27-07-2025

1803CMD303029250046 MD

PHYSICS

1) When a glass prims of refracting angle 60° is immersed in a liquid its angle of minimum deviation
is 30°. The critical angle of glass with respect to the liquid medium is :-

(1) 42°
(2) 45°
(3) 50°
(4) 52°

2) ACB is right-angled prism with other angles as 60° and 30°. Refractive index of the prism is 3/2
AB has thin layer of liquid on it as shown. Light falls normally on the face AC. For total internal
reflecctions, maximum refractive index of the liquid is :-

(1) 1.8
(2) 1.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 1.6

3) Figures shows the graph of angle of deviation versus refractive index of the material of
constant thin angled prisms corresponding to light rays incident at a small angle of incidence. The
prism angle and slope of the line are respectively:
(1) 4° and 2
(2) 2° and 1/2
(3) 2° and 4
(4) 4° and 4

4) A parallel beam of white light falls on a convex lens . Images of blue , red and green light are
formed on other side of the lens at distances x , y and z respectively from the optical center of the
lens. Then :

(1) x > y > z

(2) x > z > y
(3) y > z > x
(4) none of these

5) Two lenses of power + 2D and – 5D are placed in contact. Then resultant focal length of
combination will be :-

(1) – 33.3 cm
(2) + 33.3 cm
(3) – 66.6 cm
(4) + 66.6 cm

6) An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. The image is
formed on the other side of the lens at a distance :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 30 cm

7) A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal length 10 cm and an objective of focal length 4
cm. Calculate the magnification, if an object is kept at a distance of 5 cm from the objective so that
final image is formed at the least of distinct vision (20 cm) :-

(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 10
(4) 13

8) When the distance between the object and the screen is more than 4f. We can obtain image of the
object on the screen for the two positions of the lens. It is called displacement method. In one case,
the image is magnified and in the other case, it is diminished. If 9 cm and 16 cm be the sizes of the
two images, then the size of the object is:-

(1) 12 cm

(2)
(3) 7 cm
(4) 12.5 cm

9) A diverging lens with magnitude of focal length 25 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a

converging lens of magnitude of focal length 20 cm. A beam of parallel light falls on the diverging
lens. The final image formed is :

(1) real and at a distance of 40 cm from the divergent lens

(2) real and at a distance of 6 cm from the convergent lens
(3) real and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens
(4) virtual and at a distance of 40 cm from convergent lens.

10) A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eye piece of
focal length 6.25 cm, separated by a distance of 15 cm. Calculate the magnifying power of the
microscope if final image is obtained at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm) :-

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 13.51
(4) 14.2

11) An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. On the other
side of the lens, an convex mirror is placed at its focus such that the image formed by the
combination coincides with the object itself. The focal length of the convex mirror is

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 30 cm

12) A thin prism P1 with angle 4° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without
deviation. The angle of prism P2 is :-

(1) 2.6°
(2) 3°
(3) 4°
(4) 5.33°

13) A concave mirror is placed on a horizontal table with its axis directed vertically upwards. Let O
be the pole of the mirror and C its centre of curvature. A point object is placed at C. It has a real
image, also located at C. If the mirror is now filled with water, the image will be :-

(1) Real and at C

(2) Real and above C
(3) Virtual and below
(4) Real and below C
14) Green light of wavelength 5460 Å is incident on an air and glass interface. If refractive index of
glass is 1.5, the wavelength of light in glass will be :-

(1) 5460 Å
(2) 4861 Å
(3) 3640 Å
(4) 2810 Å

15)

A parallel beam of light is incident on a system of two convex lenses of focal length f1 = 20cm and f2
= 10 cm.

What should be the distance between the two lenses so that rays after refraction from both the
lenses pass undeviated ?

(1) 60 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 90 cm
(4) 40 cm

16) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of
curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed at:-

(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 10 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

17) A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The
power of the combination is :-

(1) –1.5 dioptres

(2) –6.5 dioptres
(3) +6.5 dioptres
(4) +6.67 dioptres

18) A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal
length 5 cm is focused on a distance object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from the eye
lens. If the object makes an angle of 2º at the objective, the angular width of the image is

(1) 10º
(2) 24º
(3) 50º
(4) 48º

19) An object is placed at 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Where should another
convex mirror of radius 12 cm placed from lens such that image will coincide with object

(1) 18 cm
(2) 17 cm
(3) 14 cm
(4) 20 cm

20) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3
cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again :-

(1) 1 cm upward
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 2 cm upward

21) A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam
incident normally on the face AB is totally reflecteed to reach the face BC, if :-

(1) sin θ > 8/9

(2) sin θ > 2/3
(3) 2/3 < sin θ < 8/9
(4) None

22) If the refracting angle of a prism is 60º & the minimum deviation is 30º, then the angle of
incidence is:-

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 45º
(4) 90º
23) A thin prism of angle 15º & μ = 1.5 is combined with another prism of μ = 1.75 to produce
dispersion without deviation. The angle of second prism will be :-

(1) 12º
(2) 5º
(3) 70º
(4) 10º

24) When a ray is refracted from one medium into another, the wavelength changes from 6000 Å to
4000 Å. The critical angle for a ray from the second medium will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In given Equilateral triangular prism which is condition of minimum deviation-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (d)
(4) (c), (d)

26) A planet is observed by an astronomical refracting telescope having an objective of focal length
16m and an eye-piece of focal length 2 cm then correct statement is/are :-
(i) the distance between the objective and the eye-piece is 16.02 m
(ii) the angular magnigication of the planet is 800
(iii) the image of planet is inverted
(iv) the objective is larger than the eye-piece

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii) only
(4) all

27) A compound microscope has an objective of focal lenght 2.0 cm and an eye-piece of focal length
6.25 cm and distance between the objective and eye-piece is 15 cm if the final image is formed at the
least distnace of distinct vision (25 cm), the distnace of the object from the objective is :-

(1) 1.5 cm
(2) 2.5 cm
(3) 3.0 cm
(4) 4.0 cm

28) Calculate velocity of image :-

(1)
cm/s

(2)
cm/s
(3) 8 cm/s
(4) 40 cm/s

29) There is a glass slab of refractive index 2 there is a bubble inside it when it is seen from left
bubble appear at 12 cm and when seen through right bubble seen at 8 cm what is thickness of slab:-

(1) 40 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 60 cm

30) The distance of final image from 3rd lens is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) infinite
(3) 45 cm
(4) 30 cm

31) A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths 0.3 m and 3 cm, respectively. It is focused
on Moon which subtends an angle of 0.5° at the objective. Then, the angle subtended at the eye by
the final image will be :-
(1) 5°
(2) 0.25°
(3) 0.5°
(4) 0.35°

32) The position of final image from 2nd lens :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 80 cm

33) A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm
respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a
distance :-

(1) 44 cm
(2) 46.0 cm
(3) 50.0 cm
(4) 54.0 cm

34) Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations :

and

.
Their amplitudes are in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) None of the above

35) Two particles execute simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude and frequency along the
same straight line. They pass one another when going in opposite directions and each time their
displacement is half the amplitude. The phase difference between them is :–

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

36) Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is x = A sin .Time taken by the

particle to go directly from x = – to x = + is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) On suspending a mass M from a spring the period of oscillations is T it is cut into n equal

segment on suspending the mass M from one of the segments the time period become then the
value of n will be :-

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

38) A particle executes SHM of period 8 seconds. After what time of its passing through mean
position will the energy be half kinetic and half potential.

(1) 2 sec
(2) 1 sec
(3) 2.5 sec
(4) 4 sec

39) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following , choose the wrong

statement about particle velocity-

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity.

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity.
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity.
(4) Points A and B have upwards positive velocity.
40) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium y1 = 5 sin
2π (75t –0.25x), y2 = 10 sin 2π (150t – 0.50x). The intensity ratio I1/I2 of the two waves is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

41) In a gaseous medium, on increasing temperature by 800 K, speed of sound becomes times of
initial then initial temperature of medium in °C is:-

(1) 27°C
(2) 300°C
(3) –73°C
(4) 73°C

42) According to newton, prapagation of sound in air is __________

(1) Isothermal process

(2) Adiabatic process
(3) Isobaric process
(4) Isochoric process

43) Find ratio of velocity of sound in H2 & O2 at same temperature :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/s with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little
wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces
2 beats/s. The frequency of the unknown fork is-

(1) 286 cps

(2) 292 cps
(3) 294 cps
(4) 288 cps

45) Two vibrating tuning forks producing progressive waves given by :

y1 = 4 sin (500πt) and y2 = 2 sin (506πt)
are held near the ear of a person. The person will hear :-

(1) 3 beats per second with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9
(2) 3 beats per second with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 2
(3) 6 beats per second with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 2
(4) 6 beats per second with intensity ratio between maxima and minima equal to 9

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is correct order of cyrstal field splitting.

