Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
SBI PO PRELIMS MODEL TEST - 44
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
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given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
As artificial intelligence advances, one of its most disconcerting byproducts
is the proliferation of “deepfakes”—synthetically generated audio or video content
that mimics real individuals. While initially seen as novelty or entertainment,
deepfakes now represent a formidable threat to public trust and information
integrity. By fabricating convincing visual and auditory materials, these tools can
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erode the line between reality and fiction, ushering in what some scholars call
an “epistemic crisis.”
Deepfakes have already been used for fraudulent financial schemes,
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character assassinations, and political manipulation. The technology is becoming
increasingly accessible, even to individuals with minimal technical expertise,
leading to exponential growth in its misuse. Regulatory efforts have lagged, partly
d
because legislation struggles to keep pace with innovation, but also due to the
delicate balance between censorship and free expression.
What makes deepfakes particularly dangerous is not just their deceptive
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power, but the corrosive doubt they introduce. If any video can be plausibly fake,
then all videos become suspect. This phenomenon, known as the “liar’s dividend,”
benefits wrongdoers: genuine footage can be dismissed as fabricated, allowing
evasion of accountability.
C
Solutions remain elusive. Some advocate for digital watermarking and
verification tools, while others emphasize education and media literacy to help
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the public navigate this post-truth landscape. Ultimately, the deepfake dilemma
is not just technological—it is philosophical, challenging our shared conception of
truth and the evidentiary basis of democratic society.
1. What is the central concern raised about deepfakes in the passage?
1) They are mostly used in entertainment
2) They cannot yet replicate facial expressions accurately
3) They can undermine belief in objective reality
4) They are helpful for actors and animation
C
5) They are overregulated by law
2. What does the term “epistemic crisis” refer to in this context?
1) Decline in scientific research funding
2) Confusion about the nature and reliability of knowledge
3) Lack of education in digital tools
4) Obsolescence of traditional media
5) Breakdown of encryption systems
3. What is the “liar’s dividend” as described in the passage?
1) Financial benefits for developers of deepfakes
2) Public immunity to fake content
3) Incentive for whistleblowers to come forward
4) Advantage for deceivers when real evidence is doubted
5) A reward system for truthful reporting
4. Why are regulatory solutions difficult to implement?
1) Deepfake detection is already flawless
2) They risk infringing on freedoms of expression
3) Lawmakers are technologically savvy
4) Social media bans are already comprehensive
5) No countries recognize deepfakes as a threat
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
5. Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word
novelty as given in the passage.
1) gimmick 2) amusement 3) oddity 4) souvenir 5) normality
6. According to the passage, what contributes most to the danger of deepfakes?
1) Their cost of production 2) Their rarity
3) Their increasing credibility and accessibility
4) Their origin in government labs
5) Their basis in open-source algorithms
7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a possible solution?
1) Watermarking tools 2) Arresting users 3) Media literacy
4) Verification systems 5) Public education
8. What is implied about the future if deepfakes remain unregulated?
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1) Entertainment will decline
2) Truth itself may become negotiable
3) Governments will shut down social media
4) Deepfakes will be banned globally
5) People will avoid using technology
Directions (9-13): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
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been numbered. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately
to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
Rising geopolitical tensions, climate anomalies, and supply chain disruptions
have rendered global food security increasingly ______ (9). As major exporting
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nations impose restrictions, importing countries are left ______ (10) to secure
stable grain supplies. Moreover, the commodification of food markets has led to
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______ (11) speculation, making basic staples unaffordable for millions.
Humanitarian agencies ______ (12) the need for collaborative frameworks, but
progress is slow due to protectionist policies. A ______ (13) approach, balancing
market forces with equity-driven policies, is urgently required.
ee
9. 1) obsolete 2) volatile 3) stable 4) immune 5) reversible
10. 1) empowered 2) fortified 3) scrambling 4) relieved 5) relaxing
11. 1) predatory 2) regulated 3) philanthropic 4) negligible 5) equitable
C
12. 1) ignore 2) underscore 3) dismantle 4) lament 5) paralyze
13. 1) tokenistic 2) myopic 3) multilateral 4) unilateral 5) coercive
Directions (14-18): The sentence is divided into four parts (A), (B), (C), and (D).
