CAPM Certification Course: Simulation Exam

1) A business case, which helps to determine whether a project is worth the investment, is
created on the basis of the following except for

A. Market Demand
B. Ecological Impacts
C. Social Need
D. Availability of Funds

2) During the develop schedule process, the Project Manager may have to go through several
iterations of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are
tools and techniques that may be used during this process:

A. Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements

B. Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars
C. Schedule compression, Resource optimization techniques, Critical Path method
D. GERT, PERT, Leads and Lags

3) Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom
resolves the issue in the long term?

A. Problem solving
B. Withdrawal
C. Forcing
D. Smoothing

4) How much time does the typical project manager spend communicating both formally and
informally?

A. 40-60%
B. 50-70%
C. 60-80%
D. 75-90%
5) Integration consists of:

A. Assuring that the pieces of a project come together at the right time
B. Planning for contingencies that may occur throughout the life cycle of the project
C. The pieces of the project function as an integration unit
D. A and C

6) Which of the following could be an appropriate WBS code for a work package at the fourth
level in a WBS where the top level code is 1.0?

A. 1.4
B. 1.2.1
C. [Link]
D. A and C

7) Which of the following Project Scope Management processes involves subdividing the major
project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?

A. Plan Scope Management

B. Define Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Create WBS

8) Project scope is:

A. All the work that must be done in order to deliver a product according to the specified
features and functions, only.
B. The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C. A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D. All of the above

9) Change requests can occur due to:

A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. All of the above
10) A project management plan is:

A. A formal, approved document used to guide project execution, monitoring, and control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the
authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplied.
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.

11) Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?

A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Network diagram

12) A project is defined as:

A. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan.

B. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled; performed by people; and
constrained by limited resources.
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service.
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature.

13) According to PMBOK, project management processes are organized into following order of
process groups:

A. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, and closing

B. Designing, developing, testing, and implementing
C. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
D. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

14) ___________ must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Schedule progress
D. Cost
15) Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?

A. A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer.
B. Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential.
C. Time and materials contracts are hybrid of cost reimbursable and fixed-price contracts.
D. Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions.

16) The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a
project phase is to:

A. Determine how many resources are required to complete the project according to the
project baseline
B. Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance
C. Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
D. Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase

17) Projects are initiated in response of:

A. Stakeholder's pressure
B. Business needs
C. Technological obsolescence
D. All of the above

18) A tool which links the project roles and responsibilities to the project scope definition is
called:

A. Scope Definition Matrix

B. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
C. Roles Assignment Matrix
D. Project Scope and Roles Matrix

19) Which of the following are outputs from the Plan Communications Management process?

A. Project records
B. Communications management plan
C. Performance reports
D. Formal acceptance
20) Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Process Groups are same as Project Phases

B. Each Process Group has a mapped Project Phase
C. Process Groups are not Project Phases
D. Monitoring and Control Process Group applies only in monitoring and control phase

21) The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of:

A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Encrypting
D. Promoting

22) According to the best practices in Project Management, a project manager should be
involved in the Procurement in the following manner:

A. Project manager should not be involved in Procurements , this is best left to the
Purchase department.
B. A Project Manager should completely handle the procurements as the Purchase
department are not aware of the implications in the project.
C. A project manager should create the RFP and specifications and be involved in the
procurement process and be familiar with the contracts and understand their
implications on the project.
D. A project manager should create the RFP and specifications and leave the rest of the
procurement process to the purchase cell.

23) All of the following are inputs / outputs to the process of Control Costs except:

A. Project Funding Requirements

B. Project Management Plan
C. Work Performance Information
D. Reserve Analysis
24) The processes of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide
confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called

A. Manage Quality
B. Control Quality
C. Plan Quality
D. Perform Quality Review

25) During the festive season you have decided to go out with your family and visit the sites of
various festivities. But you are expecting that the main roads would be full of traffic and you do
not want to risk being caught in long traffic jams. So you avoid the main roads and take detours
through the lesser known roads to avoid traffic. But these roads have not been maintained for a
long time and hence you run the risk of damaging your car as these roads have uneven
surfacing and a large number of potholes. This is a typical example of:

A. Progressive Risk Planning

B. Watchlist
C. Risk Ownership
D. Secondary Risks

26) A project team member has added graphics and animation to the user data entry screens in
order to make the software package more user-friendly, though not included in the project
scope. This is an example of :

A. Gold Plating
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Customer Delight
D. Quality enhancements

27) A summary milestone schedule would normally be part of which document?