(1) C–donor > N–donor > O–donor

(2) N–donor > O–donor > C–donor
(3) C–donor > O–donor > N–donor
(4) O–donor > N–donor > C–donor

2) Which of the following anions are identified by dil. H2SO4 ?

(i) (ii) (iii)
(iv) (v) I⊖ (vi)

(1)

(2) , I⊖,
(3)
(4)

3) Identify the facial (fac) and meridional (mer) isomers from the following.

(1) mer- mer-

(2) fac-fac-
(3) mer-fac-
(4) fac-mer-

4) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

5) What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H2O)6] Cl3 (violet) and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2. H2O
(greyishgreen)?

(1) Linkage isomerism

(2) Solvate isomerism
(3) Ionization isomerism
(4) Coordination isomerism

6) Total number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine)

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

7) What is electronic arrangement of metal atom/ion in octahedral complex with d4 configuration, if

Δ0 < pairing energy.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) [Co(NH3)3(NH2)3], How many geometrical isomers show above complex ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 9

9) 1 L of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as one litre of CO2. Then the molecular formula of the
hydrocarbon is :-

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

10) An inorganic salt gives colourless, pungent smelling gas, when reacted with conc. H2SO4. The
evolved pungent smelling gas gives dense white fumes with a glass rod dipped in NH4OH. The anion
of salt may be

2–
(1) CO3
–
(2) NO3
(3) Br–
(4) Cl–

11) The acidic solution of a salt produced a deep blue colour with starch iodide solution. The salt
may be

(1) chloride
(2) nitrite
(3) acetate
(4) bromide

12) What weight of 95% CaCO3 will be required to produce 11.2 litre CO2 :-

(1) 50 g
(2) 100 g
(3) 52.6 g
(4) 25 g

13) Which of the following cationic radical give green ppt. with NH4OH + NH4Cl :

(1) Al+3
(2) Sb+3
(3) Cu+2
(4) Cr+3

14) What is the formula of the reddish brown ppt. formed in test for ion using Nesslar’s reagent ?

(1) K2HgI4
(2) NH2–Hg–I
(3) NH2–Hg–OHg–I
(4) NH2–O–Hg–HgI

15) 5.6 mL of a gaseous substance weigh 20 mg at NTP. The substance is :-

(1) CH4
(2) SO3
(3) N2O4
(4) PH3

16) A complex has magnetic moment 1.73 B.M. Which of the following configuration of metal ion is
not possible ?

(1) d7 octahedral, low spin

(2) d5 octahedral, low spin
(3) d8 square planar
(4) d9 tetrahedral
17) For the reaction; 5 mole of A and 8 mole of B will produce :

(1) 5 mole of C
(2) 4 mole of C
(3) 8 mole of C
(4) 13 mole of C

18) Given below are two statement:

Statement (I) : Kjeldahl method is applicable to estimate nitrogen in pyridine.
Statement (II) The nitrogen present in pyridine can easily be converted into ammonium sulphate in
Kjeldahl method.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II is true.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

19) Which of following pair represents linkage isomers?

(1) [Pd(PPh3)2(NCS)2] and [Pd(PPh3)2(SCN)2]

(2) [Co(NH3)5NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3
(3) [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
(4) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4]

20) Few drops of HNO3 are added to group-II before proceeding to group-III in order to :

(1) convert Fe2+ to Fe3+

(2) convert Fe3+ to Fe2+
(3) ppt. group III
(4) None of these

21)

Find the total number of acidic radical which produce volatile product with dil. HCl :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

22) The ratio of masses of an element A attached with the fixed mass of another element B in their
two compounds is 2 : 3. If 48 mass of A is attached with 24 mass of B in first compound then what
mass of A is attached with the 12 mass of B in the second compound ?

(1) 72
(2) 36
(3) 24
(4) 12

23) In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of

nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage compostion of
nitrogen in the compound would be : (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

(1) 15.45
(2) 16.45
(3) 17.45
(4) 14.45

24) Chromyl chloride test is valid of -

(1) NaCl
(2) AuCl3
(3) AgCl
(4) PtCl2

25) Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing
group number from 0 to VI.
A. Al3+ B. Cu2+
C. Ba2+ D. Co2+
2+
E. Mg
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, A, D, C, E
(2) B, C, A, D, E
(3) E, C, D, B, A
(4) E, A, B, C, D

26) What number of moles of O2 is needed to produce 14.2 g of P4O10 from P?

(Molecular weight P4O10 = 284) :-

(1) 0.0500 mole

(2) 0.125 mole
(3) 0.250 mole
(4) 0.500 mole

27) Air contains 20% O2 by volume. How much volume of air will be required for combustion of 100
cc of acetylene?

(1) 500 cc
(2) 1064 cc
(3) 212.8 cc
(4) 1250 cc

28)

Which is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution

(1) Cl–
2–
(2) SO4
–
(3) NO3
2–
(4) CO3

29) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]2+ shows two geometrical isomers cis and trans. Which of the following
statements is correct ?

(1) Only trans-isomer will show optical isomerism.

(2) Only cis-isomer will show optical isomerism.
(3) Both trans and cis-isomers will show optical isomerism.
(4) Neither cis nor trans-isomer will show optical isomerism.

30) Assertion : In the group II, the function of HCl is to decrease the concentration of S–2 ions.
Reason : This decrease in the concentration of S–2 is due to odd ion effect of H+.

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct for the Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct for the Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion and Reason are incorrect

31) Nitric acid (HNO3) is 1.6% H, 22.2%N and 76.2% O by mass. All pure samples of HNO3 have this
composition, according to the

(1) Law of multiple proportions

(2) Law of reciprocal proportions
(3) Law of definite proportions
(4) Law of conservation of mass

32) Which of the following anions will give same colour of gas ?

(1) , I⊖
(2) , CH3COO–
(3) , Br⊖, I⊖
(4) , Br⊖

33) Limiting reagent is one which is :-

(1) Consumed first in reaction

(2) Always minimum in mass
(3) Always minimum in mole
(4) None of these

34) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

3– 3+
(1) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are paramagnetic complexes.
3– 3+
(2) [CoF6] and [Co(NH3)6] both are high spin complexes.
3– 3+
(3) [CoF6] is octahedral while [Co(NH3)6] has a pentagonal pyramid shape.
3– 3+
(4) [CoF6] is outer orbital complex while [Co(NH3)6] is inner orbital complex.

35) When 1L of CO2 is heated with graphite, the volume of the gases collected is 1.5 L. Calculate the
number of moles of CO produced at S.T.P.:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Which of following can show optical isomerism

(1) CuSO4 . 5H2O

(2) K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3

37) Which of the following cation gives ppt in two groups during group analysis -

(1) Hg+2
(2) Pb+2
(3) Cu+2
(4) Ag+

38) Why acidic radicals is tested before basic radicals ?

(1) Some interfering ions give basic radical test

(2) Some interfering ions give acid radical test
(3) Basic radical test can also be performed first
(4) Due to the presence of H+ in the solution

39) Assertion : Transition metal ion forming octahedral complexes undergo sp3d2 or
d2sp3 hybridisation.
Reason : Strong field ligands force the unpaired electrons of central metal ion to pair up causing
d2sp3 hybridisation whereas weak field ligands do not affect electronic configuration of the metal ion
undergoes in sp3d2 hybridisation.

(1) If assertion is true but the reason is false

(2) If assertion is false but reason is true
(3) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

40) Consider the following statements and select the correct option using the codes given.
(i) [Cr(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)4(CN)2]
[Cr(NH3)2(CN)4] are coordination isomers.
(ii) [Cr(py)2(H2O)2Cl2]Cl and
[Cr(py)2(H2O)Cl3]H2O are linkage isomers.
(iii) [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 and [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 are linkage isomers.
(iv) [NiCl2(PPh3)2] (tetrahedral) exhibits geometrical isomerism.

