30-07-2025

4504CMD303021250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) The variation of the intensity of magnetisation (I) with respect to the magnetising field (H) in a

diamagnetic substance is described by the graph.

(1) OD
(2) OC
(3) OB
(4) OA

2) A particle of charge 'q' and mass 'm' is moving in a circular orbit with angular speed 'ω'. The ratio
of its magnetic moment to that of its angular momentum depends on :-

(1) ω, q
(2) ω,q,m
(3) q,m
(4) ω,m

3) A ferromagnetic material is heated above its curie temperature. Which one is a correct statement
?

(1) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged.

(2) Ferromagnetic material change into paramagnetic.
(3) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced.
(4) Ferromagnetic material changes itself into diamagnetic material.

4) A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole
strengths of the two pieces will have ratio

(1) 2 :1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 :1

5) The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are correctly shown in :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Two short magnets of equal dipole moments M are fastened perpendicularly at their centres as

shown below (point P is in the plane of the magnets) The magnetic field
(magnitude) at P, distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right angle is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Which of the following is incorrect for diamagnetic material :-

(1) ฀m< 0
(2) μ < μ0
(3) 0 < μr < 1
(4) ฀m depends on temperature.

8) A bar magnet of magnetic moment 'M' is cut into two equal parts in following two fashions (a)
Parallel to its length (b) Perpendicular to its length, then what happens to the magnetic moment of
each part.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Relation between permeability and magnetising field H for a sample of iron is

henry/meter. Where unit of H is A/m. Find value of H for which magnetic

2
induction of 1.0 Wb / m can be produced.

(1) 300 A/m

(2) 500 A/m
(3) 600 A/m
(4) 7300 A/m

10) Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each
magnet has magnetic dipole moment . Arrange them in decreasing order of net magnetic dipole
moment.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) c > b > a > d
(3) c > d > a > b
(4) d > b > a > c

11) A thin rod of length L has magnetic moment M when magnetised. If rod is bent in a semicircular
arc what is magnetic moment in new shape?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) It is found that when a substance is placed in a magnetic field; field lines passing through it are

shown in figure. Then substance may be

(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Superconductor
(4) All of these

13) A bar magnet has a magnetic moment and is placed in a magnetic field of 0.2 T. Work
done in turning the magnet from parallel to antiparallel position relative to the field direction is

(1) 0.4 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 4.0 J
(4) Zero

14) A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 wb/m2 and area vector
makes an angle of 60o with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the

magnetic flux through the area A would be equal to

(1) 2 weber
(2) 1 weber
(3) 3 weber

(4)
weber

15) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) East
(4) West

16) Consider a bar magnet having pole strength 4A-m, magnetic length 8 cm and area of cross-
section 1 cm2. Then the intensity of magnetization I is :-

(1) 1 × 104 A/m

(2) 2 × 104 A/m
(3) 3 × 104 A/m
(4) 4 × 104 A/m

17) An electron beam is retarding in same plane of coil X & coil Y as shown in figure. Direction of

induced currents in coil X & coil Y respectively will be :-

(1) Clockwise, Anticlockwise

(2) Anticlockwise, Clockwise
(3) Clockwise, Clockwise
(4) Anticlockwise, Anticlockwise

18) The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount Δϕ in a time Δt. The
total quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time Δt is
represented by:–
(1)
Q=

(2)
Q=
Q=R.
(3)

(4)
Q= .

19) Flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to
the equation . What is the magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 s ?

(1) 1.2 A
(2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 A
(4) 0.2 A

20) The correct I–H curve for paramagnetic materials is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

21) The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is :

(1) Positive
(2) Infinity
(3) Negative
(4) Zero

22) Dimensional formula of magnetic flux is :-

(1) [ML2T–2A–1]
(2) [ML2T–2A–2]
(3) [MLT–2A–1]
(4) [MLT–2A–2]

23) The mass of an iron rod is 80 gm and its magnetic moment is 10 A-m2. If the density of iron is 8
gm/C.C. then the value of intensity of magnetisation will be:

(1) 106 A/m

(2) 104 A/m
(3) 102 A/m
(4) 10 A/m

24) A square loop of side 5 cm enters a magnetic field with 1 cms–1. The front edge enters the

magnetic field at t = 0 then which graph best depicts emf:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

25) A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 1cm has a magnetic dipole moment of
20 × 10–6 J/T when a magnetic intensity of 60 × 103 A/m is applied. Its magnetic susceptibility is