A. Project Management Plan

B. Project Charter
C. Project Schedule Network Diagram
D. Project Statement of Work
28) You are working on a project and you need to review the justification for undertaking the
project in the first place. You find the relevant details in the:

A. Project Charter
B. Contract
C. Project Management Plan
D. Business Case

29) You work for Paper mill which is undertaking a project in one of its manufacturing units for
updating and verifying the actual stocks against the available records. The head of the
personnel and administration department calls you and wishes to know the details of your
project. He has not been included in the stakeholder register. What should be the course of
action?

A. Do not meet him , your project does not concern his department
B. Meet him and assess his interest as he may have enough power to influence other key
stakeholders
C. Send him a copy of the progress report of the project
D. Invite him to the weekly status meeting

30) Risks not assessed as important in the ____ process can be placed on a watch list for
continued monitoring.

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Identify Risks
D. None of the above

31) The Project Scope Management processes need to be ______ the other Knowledge Area
processes.

A. Maintained as discrete in relationship to

B. Defined independently of
C. Well integrated with
D. Evaluated against
32) ____ show(s) the forces for and against change.

A. Affinity diagrams
B. Matrix diagrams
C. Force field analysis
D. None of the above

33) What category of contract involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs
incurred for completed work, plus a fee for representing seller profit?

A. Fixed Price Incentive Fee

B. Cost-reimbursable contracts
C. Firm Fixed Price
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment

34) The ___ at the end of the project will be the difference between the budget at completion
and the actual amount spent.

A. Budgeted cost of work performed

B. Earned value
C. Planned variance
D. Cost variance

35) ______ are often categorized into internal (found by the project and external (found by the
customer).

A. Cost of corrected quality

B. Variance costs
C. Cost of poor quality
D. Configuration Correction Expenses
36) Published commercial information is a(n) ____ in the Estimate Activity Durations process.

A. Input
B. Tool and technique
C. Output
D. Input and output

37) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis should be repeated after which of the following to
determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Monitor and Control Risks
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

38) A RACI chart is an example of a ______.

A. Hierarchy-type chart
B. Schedule optimization tool
C. Matrix based chart
D. None of these

39) Which of the following roles should attend the risk planning meeting?

A. Stakeholder
B. Project team member
C. Others, as needed
D. All of the above

40) _____ compares the amount of the contingency reserves remaining to the amount of risk
remaining at any time in the project in order to determine if the remaining reserve is adequate.

A. Risk auditing
B. Reserve analysis
C. Technical performance measurement
D. None of the above
 41) Adjustments to _________ may be necessary to produce network paths with a zero or
positive total float.

A. Logical relationships
B. Milestones
C. Activity duration
D. Both logical relationships and activity duration

42) The cost baseline may be updated to reflect which of the following?

A. Changes caused by the use of compression techniques

B. Changes caused by the use of crashing techniques
C. Neither of these
D. Both of these

43) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized by the
______ process.

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Risk Prioritization Process
C. Identify Risks
D. None of the above

44) _____ is a process of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative
information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project.

A. Stakeholder communication
B. Stakeholder identification
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Stakeholder management
45) Network diagrams, planned response actions and risk impact definition documents from
previous projects are examples of ______________.

A. PMIS artifacts
B. Organizational process assets
C. Lessons learned
D. Archived materials

46) When is resource leveling necessary?

A. Always
B. Never
C. When resources are over-allocated.
D. When resources are under-allocated

47) In a three-point PERT estimate we use the formula:

A. (O+4M+P)/6
B. (O+M+P)/3
C. (O+2M+P)/4
D. None of the above

48) Productivity metrics, project calendars and resources calendars are _____ in the Estimate
Activity Durations process.

A. Tools and techniques

B. Outputs
C. Inputs
D. All of these
49) Within the Define Scope process, the project charter is a(n) _______________.

A. Input
B. Output
C. Tool/technique
D. Input as well as an output

50) Contingency reserves are part of ______ requirements.