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One part may contain a grammatical or usage error. Choose the part that contains
the error. If there is no error, choose option 5.
14. (A) Employees working on night shifts often complains about
(B) the lack of timely transport arrangements, especially
(C) when the local administration rarely provide
(D) updates regarding route changes or cancellations.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
15. (A) The sudden influx of too many applications
C
(B) for the limited number of positions overwhelmed the system,
(C) which had not been configured to handle
(D) such a high volume of data input simultaneously.
1) A`` 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
16. (A) The team failed to complete the final draft on time
(B) because there wasn’t enough clarity
(C) in the instructions provided by the management,
(D) leading to considerable confusion among junior analysts.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
17. (A) Although the proposal was very detailed and well-researched,
(B) the board members felt that it contained
(C) too much complex terms
(D) that could alienate non-technical stakeholders.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
18. (A) During the final negotiation meeting, the director
(B) was appearing calm and composed, but his
(C) eyes clearly revealed that he didn’t
(D) believe the merger was going to succeed.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
Directions (19-20): In the following question, a sentence with two blanks is given.
From the given options, choose the word that can fit in both the blanks
simultaneously.
19. The executive’s remarks were at once ______ and ______, revealing a calculated
ambiguity that offered plausible deniability.
1) candid, disarming 2) cryptic, deliberate 3) profane, spontaneous
4) arrogant, naïve 5) expository, factual
20. While the new guidelines appeared ______, their lack of ______ undermined any
meaningful implementation.
1) stringent, clarity 2) progressive, enforcement 3) outdated, rigor
4) flexible, adaptation 5) impartial, reform
Directions(21-25): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E),
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(F) and (G) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then
answer the given question.
A. This design perpetuates addictive behaviors and shortens attention spans.
B. Ethical concerns have emerged over how platforms profit from user engagement.
C. Critics argue that content is often tailored to provoke outrage rather than
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inform.
D. Social media platforms use algorithms that prioritize high-engagement content.
E. Some experts recommend algorithmic transparency and user-based content
control.
21.
E
F. These mechanisms maximize revenue but diminish user agency.
G. Yet such reforms face resistance due to fears of reduced profitability.
Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
d
1) A 2) F 3) C 4) D 5) E
22. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) G 5) E
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23. Which of the following will be FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) F 5) G
24. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
C
1) A 2) B 3) G 4) D 5) F
25. Which of the following will be SEVENTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) F 4) G 5) E
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Directions(26-27): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
C
correct sentence.
26. Column I:
A. Even though the startup had robust funding,
B. Despite improved public healthcare policies,
C. The president held an emergency meeting to discuss
Column II:
D. child malnutrition continues to rise in rural belts.
E. it struggled with scaling operations in foreign markets.
F. military strategy with his defence commanders yesterday.
1) AE and CF 2) CF and BD 3) DB and CE 4) AE, CD and BF 5) none
27. Column I:
A. While digitization has streamlined governance,
B. The language barrier continues to affect education,
C. The Chancellor of the Exchequer says that
Column II:
D. especially in multilingual regions of the country.
E. issues of cybersecurity and data misuse remain.
F. economic recovery is just around the corner.
1) AD and CE 2) BF and CE 3) AE and BD 4) CF and BE 5) None
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
Directions(28-29): Read the following sentences carefully. Choose the option
that best combines them into a single, coherent sentence without altering the
original meaning.
28. i. The bill was passed without opposition.
ii. Key provisions were debated only superficially.
iii. Civil society groups raised concerns over its implications.
1) While the bill passed smoothly, public outcry followed.
2) Because civil society supported it, opposition was low.
3) Since no one voted against, concerns were irrelevant.
