a preparatory formation that depends on the space of the area, column formation may be
used for road type stand by area while mass formation maybe used for road type stand by area?
a. Single Line Formation
b. Double Line Formation
C. COLUMN FORMATION
d. Cover Formation

20. he application of permit shall be filed with the office of the mayor of the city or municipality in
whose jurisdiction over the place intended for the said activity is to be held for at least how many
working days before the scheduled public assembly is ?
a. 15 working days
B. 5 WORKING DAYS
c. 6 working days
d. 10 working days

21. It shall include the change of the place and time of the public assembly, rerouting of the parade
or street march, the volume of loud-speakers or sound system and similar changes.
A. MODIFICATION OF PERMIT
b. Modification of Venue
c. Re-organization
d. Re-routing Scheme
22. It means the right on the part of the citizens to gather peaceably in public meeting to hear
what ideas will be expressed there or to discuss the subjects in which they are interested?
a. Right to Petition
b. Right to Rally
C. RIGHT OF ASSEMBLY
d. Right to Strike

23. This type of CDM formation purposely to set or established limit to the crowd and this should
be executed when the crowd is within the state of control?
a. Wedge Formation
b. Arrow Formation
C. SINGLE LINE FORMATION
d. All of the above

24. It is usually executed to penetrate or break the crowd and done when there is the necessity
to separate, isolate the unruly or the violent groups in a crowd?
a. Baton Charge Formation
B. WEDGE FORMATION
c. Break away Formation
d. Box Formation

25. When the tactical principle of dispersal has been successfully accomplished, the professional
agitators and leaders will attempt to reorganize the mob. It is important therefore, to prevent
further gatherings, eliminating additional policing problems.
a. Rapid Dispersion
b. Proper selection of men
C. PREVENTION OF ASSEMBLY
c. Arrest of Leaders

26. What do you call the highest degree of restraint that the police military and other peace
keeping authorities shall observe during Public assembly or in the dispersal of the same?
MAXIMUM TOLERANCE
27. Civil Disturbance Management (CDM) contingent under the Command of a Police
Commissioned Officer (PCO) with the rank of Police Senior Inspector or higher shall be Detailed
and stationed at least Meters away from the place where the public assembly is being held:
100

Which of the following cause of Disturbance arises from disagreement between labor and
management of from such extreme conditions of privations or poverty that the people will resort
to violence to obtain the necessities of life.
ECONOMIC

28. This principle applies itself to a number of persons in a mob, giving to the members a feeling
of strength and security.
NUMBERS
 29. Which of the following principles applies itself to the spread of ideas without conscious
realization and without raising rational thought or Objections on the part of the individuals.
SUGGESTION

30. The following are law violations commonly found in strike situations except :
MURDER

31. The police officer must fire issue, A before he could use Force against an offender.
VERBAL WARNING

32. Refers to an attack amounting to actual or eminent threat to the life, Limb, or right of the
person claiming self-defense.
UNLAWFUL AGGRESSION

33. It means any rally, demonstration, march, parade procession or any other form of mass or
concerted action held in a public place for the purpose of presenting a lawful cause; or
expressing an opinion to the general public on any particular issue; or protesting or influencing
any state of affairs whether political, economic or social, or petitioning the government for
redress of grievances.
PUBLIC ASSEMBLY

ENHANCED MANAGING POLICE OPERATIONS (EMPO)

1. This is a deliberate, programmatic, and sustained approach taken by the Philippine National
Police to combat criminality nationwide. It uses both wide dragnet and intel-targeted operations
to catch small-time criminals and repeat offenders, under the "whole of PNP" approach.
a. OPLAN BAKAL
b. OPLAN TOKHANG
c. OPLAN ONE-TIME-BIG-TIME
D. OPLAN LAMBAT-SIBAT

2. is the next line of defense when prevention through intelligence

fails. Activities were undertaken to strengthen the security of our police stations, camps and other
vital installations in order to protect them from enemy attack and eliminate the element of surprise.
A. TARGET HARDENING
b. Border Control
c. Police Patrol
d. Border Patrol

3. is protecting our entrance and exit points from the illegal movement
of contraband and lawless elements while promoting safety and security of the community
a. Target Hardening
b. Boundary Patrol
c. Police Patrol
D. BORDER CONTROL
4. PNP utilizes in getting to know the community. Before they are organized and mobilized, police
units conduct preliminary studies of every barangay in terms of physical environment, economic
status or lifestyle, so that appropriate interventions are undertaken in operationalizing PNP MC
2015-009, or the Revitalized Barangay Peace Action Team (BPAT).
a. Social Investigation
B. SOCIAL INQUIRY / INVESTIGATION
c. Social Questioning
d. Social Intervention

5. Minor offense affecting the order and discipline within the police organization.
A. BREACH OF ADMINISTRATIVE DISCIPLINE
b. Breach of Discipline
c. Breach of Internal Discipline
d. Breach of Office Discipline

6. What is SIMEX stand for.

a. Simulation Experience
b. Simulation Expertise
c. Simulation Examination
D. SIMULATION EXERCISES

7. What is COMMEX stand for.

a. Communication Experience
b. Communication Expertise
c. Communication Examination
D. COMMUNICATION EXERCISES

8. What is CEREX stand for.

a. Crisis Emergency Response Experience
B. CRISIS EMERGENCY RESPONSE EXERCISES
c. Crisis Emergency Response Examination
d. Crisis Emergency Response Expertise
9. Facilities and structures identified as require specialized protection
from the PNP.

a. High Risk Installations

B. VITAL INSTALLATIONS
c. Priority Installations
d. Special Installations

10. Is the act of moving about in an area specially by authorized and trained person usually police
officer for the purpose of observation, inspection, collaboration, prevention of crime, and provision
of secure environment.
A. PATROL
b. Beat Patrol
c. Mobile Patrol
d. Jurisdiction Patrol
12. A barrio or village in the Republic of the Philippines relating to or belonging to a city.