(1) (i) only

(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only

41) Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of :

(1) Ist group

(2) IInd group
(3) IIIrd group
(4) IVth group

42) Which of the following ion gives a suffocating gas when treated with dilute HCl ?

(1) Carbonate
(2) Sulphite
(3) Sulphate
(4) Borate

43) Assertion : Volume occupied by 1 mol of H2O(l) is equal to 22400 mL at NTP.

Reason : 1 mole of any substance occupies a volume of 22.4 L at NTP.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) Match the following column

Column-I Column-II
 i Empirical formula a The reactant, which get consumed first

The simplest whole number ratio of various

ii Molecular formula b
atoms

The exact number of different types of atoms

iii Limiting reagent c
present in a molecule

The mass of one mole of a substance in

iv Molar mass d
grams
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)

45) A gaseous mixture contain C3H8, CH4 and CO. Mixture contain 30% by volume C3H8. When 100
ml of mixture is burnt in excess of O2, the volume of CO2 produced is :-

(1) 160 ml
(2) 140 ml
(3) 90 ml
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY

1) The blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding
and non-coding sequence, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions is
termed as

(1) Bioinformatics
(2) Sequence annotation
(3) EST approach
(4) Annotation of introns only

2) In human genome single nuclotide polymorphism (SNPs) have identified about :

(1) 1.4 billion locations

(2) 2.4 million locations
(3) 2.4 billion locations
(4) 1.4 million locations

3) For complete oxidation of one acetyl Co-A. How many oxygen atoms are required

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3
4) 'Since there are only 4 bases and if they have to code for 20 amino acids, the code should
constitute a combination of bases'. - This argument was given by

(1) George Gamow

(2) Har Gobind Khorana
(3) Marshall Nirengberg
(4) Koren berg

5) There will be some "untranslated regions (UTR)" in the mRNA that help in affectively carrying out
the process of translation. They are present at?

(1) Only 5’ end of mRNA.

(2) Only 3’ end of RNA
(3) Just before start codon and just after stop codon.
(4) Just before 5’ and just after 3’ ends.

6) Suppose evolution on earth has occurred in such a way that there are 96 amino acids instead of
20. DNA has 12 different types of bases and DNA syn-thesis occur in the same way as today. The
mini-mum number of bases per DNA condon would be

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 3

7) If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5' A T G C A T C G 3' find the sequence of complementary
strand in 5' → 3' direction

(1) T A C G T A G C
(2) C G A T G C A T
(3) A T G C A T C G
(4) A T C G T A C G

8) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

(1) 3-PGAL (A) SLP

(2) PEP (B) Isomerisation

(3) 2nd step (C) Dehydrogenation

(1) 1-(B), 2-(A), 3-(C)
(2) 1-(A), 2-(B), 3-(C)
(3) 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(B)
(4) 1-(C), 2-(B), 3-(A)

9) The genetic code is called a degenerate code because

(1) One codon has many meanings
(2) More than one codon has the same meaning
(3) One codon has one meaning
(4) There are 64 codons present

10) In capping of hnRNA, an unusual nucleotide called __(A)__ is added to 5'-end. In tailing,
adenylate residues of __(B)__ bases are added to 3'-end of hnRNA in __(C)__ manner :-

A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,

(1)
B = 2000-3000, C = Template-independent
A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,
(2)
B = 200-300, C = Template dependent
A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,
(3)
B = 200-300, C = Template-independent
A = Poly(A)polymerase,
(4)
B = 200-300, C = Template-independent

11) How many of the following 3C compound

3-PGA, 1,3-BiPGA, PEPA, α-Ketoglutaric acid, Succinic acid, Acetyl Co-A, DHAP

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 3

12) In an [Link] strain, i gene get muted and its product can't bind with operator then what will be
the outcome ?

(1) z, y, a genes will not be transcribed

(2) z, y, a genes will not be translated
(3) only z gene will not be transcribed
(4) RNA polymerase will bind the promotor

13) Which one is correctly matched :-

(1) SnRNA → Splicing

(2) RNA polymerase → Splicing
(3) Okazaki fregment → transcription
(4) Cistron → Non coding part

14) Given diagram is the representation of a certain event or stage of protein synthesis, identify this
stage
(1) Termination of translation process in bacteria
(2) Termination of transcription process in eukaryotes
(3) Termination of transcription process in bacteria
(4) Termination of translation process in eukaryotes

15)

Read the following statements :-

(i) Eukaryotic gene is split-gene as along with exons, introns are also present
(ii) The split gene arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of eukaryotic genome
(iii) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity in eukaryotes
(iv) The process of splicing suggest the dominance of RNA-world

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (iii), (iv) only

16) Assertion: The Lac operon is induced in the presence of lactose.

Reason: Lactose binds to the repressor protein, making it inactive and allowing transcription of
structural genes to proceed.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

17) Find the correct statement :-

(1) Sigma factor is essential for RNA polymerase to recognize the promoter in prokaryotic cells.
(2) Ribosome moves from 3' to 5' on the DNA template during replication.
(3) The promoter region is located downstream of the transcription start site.
(4) In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase-II transcribes rRNA.

18) Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the option that correctly identifies the parts of
A, B and C
 A B C

(1) DNA Histone octamer H1 histone

(2) Histone octamer H1 histone H1 histone

(3) Histone octamer DNA H1 histone

(4) DNA H1 histone Histone octamer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Which of the following statement is not true ?

(1) Hallmark of Watson & Crick Model of DNA was base pairing between the two strands.
(2) In RNA uracil occurs in place of 5-methyl uracil
(3) DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Fredrick Griffith in 1869
In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2' position in the
(4)
ribose

20) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) The methods used in HGP are ESTs and sequence annotation
(2) The fragment were sequenced using automated DNA sequences during HGP
(3) The commonly used vectors were BAC, YAC and bacteriophage in HGP
(4) Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231)

21) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The chemical method developed by Har Gobind Khorana was instrumental in
synthesising RNA molecules with defined combinations of bases (homopolymers and copolymers).
Statement II: Severo Ochoa enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) was helpful in polymerising RNA
with random sequences in a template dependent manner.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

22) Recognise the following figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) 1 - inducer, 2 - repressor, 4 - in absence of inducer, 3 - in presence of inducer

(2) 2 - inducer, 1 - repressor, 3 - in absence of inducer, 4 - in presence of inducer
(3) 2 - inducer, 1 - repressor, 4 - in absence of inducer, 3 - in presence of inducer
(4) 1 - inducer, 2 - repressor, 3 - in absence of inducer, 4 - in presence of inducer

23) Below diagram shows the utilisation of different respiratory substrates. Identify A, B, C and D.

A B C D
 Fru
Glyceral
ctose-6- Fatty Pyruvic
(1) dehyde-3-phos
pho acid acid
phate
sphate

Fatty Acetyl-
(2) Glycerol DHAP
acid CoA

Fatty Acetyl-
(3) Glycerol DHAP
acid CoA

Glycolic Pyruvic Acetyl-

(4) Glycerol
acid acid CoA
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 3

24) Choose correct statement with regard with efficiency of DNA polymerase

(1) 4.6 × 106 bp of E. coli replicate within 46 minutes

(2) The average rate of polymerization of DNA polymerase has to be approximately 2000 bp/minute
(3) The polymerization accuracy is very high and very fast
(4) All of these

25) The average rate of DNA polymerisation in prokaryotes ([Link]) is:

(1) 10,000 bp/sec

(2) 4,000 bp/sec
(3) 200 bp/sec
(4) 2,000 bp/sec

26) Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material came from experiments of

(1) Avery, Macleod & McCarty

(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
(4) Sutton and Boveri

27) During polymerisation of deoxyribonucleosides triphosphates in bacteria which of the following

enzyme is mainly required?

(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) DNA gyrase

28) During replication of DNA, deoxynucleotides are added one by one in 5' to 3' direction by
phosphodiester bond formation. In this process of polymerisation, the source of energy is :-
(1) ATPs
(2) GTPs
(3) dNTPs
(4) NADH2

29) Which RNA polymerase is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5SrRNA, and snRNAs in
eukaryotes?