4) Though passed without opposition, key provisions lacked scrutiny and raised
public concern.
5) No correction required.
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29. i. The documentary highlighted child labor in supply chains.
ii. The brand denied all allegations.
iii. Independent reports later confirmed the findings.
1) Though the brand denied involvement, external reports later validated the
claims.
2) The documentary was emotional but lacked substance.
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3) Child labor laws prevented public scrutiny.
4) No one believed the findings.
5) Denial was enough to absolve the brand.
Direction(30): In the following sentence, a part of the sentence is underlined.
E
Below it are given five options that may replace the underlined part to improve
the sentence grammatically and contextually. Choose the correct option. If no
d
improvement is required, choose (5) No replacement required.
30. The manager strictly advised the employees to not delay submitting their reports
beyond the designated timelines, citing previous instances where procrastination
had led to severe compliance issues with regulatory bodies.
ee
1) advised the employees not to delay
2) advised the employees to not delaying
3) advised that the employees not to delay
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4) advised the employees to not be delayed
5) No replacement required
Direction (31): In the following sentence, a part is underlined. Choose the option
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that best replaces the underlined portion to improve correctness and fluency. If
the sentence is correct as is, select (5) No replacement required.
Despite several reminders from the audit department, the branch failed in
submitting the required documentation within the stipulated time, leading to a
show-cause notice from the head office.
1) in submit 2) at submitting 3) to submit
4) by submitting 5) No replacement required
Directions (32): In each of the questions given below six words are given in bold
C
these six words may or may not be in their correct position. Find the correct
combination of words that replace each other.
Despite the cacophony of conflicting opinions surrounding the proposed
economic reforms, the finance minister remained imperturbable, (A) obfuscating
his speech with equanimity and strategic (B) stability. He argued that the current
fiscal crisis necessitated austere measures, including subsidy rationalization
and tax restructuring. While critics labeled the plan as draconian, supporters
deemed it a (C) public step toward long-term sustainability. The minister
acknowledged the populace’s apprehension but maintained that (D)delivering the
truth would only exacerbate( E) pragmatic mistrust. His rhetoric, though esoteric
to some, reflected a deep acumen in balancing macroeconomic (F) perspicacity
with socio-political sensitivities.
1) DFEACB 2) ACDEBF 3) CDEBFA 4) BDECFA 5) EFDCAB
Directions (33-40): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Over the past few decades, old age homes have become a noticeable feature
in the social landscape of many countries, particularly in developing nations like
India. Traditionally, the elderly were revered and cared for within joint families.
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
Their role as advisors, caregivers for grandchildren, and custodians of cultural
values granted them a secure place in the household. However, urbanization,
migration, and the rising cost of living have significantly altered family dynamics,
resulting in the fragmentation of joint families into nuclear ones. The emotional
and physical dependence of the elderly on their children has often been replaced
by institutional care.
Old age homes, once viewed with disdain, are slowly being normalized. While
some see them as a practical solution to a demographic challenge, others perceive
them as symbols of societal decay. Many such homes offer medical facilities,
nutritious meals, companionship, and recreational activities—amenities that are
sometimes absent even in the homes of their children. For some elderly
individuals, these homes provide a new lease on life, away from neglect or abuse.
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However, for many, the shift is not a choice but a consequence—either of
abandonment or of circumstances beyond their control.
Policy responses to this growing trend have been inconsistent. While some
state governments have established welfare schemes and provided subsidies to
improve living standards in old age homes, the implementation remains patchy.
The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, though
well-intentioned, is poorly enforced, with many elderly unaware of their rights or
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unwilling to litigate against their children.
The emergence of private luxury old age homes catering to affluent seniors
introduces yet another layer of complexity. These facilities, which resemble upscale
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resorts more than care institutions, highlight the growing class divide in elderly
care. While some retirees choose these homes voluntarily for comfort and
community, the less privileged must rely on overcrowded, underfunded government-
d
run homes or live in isolation.
