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Fifth Term Examination – October 2023

conducted by
National Field Work Centre, Thondaimanaru.
Grade 13 (2023 Batch)
NFWC 09 - Biology
Marking scheme
Amendments to be included

NFWC Grade– 13(2023) 5th Term. October-2023 1 Biology Ans.

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Part II
A – Structured Essay
01) A i) What is sustainable food production?
• Production of sufficient amounts of food for the human population
• using environmentally safe methods 2 Pts.
ii) What is the significance of the physical property of water- expansion upon freezing?

• In polar regions, where, organisms in aquatic bodies can survive the winter 1Pt.

iii) Name the disaccharide which form from different types of aldose monosaccharides.
• Lactose 1 Pt.
iv) Name two major organic compounds which act as signaling molecules that travel throughout the
body.
• Lipid
• Protein 2 Pts.
v) Which are molecules act as oxidizing agent and electron carrier in cellular respiration?
• FAD
• NAD+ 2 Pts.

vi) Indicate two functions of cholesterol molecule that found in the plasma membrane.
• Provide rigidity and stability (to the membrane)
• maintain fluidity to plasma membrane 2 Pts.

vii) Indicate two supportive structures of eukaryotic cells.

• Cell wall
• Cytoskeleton 2 Pts.

viii) Which organelle produces the lysosomes?

• Golgi apparatus 1 Pt.

B i) Indicate briefly how cytokinesis occurs in the meiosis I.
• Usually occurs simultaneously with telophase I 1 Pt.
ii) What are the significances of meiosis?
• Maintains the constant number of chromosomes through generations in sexually
reproducing species
• Produce new genetic variations leading to evolution 2 Pts.
iii) Briefly explain how the ATP molecules release energy required for the metabolic reactions.
• During the hydrolysis of ATP terminal phosphate removed
• as a result, a very high energy is released by exergonic reaction 2 Pts.
iv) a What is the active site of an enzyme?
• Place where the substrate binds to a specific of the enzyme. 1Pt.
b. What is competitive inhibitor?
• Chemicals
• resemble the shape and nature of the substrate
• compete with the substrate selectively 3 Pts.

v) Name the location of glycolysis.

• Cytosol 1 Pt.

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vi) Name the molecules that form from glycolysis.

• (2/4) ATP
• (2) NADH
• (2) Pyruvate 3 Pts.
vii) How many ATP molecules form in the mitochondria of a human liver cell during aerobic
respiration?
• 30 1 Pt.
C i) What are the characteristics of RNA molecule that was accumulated into the protocell?
• Exhibit enzyme catalyzed activities
• Able to replicate
• grow and
• replicate 4Pts.
ii) Indicate three differences found between Domain bacteria and Domain Eukarya regarding genetic
material.
Domain Bacteria Domain Eukarya
• Histone not associated with DNA Histone associated with DNA
• Circular chromosome present Circular chromosome absent
• Introns within gene is rare Introns within many genes 3Pts. (both)
iii) Indicate two traits that can be shared by sporophytes of Bryophytes and vascular plants.
• Stomata
• Homosporous 2 Pts.
iv) Name the structure that is found in bony fishes for the control the buoyancy.
• Swim bladder 1 Pt.
v) Indicate two physiological characteristics shared by animals of class Aves and Mammalia.
• Endotherms /Endothermic
• Internal fertilization
• high metabolism any2 Pts.
vi) Name a phylum which includes of animals without showing radial or bilateral symmetry.
• (Phylum) Mollusca 1 Pt.
40X2.5= 100 Marks

02) A i) Indicate three functions of trichomes which are included in dermal tissue system.
• reduce water loss
• reflect excess light
• defense against insects/ pathogens/ herbivores (by secrete chemicals) 3 Pts.
ii) What is the importance of lignin secondary cell wall deposition in xylem vessel and tracheids?
• prevent collapse under tension of water transport 1 Pt.
iii) What is indeterminate growth in plants?
• Plants continue growth throughout the life 1 Pt.
iv) Indicate the cell type that are produced by short initials of the vascular cambium and give two
functions of those cells.
• Parenchyma cells 1 Pt.
• Store carbohydrates
• aid in wound repairing 2 Pts.