A. URBAN BARANGAYS
13. Pursuant to the authority of the National Peace and Order Council and the Philippine National
Police, the is been created as the
primary operators to conduct Community-Oriented Policing and Public Safety System.

B. BARANGAY PEACEKEEPING ACTION TEAM (BPAT)

14. Lambat is for crime prevention while Sibat is on how to the criminals.

D. CAPTURE

15. This is an abbreviation of operation plan where the police and military personnel will implement
an operation to reduce the crime rate and promote peacekeeping action within the community.
A. COPLAN
PNP MASTER PLAN AND CURRENT THRUSTS

1. This plan shall serve as the Master Plan in which all plans and programs of the PNP shall
conform with and supplement. It shall prescribe the grand strategy to be undertaken by PNP
Offices and personnel on crime prevention, control and suppression, in the total fight against all
forces of criminality.
A. SANDIGAN MASTER PLAN
b. SANGYAMAN Master Plan
c. SANDUGO Master Plan
d. SANG-BANAT Master Plan

2. This serves as the long-range and holistic master plan of the PNP in waging an internal security
support operation nationwide. Premised on the estimate of the national situation and other
considerations, it prescribes the counter-insurgency support strategy, operational concept,
scheme of implementation, serve support and coordinating instructions in order to accomplish the
PNP’s internal security support mission.
a. SANDIGAN Master Plan
b. SANGYAMAN Master Plan
C. SANDUGO MASTER PLAN
d. SANG-BANAT Master Plan

3. This master plan prescribes the guidelines to be followed by tasked PNP Units/Offices in
assisting lead government agencies in the enforcement of laws over Philippine territorial waters,
lakes, rivers, mountain ranges, forest, to include laws and ordinances that have been set forth to
preserve, protect and enhance our environment and natural resources, in close coordination with
the Department of the Environment and Natural Resources (DENR) and other tasked agencies.
a. SANDIGAN Master Plan
B. SANGYAMAN MASTER PLAN
c. SANDUGO Master Plan
d. SANG-BANAT Master Plan

4. This master plan sets forth the concepts of operations, operational guidelines and tasks of all
PNP units/offices in the total fight against illegal drugs; integrating/orchestrating the activities of
all concerned National Government Agencies (NGAs) in the conduct of Anti-illegal drug campaign
at the national down to barangay levels.
a. SANDIGAN Master Plan
b. SANGYAMAN Master Plan
c. SANDUGO Master Plan
D. SANG-BANAT MASTER PLAN
5. This Master Plan sets forth the strategic concepts and operational guidelines, as well as
contingency plan to ensure the maintenance of peace and order during the year-round
observance of holidays, which involves great concern on movement of the citizens, international,
national and local meetings/conferences/events and rallies/mass action in protest to wide range
of issues.
a. SANDIGAN Master Plan
B. SANG-INGAT MASTER PLAN
c. SANDUGO Master Plan
d. SAKLOLO Master Plan

6. This Master Plan sets forth the strategic concepts, operational guidelines and coordinating
instruction to be undertaken by PORs and tasked units/offices on disaster management. With this
Letter of Instructions, the action that will be undertaken by the concerned PNP units/offices will
be as responsive and possible with the support of the government agencies and community.
a. SANDIGAN Master Plan
b. SANG-INGAT Master Plan
c. SANDUGO Master Plan
D. SAKLOLO MASTER PLAN

7. This Master plan uses of various forms of media for the Internal and External Targets. Under
this effort, our mission is to provide adequate, accurate, relevant and timely information about the
PNP programs and activities and to clarify issues relevant of the PNP. It shall use Operations to
attain psychological advantage and enhance skills of personnel to be community organizers and
Police Community practitioners and for the community to support PNP programs.
a. SANDIGAN Master Plan
b. SANG-INGAT Master Plan
C. SANTINIG MASTER PLAN
d. SAKLOLO Master Plan

8. The following are the Operational Thrusts under PNP Current Thrust except:
a. Anti-Criminality
b. Anti-Terrorism
c. Anti-Insurgency
D. ANTI-VANDALISM

9. The following are some of the Administrative Thrust under PNP Current Thrust except:
a. Implementation of the PNP Integrated Transformation program
b. Construction of housing units for the PNP personnel
c. Instilling basic courtesy and discipline
D. TRAINING AND DEVELOPMENT OF UNIFORM PERSONNEL

10. This program was launched as our road map for a long-term and lasting forms in the PNP.
This ITP has a ten-year time from (2005-2015) which aims to resolve organizational and
systematic dysfunctions; improve morale and welfare of personnel; and strengthen the law
enforcement capability of the police. This program presents a comprehensive and holistic
approach to reform the PNP with its honest-to=goodness assessment of its present institutional
framework, policies, systems, structures and procedures towards a more capable, effective and
credible police force.
A. PNP INTEGRATED TRANSFORMATION PROGRAM c. PNP Internal Cleansing Program
b. PNP Quality Transformation Program d. PNP Transformation Program
11. Disaster coordinating council operating unit, conduct disaster preparedness activities,
provides security coverage in disaster area, and assist in search and rescue evacuation and relief
operations belongs to which of the following PNP master plan
SAKLOLO, DISASTER MASTER PLAN

12. When police officers would stake out nightclubs and bars and checked patrons for unlicensed
firearms or guns without permit to carry, they are having an operation called .
OPLAN BAKAL

13. What master plan of the PNP maintains peace and order and public safety, undertakes
security measures towards the attainment of a safe place to live, work invest and do business?
SANG INGAT PEACE AND ORDER MASTER PLAN