Ultimately, the proliferation of old age homes raises uncomfortable questions.
Are they filling a vital gap, or are they a reflection of eroded familial bonds? The
answer, perhaps, lies somewhere in between—a society in transition, trying to
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reconcile its traditions with its present realities.
33. According to the passage, why are some elderly people moving into old age homes
voluntarily?
1) Due to legal compulsion 2) To escape family conflicts
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3) To enjoy facilities and companionship 4) Because of financial dependence
5) Due to religious beliefs
34. What does the passage imply about the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and
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Senior Citizens Act, 2007?
1) It has been a huge success across all states
2) It has improved the condition of private old age homes
3) It remains ineffective due to poor implementation and awareness
4) It has replaced the need for family-based elderly care
5) It is strictly enforced by legal agencies
35. What is NOT a reason cited in the passage for the rise of old age homes?
1) Migration and urbanization 2) Emotional neglect and abuse
C
3) Strong implementation of elder care laws
4) Fragmentation of joint families 5) Changing economic conditions
36. The passage suggests that old age homes are viewed in two ways:
1) As luxurious options or medical facilities
2) As legal rights or cultural anomalies
3) As social support systems or symbols of familial failure
4) As investments or liabilities
5) As healthcare providers or religious shelters
37. What contradiction is highlighted in the case of private luxury old age homes?
1) They have better medical care than hospitals
2) They serve the poor but look like resorts
3) They reflect growing inequality in access to dignified ageing
4) They are subsidized by the government
5) They do not allow visitors or families
38. What does the author suggest is the reason many elderly don’t take legal action
against neglectful children?
1) Fear of societal backlash 2) High cost of litigation
3) Unawareness or emotional reluctance
4) Legal processes are too fast 5) Religious restrictions
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
39. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase “a new lease on life” as
used in the passage?
1) A revival of energy and purpose 2) A temporary escape from problems
3) A financial dependency 4) An end to relationships
5) A legal opportunity
40. What does the author most likely mean by calling society “in transition” in the
last paragraph?
1) People are confused about elder care
2) Society is shifting from traditional family structures to modern alternatives
3) Society is declining culturally
4) Families are abandoning elders en masse
5) Society is moving toward isolation of all age groups
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NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction (41-45): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
41. 87.5% of 239.90 + 224.9 = ?2
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1) 20 2) 24 3) 12 4) 15 5) 19
42. 1652.94 ÷ 56.998 × 40.03 = ? + 20.18
1) 1140 2) 1200 3) 1520 4) 1350 5) 1036
43.
E
37.95 ×
1) 24
287.79 1.86 = ? ×
2) 16 3) 20
840.85
4) 12 5) 31
d
44. 19.90% of 200.23 + ?% of 79.78 = 10.092
1) 84 2) 66 3) 82 4) 64 5) 75
ee
2 2
45. ?% of 19.99 × ( 35.48 + 3.99 ) = 12.08
1) 33 2) 64 3) 98 4) 84 5) 63
46. A boat travels an equal distance of (P + 30) meters each in downstream and
C
upstream directions in a total of 20 seconds. The speed of the boat in still water is
the HCF of 48 and 60 and the speed of the stream is the LCM of 3 and 6. What is
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the distance covered by the boat while moving upstream? (in metres)
1) 50 2) 40 3) 90 4) 70 5) 60
47. A fruit basket contains apples, bananas and pears. The quantity of apples is 25
percent more than the quantity of pears and quantity of apples is 50 percent of
the total quantity of fruits in the basket. If the quantity of bananas is 60 kg less
than that of apples, then what is the total quantity of pears in the basket.(in kg)
C
1) 50 2) 80 3) 120 4) 60 5) 100
48. The distance between Pune and Nagpur is 504 km and the time taken to cover
the distance by two trains is 9 hours. Train M departs from Pune towards Nagpur
at 6 am with a speed of 24 km/h, while Train N departs from Nagpur towards
Pune at 8 am. What is the distance between the two trains at 10 am? (in km)
1) 296 2) 344 3) 364 4) 268 5) 180
49. The radius of a circular field is 25% less than the sum of the lengths of the
parallel sides of a trapezium field. If the sum of the parallel sides is 56 units, and
the distance between them is 126 units, then the area of the circular field is
what percentage of the area of the trapezium field? (approximately)
1) 115% 2) 146% 3) 126% 4) 137% 5) 157%
50. Pipe X and Pipe Y can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. Both
pipes are opened together, but Pipe X is turned off after 4 minutes. What is the
total time taken to fill the tank? (in min)
1) 16 2) 27 3) 15 4) 18 5) 12
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
Direction (51-55): Study the table and answer the given question:
The given table depicts the total number of tigers in 5 tiger reserves in
India, percentage of tigers taken by management for medical examination and
ratio of male to female tigers which are taken for medical examination.