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) Only III
(4) Only II

30) Read the following statements & select the correct option?
(A) RNA was the first genetic material
(B) 5 - methyl uracil is found in DNA.
(C) DNA being double stranded and having complementary base pairing resist changes by evolving a
process of repair. (D) DNA polymerase does not require RNA primer

(1) A,B and C

(2) A,B,C,D
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only A

31) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replications in prokaryotes.

The DNA - dependent DNA polymerase catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5' →
(1)
3'
(2) On template with polarity 5' → 3' the replication is continuous
(3) On template with polarity 3' → 5' the replication is discontinuous.
(4) The DNA dependent DNA polymerase can initiate the process of replications.

32)

Predict the nucleotide sequence according to the sequence of amino acids provided below :-
Met - Phe - Phe - Phe - Phe

(1) 5'AUG UUU UUU UUU UUU 3'

(2) 5'AUG UUU UUC UUC UUU 3'
(3) 5'AUG UUC UUU UUC UUU 3'
(4) All of the above are possible

33) The salient features of genetic code are :

(A) The code is palindromic.
(B) UGA act as initiator codon.
(C) The code is unambiguous and specific.
(D) The code is nearly universal.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A and B only

(2) C and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) B and C only

34) Choose incorrect statement for RNA-

(1) Was first genetic material

(2) Acts as catalyst too
(3) Is more stable than DNA
(4) Has protein synthesizing mechanism built around it

35) Match the following column I with column II and choose the correct answer

Column I Column II

a. AUG i. Tryptophan

b. UAG ii. Phenyl alanine

c. UGG iii. Initiator codon

d. UUU iv. Stop codon

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

36) Experiment on Vicia faba involved use of

(1) Radioactive uridine

(2) Radioactive thymidine
(3) Radioactive adenosine
(4) Radioactive cytidine

37) Statement-I: On one strand (the template with polarity 3'→5'), the replication is continuous,
while on the other (the template with polarity 5'→3'), it is discontinuous during replication.
Statement-II: The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA
ligase during replication.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

38) Given diagram represent the component of a transcription unit. Select the correct answer
regarding it:

A B C D

Template Coding
(1) Terminator Promoter
strand strand

Coding Template
(2) Promoter Terminator
strand strand

Template Coding
(3) Promoter Terminator
strand strand

Coding Template
(4) Terminator Promoter
strand strand
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :

(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene

(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

40) Which of the following diagram correctly represents the replication of DNA :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

41) Statement-I : Introns are removed from the primary transcript during RNA splicing.
Statement-II : Splicing occurs in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

42) (A) The experiments which proved that DNA in chromosome also replicate semiconservatively
was performed on ____i____ .
(B) Genetic material should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for ____ii____
(C) In DNA plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix confer additional ____iii____
to the helical structure.
(D) An acidic substance present in nucleus was named ____iv____ by Friedrich meischer.

I II III IV

(1) Vicia faba Evolution Stability Nuclein

(2) Entamoeba coli Stability Flexibility Nucleic acid

(3) Escherichia coli Evolution Stability Nuclein

(4) Vicia faba Mutation Flexibility Nucleic acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Which of the following enzymes used in fermentation process (Alcoholic)

(1) Pyruvate dikinase

(2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(3) Pyruvate decorboxylase
(4) All of the above

44) Match the following Columns and choose the correct option

Column - I Column - II

a. RNA polymerase I i. hnRNA

b. RNA polymerase II ii. 23S rRNA

c. RNA polymerase III iii. 18S rRNA

 d. Ribozyme iv. tRNA
(1) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d (iv)
(2) a (iv), b (i), c (iii), d (ii)
(3) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
(4) a (i), b (iii), c (iv), d (ii)

45) What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5' TEMPLATE
5'TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING

(1) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'

(2) 5'-UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'
(3) 3'-UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
(4) 5'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'

46) A patient complaining of ache in the abdomen visited the doctor. The doctor following observed
signs
I. Internal bleeding
II. Fever
III. Muscular pain
IV. Anemia
V. Blockage of intestinal passage
The patient is most likely suffering from

(1) Filariasis
(2) Amoebic dysentery
(3) Ringworm
(4) Ascariasis

47) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of body such as skin, nails and scalp indicate
infection by all except

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Epidermophyton

48) Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) Spread of chikungunya cannot be controlled by introduction of Gambusia in local water bodies
(2) Lymphatic vessels are blocked by infection of Wuchereria
Vaccines have enabled us to control the spread of polio, diphtheria and pneumonia to a large
(3)
extent.
(4) Gametes formed in the life cycle of Plasmodium fuse in mosquitoes gut

49) Select the incorrect statement among following.

(1) Healthy conditions decrease longevity of people and reduce maternal and infant mortality
(2) Health does not simply imply 'absence of disease'
(3) When people are healthy, they are more efficient at work
(4) Health can be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well being

50) Cases of people suffering from acquired immunodeficiency syndrome were first reported in

(1) 1983
(2) 1981
(3) 1951
(4) 1971

51) Method/Technique utilizing X-rays to generate three dimensional image of the internal organs of
an object is

(1) MRI
(2) ELISA
(3) Computed tomography
(4) Biopsy

52) Which of the following organ act as filter of blood by trapping blood borne microorganisms?

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Liver
(3) Spleen
(4) Thymus

53) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement-A : Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast
cells.
Statement-B : The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids, quickly reduce the
symptoms of allergy.

(1) Both statement A and B are incorrect

(2) Both statement A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

54) Select the 'X' to complete the analogy

Immature lymphocytes : Differentiate into antigen specific lymphocytes in primary lymphoid
organs.
Mature lymphocytes : Undergo proliferation and differentiation in 'X'.

(1) Primary lymphoid organ

(2) Secondary lymphoid organ
(3) Bone marrow
(4) Thymus

55) Highest density of opioid receptors in our body exist in

(1) CNS and GIT

(2) GIT and cardio vascular system
(3) GIT only
(4) Cardio vascular and respiratory system

56) Body builders usually abuse steroids to enhance their performance but it also results in following
adverse effects except

(1) Enlargement of breast

(2) Facial acne
(3) Premature baldness
(4) Overproduction of sperms

57) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) MALT constitute- 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body

(2) Spleen is a large reservoir of erythrocytes
(3) Lymph nodes trap antibodies and are responsible for activation of antigens
(4) Thymus keeps reducing in size with age

58) Which of the following is the common feature shared by benzodiazepines and barbiturates?

(1) Stimulants
(2) Medicine for insomnia
(3) Snorted
(4) Pain relievers

59) Match drugs in column I with their source in column II and choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II
(I) Cocaine (a) Cannabis sativa
(II) Charas (b) Papaver somniferum
(III) Morphine (c) Erythroxylum coca
Options :
I II III
(1) c a b
(2) c b a
(3) b a c
(4) a b c
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) .4

60) Which of the following drug is very effective sedative and painkiller and is very useful in patients
who have undergone surgery?

(1) Hashish
(2) Morphine
(3) Amphetamine
(4) Barbiturate

61) Which of the following is not true for acquired immunity?

(1) Specific in nature

(2) Found in vertebrates
(3) Characterised by memory
(4) Involve all nucleated leukocytes

62) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. interferon.

(1) They are proteins

(2) They are classified as cytokines
(3) Secreted by non-virus infected cells to protect themselves
(4) Secreted by virus infected cells to protect the non-infected cells from viral infection

63) Physiological barrier that prevent microbial growth exclude

(1) Acid in stomach

(2) Saliva in mouth
(3) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the urinogenital tract
(4) Tears in eyes

64) Primary exposure to antigenic proteins of the pathogen may result in the production of all
except

(1) Antibodies
(2) B-memory cells
(3) T-memory cells
(4) Acid in stomach
65) How many of the drugs in a box belong to the structure given below?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

66) Study of history of life forms on earth is known as:

(1) Ecology
(2) Evolutionary biology
(3) Gastrulation
(4) None of these

67) In juxtamedullary nephrons,

(1) vasa recta is prominent

(2) loop of Henle is long
(3) loop of Henle runs deep into the medulla
(4) All of the above

68) Which of the following are uricotelic animals

(1) Rohu and frog

(2) Lizard and crow
(3) Camel and frog
(4) Earthworm and eagle

69) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

70) How many of the following originate from Psilophyton:

Gnetales, Conifers, Ginkgos, Ferns, Horsetails, Progymnosperms, Zoosterophyllun.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Seven

71) When more individuals acquire mean character value, the type of natural selection is:

(1) stabilizing selection

(2) directional change
(3) disruptive selection
(4) None of these

72) Which of the following factor do not influence Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Genetic recombination
(3) Random mating
(4) Natural selection

73) Find out wrong statement w.r.t. human evolution:

(1) About 15mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing
(2) Few fossils discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania revealed hominid features
(3) 2 mya Australopithecines probably present in West African grasslands.
(4) Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc.