14. Assisting the lead agency in internal security operations with personnel and material resources
within the capability of the PNP is referred as
INTERNAL SECURITY OPERATIONS

15. What is referred as the plan prescribing the grand strategy to be undertaken by PNP Offices
and personnel on crime prevention, control and suppression, in the total fight against all forces of
criminality?
ANTI-CRIMINALITY MASTER PLAN

16. What is defined as the search for the property or human remains after a natural or manmade
disaster occurred in a particular area?
SEARCH AND RETRIEVAL OPERATION

17. What law pertains to the Philippine Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010?
REPUBLIC ACT 10121

18. What is referred as the pre-disaster actions and measures being undertaken within the context
of disaster risk reduction and management and are based on sound risk analysis as well as pre-
disaster activities to avert or minimize loss of life and property such as, but not limited to,
community organizing, training, planning, equipping, stockpiling, hazard mapping, insuring of
assets, and public information and education initiatives?
PREPAREDNESS
19. What does NDRRMC stands for?
NATIONAL DISASTER RISK REDUCTION AND MANAGEMENT COUNCIL

20. A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society involving widespread

human, material, economic or environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of the
affected community or society to cope using its own resources is called .
DISASTER

21. This Master Plan sets forth the strategic concepts, operational guidelines and coordinating
instruction to be undertaken by PORs and tasked units/offices on disaster management. With this
Letter of Instructions, the action that will be undertaken by the concerned PNP units/offices will
be as responsive and possible with the support of the government agencies and community.
SAKLOLO MASTER PLAN
22. One tested and tried instrument is the police Security Containment Ring System (PSCRS),
composed of the following five (5) major components, deployment of which depends on their
availability and the situation on the ground except:
THE INNERMOST CONTAINER RING

23. Which of the following is not among the PNP Master Plan
SANDATAHAN (SANDIGAN, SANDUGO, SANGYAMAN, SANGBANAT)

24. Under SANDIGAN Master Plan the PNP shall implement a responsive and holistic anti-crime
to effectively prevent, control and suppress the occurrences of crimes to ensure safety in our
community with the following objectives, except: TO INCREASE AWARENESS RATE

25. The National Peace and Development Plan has adopted the Strategy of Total Approach. Its
holistic approach to effectively address armed conflicts in the country consists of a security
component, a political component and a socio-economic component. This approach is referred to
as
STRATEGY OF TOTAL APPROACH

26. What Master Plan where the government through the AFP and the PNP, had launched various
campaigns and pacification drives in the past decades to resolve the continuing communist
insurgency threat
SANDUGO
26. PNP Master Plan to help protect and preserve our environment, cultural properties and Natural
resources
SANGYAMAN

27. PNP Master Plan on campaign against Illegal Drugs

SANGBANAT

28. The PNP conducts an all-out and sustained anti-narcotics campaign to neutralize drug
personalities from street level pushers to big time drug lords, smugglers and syndicates. Which
is not included among its specific objectives?
LOCAL COOPERATION

29. The government considers the crimes such as killings, kidnappings, extortion and etc
committed by the insurgent groups as:
CRIMINAL ACT

30. Another means of effective law enforcement is the adoption by police offices/stations of Crime
and Information Management System. This referred to as
CRIME MAP

31. Disaster coordinating council operating unit, conduct disaster preparedness activities,
provides security coverage in disaster area, and assist in search and rescue evacuation and relief
operations belongs to which of the following PNP master plan
SAKLOLO, DISASTER MASTER PLAN
 ESCORT AND SECURITY

1. It covers the surrounding areas of engagement. It conducts prophylactic (neutralize the area),
operations in the area of engagement.
A. AREA SECURITY
b. Perimeter security
c. Advance security
d. Close-in security

2. It secures the immediate areas surrounding the place of engagement. It usually for the
uniformed personnel.
a. Area security
B. PERIMETER SECURITY
c. Advance security
d. Close-in security

3. It accompanies the VIP wherever he goes. Maximum of four (4) persons

a. Area security
b. Perimeter security
c. Advance security
D. CLOSE-IN SECURITY

4. It is a security at the place of engagement before the arrival of the VIP.

a. Area security
b. Perimeter security
C. ADVANCE SECURITY
d. Close-in security

5. It is defined as the deployment of a number of security trained officers to provide a ring of

protection in close proximity to the recipient, together with reconnaissance capability to be visited.
a. Area Protection
b. Perimeter Protection
C. CLOSE PROTECTION
d. Close-in security

6. This is a king of protection that the aim is to eliminate or reduce the opportunity for attack
during movement of vehicle by using defensive driving skills and vehicle formation to place mobile
perimeters between the protected asset and a potential attacker.
a. Area Protection
b. Perimeter Protection
c. Close Protection
D. MOBILE PROTECTION
7. This is a king of protection that the aim is to eliminate or reduce the opportunity for attack by
placing defensive perimeter between the protected asset and a potential attacker.
a. Area Protection
B. STATIC PROTECTION
c. Close Protection
d. Mobile Protection

8. This is the totality of action of handling or responding to a given crisis situation

a. High Risk Management
B. CRISIS MANAGEMENT
c. Priority Management
d. Special Management
9. This is a complete and comprehensive plan of actions designed to protect life, freedom and
property, before, during and after any given situation.

a. High Risk Management Plan

B. CRISIS MANAGEMENT PLAN
c. Priority Management Plan
d. Special Management Plan

10. This is a king of protection where the protectee receives close protection on foot, i.e. collection
at the airport, upon movement towards the accompanying convoy and walking to subsequent
venues. The aim of this is to eliminate or reduce the opportunity for attacks during movement by
foot, by using individual skills, team skills and formation to place human barriers between the
asset and potential attacker.
a. Area Protection
B. DIRECT PROTECTION
c. Close Protection
d. Mobile Protection