Percentage of Ratio of male to
Tiger reserves Total number of tigers taken for female which are
tigers medical taken for medical
examination examination
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Ranthambore 500 30% 2:1
Anamalai ---- 50% 3:1
Periyar 400 30% ----
Panna 600 ---- 5:1
Kaziranga ---- 40% 3:1
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Note: Some data is missing in the above table.
3
51. If total number of tigers in Anamalai tiger reserve is 21 % more than the total
E
5
number of tigers in Ranthambore tiger reserve, then what is the ratio of number
of male tigers which are taken for medical examination in Ranthambore tiger
d
reserve to that of female tigers in Anamalai tiger reserve?
1) 25 : 19 2) 27 : 38 3) 25 : 38 4) 50 : 19 5) 35 : 57
52. Total number of male tigers which are taken for medical examination from
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Kaziranga tiger reserve is 96. What is the total number of tigers in Kaziranga and
Periyar tiger reserves together?
1) 720 2) 460 3) 580 4) 900 5) 630
53. If the total number of female tigers from Anamalai and male tigers from Kaziranga
C
tiger reserve (which are taken for medical examination) are 80 and 96 respectively,
then what is the total number of tigers in Anamalai and kaziranga tiger reserves?
1) 910 2) 825 3) 400 4) 650 5) 960
Sr
54. The ratio of male to female tigers which are taken for medical examination in
Periyar tiger reserve is 1 : [Link] female tigers which are taken for medical
examination from Ranthambore tiger reserve is what percent of female tigers
which are taken for medical examination from Periyar tiger reserve?
1 1 1 1 1
1) 12 % 2) 62 % 3) 27 % 4) 54 % 5) 83 %
2 2 2 2 3
55. If total number of male tigers which are taken for medical examination from
C
Anamalai and Kaziranga is 42 and 84 respectively, then what is the total number
of tigers which are taken for medical examination from Anamalai, Kaziranga and
Periyar tiger reserves respectively?
1) 312 2) 274 3) 582 4) 288 5) 388
Direction (56-57): The question consists of a question and two statements I and
II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Read the both statements and mark the appropriate
option.
56. What is the speed (in m/s) of train, which having a length of 180 m?
Statement I: Train crosses a bridge, which of length ‘x’ m, in 30 sec.
Statement II: Train crosses a platform, which of length '2x' m, in 54 sec.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement
I alone is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together are sufficient to answer.
4) The data in both statements together are not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
57. There are some Mangoes and 5 Bananas in a basket. What is the total number of
Mangoes?
Statement I: The probability that when 2 fruits are picked at random from the
2
basket, both are Mangoes is .
5
Statement II: The probability that when 2 fruits are picked at random from the
5
basket, both are of Bananas is .
39
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1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in statement
II alone is not sufficient.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer, while the data in I alone
is not sufficient.
3) The data in both statements together is sufficient to answer.
ha
4) The data in both statements together is not sufficient to answer.
5) The data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer.
58.