74) For the MN Blood group system, the frequencies of M and N alleles are 0.6 & 0.4 respectively.
The expanded frequency of MN-Blood group bearing organisms is likely to be:

(1) 42%
(2) 48 %
(3) 24 %
(4) 36%

75) Adaptive radiation is a type of

(1) speciation
(2) Isolation
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Divergent evolution

76) Select the wrong statement:

(1) Mendel had talked of inheritable factors influencing phenotype.

(2) Hugo de vries worked on evening primrose
(3) Mutations are random & directional
(4) Single step large mutation is called saltation
77) Select the correct statement :

(1) Jawless fish probably evolved around 320 mya.

(2) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates were formed and active.
(3) First organisms that invaded land were animals.
(4) Lobefins evolved into the first reptiles.

78) Assertion : Thorns and tendrils of Cucurbita and Bougainvillea represent homology
respectively.
Reason : Homologous organs have similar functions but are different in their structural details and
origin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

79) Assertion : Neanderthal man is the intermediate between Ramapithecus and Homo erectus.
Reason : Neanderthal man, with brain size of 800 c.c., used hides to protect their body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

80) Consider the following four statements (A-D) & select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(A) All living organisms that we see, today were created as such according to convention religious
literature
(B) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also according
to convention religious literature
(C) Unit of life called Panspermia were transfered to differnt planet including earth
(D) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes from killed yeast

(1) Statements A, B & C

(2) Statements A & B
(3) Statements C & D
(4) Statements A, B & D

81) Consider the following statements and select the option with all correct statements :-
(A) Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
(B) Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1650 c.c. used hides and buried their deads.
(C) Homo habilis was the first human like hominid with brain capacities 650-800 c.c. and probably
did not eat meat.
(D) The skull of adult chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than baby chimpanzee skull
(E) Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races.
(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B, C and E
(3) A, C and E
(4) A, C, D and E

82) How many of the following develops as a result of divergent evolution i.e. the same structure
developed along different directions due to adaptation to different needs?
(A) Sweet potato and potato.
(B) Heart of fish, frog and birds.
(C) Flippers of penguin and dolphin.
(D) Wings of bat and flippers of whale.
(E) Eyes of octopus and mammals.
(F) Sting of honey bee and scorpion.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

83) The following diagrammatic representation shows which type of natural selection.

(1) Directional selection

(2) Stabilising selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) None of these

84) Read the following A-D four statements :-

(A) First mammals were like shrews.
(B) When South America joined North America, South American animals were over ridden by North
America fauna.
(C) Pouched mammals of Australia survived because of lack of competition from any other mammal.
(D) About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.
How many of the above statement are correct.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

85) Mark the incorrect statement regarding genetic drift ?

(1) Random change in allelic frequencies that occurs by chance.

(2) Fixes or eliminates genes in gene pool irrespective of their adaptive value.
Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so different in the new sample of population that
(3)
they become a different species.
(4) It is the only evolutionary agent that produces adaptive evolutionary changes.

86) The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is.

(1) Mutation
(2) Reproductive isolation
(3) Speciation
(4) Natural selection

87) Read four statements (a-d) given below :

(a) Analogy indicates common ancestry.
(b) Homology is based on divergent evolution.
(c) Fitness and natural selection are the two key concepts of of Darwinian theory.
(d) Lamarck had said that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by use and disuse
of organs.
How many statements are not incorrect :

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

88) Exces use of herbicides pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much
lesser time scale. It was an example of evolution by :-

(1) Mass extinction

(2) Anthropogenic action
(3) Continental drift
(4) Both 1 and 3

89) In Galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties of finches, originated from a common
ancestor. The original variety of these finches was:-

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Vegetarian
(3) Seed-eating
(4) Cactus eating
90) A process in which heritable variation enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and
leave greater number of progeny is called :

(1) Genetic drift

(2) Natural selection
(3) Founder effect
(4) Both (1) and (3)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 3 1 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 1 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 1 2 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 2 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 4 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 4 3 2 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 3 4 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

sin ic =
ic = 45°

2) prismμliquid = i > ic
60 > ic
sin60 > sin ic

3) For small angled prism A

from graph A = 4°,

slope = A =4

4)

5)

P = P1 + P2 = +2 – 5 = –3 =
f = –33.3 cm

6)

Concept:
Image formation by Lens

Formula
 Where:

A. f = +10 cm (positive for convex lens)

B. u = – 20 cm (object is placed on the left, so negative)

Step-by-step:

Correct answer: 1) 20 cm
This means the image is formed 20 cm on the other side of the lens.

7) For objective lens

⇒ vo = 20 cm

Now M =

8) =

9) For convex lens Ι1 works as an object whose real image is

formed at a distance of 40 cm since u = 2f = 40 cm so v = 40 cm

10) f0 = 2 cm fe = 6.25 cm

ue = –5cm u0 = –2.5 cm
v0 + ue = 15

v0 = 10 cm

11)
 R = 20 cm
v = 30 cm f = 10 cm

12) For dispersion without deviation

or AF

13) Due to refraction, object will appear (to mirror) beyond C. Therefore image
will be formed between C and pole i.e. below C and it will be real.

14)

15) If image due to first lens is formed at focus of other lens, light rays will be undeviated
So, x = f1 + f2
= 20 + 10 = 30cm

16)

sin ic =
Now, 75° = r + 45°
or r = 30°

Now,

or sin i =
∴ i = 45°

17)
=

⇒ P=

18) For part MN

u = –30 cm, f = –10 cm

⇒ V = –15 cm

m=

⇒ ⇒ I = 5 cm
For image of ST,

u = –40 cm
f = –10 cm

⇒ ⇒
For length of image of ST,

m= ⇒ ⇒ I=– cm
Length of image of NT,

T'N' = 15 – cm

Length of wire in image = 5 + = 10 cm

19)

v = 30 cm

20)
Shift =

21)
Critical angle from glass to water

T.I.R. takes place on AC i.e.

> 8/9

> 8/9

22)

For min. deviation

i=

i = 45º

23)

For dispersion without deviation

0 = (μ – 1)A + (μ' –1) A'
0 = (1.5 – 1)15 + (1.75 – 1) A'
A' = 10º

24) λ1 = 6000 Å, λ2 = 4000 Å

The light is passing from medium-2 to medium-1
μ2 sin i = μ1 sin r
μ2 sin C = μ1 sin 90°

sin C = ⇒ C = sin–1 (2/3)

25) For minimum deviation light should be parallel to base of prism.

26) fO = 16 cm
fe = 2 cm = 0.02 m
(i) L = fO + fe
= 16 + 0.02 = 16.02 m

(ii) M.P. =

= = 800

27) Image by eye-piece:

ue = 5 cm
L = vO + |ue|
15 = vO + 5 ⇒ vO = 15 – 5 = 10 cm
Image by objective :

u0 = 5/2 cm = 2.5 cm

28) Question explanation : To find out velocity of image when object moving along principle
axis of a concave mirror called speed 10 cm/s.
Concept:
Speed of image is concave mirror.

Formula :
VI = – (m)2 V0

m=

Solution :
By figure

V0 = 10 cm/s

f= = = – 10 cm
u = – 15 cm.

Calculation :
 m=
⇒ m = (– 2)
VI = – (– 2)2 × 10 = 40 cm/s

Final answer : 4

Level : Moderate

29)
hac = 40 cm

30) V1 =

V2 =

31) ⇒ θi = (0.5) = 5°

32)
v = 20 cm v = 50 cm

33) Using lens formula for objective lens

0
⇒ ⇒ v = 50 cm
Tube length

34) Question is Asking About:

The question provides two equations representing simple harmonic motions and asks for the
ratio of their anplitude.

Concept:
S.H.M.

Formula:

y = A sin(wt + ϕ)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

​y1 =
y2 =
y2 =
Such that A1 = 10

A2 = 10

1:1

Hence, option (4) is correct.