11. Which of the following refers to the basic positioning about an arm length behind the
VIP offset to the right or left depending on the shooting side?
BASIC BODYGUARD POSITION

12. Inspection of area where the VIP intends to visit is called .

ADVANCE SURVEY

13. Which of the following reaction unit, also known as counter-assault teams, provides additional
firepower?
TACTICAL TEAM

14. What is referred as any person who is accorded protection by a close protection team?
PROTECTEE
15. What do you call a working protective detail that involves the placement of the following:
security personnel, alarms which provide physical protection?
SECURITY TEAM

16. An individual or group of individuals assigned to protect a person.

PROTECTIVE DETAIL

17. Is generally defined as plans and measures produced for the purpose of anticipating any
action that might endanger the life of Principal.
SECURITY SURVEY

18. Is the first line supervisor and tactical commander of the detail
TEAM LEADER

19. Any location that has cleared of unauthorized persons, swept for explosives and secured
continuously by posting security personnel.
SECURE ROOM

20. Secure area at a site, usually a private room se aside for the Protectee’s convenience and
privacy.
HOLDING ROOM

21. A working protective detail that involves the placement of the following security personnel,
alarms which provide physical protection.
SECURITY PERIMETER

22. Individual assigned the responsibility for coordination and effecting all security arrangements
for a particular site and motorcade.
ADVANCE MAN

23. Formally organized group of motor vehicles traveling along a specified route in controlled
manner.
MOTORCADE

24. Gathering and analysis of information that may have impact on the security of the protectee
PROTECTIVE INTELLIGENCE
25. A protective security always repositions himself in of the VIP.
BACK

26. Protection officer must always observe proper.

ETHICAL STANDARD

27. In case of an attack, what the Protection Officer must do?

EVACUATE/ EXTRICATE

28. It is the basic positioned about an arm length behind the VIP offset to the right or left
depending on the shooting side.
BASIC BODYGUARD POSITION

29. Factors to consider during movement (Coverage, Crowd, Passage)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

30. Is usually composed of the advance agent, additional member of the protection detail in
plainclothes.
MIDDLE RING

31. Ultimate threats to our VIP/Protectee

ASSASSINATION

32. One of the jobs of Protective security must do every time when he/she is with his/hers
VIP/Protectee.
SCANNING
 COLLABORATIVE / INTERAGENCY COORDINATION SKILLS

PART 1

1. It said to take place when two individuals or a group of people work together towards achieving
a common goal by sharing their ideas and skills.
A. COLLABORATION
b. Sharing
d. Information
c. Communication

2. It means involving or representing two or more agencies, especially government agencies

a. Inter-Unit
B. INTER-AGENCY
c. Inter-Government
d. Inter-Office

3. The synchronization and integration of activities, responsibilities and command and control
structures to ensure that the resources of an are used most efficiency in pursuit of the specified
in pursuit of the specified objectives.
A. COORDINATION
b. Collaboration
c. Communication
d. Inter-Communication

4. This is one of three forms of coordination that means capacity to organize your work by
prioritizing, switching and refocusing attention, and combining and linking activities.
a. Interweaving activities collectively
B. SEQUENCING AND COMBINING YOUR OWN ACTIVITIES
c. Maintaining and/or restoring workflow
d. Consequence Management

5. This is one of three forms of coordination that means capacity to follow up tasks, follow through
on undertakings and interlink activities with those of colleagues.
A. INTERWEAVING ACTIVITIES COLLECTIVELY
b. Sequencing and combining your own activities
c. Maintaining and/or restoring workflow
d. Consequence Management

6. This is one of the three forms of coordination that means capacity to maintain, balance or
restore work flow, deal with the emergencies, overcome obstacle or help put things back on track
C. MAINTAINING AND/OR RESTORING WORKFLOW
7. One of the Department of the government that formulates policies and plans which provide
direction to intermediaries and other implementers in the development and delivery of social
welfare and development.
B. DSWD

8. Attached agency of the Department of the Interior and Local Government which have the power
to investigate all causes of fires and if necessary, file the proper complaint with the city or
provincial prosecutor who has jurisdiction over the case.
C. BFP

9. Attached agency of the Department of the Interior and Local Government mandated to direct,
supervise and control the administration and operation of all district city and municipal jails in the
Philippines with pronged tasks of safekeeping and development of its inmates.
B. BJMP
 10. One of the agencies of the Philippine government under the Department of Justice,
responsible for handling and solving major high-profile cases that are in the interest of the nation.
[Link]

11. The Chair of the National Peace and Order Council (NPOC) is the .
SECRETARY OF INTERIOR AND LOCAL GOVERNMENT (SILG)

12. What do you call the next line of defense when prevention through intelligence fails? Activities
were undertaken to strengthen the security of our police stations, camps and other vital
installations in order to protect them from enemy attack and eliminate the element of surprise.
TARGET HARDENING

13. What is referred as a minor offense affecting the order and discipline within the police
organization?
BREACH OF ADMINISTRATIVE DISCIPLINE

14. Abbreviation of operation plan wherein the police and military personnel will implement an
operation to reduce the crime rate and promote peacekeeping action within the community is
called .
COPLAN

15. It is a process in which two or more agencies work to solve a problem or meet a need.
INTER-AGENCY COORDINATION

16. The following are law enforcement agencies in the Philippines, except:
NATIONAL LAW ENFORCEMENT COORDINATING COMMITTEE

17. President Rodrigo Duterte created the Presidential Anti-Corruption Commission (PACC)
through Executive Order No. which was signed on October 4, 2017:
43