A. Staffing
B. Quality assurance
C. Funding
D. None of the above

51) _____ is used to obtain early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of
the expected product before actually building it.

A. Observation
B. Delphi technique
C. Nominal technique
D. Prototyping

52) With regard to the Control Scope process, work performance information is a(n) ________.

A. Inputs
B. Tools/techniques
C. Outputs
D. Both outputs and tools/techniques

53) Performance reviews compare ______.

A. Cost performance over time

B. Schedule activities or work packages overrunning and underrunning the budget
C. Estimated funds needed to complete work in progress
D. All of the above
54) The ____ process applies techniques such as variance and trend analysis that require the
use of performance information generated during project execution.

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Reponses
D. Control Risks

55) What is/are Estimate at Completions (EACs) typically based on?

A. Actual costs incurred for the work completed

B. An estimate to complete the remaining work
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

56) The total work at the lowest levels must roll up to the higher levels so that nothing is left
out and no extra work is completed. This is sometimes called ___.

A. The Pareto Principle

B. Rolling Wave
C. The Roll Up Role
D. The 100% Rule

57) Decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject that will be _____.

A. Rushed into execution

B. Accomplished far in the future
C. Micromanaged by the client owner
D. None of the above

58) Grouping risks by ____ can lead to developing effective risk responses.

A. Potential impact
B. Common root causes
C. Standardized identifiers
D. None of the above
59) The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and managing changes to
the deliverable is part of _________.

A. Configuration Management
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Integrated Change Management
D. Integrated Corrective Action

60) Which of the following shows both the project network logic and the project's critical path
schedule activities?

A. Milestone charts
B. Schedule network diagrams
C. Bar charts
D. Master schedule

61) The key benefit of this process is that it provides overall management of the project work
and deliverables, thus improving the probability of project success

A. Direct and Manage Project Work

B. Project Execution
C. Manage Project Knowledge
D. Information Management

62) As the project progresses through the lifecycle what happens to the accuracy of the cost
estimates?

A. They become more accurate.

B. They become less accurate.
C. They are not impacted by how far along in the lifecycle the project has evolved.
D. None of the above
63) ___ is the process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and
product, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance.

A. Quality Management
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Plan Quality Management

64) The schedule management plan is _________.

A. A formal plan that is separate from the project management plan

B. An information plan that is separate from the project management plan
C. A subsidiary of the project management plan that may be either formal or informal.
D. None of the above

65) The information contained in the ___ can be used to aggregate costs to the calendar
periods in which the costs are planned to be incurred.

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Project schedule
C. Risk register
D. Configuration management plan

66) ____ is the process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project budget and
managing changes to the cost baseline.

A. Cost Analysis
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Control Scope
D. Control Costs

67) The WBS component used for the project cost accounting is called the ____.

A. Cost Manager (CM)

B. Project Cost Account (PCA)
C. Control Account (CA)
D. None of the above
68) In project quality management, plan-do-check-act is tied to ______.

A. Customer satisfaction
B. Prevention Over inspection
C. Management responsibility
D. Continuous improvement

69) ______ is/are an essential planning component to evaluate project time performance.

A. Task float variance

B. Backward pass variance
C. Total float variance
D. None of the above

70) As a general rule of thumb, doubling the resources on a project will typically result in:

A. A reduction in the timeline on the activities to which it is applied, but typically by less
than half
B. The duration of the activities to which they are applied being halved
C. An extension of the timeline because of the time required to being the new resources
up to speed
D. None of the above

71) ____ is the schedule compression technique in which phases or activities normally
performed in sequence are performed in parallel.

A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. PERT
D. Parallel sequencing

72) Where should contingency reserves should be clearly identified?

A. In the schedule documentation

B. In the resource requirements documents
C. In the preliminary scope statement
D. None of the above
73) Which is considered to be a more accurate form of estimating?

A. Three-point estimating
B. Three-point PERT estimating
C. Parabolic estimating
D. Predecessor based estimating

74) The ___ provides input to the overall project management plan and includes quality control,
quality assurance and continuous improvement approaches for the project.