Level : Medium

35) 1. Problem Explanation

Two particles performing SHM with the same amplitude and frequency pass each other at half
their amplitude in opposite directions.

2. Concept Used

The SHM equation is . Given that displacement is , we determine the

phase values and their difference.
3. Formulas Used
• SHM equation:

• Given :

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps)

1. Phase values:
• One particle:
• Other particle:
2. Phase difference:

Other Solution
Phase difference

36)

Time period of SHM =

∴ Time for traveling 60° is =

37)

38)

Given KE = PE

K(A – x ) =
2 2
Kx2

At t = 0, x = 0

At t x = A sin ωt =

ωt = ,t= =

⇒ t= = 1 sec

39)
 Particle velocity,

or = – wave velocity × slope of the wave

(a) For upward velocity, vpa = + ve, so slope must negative which is at the points D, E and F.

(b) For downward velocity, vpa = –ve, so slope must be positive which
is at the points A, B and H.
(c) For zero velocity, slope must be zero which is at C and G.
(d) For maximum magnitude of velocity, |slope| = maximum, which is at A and E. Hence, the given
(d) alternative is wrong.

40) Question Explanation :

Two waves with different amplitudes are traveling in the same medium. The ratio of their
intensities needs to be determined using the relationship between intensity and amplitude.

Concept Based :
This question is based on progressive wave.

Formula :
Intensity of a wave:
I µ A2ω2
Intensity ratio:

Calculation :
Given wave equations:
y1 = 5sin 2π(75t – 0.25x)
y2 = 10sin 2π(150t – 0.5x)
Identifying amplitudes:
A1 = 5, A2 = 10
Using intensity formula:

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : I1 : I2 = 1 : 16 Ans.
41)

⇒ ⇒ T = 200 K = – 73°C

42) Question Explain :

The question asks about the nature of the process during the propagation of sound in air
according to Newton's theory.

Concept / Solution :
Newton initially assumed that sound propagates as an isothermal process (constant
temperature). However, later Laplace corrected this assumption and showed that sound
propagation is actually an adiabatic process due to the rapid compression and rarefaction in
the air.

Correct Answer According to Newton :

Newton assumed isothermal process (option 1).
But in reality, the correct process is adiabatic, as shown by Laplace.

Final Answer :
As per Newton's assumption : Option 1 (Isothermal process) is correct.

Level : Easy

43)

Question Asking About:

The question asks for the ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (H2) and oxygen(O2) at the
same temperature. The speed of sound in a gas depends on molecular mass.

Key Concept:
Velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportion to the square root of its molar mass at
constant temperature.

Formula

Since γ, R and T are constant,

where M is the molar mass of gas.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
For H2, M1 = 2, and for O2 M2 = 32
 =4

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

44) ∵ Produce 4 beats ∴ f = 288 ± 4 = 292 or 284 cps

By waxing beats ↓ so f = 292 cps.

45)

A1 = 4, A2 = 2, f1 = 250 Hz, f2 = 253 Hz

Beat frequency fB = 253 – 250 = 3 beats/sec.

CHEMISTRY

46)

Asking for: The correct order of crystal field splitting strength for different donor atoms.

Concept: Crystal field splitting is influenced by the nature of the ligands. The spectrochemical
series arranges ligands in order of their increasing field strength.

Formula: N/A (conceptual question based on the spectrochemical series)

Solution/Explanation:

A. The spectrochemical series is an experimentally determined series that ranks ligands based on
their ability to split d-orbital energies.
B. Carbon-donor ligands (like CN-) are strong-field ligands, causing large splitting.
C. Nitrogen-donor ligands (like NH3, en) are intermediate-field ligands.
D. Oxygen-donor ligands (like H2O, C2O42–) are weak-field ligands, causing small splitting.
E. Therefore, the correct order is C-donor > N-donor > O-donor.

Answer : Option : 1

47) Question Explanation

Question is asking about anions that are identified by dil. H2SO4.
Concept
The concept based on Specific test of anions.
Explanation
CO32− ​+ 2H+ → CO2​ ↑ + H2​O (CO2 brisk effervescence)
SO32−​ + 2H+→ SO2​ ↑ + H2​O (Pungent-smelling of SO₂ gas)
S2​O32− ​+ 2H+ → SO2 ​↑ + S ↓ + H2​O (A white precipitate of sulfur is [Link]₂ gas is evolved
(pungent smell).
 Final Answer (3)

48)

Answer is "fac-mer-"

49) Question Explanation

We need to determine the number of moles of HCl gas formed when 22.4 L of H2 and 11.2 L of
Cl2 are mixed at STP.
Given
Volume of H2 = 22.4L
Volume of Cl2 = 11.2L
Condition = STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure)

Concept
Number of Moles Calculation & Concept

Explanation
At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L
The balanced chemical reaction for the formation of HCl is
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
From the balanced equation. 1 mole of H2 reacts with 1 mole of Cl2 to form 2 of HCI.

Moles of H2 =

Moles of Cl2 = =0.5 mol

Since Cl2 is the limiting reagent (we have less of Cl2) the moles of HCI formed will be based on
the amount of Cl2, available.
From the equation. 1 mole of Cl2 produces 2 moles of HCl. Therefore. 0.5 moles of Cl2 will
produce
0.5 mol Cl2 × 2 = 1 mol HCl
Final Answer
The number of males of HCl formed is 1 mole.
Correct Answer: Option 1,

50)

Asking for:
The type of isomerism exhibited between [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O.

Concept: (Hydrate isomerism and ionisation isomerism)

Isomerism in coordination compounds, specifically focusing on the differences in the ligands
coordinating to the metal ion and counter ions.

Formula:

A. Ionization isomerism: Involves the exchange of ligands between the coordination sphere and
the ionization sphere.
B. Solvate isomerism: A type of ionization isomerism where a solvent molecule is involved. Here,
 water is the solvent.

Solution/Explanation:

A. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3: All six water molecules are coordinated to the chromium ion, and the chloride
ions are outside the coordination sphere.
B. [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O: One chloride ion has replaced a water molecule in the coordination
sphere, and one water molecule is now outside the coordination sphere as a solvent of
crystallization. Therefore, it is a type of solvate isomerism, and also ionization isomerism.
C. The chloride ion and water molecule have swapped places between the coordination sphere
and the ionization sphere. This is the definition of ionization isomerism.
D. The water molecule outside the coordination sphere indicates solvate isomerism.

Final Answer : Option : 2

51)

[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
[M(AA)2a2] type

52) Δ0 < Pairing energy

Means No pairing ⇒

53)

Question Explanation – The question asks how many geometrical isomers the complex
[Co(NH3)3(NH2)3] can have.

Concept – With two different types of ligands in an octahedral complex, we can have facial
and meridional isomers.

A. Facial isomer (fac): The three identical ligands (NH3 or NH2–) occupy one face of the
octahedron.

B. Meridional isomer (mer): The three identical ligands occupy a plane that includes the
central metal ion.
Therefore, the complex [Co(NH3)3(NH2)3] can exhibit two geometrical isomers: fac and mer.
Final Answer : (1)

54) M = 44 → C3H8

55) Question Explanation

Anion of salt according to given experiment.
Concept
This Questions based on reactions, experiments, Cl– properties
Solution
1. When a salt containing Cl– ion reacts with concentrated sulfuric acid (H2SO4), HCl gas is
evolved NaCl(s) + H2SO4 (conc) → NaHSO4 (s) + HCl(g) ↑
HCl gas → Colouless gas with in ammonium.
2. When a glass rod diffed in ammonium hydroxide (NH4O4) is brought near HCl
gas NH4OH(g) NH3(g) + H2O (ℓ)
HCl + NH3(g) → NH4Cl (dense white fumes)
Final answer : (4)

56) Explanation :- Question is asking about the salt which produce a deep blue colour with
starch iodide solution.
Concept - This question is based on Starch iodide solution, colour of the solution
Solution :- Nitrite (NO2–) In an acidic solution, nitrite ions form nitrous acid (HNO2). Nitrous
acid can act as an oxidizing agent and can oxidize iodide ions to
iodine:2HNO2(aq)+2I–(aq)+2H+(aq)→2NO(g)+12(aq)+2H2O(l) formed then reacts with starch to
give the deep blue color. The iodine (12) Final Answer 2

57) 1. Question Explanation

The question asks us to calculate the weight of a 95% pure CaCO3 sample required to produce
11.2 liters of CO2 gas.