18. To institutionalize the joint AFP-PNP system, the Joint Peace and Security Coordinating
Center (JPSCC) was created by the virtue of Joint Letter Directive No. on 24 November
2010:
07-2010

19. One of the three forms of coordination that means capacity to organize your work by
prioritizing, switching, and refocusing attention, and combining and linking activities.
SEQUENCING AND COMBINING YOUR OWN ACTIVITIES

20. One of the three forms of coordination that means capacity to maintain, balance or restore
workflow, deal with emergencies, overcome obstacles, or help put things back on track.
MAINTAINING AND/OR RESTORING WORKFLOW
 LOCAL GOVERNMENT CODE

1. What is referred as a political subdivision of a nation or state which is constituted by law and
has substantial control of local affairs/
A. LOCAL GOVERNMENT UNIT
B. National Government
C. International Government
D. Federal Government

2. Which of the following is not a territorial and political subdivision of the Republic of the
Philippines?
A. Provinces
B. Cities
C. SITIO
D. Autonomous Regions

3. Which Local Government Unit has the power to administer the Katarungang Pambarangay,
that simplifies the procedure to resolve and settle controversies among barangay residents?
A. BARANGAY ONLY
B. Municipality only
C. Province only
D. All Local Government Unit

4. Which of the following statement on powers of the local government officials over the PNP units
or forces is incorrect?
A. The city and municipal mayors shall exercise operational supervision and control over PNP
units in their respective jurisdiction\
B. The provincial governor has the power to oversee the Provincial Public Safety Plan
Implementation
C. Authority to transfer, reassignment or detail of PNP members outside of their respective city or
town residences; and
D. FREQUENT UNAUTHORIZED ABSENCES IS A GROUND TO SUSPEND THE POWER OF
OPERATIONAL SUPERVISION AND CONTROL OF ANY LOCAL EXECUTIVE OVER POLICE
UNITS ASSIGNED OR STATIONED IN HIS JURISDICTION

5. What is defined as the act by which the national government confers power and authority upon
the various local government units to perform specific functions and responsibilities?
A. Decentralization
B. DEVOLUTION
C. Local Autonomy
D. Fiscal Autonomy

6. The defense and security of the Bangsamoro Autonomous Region shall be within the power of
the
A. BANGSAMORO GOVERNMENT
B. National government
C. Local government unit
D. Philippine National Police

7. The crime of murder, adultery and theft committed in the Bangsamoro territory shall be within
the jurisdiction of:
A. Regular court
B. SHARIAH COURT
C. Tribal court
D. Office of the Wali
 8. The Bangsamoro government is headed by
A. Wali
B. CHIEF MINISTER
C. Parliament Member
D. Speaker of the Parliament

9. Which of the following has the authority to enact laws on matters that are within the powers
and competencies of the Bangsamoro Government.
A. Chief Minister
B. BANGSAMORO PARLIAMENT
C. Wali
D. Ministers

10. To facilitate entry into the Philippine National Police of Moro Islamic Liberation Front and Moro
National Liberation Front members from the Bangsamoro Autonomous Region, the age, height
and educational attainment requirements may be waived by the National Police Commission. The
educational attainment must be complied within:
A. FIFTEEN (15) YEARS FROM THEIR ENTRY
B. Five (5) years from their entry
C. Seven (7) years from their entry
D. Two (2) years from their entry

11. The head of this local government is called governor.

PROVINCES
12. The following offices are considered local government except.
METRO MANILA DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY.
13. The following disputes should Not undergo the conciliation mediation Before the Lupon
EXCEPT:
DISPUTE ABOUT 500 PESOS DEBT BETWEEN TWO PARTIES WHO ARE BOTH
RESIDENTS OF THE BARANGAY.
14. The following are characteristics or nature of LGU Except:
INDEPENDENT STATE
15. The following persons are involved in the implementation of Katarungang Pambarangay
Except:
BARANGAY KAGAWAD
16. During a barangay fiesta, accused Boxed a resident of that Barangay: The case was filed
without Undergoing Barangay conciliation. The accused raised premature filing. As a defense,
citing that even if he is from another town, he has a store in that Barangay. Is the contention of
the accused tenable?
YES. THE LUPON HAS NO JURISDICTION OVER DISPUTES WHERE THE PARTIES ARE
NOT ACTUAL RESIDENTS OF THE BARANGAY, THEY ARE RESIDENTS OF THE SAME
CITY OR MUNICIPALITY.
17. Lawyers are not allowed during Barangay conciliation.
TRUE
18. The action of the PNP is proper when the PNP referred the complaint for non-payment of
monthly instalments of collector of a Motorcycle company to the Punong Barangay.
FALSE
19. Lupon Tagapamayapa has no contempt powers.
TRUE

20. The powers of the Lupon is limited only to mediation, conciliation and arbitration.
TRUE
INFORMATION OPERATION

1. Defined as a body of data acquired from sources and processed into a useful form.
A. INFORMATION
b. News
c. Updates
d. SOCMED

2. The purpose of _ -------------- is considered as a material which can be deployed and employed
to ensure the success of operations, or the accomplishment of a mission.
A. INFORMATION
b. News
c. Updates
d. Material

3. Employs the core capabilities of electronic warfare, computer network operations,

psychological operations, military deception, security operations, and in concert with specified
supporting and related capabilities, to affect or defend information systems that strategically
influence the decision-making process of the higher offices.
a. Information Mission
B. INFORMATION OPERATION
c. Information accomplishment
d. Information Ops

4. Information operation that destroy, degrade, disrupt, deny, deceive, exploit and influence
adversary decision makers who can affect the success of friendly operation.
a. Extra IO
B. OFFENSIVE IO
c. Defensive IO
d. Information Operation