A. Quality control plan

B. Quality management plan
C. Quality integration
D. None of the above

75) The cost baseline includes ______.

A. Projected expenditures
B. Unanticipated liabilities
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

76) Analogous estimating uses _________.

A. Historical information
B. Expert judgment
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

77) Duration estimates may include contingency reserves, which may also be referred to as:

A. Slack
B. Time reserves
C. Buffers
D. Either time reserves or buffers
78) ____ uses parameters such as duration, budget, size and complexity from a previous similar
project as a basis for estimation.

A. Parametric estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Three-point estimating
D. None of the above

79) When quickly defining cross-functional requirements and reconciling stakeholder

differences,________ are still considered a primary technique.

A. Focus groups
B. Facilitated workshops
C. Delphi meetings
D. JAD sessions

80) ___ provide(s) the high-level project requirements and high-level product description of the
project.

A. The project charter

B. Detailed product requirements
C. The scope definition
D. Acceptance criteria

81) The PMBOK® Guide identifies the subset of project management that is _______.

A. A prescriptive breakdown of required best practices

B. A proven methodology that, if followed, will enable success
C. Applicable to most projects, most of the time
D. The best possible answer for complex projects that require focus on time, scope and
budget
82) How many techniques are available for resolving conflict?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

83) Auditing project success or failure and collecting these records for future use by the
organization are part of the _______ process.

A. Close Project or Phase

B. Control Quality
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Performance Measurement

84) When a project falls behind schedule, one technique commonly applied to get back on track
is ________.

A. Fast tracking
B. Lead adjustment
C. Buffering
D. Trade-off analysis

85) Scope creep refers to _____.

A. Adding features that are not necessary to meet the measure of success
B. Any changes that are added to the scope of a project
C. The person who keeps asking for changes to the project scope
D. Uncontrolled changes
86) What is free float?

A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of
any successor activity on the network path
B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the late start date of
any immediate successor activity on the network path
C. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early finish date of
any immediate successor activity on the network path
D. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the late start date of
any successor activity on the network path

87) Which of the following, which are documented during project initiation, does the detailed
project scope statement build upon?

A. Major deliverables
B. Assumptions
C. Constraints
D. All of the above

88) Which of these are considerations in optimistic activity duration estimates?

A. Interruptions
B. Resource availability
C. Resource skill
D. None of the above

89) With respect to schedule data, information frequently supplied as supporting detail includes
__________.

A. Resource histograms
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Risk register
D. Schedule baseline
90) In Project Scope Management, questions and/or surveys are most appropriate with
______________.

A. Broad audiences when quick turnaround is needed

B. Broad audiences when quick turnaround is not needed
C. Narrow audiences when quick turnaround is needed
D. Narrow audiences when quick turnaround is not needed

91) A critical path is normally identified by ______.

A. Numbers for each activity defining early and late start

B. A bold line in the network diagram
C. Lead and lag being defined for each task
D. None of the above

92) Control accounts are placed at _________.

A. Selected management points in the WBS

B. Random points in the WBS
C. Select points in the risk register
D. Predetermined stage gates throughout the project lifecycle

93) ______ includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, services or
results needed from outside the project team.

A. Project Communication Management

B. Project Procurement Management
C. Project Quality Management
D. Project Risk Management

94) _____ can have a significant effect on preliminary estimates of the types and quantities of
resources required.

A. Activity attributes
B. Schedule data
C. Hammock activities
D. Resource leveling
95) Expert judgment can be used to __________.

A. Determine resources and skill levels needed to perform the project work
B. Define the levels of configuration management to apply on the project
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

96) Communication requirements define ____________.

A. Allowed communication media and record retention requirements

B. Security requirements and record retention requirements
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

97) How many critical paths can exist on a network?

A. One
B. Two
C. No more than three
D. Multiple

98) During project execution, the work performance data is collected and can be used as
feedback into ___________ to improve the performance of future work packages

A. Lessons learned
B. Organizational interfaces
C. The change log
D. Project Execution

99) ____ is/are used to optimize the distribution of work among resources.

A. Resource leveling
B. Critical float method
C. Delphi technique
D. None of the above
100) ____ involves subdividing the project work packages into smaller, more manageable
components called activities.