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v) a. How the diameter of the guard cells is regulated in the mechanism of opening and closing of
stomata?
• turgor increases (guard)cells expand / by changing the shape of guard cell
• relatively inelastic inner walls make them bend and draw away from each other 2 Pts.
b. Indicate the special modifications found in a guard cell for the regulation of stomatal shape.
• The inner cellulose walls are is thicker and less elastic
• cellulose micro fibrils are radially arranged to form inelastic hoops around guard cells 2Pts .
B i) Indicate the three major factors contribute to the upward movement of water and minerals in the
plants.
• Transpiration pull
• Cohesion and adhesion of water
• water potential gradient between soil solution to atmosphere through plant body. 3Pt.
ii) Briefly indicate the processes that occurs at the sink in phloem translocation.
• Unloading of sugar
• water loss from phloem to xylem (by osmosis)
• generates a negative pressure / reduces the pressure 3 Pts.
iii) a. Indicate the constitutive elements of the chlorophyl molecule other than C, H and O.
• N
• Mg 2 Pts.
b. Indicate the mode of absorptions of elements which causes chlorosis between veins, a deficiency
symptom, in younger leaves.
• Fe 2+
• Fe 3+
• Mn 2+ 3 Pts.
iv) Indicate the plant growth regulator that involves in the tropic movements.
• Auxin 1Pt.
C i) In human, how dense connective tissue mainly differs from loose connective tissues?
• Densely packed (collagen) fibres
• Reduced matrix
• Contain fewer fibres any 1Pts.
ii) Which cell types compose the nerve tissue?
• Neurons
• Glial cells 2 Pts.
iii) What is fluid feeder?
• Suck nutrient rich fluid
• from living host (using well adapted mouth parts) 2 Pts.
iv) Indicate the benefits of liquefying foods by water in saliva.
• provide water medium for chemical digestion
• aids in taste reception 2 Pts.
v) Indicate two functions of bile salts.
• help in fat digestion and

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• absorption 2 Pts.
vi) Write the basic model of energy budget.
• C= M+U+F+P 1Pt.
vii) a. What is the effect of impulses that are conducted by Purkinje fibres of the conducting system
of human heart?
• Ventricular contraction begins and the contraction sweeps upwards and outwards
• pumping blood simultaneously into the pulmonary artery and the aorta 2 Pt.
b. Opening ang closing of valves is related to in which of the property of the human heart?
• Related to the pressure within the chambers of the heart
• ensure that the blood flows only in one direction 2 Pts.
viii) In human, how CO2 reach the respiratory surface from the tissues, other than the modes such
as HCO3- and dissolved CO2 in blood plasma.
• As carbinohaemoglobin
• combined with protein group of haemoglobin 2 Pts.
40X2.5= 100 Marks.
03) A i) Indicate the cells involved in phagocytosis and give a signaling molecule released by those cells
during inflammatory responses.
• Macrophages
• Neutrophils 2 Pts.
• Cytokine 1 Pt.
*(If cells are wrongly written / not written no marks for signaling molecule)
ii) In unicellular organisms which organelle found for the osmoregulation and give another function
of it.
• Contractile vacuole
• water balance / osmoregulation 2 Pts.
iii) In which part, selective reabsorption of urea takes place in the human uriniferous tubules?
• Collecting duct 1 Pt.
iv) What are the types of tissue parts surrounding the brain to protect it from physical injuries?
• Skull/cranium
• Meninges 2 Pts.
v) Where the centre for the control of autonomic homeostatic functions located in human brain?
• Medulla oblongata 1 Pt.
v) Draw a graph in to show how action potential is generated in a neuron and label its phases.

graph shape- 1 pt. labelling phases- 1 Pt

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vi) Organ of Corti is given in the following diagram.

a. Name the parts denoted by the following numbers in the above diagram.
4 Basilar membrane 5 Tectorial membrane
2 Hair cells 7 Axon of the sensory neuron 4 Pts.
b. In which part of the brain sound is perceived?
• Temporal lobe (of the cerebrum) 1 Pt.
B i) a. In humans, name two hormones which could mediate short term stress responses.
• Epinephrine / adrenalin
• Nor epinephrine / Noradrenalin 2 Pts.

b. Which hormone has an antagonistic effect to PTH?