5. It is the integrated use of assigned and supporting capabilities and activities, mutually
supported by intelligence, to affect enemy decision makers or to influence others to promote
specific objectives.
a. Extra IO
B. OFFENSIVE IO
c. Defensive IO
d. Information Operation

6. IO that protect and defend friendly information command and control. Effective IO requires
integrating information related activities such as public affairs and CMO.
a. Extra IO
b. Offensive IO
C. DEFENSIVE IO
d. Information Operation
7. is a coordinated actions to create desired effects on the will, understanding and
capability of adversaries or potential adversaries so as to affect their information, information -
based processes systems while exploiting and protecting one’s own.
A. INFORMATION OPERATION
b. Information Advocacy
c. Information Gathering
d. Information Intelligence Monitoring

8. Colonel Boyd's OODA Loop means

A. OBSERVE, ORIENT, DECIDE, AND ACT
b. Observe, Offer, Decide, and Acts
c. Outburst, Orient, Decide and Act
d. Observe, Orient, Discreet and Acts

9. Principles in the Application of Information Activity (IA) include/s

1) comprehensive targeting
2) accurate intelligence and information
3) establishing and maintaining credibility
4) performance and effects monitoring and assessment

a.1 Only
B.1, 2,3, AND 4
c. 1,2,3 only
d. 2,3, and 4 Only

10. Info Ops Foundation Intelligence embrace/s

1) vulnerabilities/system analysis
2) culture, religion, languages, influences
3) human factors and human network analysis
4) must be founded on good intelligence support
A. 1,2,3, AND 4
b.1 and 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d.1, 3, and 4 Only

11. Info Ops Effects Verbs is/ are

1) deny
2) destroy
3) neutralize
4) safeguard

a.1 Only c.1,2, and 3 Only

b.1 and 2 Only D. 1, 2, 3, AND 4
12. are activities designed to influence attitudes and behaviors, affecting the
achievement of political and military objectives.
a. Civil Affairs
b. Public affairs
c. Physical Operations
D. PSYCHOLOGICAL OPERATIONS

13. DECEPTION involve/ s

1) gain surprise
2) maintain security
3) delude enemy freedom of action
4) mislead enemy unfavorable course of action
a. 1, and 2 Only
B. 1, 2, 3, AND 4
c. 1, 2, and 3 Only
d .2, 3, and 4 Only

14. is a military function that supports the commander's mission by establishing and
maintaining coordination and cooperation between the military and civilian actors in the
commander's area of operation.
a. Civil Military Operation
B. CIVIL MILITARY COOPERATION
c. Civil Affairs Coordination
d. Civilian Home Defense Fortress

15. Electronic Warfare include/s

1) EM spectrum and actions to ensure its effective use by own/ friendly forces
2) Spectrum that encompasses the interception and identification of Electro Magnetic (EM)
3) Actions taken to exploit the Electro Magnetic Equipment
4) Employment of EM energy, including directed energy to reduce collateral damage or prevent
hostile country from further attacks

a.1 Only
b.1 and 2 Only
C.1 ,2, 3, AND 4
d. 2, 3, and 4 Only

16. pertains to the Institutionalization of Information Operations in Police Operations.

a. PNP MC 2021-47
b. PNP MC 2018-045
C. PNP MC 2016-007
d. PNP MC 2020- 047
17. The Impact Generating Activities of Info Operations is/ are
1) manages emerging issues from escalating
2) ground sanitizer when inevitable circumstances happen
3) ground softener before a certain situation / event takes place
4) shaping and controlling and the information environment for the government's advantage
a.1 Only
b.1 and 2 Only
C.1,2,3, AND 4
d. 2,3, and 4 Only

18. TRIMP means

a. TV /Radar/Internet/Print/ Message
b. Tough Guy / Radio / Internet / Print / Message
C. TELEVISION / RADIO / INTERNET / MESSAGE / PRINT
D. Technology / Radio / Internet / Messaging / Print

19. Office Primary Responsible in the Information Operations for the PNP is
a. DIDM
b. CPSM
c. DLOD
D. DPCR

20. Synchronized Info Operations will disrupt/s the decision making of the adversaries by affecting
their
1) will
2) capability
3) understanding

a. 1 Only
b.2 Only
c.3 Only
D.1, 2, AND 3

21. Principles in the application of Influence Activities embrace/s

1) commander's direction
2) time Counter Info Ops
3) early involvement and timely preparation
4) centralized planning and decentralized execution
a.1 Only
B.1,2,3, AND 4
c.2 and 3 Only
d.1,3, and 4 Only
22. Information Operations' Effects Verbs is / are
1) deny/ destroy / neutralize
2) shape/ protect/ inform/ prevent
3) expose / exploit/ compel/ safeguard
4) degrade / diminish / mislead/ usurp
A. 1,2, 3, AND 4
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 1,3, and 4 Only
d. 2, 3, and 4 Only

23. Members of the party list groups ‘Kadamay’ ‘Bayan Muna’ ‘KMU’ and ‘Gabriela’ who actively
joined and supported the protest rally conducted by displaced squatters in Baseco, Tondo, Manila
denounced the alleged harassment by the MPD CDM Team during the demolition. As PNCO
junior leader, what applicable concept of Police Information Operation should be applied on this
situation?
a. Offensive Police Information Operation.
B. DEFENSIVE POLICE INFORMATION OPERATION.
c. Peaceful Police Information Operation.
d. Police Information Operation.