2. Given Data
Volume of CO2 produced = 11.2 liters
Purity of CaCO3 sample = 95%

3. Concept
Stoichiometry: The quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a chemical
reaction.
Ideal Gas Law: At Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP), 1 mole of any gas occupies
22.4 liters.
Molar Mass: The mass of one mole of a substance.

4. Mathematical Calculation
• Calculate moles of CO2:
• Moles of CO2 = Volume of CO2 / Molar volume at STP
• Moles of CO2 = 11.2 L / 22.4 L / mol = 0.5 moles

Determine moles of CaCO3 required:

Balanced chemical equation: CaCO3(s) CaO(s) → CO2(g)
1 mole of CaCO3 produces 1 mole of CO2
Moles of CaCO3 = Moles of CO2 = 0.5 moles

Calculate mass of pure CaCO3:

Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40.08 g/mol (Ca) 12.01 g/mol (C) + 3 * 16.00
g/mol (O) 100.09 g/mol
Mass of pure CaCO3 Moles of CaCO3 Molar mass of CaCO3
Mass of pure CaCO3 0.5 moles* 100.09 g/mol = 50.045 g

Calculate mass of 95% pure CaCO3 sample:

Mass of 95% CaCO3 Mass of pure CaCO3/Purity of CaCO3
Mass of 95% CaCO3 = 50.045 g/0.95 = 52.68 g

5. Final Answer
The weight of 95% pure CaCO3 required to produce 11.2 liters of CO2 is approximately 52.68
grams.

6. Question Level
moderate

58) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about the cationic radical give green ppt. with NH4OH + NH4Cl

Concept:
This question is based on Colour of precipitate, Cationic radical

Solution:
When Cr3+ (chromium (III) ion) is treated with NH4OH in the presence of NH4Cl, the reaction
gives a grey-green precipitate of chromium(III) hydroxide, Cr(OH)3.

Hence,
Correct Option:4

59)

60) MM = = 22.4 L mol–1 ×

 = 80 g mol–1

61)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which electronic configuration of a metal ion cannot
give a magnetic moment of 1.73 Bohr Magneton (B.M.). It provides four options with different
d-electron counts and geometries, and we need to identify the one that is inconsistent with
having one unpaired electron (which corresponds to this magnetic moment).

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on crystal field theory and magnetic properties of
transition metal complexes. The magnetic moment depends on the number of unpaired
electrons, which is influenced by the metal's d-electron configuration, its spin state (high or
low), and the geometry of the complex (octahedral, square planar, tetrahedral). The spin-only
magnetic moment is calculated using the number of unpaired electrons.

Relevant Formulas: The spin-only magnetic moment formula is:

where is the number of unpaired electrons.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given B.M., solve for :

Check each configuration:

1. d7 octahedral low-spin: configuration is → 1 unpaired electron → magnetic moment
~1.73 B.M. ✔
2. d5 octahedral low-spin: configuration is → 1 unpaired electron → magnetic moment
~1.73 B.M. ✔
3. d8 square planar: all electrons paired → 0 unpaired → magnetic moment 0 B.M. ✘
4. d9 tetrahedral (high-spin): 1 unpaired electron → magnetic moment ~1.73 B.M. ✔
Therefore, the d8 square planar configuration is not possible for the given magnetic moment.

Tips and Tricks: Use the spin-only magnetic moment formula to estimate unpaired electrons
quickly and remember that square planar geometry typically stabilizes low-spin states with
paired electrons particularly for d8 configurations.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all configurations have unpaired electrons without considering
the geometry and spin state. Ignoring the difference between high-spin and low-spin cases.
Forgetting that square planar d8 complexes are usually low-spin with no unpaired electrons.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The other configurations all have 1 unpaired electron
matching the given magnetic moment. The d8 square planar is low-spin with all electrons
paired, which gives zero magnetic moment, hence inconsistent with 1.73 B.M.
62)

63) Nitrogen present in pyridine can not be estimated by Kjeldahl method as the nitrogen
present in pyridine can not be easily con verted into ammonium sulphate.

64)

Complex which contain ambidentate ligand

65)

66) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about number of acidic radical which produce volatile product with dil HCl.

Concept :
This question is based on Acidic radicals, reactions with dilute HCl.

Solution :
Acidic radicals → anions
Dilute HCl → weak acid
Valatile product → gases

So, we are given with 6 acidic radicals

SO4–2 I– NO2– NO3– SO3–2 HCO3–
Prove on adding dilute HCl into each uadical.
HCO3– + HCl (dilute) → CO2(gas) + H2O (volatile)
NO2– + HCl (dilute) → NO(gas) + H2O (volatile)
I– + HCl (dilute) → I2 + HCl
Br– + HCl (dilute) → Br2 + HCl
NO3– + HCl (dilute) → HNO3 + Cl–
So, we get volatile products with 3 acidic radical only. So, correct answer is 3 radicals.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : 3

67) Explanation: Determine mass of A in second compound with the 12 mass of B.

Given Data:
Ratio of mass of A is 2 : 3 [First compound : Second compound]
Ist Compound : 48 mass of A with 24 mass of B.
IInd Compound: mas of A (?) with 12 mass of B.

Concept:
Ist Compound of mass A & B
 48 : 24
2:1
II Compound ratio A with Ist compound 2 : 3
nd

So, A mass with B (12 mass) is 36 mass

ratio of mass A : B
36 : 12
3:1
Now satisfy 2 : 3 of A

Final Answer : Option (2)

68)

W. : 0.35
V1 : 55ml T1 = 300k
Act. Pr. P1 = 715 –15 = 700

V2 =
22400ml → 28

1 ml →

46.09 →
weight of N = 0.0576

%N =

69)

Question Explanation :
Question is asking about Chromyl chloride test is valid for.

Concept :
This question is based on Chromyl chloride test.

Solution :

Chromyl chloride test is a qualitative analysis method used to detect presence of chloride ions
(Cl–) in a sampe.
Sample is prefared containing a chloride-based salt (as sodium chloride (NaCl) is taken).

Hence,
Option (1) is correct : NaCl

70)

Answer is "B, A, D, C, E"

71)
4P + 5 O2 → P4 O10

Moles

Moles of O2 required =
= 0.25 moles

72)

Answer is "1250 cc"

73) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the ion that is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution
Concept
This concept based on Precipitation
Solution
The anion that is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution is the nitrate ion (NO₃⁻). Most
nitrate salts are soluble in water, making it difficult to remove them through precipitation.
Final Answer (3)

74) cis isomer do not have plane of symmetry and will show optical isomerism.

75)

The decrease in the concentration of is due to common ion effect of from HCl solution.

76) Question
which of the following is true.

given data
In HNO3 pure sample 1.6% H, 22.2% N and 76.2% obg mass.

Concept
law of definite proportion:-
According to law of definite proportion, a compound can be obtained from different sources.
But the ratio of each component remains same it does not depend on the method of its
preparation or the source from which it has been obtained.

Conclusion
Hence, option (3) is correct.

77) Question Explanation

Question is asking about the anions will give same colour of gas.
Concept
The concept based on Colour of gas , Properties of anions
Explanation
The anions that give the same color of gas (reddish-brown) when reacting with concentrated
sulfuric acid (H2SO4) are bromide (Br-) and nitrate (NO3-) and nitrites (NO2-)
Final Answer (4)

78)

Question Explanation :
We are asked to define the limiting reagent in a chemical reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on The limiting reagent is the reactant that gets completely consumed
first and limits the amount of product formed.

Solution :
Among the option, the correct definition is : Consumed first in reaction.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

79) sp3d2 and d2sp3.

80) CO2(g) + C → 2CO(g)

1L – -
1–x 2x
Total ⇒ 1 – x + 2x = 1.5L ⇒ (x = 0.5L)

VCO = 2x = 1L & nCO = mole at STP

81) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify which of the given chemical
compounds or complex ions can exhibit optical isomerism.
Concept : isomerism
Solution : K3​[Cr(C2​O4​)3​] exhibits optical isomerism because the [Cr(C2​O4​)3​]3− ion has a tris-
chelated octahedral structure with three bidentate oxalate ligands, making it chiral and non-
superimposable on its mirror image.