• Calcitonin 1 Pt.
iii) Briefly indicate the homeostatic role of liver in the protein metabolism.
• Deamination /
• Transamination /

iv)

12

The above diagram is the structure of male reproductive system.

a. Name the parts denoted by the following numbers.
3 Epididymis 4 Vas deference
10 urethra 12 Ejaculatory duct 4 Pts.
b. Indicate the number and name of the accessory glands found in the above diagram.
7 seminal vesicle 1/0 Pt.
9 prostate gland 1/0Pt.
5 Bulbourethral / Cowper’s gland 1/0 Pt.

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v) What is the major difference between the meiosis of spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
• Meiosis of the spermatogenesis is continuous while meiosis of the oogenesis is
discontinuous / long interruptions 1 Pt.
vi) a. Which hormone influence in the thickening of endometrium during proliferative phase of the
menstrual cycle?
• Estradiol 1 Pt.

b. What are the rapid changes occur in a pregnant mother when the progesterone level at higher
levels?

• Bothe ovulation and menstrual cycles stop

• maternal side of the placenta grows
• breast, uterus get lager
• mucus in the cervix (forms a plug) which prevents the fetus from infections 4 Pts.
C i) How many separate vertebrae found in the human vertebral column?
• 24 1Pt.
ii) Which maintain radius and ulna at a relative position in spite of forces applied from the elbow
joint?
• Fibrous joints (along their shaft) 1 Pt.
iii) Indicate how the bones articulate in the wrist joint.
• (Between) Distal end of radius bone and
• three proximal row wrist/carpal bones 2 Pts.
iv) Indicate the movement occurs in the hinge joint.
• Flexion and extension 1 Pt.
v) Indicate the important event would be taken place to detach myosin heads from actin.
• When a new ATP molecule bind with the myosin head 1 Pt.
40X2.5= 100 Marks.

04). A i) Define the following terms.

a. Dominant allele
• At heterozygote stage, the allele which determines the organism’s phenotype by
masking the expression of the other (is referred to as the dominant allele) 1 Pt.
b. Heterozygote
• Having two different alleles for a given gene 1Pt.
ii) In wild type Drosophila flies, grey body (G) is dominant to black body (g). While normal wing
(N) is dominant to vestigial wing (n). Both genes are completely linked.
Files with pure line grey body and normal wings crossed with flies with pure line black body and
vestigial wings.

a. Write the genotypes of the parent flies.

• GGNN X ggnn 2/0 Pts.(both)

b. Indicate the genotype of F1 generation of the crosses between the parents mentioned above in ii) a.

• GgNn 1 Pt.

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c. When F1 flies were crossed with the recessive parents and indicate the F2 off spring flies and their
ratio
• Flies with grey body>normal wing: Flies with black body> vestigial wing = 3:1 3 Pts.

iii) What is operon?

• A group of genes that function as a single transcription unit. 1 Pt.

iv) Usually what is the final product of the gene?
• Poly peptide 1 Pt.

v) a. What is the reason for one of the DNA strands acts as the template in transcription?

• (Because template strand) contains promotor 1 Pt.

b. Who is the key player in translation process?

• tRNA 1 Pt.

vi) a. What is DNA probe?

• Single stranded labeled DNA 1 Pt.

b. Why DNA probes are used in gene technology?

• To identify the (single) DNA strand 1 Pt.

B i) a. What is the reason for using vectors in cloning?

• (Cloning vectors are) vehicles to carry the DNA of interest into a host 1 Pt.
b. Give two advantages in using Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs).
• Large amount of DNA can be copied (because YAC is large)
• They can be operated in the Eukaryotic system 2 Pts.

ii) What is known as STR markers used in DNA finger printing?

• Eukaryotic DNA contains some non-coding sequences

• where 2-6 base pairs are repeated tandemly (one after the another) 100-1000 times
• these are variables in induvials. 3Pts.

iii) a. Which process needed to denature the ds DNA in in PCR technology?

• heating the PCR mix to 94 / 95°C 1Pt.

b. What are the raw materials used in PCR except DNA template?

• dNTPs / deoxyribonucleotide tri phosphates.

•
Mg ++
•
taq. DNA polymerase 3 Pts.

iv) What is the goal of Cartagena protocol on biosafety?