E
After 5 years, the ratio of ages of Rohan and Kabir will be 4 : 5 respectively. The
respective ratio of Kabir’s age ten years ago and Meera’s age five years ago was 1
d
: 1. If the average of the present ages of Rohan and Meera is 37.5 years, then
what will be the age of Kabir, after 7 years? (in years)
1) 45 2) 36 3) 52 4) 28 5) 57
ee
Direction (59 – 61): Read the following information carefully and answer the
given questions:
There are three hospitals A, B and C. Total number of doctors and nurses in
C
all three hospitals is 2200. 40% of the total doctors and nurses are in hospital A.
The number of nurses in hospital A is 140 more than the number of doctors in the
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same hospital. The number of doctors in hospital B is 60 less than the number of
nurses in hospital C. The average of number of nurses in hospital B and C is 375.
2
The number of nurses in hospital C is 325 more than th of the difference
5
between number of doctors in hospital A and B. The number of doctors in hospital
A is more than that in hospital B.
C
59. Find the difference between the number of nurses in hospital B and number of
doctors in hospital C.
1) 80 2) 100 3) 120 4) 135 5) 150
60. What is the ratio between the number of nurses in hospital C and the number of
doctors in hospital A?
1) 71 : 74 2) 2 : 3 3) 111 : 130 4) 43 : 45 5) 31 : 38
61. What is the average of the number of nurses in all the hospitals?
1) 325 2) 430 3) 232 4) 420 5) 338
62. Piyush and Karan started a business by investing a total of Rs. 5200. Piyush left
the business after 5 months and at the same time, Nikhil joined the business by
investing an amount which was four-seventh of the amount invested by Karan. At
the end of twelve months from the start of the business, the ratio of the shares of
profit between Piyush and Nikhil was 15:14 respectively. What was the amount
invested by Karan? (in Rs.)
1) 1500 2) 2800 3) 2200 4) 1400 5) 3500
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
Direction (63-67): Refer to the pie chart and answer the given questions:
The pie chart is regarding the degree wise distribution and percentage wise
distribution of quantity of sandal wood transported from chittoor district to 5
different countries (i.e., A, B, C, D and E) in the month of April.
10%
o
72
o
90
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o
108
15%
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Country A Country B Country C Country D Country E
63.
E
Note: Total quantity of sandal wood transported from chittoor district is 2000
tonnes.
If the total quantity of sandalwood transported to all six countries (A to F) is ‘X’
d
tonnes and sandalwood transported to country F is 20% of the total quantity of
sandalwood transported to remaining countries (A to E), then what percent of
total quantity of sandalwood transported to country F and country B together out
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of total (A to F) sandal wood transported to all countries? (approximately)
1) 50% 2) 42% 3) 49% 4) 65% 5) 32%
64. What is the ratio of the total quantity of sandal wood transported to countries A
and C together to the total quantity of sandal wood transported to countries B and
C
E together?
1) 7 : 8 2) 4 : 5 3) 3 : 2 4) 5 : 4 5) 8 : 7
Sr
65. If the government decides to increase the quantity of country C by 50%, then
what will be the new total quantity of sandalwood transported by all countries
except A and B? ( in tonnes)
1) 850 2) 1200 3) 1150 4) 960 5) 1300
66. If the international market pays Rs.18000 per tonne for sandalwood, then what
would be the total revenue generated from countries A, B, and C together? (in
crores)
1) 2.34 2) 4.82 3) 3.24 4) 5.32 5) 6.12
C
67. What is the difference between the total quantity of sandalwood transported to
country A and country C together to that of country D and country E together? ( in
tonnes)
1) 50 2) 45 3) 36 4) 0 5) 27
68. On a 60-questions test, 3 points were deducted for each wrong answer and 6
points were added for each correct answer. If all questions were attempted and
the final score was zero,then number of correct answers is how much percent
more or less than the wrong answers ?