A. Subdivision
B. Decomposition
C. WBS
D. Iterative planning

101) ___ integrates project scope, cost and schedule measures to help the project management
team assess and measure project performance and progress.

A. WBS
B. SCP
C. EVM
D. EVP

102) ___ is the process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project
activities.

A. Develop Schedule
B. Control Schedule
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities

103) Developing an acceptable project schedule is often ______.

A. A product owner driven process

B. Done only once during the project
C. An iterative process
D. Created by the PM, who makes significant assumptions on behalf of his/her resources
104) While co-location is considered to be a good strategy, the use of ____ is sometimes
unavoidable.

A. Virtual teams
B. Cubicles
C. Off-hour teams
D. None of the above

105) At a high level, the project charter ensures_____________________

A. A common understanding by the stakeholders of the key deliverables, milestones, and

the roles and responsibilities of everyone involved in the project.
B. That high-level strategic and operational assumptions and constraints are identified
before the project is initiated.
C. That all assumptions and constraints throughout the project life cycle are identified
D. There is a comprehensive document that defines the basis of all project work and how
the work will be performed

106) The process of defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project
objectives is the _________ process.

A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Objective Definition
D. Scope Validation

107) ___ is when the initiation of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the
predecessor activity.

A. Start to Finish
B. Start to Start
C. Finish to Finish
D. Finish to Start
108) _____ risk implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to
be within acceptable threshold limits.

A. Avoiding
B. Transferring
C. Mitigating
D. Accepting

109) Level of service requirements, safety requirements and retention requirements are
examples of _______ requirements.

A. Functional
B. Non-functional
C. Configuration
D. None of the above

110) _____ is a technique that generates the project schedule.

A. Critical path method

B. Schedule network analysis
C. Critical chain method
D. None of the above

111) Schedule activities on a critical path are called _____.

A. Milestones
B. Lead tasks
C. Temporal drivers
D. Critical activities

112) ______ is the process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting
their characteristics.

A. Qualitative Risk Assessment

B. Plan Risk Management
C. Identify Risks
D. None of the above
113) The ____ is a management control point where scope, cost and schedule are integrated
and compared to the earned value for performance measurement.

A. Configuration account
B. Control account
C. WBS identifier
D. None of the above

114) ____ actions are those that can be developed to reduce the probability and/or impact of
problems before they occur.

A. Proactive
B. Prescriptive
C. Preventive
D. Pro bono

115) Project quality management is best applied to which type of project?

A. Software
B. Construction
C. Government
D. It applies equally to all types of projects.

116) Analogous cost estimating is generally _____.

A. Less time consuming than other techniques

B. Less costly than other techniques
C. Less accurate than other techniques
D. All of the above

117) A ____ is a structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply
with organizational and project policies, processes and procedures.

A. Quality measurement
B. Quality register item
C. Quality audit
D. Control audit
118) ____ dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-project
activities.

A. Internal
B. Discretionary
C. Hard logic
D. External

119) How does the requirements traceability matrix help ensure that each requirement adds
business value?

A. By receiving signoff from the client indicating their understanding of the added business
value.
B. By linking the requirement to business and project objectives.
C. By linking the requirement to specific product objectives.
D. None of the above

120) _____ includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work
required to complete the project successfully.

A. Project Scope Management

B. Control Scope
C. Collect Requirements
D. Project Scope Validation

121) How should the project team respond to cultural differences?

A. Ignore them
B. Select one culture for the team and expect everyone to adhere to it
C. Respect and try to benefit from the cultural differences
D. None of the above
122) ____ is the conflict resolution technique that involves pushing one's viewpoint at the
expense of others and offers only win-lose solutions.

A. Compromising
B. Smoothing/Accommodating
C. Forcing
D. Confronting/Problem Solving

123) Attributes associated with each requirement are recorded in the _____________.

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Requirements register
C. Scope definition
D. Configuration management register

124) The ___ is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the
remaining work to meet a specified management goal, such as BAC or EAC.

A. TCPI
B. ETC
C. BCWS
D. None of the above

125) Earned value (EV) is the value of _______ expressed in terms of the approved budget
assigned to that work for an activity or WBS component.