• protect the biological diversity from the potential risks caused by GMOs /LMOs
created as a result of modern technology 1 Pt.

C i) What is community?

• A collection of populations of different species living in the same area interacting with
each other. 1 Pt.

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ii) Indicate an example for the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors.

• water / nutrients uptake by plants

• obtaining oxygen/carbon dioxide by plants any 1 Pt.

iii) What is food web?

• An interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem 1 Pt.

iv) Indicate in correct sequence, the biomes in the temperate zone, the biomes that are encountered
when a person travelling from the north pole towards equator.

• Northern coniferous forest, Temperate broad leaf forest, Temperate grass land, Chapparal 4/0 Pts.
*(order - Temperate broad leaf forest, Temperate grass land can be interchanged)

v). Give two ecosystems which can be seen in the wet zone of Sri Lanka, above 1500 m elevation.

• Tropical montane forests

• Wet patana 2 Pts.

vi) a. Give the common name of an endemic animal found in tropical wet lowland rain forests of Sri
Lanka.

• Loris 1Pt. (Scientific name not accepted)

b. What is Biodiversity Hotspot?

• The areas with a high concentration of endemic species

• facing exceptional levels of threats 2 Pts.

a. Which convention is related to the conservation of wetlands?

• Ramsar (convention) 1 Pt.

b. Indicate two sites of the above-mentioned convention, in viii) a, other than located in the
north-west of Sri Lanka.

• Bundala
• Maduganga
• Kumana any 2 Pts.

40X2.5= 100 Marks.

NB: ************(The underlined words/ terms should be in the answers) ******************

Part II

B. Essay

5. a.

1) PSI and PSII in the

2) thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast
3) Excited when the light is absorbed by the photosynthetic pigments.
4) ATP and NADPH are synthesized.
5) When photons of light strikes in the photosystems
6) Electrons in PS II
7) excited to a higher energy state.
8) These electrons are accepted by a primary electron acceptor of photo systems.

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9) Splitting of water takes place (in PS II)

10) as a result of enzyme catalyzed reactions
11) yields H+
12) O2 and
13) electrons.
14) electrons released as a result of hydrolysis
15) neutralized the excited electrons in PS II I / P680+.
16) Electrons in the primary electron acceptor of the PS II
17) travel through an electron transport chain
18) from a higher energy state to lower energy state
19) neutralize the electrons of PS I / P700+.
20) Energy released in this used to produce in ATP synthesis.
21) known as photo phosphorylation.
22) When photons of light strikes in the photosystem I electrons are excited to a higher energy state.
23) These electrons are accepted by a primary electron acceptor of photo system I
24) Electrons in the primary electron acceptor of the PS I travel through an electron transport chain
25) accepted by NADP+ / reduces NADP+
26) and forms NADPH.
27) which is catalyzed by NADP+ reductase.
28) This is known as linear electron flow.

b.

29) RuBISCO spatially separated

30) therefore, gateways for photorespiration prevented.
31) at low CO2 concentrations efficiency of CO2 fixation is improved.
32) In a dry hot climate
33) It is essential for the stomata to close to prevent water loss
34) C4 mechanism increases the efficiency of photosynthesis by concentrating CO2 in the bundle
sheath cells.
35) C4 plants exhibit better water-use efficiency.
36) RuBISCO operates in bundle sheath cells in high CO2 concentrations
37) C4 plants need small amount of RuBISCO.
38) Therefore, C4 plants have a better nitrogen-use efficiency.
37 X 4 = 148
If more than 37 points given add +2
Total 150 Marks
6.
1) Removal of water from the leaves and other aerial parts of the plant body
2) as water vapour by diffusion (is known as transpiration)
3) This water loss take place mainly though stomata, lenticels and (up to some extent) cuticle.
4) In the day time
5) air in the intercellular air spaces
6) is saturated with water vapour because they are in contact with the moist cell walls.
7) Normally air outside the plant is drier than inside.
8) Hence water potential of outside air is lower than that of inside.
9) Therefore, water vapour in the air spaces of the plant
10) diffuses down / form diffusion shells
11) its water potential gradient
12) mainly via stomata.
13) moving air swept away the vapour.
Factor affecting the rate of transpiration
14) Light intensity
15) Temperature
16) Humidity
17) Wind speed
18) Available soil water