1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 25% 4) 35% 5) 15%
69. The profit earned when a washing machine is sold at Rs. 9180 is 4 times the loss
incurred when the same washing machine is sold at Rs. 8800. What will be the
selling price of the washing machine if a 20% profit is earned?(in Rs)
1) 14571.30 2) 17852.40 3) 11584.60 4) 14581.20 5) 10651.20
70. Average of Y numbers is 60. Later on, it was observed that 62 and 54 were wrongly
taken as 26 and 144 respectively. What is the value of Y, if correct average is
49.2?
1) 7 2) 5 3) 8 4) 3 5) 12
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
REASONING
Direction: (71-73) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Certain number of people sitting in a straight line all of them facing North
direction. R sits fourth to the right of Q. Only one person sits between R and T. As
many people sits between Q and T as between Q and X. T sits third from one of
the extreme ends of the line. Only three people sit between Q and D. X sits at
one of the extreme ends of the line. W sits immediate right of F. F sits second to
the right of D. N is an immediate neighbour of X.
r’s
71. Who sits fourth to the left of W?
1) X 2) N 3) R 4) D 5) T
72. How many people are sitting in the row?
1) 13 2) 17 3) 15 4) 14 5) 16
73. How many people sit between N and T?
ha
1) Nine 2) Eight 3) Seven 4) Six 5) Ten
Direction: (74-78) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
E Five boxes namely – A, B, C, D, and E are kept one above another. Each box
contains different items –Telescope, Laptop, Car, Refrigerator and Desktop but
d
not necessarily in the same order.
Only two boxes are kept between B and the one which contains Telescope. Only
one box kept between A and the one which contains Desktop. Box A is immediately
ee
above the box B. E does not contain Telescope and Desktop. Only one box kept
between D and the one which contains Car. D does not kept immediate to E. The
one which contains Laptop is immediately above the one which contains Desktop.
C
74. Which of the following boxes contains Telescope?
1) B 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) D
Sr
75. How many boxes are kept between box D and box E?
1) Two 2) Four 3) One 4) Three 5) More than four
76. Which of the following items is contained in box E?
1) Car 2) Desktop 3) Telescope 4) Laptop 5) Refrigerator
77. Four of the following five are alike certain way and hence form a group, which
one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) C – Refrigerator 2) D – Laptop 3) A – Telescope
C
4) B – Desktop 5) E – Car
78. How many boxes are placed above box E?
1) One 2) None 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three
79. If the given expression H < T V = G C > W < R = A then which of the following
is TRUE?
1) T < C 2) H G 3) V > W 4) G > R 5) A > C
80. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, fifth, seventh and
ninth letters of the word ‘INDUSTRIAL’, then the second letter of the word thus
formed is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is
'X' and if no such word can be formed your answer is 'Z'.
1) R 2) Z 3) N 4) X 5) A
81. If in the given number “986331087” 2 is added to 4 , 7 and 9th digits and 3 is
th th
subtracted from 5 th and 8 th digits then what is the sum of all the digits, thus
formed after removing the repeated digits?
1) 15 2) 18 3) 17 4) 16 5) 14
10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
Direction: (82-86) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Nine people namely – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J live on nine different floors
of the building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the
building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the
topmost floor is numbered nine.
F lives on the fifth floor. Only two people live between F and B. As many floors
above A as below H. F does not live immediate to G. E lives on an even-numbered
floor. A lives on an odd-numbered floor but below B’s floor. G lives immediate to H.
J does not live on lowermost floor. C lives immediately below A.
r’s
82. How many people sit between A and E?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) One 5) More than four
83. Which among the following statements is TRUE?
1) Only one person sits between B and J. 2) E lives above C.
3) G does not live on odd numbered floor. 4) H and B live on immediate floors.
84.
ha
5) All the given statements are true
Who among the following persons lives in lowermost floor?
1) G 2) H 3) D 4) C 5) E
85.
E
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
d
belong to that group?
1) J – A 2) F – H 3) C – E 4) G – F 5) B – C
86. If all the people are arranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom then how
ee
many people will remain unchanged?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three
Direction: (87-89) Study the following information carefully and answer the
C
questions given below.