82)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given cations (Hg^{+2}, Pb^{+2},
Cu^{+2}, Ag^{+}) forms a precipitate in two different groups during a classical qualitative
inorganic group analysis. Essentially, it wants to identify the cation that precipitates both in
the chloride group and again later in the sulfide group.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves classical qualitative inorganic analysis where
metal ions are separated based on their differing solubilities and reactions in various reagents
and conditions. Group I (chloride group) cations form insoluble chlorides when treated with
dilute HCl. The filtrate after this stage may contain metal ions that don't precipitate here but
can precipitate in subsequent groups, such as the sulfide group (acid Hâ‚‚S group). Some ions,
like Pb^{+2}, appear in precipitates in two different groups since their chlorides are partially
soluble and can reappear as sulfide precipitates in the next stage.

Tips and Tricks: Recall the classical group separation order in qualitative analysis: Group I
cations precipitate as chlorides; Pb^{+2} chloride dissolves on heating, allowing Pb^{+2} to
be carried forward to Group II where it forms a sulfide precipitate. This is a unique behavior
among the given ions.

Common Mistakes: Assuming all chlorides behave the same and precipitate only once, or
confusing Hg^{+2} with Hg_2^{+2} (dimercury ion) which also forms insoluble chlorides but
does not carry forward similarly to Pb^{+2}.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Ag^{+} and Hg_2^{+2} form insoluble chlorides but
do not produce further precipitates in the acid Hâ‚‚S group, while Cu^{+2} forms no insoluble
chloride and precipitates only in later groups, so they don't precipitate in both groups.

83) Some interfering ions give basic radical test

84)

Due to synergic bonding in CH2 = CH2

85)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to determine which given statements about different
coordination complex isomerisms are correct. It provides four statements related to
coordination, linkage, ionization, and geometrical isomers, and the task is to select the correct
option(s) from the given codes.

Underlying Concept: The core concepts are types of isomerism in coordination chemistry:
coordination isomerism (different ligands attached to different metal centers in a compound),
linkage isomerism (different binding sites of the same ligand), ionization isomerism (exchange
of ions inside and outside the coordination sphere), and geometrical isomerism (different
spatial arrangements in complexes, e.g., cis/trans). Understanding these types helps identify
whether pairs of given complexes represent these isomers.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that coordination isomers involve swapping of ligands between
different metal centers, linkage isomers involve ambidentate ligands attaching via different
atoms, ionization isomers differ in counter ions, and tetrahedral complexes generally do not
show cis/trans isomers.

Common Mistakes: Confusing ionization isomers with linkage isomers, or assuming

tetrahedral coordination always exhibits geometrical isomerism; also, misidentifying hydrate
(solvate) isomers as linkage isomers.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: (ii) Incorrect: The pairs differ by solvate/hydrate ions
and not ligand binding sites, so not linkage isomers. (iii) Incorrect: These differ in counter
ions, so they are ionization isomers, not linkage isomers. (iv) Incorrect: Tetrahedral complexes
usually lack geometrical isomers due to symmetry, so no cis/trans forms exist here.

86) Question Explanation:

Question is asking that Dil. HCl + H2S is the group reagent of which group

Concept:
This question is based on Group reagent

Solution:
Dil. HCl + H2O is the group reagent of IIndgroup

Hence,
Correct Option:2

87) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about ion gives a suffocating gas when treated with dilute HCI

Concept:
This question is based on Properties of sulfite ion

Solution:
When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium sulphite Na2SO3, it produces sulphur dioxide
(SO2) gas, which has a sulffocating smell.
Reaction: Na2SO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + SO2

Hence,
Correct Option: 2

88)

Answer is "Both Assertion & Reason are False."

89)

Answer is "(i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)"

90)

Answer is "160 ml"

BIOLOGY
91) NCERT Pg No. 119

92)

The Correct answer is : 4. 1.4 million locations

93)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 160

94)

NCERT Page No. 95

95)

NCERT-XII, Page # 99
An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as
untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' -end (before start codon) and at
3' -end (after stop codon).

96) NCERT Page no.

97) Answer (2)

98)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 156

99)

NCERT Pg. # 96

100) NCERT XII Pg.# 111

101)

Glycolysis, Link & Krebs cycle

102) NCERT Pg#100(E), 110,111(H)

103)

NCERT Pg. # 94

104) Ncert Page 109.

105) NCERT XII Pg.# 111

106) NCERT-XII, Page # 101

107) An intriguing question is that how is the RNA polymerases able to catalyse all the three
steps, which are initiation, elongation and termination. The RNA polymerase is only capable of
catalysing the process of elongation. It associates transiently with initiation-factor (σ) and
termination-factor (ρ) to initiate and terminate the transcription

108) NCERT Pg # 99

109) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 96,97

110) NCERT Pg. # 120

111) Statement I: Correct. Har Gobind Khorana's chemical method was indeed instrumental in
synthesising RNA molecules with defined combinations of bases, which played a crucial role in
understanding the genetic code.
Statement II: Incorrect. Severo Ochoa's enzyme (polynucleotide phosphorylase) was helpful in
polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner, not random
sequences in a template dependent manner.

112) Ncert page 101.

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 163

114) NCERT [Link].106

115)

The correct answer is 4. 2,000 bp / sec.

Explanation: The average rate of DNA polymerization in E. coli (a prokaryote) is
approximately 2,000 base pairs per second. This is the rate at which DNA polymerase
synthesizes DNA during replication in prokaryotic cells
 116) NCERT [Link].101

117) Answer (2)

DNA pol III → Read DNA segment and add nucleotide of DNA

118)

NCERT Pg. # 106, Fig. 6.4.2

119)

NCERT-XII, Page # 94
The RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S).
Whereas the RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA, and
snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs).
The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA
(hnRNA).

120)

NCERT XII Pg, 103,104

121) NCERT Pg. # 90

122)

All of the above are possible because

Met is coded by AUG codon and phenyalanine is coded by the mRNA codons UUU and UUC.

123) NCERT pg # 96

124) NCERT [Link].104

125)

NCERT [Link].96

126)

The experiment on Vicia faba (broad bean) was conducted to study DNA replication using
autoradiography.
Radioactive thymidine (3H-thymidine) was used because:

A. Thymidine is specifically incorporated into newly synthesized DNA(not RNA).

B. It helps track semi-conservative DNA replication by labeling newly formed strands.
The experiment confirmed that chromosome duplication occurs by semi-conservative replication,
supporting the findings of Meselson and Stahl.

127) NCERT-XII, Page # 91

128)

NCERT XII Page No. # 108

129)

In this question we have to select the correct order of organisation of genetic material from
largest to smallest.
Genome : The complete set of genetic material in an organism, which includes all the
chromosomes and genes. It is the largest level of organization.
Chromosome : A structure made of DNA and proteins that contains many genes. It is a
subunit of the genome.
Gene : A segment of DNA located on a chromosome that codes for a specific protein or RNA
molecule. Genes are part of chromosomes.
Nucleotide : The basic building block of DNA and RNA. Nucleotides make up the DNA
molecule, which forms genes and chromosomes.
Correct Answer : 4

130) The Correct answer is : 2.

131)

NCERT-XII, Page # 94

132) NCERT–XII Pg. # 97,98,103,106

133)

Answer is "Pyruvate decorboxylase"

134) NCERT (Class 12) page no. 95, 99

135) NCERT pg # 92

136)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 153

137)
NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 133

138)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 134

139)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 129-130

140)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 138

141)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 141

142)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 137-138

143)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 137

144)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 135

145)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 142

146)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 142

147)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 137-138

148)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 143

149)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 142-143

150)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 142-143

151)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 135

152)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 134

153)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 134

154)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 135

155)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 142-143

156)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 114

157)

NEW NCERT XI, Page No. # 208

158)

XIITh NCERT Pg No : 205

159) NCERT Page: 209

160)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 122

161)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 121

162)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 120-121

163)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 124-125

164)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 120-121

165)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 117

166)

Answer is "Mutations are random & directional "

167)

Answer is "By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates were formed and active."

168)

Answer is "Assertion and Reason both are false."

169)

Answer is "Assertion and Reason both are false."

170)

Answer is "Statements A, B & C"

171)

Answer is "A, C and E"

172)
NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 124-125

173)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 115

174)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 120

175)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 121

176)

NCERT CLASS-XII, Page No. 118

177)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 111-125

178)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 116

179)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 117

180)

NEW NCERT XII, Page No. # 121