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Light intensity
19) Stomata usually open in the light (and close in darkness)
20) With the increase of light intensity, the rate of transpiration increases.
Temperature
21) In the presence of light, the external factor which has the greatest effect on transpiration is
temperature.
22) The higher temperature, the greater the rate of evaporation of water from mesophyll cells
23) which result the greater saturation of the leaf atmosphere with water vapour.
24) At the same time, a rise in the temperature lowers the relative humidity of the air outside the leaf
25) Both events result in a steeper concentration gradient of water of water molecules from leaf to
external atmosphere.
26) The steeper this gradient is the faster the rate of diffusion/ increases the rate of transpiration
Humidity
27) Low humidity outside environment of the leaf increases transpiration
28) it makes gradient of water vapour from the moist leaf atmosphere to drier external atmosphere.
29) High humidity in external air, diffusion gradient becomes less steeper result in lower
transpiration.
Wind speed
30) Still air reduces the steepness of diffusion gradient and makes the transpiration rate low.
31) In windy conditions, flow of air sweep away the shells and increases the transpiration.
Available soil water
32) As the soil dries out, water usually binds more tightly to soil particles
33) reducing the amount of available water/ free water molecules.
34) The soil solution becomes more concentrated
35) water potential reduces.
36) This reduces the water uptake by plants
37) There is less steep water potential gradient from the soil through the plant to the atmosphere
38) Therefore, transpiration decreases.
37 X 4 = 148
If more than 37 points given add +2
Total 150 Marks

7. a.

1) Circulatory fluid in the open circulatory system is haemolymph.

2) Circulatory fluid in the closed circulatory system is blood.
3) In the open circulatory system, tissues and organs are bathed in the haemolymph.
4) In the closed circulatory system blood is restricted into vessels.
5) and separated from interstitial fluid.
6) In the open circulatory system, there is no distinction between the circulatory fluid and the
interstitial fluid surrounding cells.
7) In the closed circulatory system, tissues are separated from blood and interstitial fluid.
8) In the open circulatory system, chemical exchange occurs directly between the haemolymph and
body cells.
9) In the closed circulatory system, chemical exchange occurs between the blood and interstitial
fluid.
10) then between interstitial fluid and body cells.
11) In the open circulatory system, heart pumps haemolymph into the spaces which surround body
tissues.

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12) In the closed circulatory system, blood is pumped by the heart/s into large vessels and then
small vessels and capillaries.
13) In the open circulatory system, there is no blood capillaries.
14) In the closed circulatory system, there are blood capillaries.

b.

15) Gas exchange at the alveoli and in the tissues is a continuous process.
16) It requires transport of O2 from the lungs to the blood and
17) movement of CO2 from the blood
18) referred to as external respiration.
19) and movement of O2 from blood to the tissues and
20) CO2 from tissues to the blood
21) referred to as internal respiration.
22) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 requires
23) partial pressure gradients
24) between the alveolar air and the lungs during external respiration and
25) blood and tissues during internal respiration.
26) During inhalation, fresh air mixes with the stale air in the lungs.
27) This mixture in the lungs has a higher partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) and lower partial
pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2).
28) than the blood of alveolar capillaries.
29) There is thus a concentration gradient favoring the diffusion of these two gases in opposite
directions.
30) Net diffusion of O2 takes place from the alveoli air to the blood and
31) Net diffusion of CO2 takes place from the blood and to the alveoli air.
32) When O2 molecules diffuses into the blood capillaries they bind to haemoglobin in the red blood
cells
33) reversibly
34) and form oxyhaemoglobin / Hb + 4O2 HbO8
35) When blood leaves the alveolar capillaries the oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressure are in
equilibrium with those of alveoli air.
36) Blood reaching the tissue in the systemic capillaries have a higher pO2 and
37) and lower pCO2 than the tissues.
38) These partial pressure gradients
39) result in the net diffusion O2 from the blood stream into the tissue and
40) CO2 diffusion from the cells into the blood stream (across the extra cellular fluid).

any37 X 4 = 148

If more than 37 points given add +2

Total 150 Marks

8. a. 1) When a neuron is at rest / not sending a signal the membrane potential is called Resting
membrane

2) It is about between – 60 and – 80mV.

the resting membrane potential is maintained by:
3) Distribution of ion concentration inside and outside of the neuron
4) In a nonconducting neuron the concentration of K + is higher inside
5) while concentration of Na+ is higher outside.
6) There are large anions / proteins and some Cl− ions inside the cell.
7) As a result, a neuron has a (net) negative charge inside and
8) a (net) positive charge outside the cell.
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9) Selective permeability to 𝐊 + , 𝐍𝐚+ 𝐢𝐨𝐧𝐬.