A. Money spent
B. Resources working on the project
C. Estimated value of all work at the completion of the project
D. Work performed
126) The content of the project management plan will ___________________.
A. Vary depending on the application area and complexity of the project
B. Remain a constant within an organization in order to ensure uniform application of the
processes
C. Be defined solely by the needs of the stakeholders
D. Be defined by the PM based on the needs of the PMO or PM framework in place

127) ____ investigates the potential effect on a project objective such as schedule, cost, quality
or performance, including both negative effects for threats and positive effects for
opportunities.

A. SWOT analysis
B. Risk probability
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk impact assessment

128) Brainstorming is an example of _______.

A. A group creativity technique

B. Interviewing
C. Focus groups
D. Facilitated workshops

129) Project risk is _____.

A. A problem that must be eliminated

B. A warning sign of trouble on the project
C. Always in the future
D. Something that must be used to manipulate people

130) Early scope definition is critical because ____________.

A. It is the easiest time to influence project scope

B. It is vital that everything be defined before the team is brought in
C. It is needed to establish the resource assignment matrix
D. None of the above
131) ____ can be used to determine whether to combine methods of estimating and how to
reconcile differences between them.

A. Expert judgment
B. Analogous estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom up estimating

132) ___ provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process of systematically identifying
risks to a consistent level of detail and contributes to the effectiveness and quality of the
Identify Risks process.

A. Risk categories
B. Risk schedules
C. Risk plans
D. None of the above

133) ____ is the conflict resolution technique that involves searching for solutions that bring
some degree of satisfaction to all parties.

A. Collaborating
B. Confronting/Problem Solving
C. Forcing
D. Compromising

134) Expert judgment is usually provided by _______________.

A. Consultants
B. Stakeholders
C. The PMO
D. All of the above
135) _____ technique allows large numbers of ideas to be sorted into groups for review and
analysis.

A. Brainstorming
B. Nominal group
C. Idea/mind mapping
D. Affinity diagram

136) Preferred logic is also called _______.

A. Hard logic
B. Soft logic
C. Sequence dependencies
D. Mandatory dependencies

137) Precision and accuracy are _____.

A. The same
B. Not the same
C. Aspects of grade
D. None of the above

138) ___ activity duration estimates are based on analysis of the best-case scenario for the
activity.

A. Optimistic
B. Most likely
C. Pessimistic
D. Delphi
139) ____ involves determining the availability and quantities of staff and material needed to
perform schedule activities.

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Estimate Project Cost
C. Estimate Actual Cost
D. Budget at Complete

140) Earned value performance compares the baseline plan to _________.

A. Actual schedule
B. Cost performance
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these

141) Outputs from the Develop Project Management Plan process include ___________.

A. Updated project scope definition

B. Project communication plan
C. Project management plan
D. Project charter

142) A(n) ____ is the examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to the
documented standards.

A. Quality audit
B. Inspection
C. Pareto analysis
D. None of the above

143) The schedule baseline is a component of the ________.

A. Performance management plan

B. Project management plan
C. Program control methodology
D. None of the above
144) Which of the following are inputs to the Validate Scope process?

A. Project management plan

B. Inspection
C. Change requests
D. Project documentation updates

145) Verified deliverables are an input to ____ for formalized acceptance.

A. Validate Scope
B. Quality Assurance
C. Project Delivery
D. None of the above

146) The WBS organizes and defines the _______.

A. High level requirements
B. Total scope of the project
C. Resource assignments
D. Items defined in the traceability matrix

147) ____ is a specific technique used to identify a problem, uncover the underlying causes that
lead to it and to develop preventive action.

A. Root cause analysis

B. Delphi technique
C. Brainstorming
D. Interviewing

148) The ______ links requirements to their origin and traces them throughout the project
lifecycle.

A. Requirements management table

B. Requirements management plan
C. Requirements breakdown structure
D. Requirements traceability matrix
149) Which of the following are enterprise environmental factors in the Estimate Activity
Durations process?

A. Project Metrics
B. Available skilled resources
C. Resource calendars
D. All of the above

150) Which of these is a traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show
positions and relationships in a graphic, top down format?

A. RACI
B. Hierarchical-type chart
C. Matrix based chart
D. Hierarchical matrix chart