24. The “MAKABAYAN BLOC” denounce the red tagging through surveillance conducted by the
PNP against their members. Hence, a violation of human rights. Within your level as PNCO junior
leader of your subordinates who conducted the said surveillance, how would you best
conceptualize your police information operation to defend your men and the PNP in case you
were condemned in social media?
a. The conduct of surveillance by the PNP without any unlawful act directly taken against any
person does not affect human rights.
b. The PNP strictly adheres to the promotion and protection of human rights and will performs
duties and responsibilities within the bounds of laws.
c. The conduct of surveillance form part of the PNP law enforcement functions and the objectives
of which objectives is to monitor any individual or group and whose acts may pose threat to
national security.
d. The PNP will remain committed to its avowed duty to serve and protect the people and shall
uphold the rule of law.
E. THE CONDUCT OF SURVEILLANCE FORMS PART OF LAW ENFORCEMENT
FUNCTIONS OF THE PNP ESSENTIAL TO FULFILL ITS CONSTITUTIONAL MANDATE TO
MAINTAIN PEACE AND ORDER, PROTECT LIFE, LIBERTY AND PROPERTY, AND TO
UPHOLD THE RULE OF LAW.
25. The concept of Police Information Operation should be applied to cushion the Impact of Law
Enforcement during Labor Dispute.
a. Yes, because, police officers must always bear in mind that labor disputes are between legally
equal entities.
b. No, because there may be no delicate balance between the rights of workers and the rights of
employers that is not for the police to maintain.
c. Yes, because officers at the scene of labor disputes must remain neutral regarding the entities
involved.
D. A AND C ARE CORRECT.
e. A is correct.

26. The following may help in preventing the deterioration of negotiation proceedings that may
result into a demonstration, except.
A. THE COP MAY IN HIS JUDGEMENT OR DISCRETION INSTITUTE AN INITIAL MEDIATION
EFFORT UPON LEARNING OF ANY FAILURE IN THE COLLECTIVE BARGAINING
AGREEMENT.
b. The mediation proceedings do not only operate to solve the deteriorating situation, but provide
more time for IO to intervene in the decision-making processes of the contending parties.
c. The IO process should be appropriate to the type and nature of incident or event that needs to
be managed.
d. The types of information that need to be deployed should define a direct relationship with the
objective of the IO.

27. Which of the following is not included in the functional sections of Information Operations
Research Center
a. The Information Development Section.
b. The Production Section.
C. THE SUPPORT PROGRAMS.
d. The WSDS (Web-Site Development Section)

MEDIA RELATIONS

1. A periodical publication containing written information about current events and is often typed
in black ink with a white gray background.
NEWSPAPER

2. The celebration of all Saints Day is one of the sacred celebrations of the Catholic search.
Catholics visit their dead in different provinces resulting in voluminous influx of commuters at
airports, seaports and bus terminals in Metro Manila. This is also a time for most of the police
officers and journalists as well to be deployed in the said areas. Can the police officer answer the
questions of the journalist?
YES, DISREGARD OF RANK, PO1S CAN BE ALSO A SOURCE OF INFORMATION
NECESSARY FOR THE PUBLIC

3. What is referred as the main means of mass communication (broadcasting, publishing and the
internet) regarded collectively?
MEDIA

4. is characterized by tension and covert hostility?

STRAINED

5. A person who writes for newspapers, magazines or news websites or prepares news to be
broadcast known as?
JOURNALIST
6. Which of the following types of media affects the PNP organization either negative or positive?
A. SOCIAL MEDIA
a. TV Broadcast
b. Radio Broadcast
c. Print

7. Which of the following will define Police Media Relations?

a. It Is the effective manner of dealing and interacting with members of the working press
B. BOTH B AND C
c. It is a strategy to enhanced relationship with media reporters to achieve common goals
d. It is about bridging a good relationship with the media

8. PCAPT NAPINTAS being the designated PIO of PS- 5, MPD when interviewed by reporter of
the CNN and other media network should avoid such practice maintain good relationship with the
media .
a. By knowing and understanding their culture d. By learning their trade
B. BY LEARNING TRICKS, TACTIC, BEHAVIOR, AND PRACTICE
c. Through Professionalism
9. PMAJ BURAT URAGON as Chief, PIO must follow and apply the following communication
strategies during crisis situation, except for: .
A. STONEAGE
a. Stonewall
b. Manage the issue
c. Open Communication Strategy

10. Who is/are primarily responsible for the release of information to the media?
A. A AND B
a. The PIO, SC, COP
b. PCP Commander
c. The Unit head/Chief

11. Which of the following is not among the legal basis why Media exist.
a. Section 7, Article III provides that “the right of the people to information on matters of public
concern shall be recognized.
b. Access to official records, and to documents and papers pertaining to official acts, transactions.
c. Decisions, as well as to government research data used as basis for policy development, shall
be afforded the citizen, subject to such limitations as may be provided by law.”
D. THE RIGHT GUARANTEES ACCESS TO OFFICIAL RECORDS FOR ALL INTENT AND
PURPOSES.

12. Except one, access of media to public information may be denied by the government if the
information sought involves:
a. National security matters, military and diplomatic secrets;
b. Trade or industrial secrets;
c. Criminal matters;
d. Other confidential information (such as inter-government exchanges prior to consultation of
treaties and executive agreement, and privilege speech).
E. OTHER CIVIL DISPUTES.

13. Which is NOT included as the “Basic Protocol in Dealing with the Media?”
a. Media members represent the public therefore whatever treatment the public deserve from us
should also be accorded to the media;
b. All places of free access to the public is also of free access to the media;
c. Any information that the public rightfully deserves to know must be accessible to the media.
D. ALL INFORMATION THAT MEDIA PEOPLE MAY DESIRED TO KNOW.
14. PCAPT MALU WANG whenever interviewed by media reporters always observed the
common basic characteristics of media practitioners except for ONE.
a. Skeptic
b. Arrogant
c. Strained
d. Friendly
E. GENEROUS.
15. PMAJOR NATARAGSIT while interviewed by Raffy Tulfo should observed the following proper
decorum in dealing with media personalities, except ONE.
a. Never, ever lie
b. Don’t Speculate
C. ALLOWED TO ARGUE
d. Talk only about what you know
e None of the above.