10) There are (leaky) K + , Na+ channels found in the membrane
11) Na+ channels allow only Na+ ions and K + channels allow only K + ions.
12) this diffuses K + , Na+ according to their concentration gradient.
13) K + channels allow net out flow of K + due to concentration gradient.
14) 𝐍𝐚+ , 𝐊 + Pump
15) which is found in the plasma membrane.
16) Transporting 3Na+ out of the cell
17) for every 2K + that transport in.
18) This pump helps to maintain Na+ and K + gradient across the membrane.
19)This pump uses ATP to actively transport these ions.
b.
20) Infertility is the inability to conceive offspring.
21) Both men and women can have reproductive defects leading to infertility.
22) The number of couples facing this problem appears to be increasing in the modern society.
23) Certain forms of infertility are treatable.
24) Hormone therapy
25) Surgery
26) Assisted reproductive technology.
27) Hormone therapy- (sometimes) can increase sperm production in infertile males and
28) egg production in infertile females.
29) The ducts in the reproductive system that are formed improperly or
30) blocked can be corrected surgically to resolve infertility.
31) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
32) Removal of oocyte(s) from a female ovary and obtaining sperm from a male
33) to achieve the fertilization under laboratory conditions.
34) The fertilized eggs are incubated until they reach at least 8 cells
35) and then these embryos are transferred of the woman’s uterus for implantation.
36) Conventional IVF needs between 50-100thousands of sperms from the male per one oocyte.
37) Acrosome reaction has to be takesplace.
38) ICSI / Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
39) used to address male infertility
40) A whole sperm / spermatid nucleus
41) is injected directly into the cytoplasm of an oocyte that has been removed from the woman’s
ovary.
42) The fertilized egg can then be returned to the woman’s uterus for implantation.

any 37 X 4 = 148
If more than 37 points given add +2

Total 150 Marks

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9. a.

1) Changes in the number of chromosomes is known as chromosome mutations / aberrations

2) Since many genes are involved, most of the chromosomal mutations are lethal/cause
abortions/miscarriages.
3) Beneficial chromosomal mutations are extremely rare.
4) also brings about various developmental disorders.
5) When there is one more or one less chromosome in a cell
6) to the normal number to the cell
7) known as aneuploidy.
8) Here ploidy level is not changed.
9) aneuploidy is resulted in by mistakes in meiosis.
10) Occurs due to sets of chromosomes do not separate in meiosis I / anaphase I
11) such abnormalities can take place also in mitosis.
12) known as nondisjunction
13) When a gamete/ daughter cell contains with one less or more chromosome.
14) That is 2n+1 or 2n-1
15) 2n-1is monosomy
16) e. g:- Turnor syndrome
17) 2n+1is trisomy
18) e. g:- Down syndrome / Klinefelter syndrome
19) Set of chromosomes are present in excess
20) known as polyploidy.
21) e. g:- Triploid / Tetraploid / Hexaploid etc.
22) Polyploids are rather normal compared to aneuploids.
23) Polyploids maintain the genetic balance.
24) Whereas genetic balance is lost in aneuploids.

b. Mangrove ecosystem in Sri Lanka

25) Vegetations that covers fringes of the lagoons and estuaries.