There are only nine members in the family. D is the mother of H. K is the
Sr
brother of D. W is the daughter of R, who is the spouse of K. N is the father of T,
who has no daughters. P is the father-in-law of R. J is the spouse of P, who has
only two children. T is the brother-in-law of K. R doesn’t have any siblings.
87. How is P related to H?
1) Father 2) Grandson 3) Grandfather4) Uncle 5) Nephew
88. How is D related to W?
1) Mother 2) Niece 3) Aunt 4) Son 5) Uncle
C
89. How is T related to J?
1) Mother-in-law 2) Son 3) Father
4) Daughter-in-law 5) Son-in-law
Direction: (90-94) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Ten people namely – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K were born on different
dates viz. 5th and 14th of five different months viz. February, April, July, October
and November in the same year. No two people were born on the same date of the
same month.
K was born an odd numbered date and an odd numbered month. J was born
immediately after C. Only two people were born between J and E. Only three
people are born between J and B. As many people born after K as before C. E was
born after K. G was born an odd numbered month. A was born after D. F does not
born an odd numbered date. H was born immediately before B.
90. Who among the following persons born in 5th October?
1) H 2) F 3) D 4) J 5) A
11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT - 44
91. E was born in which of the following months and dates?
1) October – 14 2) July - 5 3) February – 5
4) November – 14 5) April – 14
92. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE?
I. Only three people were born between F and J.
II. D was born in February.
III. K was born immediately after F.
1) Only II 2) Only II and I 3) All are true
4) Only II and III 5) Only III
r’s
93. How many people were born between A and K?
1) Four 2) Three 3) Five 4) Two 5) One
94. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) H 2) C 3) A 4) F 5) E
ha
95. If the given expression P < S N = B V; G T = B > E H then which of the
following is FALSE?
E
1) T S 2) V > E 3) H > N 4) S > E 5) G N
Direction: (96-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
d
In a certain code language,
“make you are ready” is written as “uj rf te ik”
ee
“get ready to party” is written as “wn bk vs te”
“welcome to the party” is written as “bk yz ac wn”
“you ready welcome make” is written as “te ac ik rf”.
C
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
96. In the given code language, what does the code “te” stands for?
Sr
1) are 2) get 3) ready 4) party 5) to
97. What is the code for “party” in the given code language?
1) yz 2) ac 3) bk 4) Either “bk” or “wn”
5) Either “vs” or “ik”
98. What may be the possible code for “welcome get event” in the given code language?
1) vs op ac 2) vs ac rf 3) te ws ac 4) ik ac vs 5) bk wn op
99. In the given code language, what does the code “yz uj” stand for?
C
1) you the 2) to are 3) are the 4) make the 5) you are
100. If “you are ready” is coded as “te ik uj” in the given code language, then how will
“make welcome” be coded as?
1) ac te 2) rf ik 3) ik ac 4) ac rf 5) uj rf
KEY
1.3 2.2 3.4 4.2 5.5 6.3 7.2 8.2 9.2 10.3 SCAN QR FOR
11.1 12.2 13.3 14.1 15.5 16.2 17.3 18.2 19.2 20.2 OUR RESULTS
21.2 22.2 23.3 24.4 25.4 26.1 27.3 28.4 29.1 30.1
31.3 32.1 33.3 34.3 35.3 36.3 37.3 38.3 39.1 40.2
41.4 42.1 43.2 44.5 45.1 46.3 47.4 48.2 49.5 50.4
51.1 52.1 53.5 54.2 55.4 56.3 57.5 58.3 59.3 60.1
61.4 62.2 63.2 64.1 65.3 66.1 67.4 68.1 69.5 70.2
71.2 72.3 73.5 74.2 75.1 76.5 77.3 78.1 79.3 80.2
81.3 82.1 83.3 84.3 85.4 86.4 87.3 88.3 89.5 90.4
91.4 92.4 93.2 94.3 95.3 96.3 97.4 98.1 99.3 100.4
12