16. Which of the following will defined best Police Media Relations?
a. It is a strategies to enhanced relationship with media reporters to achieve common goals.
b. It is a partnership and cooperation that provide the public for better services.
c. Is the effective manner of dealing and interacting with members of the working press.
d. It is about bridging a good relationship with the media.
E. C AND D ARE CORRECT.

17. Which of the following statement best explain that the PNP Media Relations activity is
consistent with the policy of rational transparency in all police activities, and of upholding the rights
of the people to be informed on matters of public interest.
a. It seeks to establish the specific guidelines on how every member of the Philippine National
Police (PNP) should deal with members of the media, especially in releasing public information.
B. AIMS TO RE-ORIENT AND FURTHER MOTIVATE EVERY PNP PERSONNEL TO BE
COGNIZANT OF THE IMPORTANCE OF A GOOD WORKING RELATIONSHIP WITH THE
MEDIA. ANSWER
c. It emphasizes the police-media relations as a vital component of the organization’s over-all
Police-Community Relations Program.
d. The Police-media relations must also take into consideration the utmost awareness of the limits
of disclosure of information.

18. This refer to a diversified collection of media technologies that reach a large audience via
mass communication.
A. MASS MEDIA.
b. Broadcast Media.
c. Mass Communication.
d. Social Media.

19. Under the scope and limitations on police-media relations, the right guarantees access to
official records for any lawful purpose. However, access may be denied by the government if the
information sought involves:
1. National security matters, military and diplomatic secrets; (b) Trade or industrial secrets.
2. Criminal matters.
3. Other confidential information (such as inter-government exchanges prior to consultation of
treaties and executive agreement, and privilege speech).
4. National security matters, military and diplomatic secrets; (b) Trade or industrial secrets.
A. 1234 ANSWER c. 2413
b. 3421 d. 4132
20. This is among the basic characteristics of media practitioners which refer to a person
inclined to doubt and question all accepted opinion.
a. SKEPTIC.
b. Arrogant
c. Competitive
d. Ambitious
ANTI-ILLEGAL DRUG OPERATIONS

1. Drug Syndicate/s who dominate/s the drug market in the country and facilitate/s production/
manufacturing and bulk smuggling of dangerous drugs is/are known as .
CHINESE/FILIPINO DRUG GROUP

2. A drug group associated with the Chinese drug Group to penetrate the Philippine market is
known as:
MEXICAN SINALOA DRUG CARTEL

3. in the market by terms such as “designer drugs”, “legal highs”, “herbal highs”, “bath salts”,
“research chemicals”, and “laboratory reagents”?
NEW PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES (NPS)

4. Which of the following pertains to the PNP Anti-Illegal Drugs Campaign Plan, Command
Memorandum Circular No. 16 – 2016?
PROJECT: DOUBLE BARREL

5. Which of the following refers to a practical and realistic means of accelerating the drive against
illegal drugs in affected barangays that involves the conduct of house-to-house visitation to
persuade suspected illegal drug personalities to stop their illegal drugs activities?
OPLAN: TOKHANG

6. Is an entrapment technique employed by a peace officer as an effective war of apprehending

a criminal in the act of the commission of the offense.
BUY BUST OPERATION

7. Series of activities in anti-drug operation such as but not limited to casing, validation,
surveillance, verification etc., up to the time of completion of necessary information as basis for
possible operation.
CASE BUILD-UP

8. Any facility used as storage of CPEC’ s, equipment and paraphernalia used in the manufacture
of dangerous drugs.
CHEMICAL WAREHOUSE

9. Any dangerous drug or Controlled Precursor and Essential Chemical (CPECs), equipment,
apparatus, paraphernalia, material, marked-money and any other item seized/ confiscated during
the anti-drug operation.
DRUG EVIDENCE
10. An official conducted by the PNP with the aim of achieving supply and demand reduction of
dangerous drugs.
DRUG LAW ENFORCEMENT OPERATION

11. Signed by PNP Chief General Ronald dela Rosa on July 1, 2016, Command Memorandum
Circular (CMS) No. 16-2016 essentially discusses how will be operationalized or implemented.
PROJECT DOUBLE BARREL

12. On May 25, the DILG will launch, this novel program called in selected companies nationwide.
BUHAY INGATAN, DROGA’S AYAWAN (BIDA) WORKPLACE PROGRAM

13. It is as strategy that take away drugs from the public through market denial operations and
prevention of diversion from the licit to illicit market and reduce the proliferation and illegal drugs
through sustainable alternative development programs.
DRUG SUPPLY REDUCTION STRATEGY

14. It is a strategy that take people away from the lure of drug abuse through policy formulation,
preventive education, research, treatment, rehabilitation and reintegration, provision of alternative
development programs and forging cooperation with reginal and international agencies and
counterparts.
DRUG DEMAND REDUCTION STRATEGY

15. this is the global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime.
UNITED NATIONS OFFICE ON DRUGS AND CRIME (UNODC)

16. The police officer who is designation to pretend to be a civilian buyer of dangerous drugs for
purposes of effecting the arrest of the offender.
POSEUR-BUYER

17. An order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and
directed to a peace officer, directing him to search for personal property described therein and
bring it before the court (Sec.1 Rule 126, Rules of Court)
SEARCH WARRANT (SW)

18. The police officer who Is designated to seize and inventory the evidence from the arrested
suspects.
SEIZING/ INVENTORY OFFICER

19. A police officer responsible in recording the events that transpired during the conduct of the
anti-drug operation.
RECORDER
20. Two (2) or more police officers trained in anti-illegal drug operations

TEAM