26) They share characteristics usually of saline / brackish water.
27) Losse soil/ anoxic conditions/ vegetation is also exposed to intense sunlight.
Two types
28) True mangroves
29) occur towards the boundary between sea and land
30) e. g:- Kadol / Kandal
31) Mangrove associates
32) occur more toward inland.
33) e. g:- Golden leather fern / Holy mangrove
34) They have thick cuticle to reflect sun rays / cut off excess radiation
35) Some have salt glans to secrete excess salt.
36) There are special roots to intake atmospheric oxygen.
37) viviparity
38) A unique habitat for many mollusks and crustaceans.
39) Foun in - Puttalam/ Batticaloa/Trincomalee/Galle/ Bentota/ Negombo.
any 37 X 4 = 148
If more than 37 points given add +2
Total 150 Marks

10.

a. Ribs

1) 12 pairs of ribs form the lateral walls of the thoracic cage.

2) They are elongated curved bones.
3) They articulate posteriorly with the thoracic vertebrae (of the vertebral column).
4) 7 pairs of ribs articulate with the sternum

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5) They are true ribs.

6) Next 3 pairs / 8,9,10 pairs articulate with sternum indirectly.
7) In both cases / 7,8,9,10 (pairs of ribs) coastal cartilages attach the ribs to the sternum.
8) The lowest 2 pairs do not join the sternum.
9) They are floating ribs.
10) Head of the rib articulates with vertebral bodies
11) facets of the of tubercle articulate with transverse process of vertebrae.
12) Ribs participates in breathing.
13) Between each rib intercoastal muscles which move the rib cage during breathing.
14) The first rib is firmly fixed to the sternum and to the first thoracic vertebrae.
15) Therefore, it does not move during inspiration.
16) Because of this fixed point when the intercoastal muscle contract they pull the entire rib cage
upwards towards (the first ribs).
17) Protects lungs and heart.

b. Inbreeding

1)The breeding among genetically similar individuals (are known as inbreeding)

2)Among plant breeders the term “inbreeding” is commonly used tom mean self-fertilization.
3)The fertilization of a flower with its own pollen or
4)with pollen from a different flower on the same plant.
5)This is done to produce an inbred variety/ exactly the same generation after generation.
6)e. g: - Wheat / Oats / Barly / Tobacco
7)In animal breeding the term “inbreeding” is used to refer the mating of closely related
individuals.
8) e. g: - the mating of father and daughter, brother and sister, or cousins.
9) Inbreeding increases homozygosis
10) and thus, exposes harmful recessive genes which would have otherwise stay hidden among
heterozygosis
11) Continued inbreeding reduces genetic fitness / inbreeding depression
12) As a result, the growth and fertility of the inbreed population would go down
13) with adverse effect on their productivity.
14) The negatively affected individuals in the progeny are removed
15) Inbreeding is used in agriculture to help accumulation of superior genes.
c. Invasive alien species
1) Plants or animals
2) whose introduction and spread outside their natural geographic range
3) threaten native biodiversity.
4) take the advantage of human disturbances in the environment to establish and spread themselves.
5) Capability to tolerate wide range of environment conditions and
6) high reproductive output
7) help them to easily and successfully expand their populations.
8) Although only small percentage of alien species become invasive and
9) they damage bio diversity.
10) They invade and alter the services and ecosystem values the introduced environment.
11) Major cause for depletion of biodiversity/ environment degradation.
12) e.g.: - Giant African land snail
13) e.g.: - Lantana / Water hyacinth / Geni grass / Salvinia.

17+15+13= 45
any 37 X 4 = 148
If more than 37 points given add +2

Total 150 Marks

NFWC Grade– 13(2023) 5th Term. October-2023 15 Biology Ans.

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MCQ -Marking scheme

Que. No Ans. No Que. No Ans. No Que. No Ans. No. Que. No Ans. No Que. No Ans. No.

1. 2 11. 3 21. 1 31. 4 41. 2

2. 3 12. 4 22. 5 32. 3 42. 4

3. 4 13. 1 23. 3 33. 4 43. 1

4. 2 14. 3 24. 2 34. 3 44. 3

5. 5 15. 5 25. 1 35. 2 45. 1

6. 3 16. 3 26. 3 36. 5 46. 1

7. 5 17. 2 27. 3 37. 3 47. 4

8 3 18. 3 28. 4 38. 3 48. 3

9. 4 19. 2 29. 2 39. 2 49. 3

10. 4 20. 3 30. 1 40. 4 50. 2

50 X 1 = 100 Marks

NFWC Grade– 13(2023) 5th Term. October-2023 16 Biology Ans.