(1) 3.3 × 10–4

(2) 3.3 × 10–2
(3) 4.3 × 10–4
(4) 2.3 × 10–2

26) A uniform horizontal magnetic field exists in the region ABCD. A rectangular loop of mass m
and horizontal side l and resistance R is placed in the magnetic field as shown in the figure. With
what velocity should it be pushed down so that it continues to fall without acceleration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A uniform circular ring of radius R, mass m has uniformly distributed charge q. A magnetic field
B, directed vertically downwards exists in a cylindrical region of sufficient diameter such that ring is
fully inside this region. If magnetic field starts increasing at constant rate , angular
acceleration will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane
perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced
emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is :-

(1) 1.6 π μV
(2) 3.2 π μV
(3) 4.8 π μV
(4) 0.8 π μV

29) In a coil of resistance 10 Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux through it,

is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux.

(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 4

30) A thin bar magnet of length 2L is bent at the mid-point so that the angle between them is 60°.
The new length of the magnet is :

(1)
(2)
(3) 2L
(4) L

31) The material of permanent magnet has

(1) high retentivity and low coercivity.

(2) low retentivity and high coercivity.
(3) low retentivity and low coercivity.
(4) high retentivity and high coercivity.

32) A straight wire of length L is bent into a semicircle. It is moved in a uniform magnetic field with
speed v with diameter perpendicular to the field. The induced emf between the ends of the wire is :-

(1) BLv
(2) 2BLv
(3) 2πBLv

(4)

33) A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. Electric field is induced :

(1) in AD, but not in BC

(2) in BC, but not in AC
(3) neither in AD nor in BC
(4) in both AD and BC

34) As shown in the figure a metal rod makes contact and complete the circuit. The circuit is
perpendicular to the magnetic field with B = 0.15 tesla. If the resistance is 3Ω, force needed to move

the rod as indicated with a constant speed of 2m/sec is :-

(1) 3.75 × 10–3 N

(2) 3.75 × 10–2 N
(3) 3.75 × 102 N
(4) 3.75 × 10–4 N

35) The magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area A and length ℓ of the
solenoid is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36)
2
Charge in the capacitor is q = (t – 16), q is in C. (Va – Vb) at t = 3s is :-

(1) –24.5 V
(2) 18.5 V
(3) –25.5 V
(4) 22.5 V

37)

Two short bar magnets of magnetic moments M1 and M2 are kept on X and Y axis as shown in figure.

If resultant magnetic field at origin is zero, Then will be

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 8 : 1

38)

Three inductances are connected as shown below. the equivalent inductance will be
(1) 0.25 H
(2) 0.75 H
(3) 0.01 H
(4) 1 H

39) A small square loop of wire of side ℓ is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L (L >>
ℓ). The loops are coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is
proportional to:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Find out the e.m.f. produced when the current changes from 0 to 1 A in 10 second, given L = 10
µH

(1) 1 V
(2) 1 µV
(3) 1 mV
(4) 0.1 V

41) In the circuit shown in figure what is the value of I1 just after pressing the key K ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 1A
(4) None of the above
42) In the given circuit find steady state current from Battery :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A bar magnet is demagnetised by inserting it inside a solenoid of length 0.2 m, 100 turns and
carrying a current of 5.2 A. The coercivity of the bar magnet is

(1) 1200 A/m

(2) 285 A/m
(3) 2600 A/m
(4) 520 A/m

44) Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are and μr respectively. Which of the
following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material :-

(1) = 1.5 , μr = 0.5

(2) = 0.5 , μr = 0.5
(3) = 1.5 , μr = 1.5
(4) = 0.5 , μr = 1.5

45) The minimum magnetic dipole moment of electron in hydrogen atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

CHEMISTRY

1) Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is:-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5

2) An aqueous solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] would contains _____ number of ions :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

3) Correct match the column-I and column-II :

Column-I (Ligand) Column-II (denticity)

(A) Edta–4 (P) bidentate

(B) en (Q) tridentate

(C) CN– (R) Hexadentate

(D) dien (S) mono dentate

(1) (A–R), (B–S), (C–P), (D–Q)
(2) (A–R), (B–P), (C–S), (D–Q)
(3) (A–Q), (B–P), (C–S), (D–R)
(4) (A–P), (B–S), (C–Q), (D–R)

4) If the bond length of C–O bond in carbon monoxide is 1.128 Å then what is the value of C–O bond
length in Fe(CO)5 :-

(1) 1.15 Å
(2) 1.05 Å
(3) 1.02 Å
(4) 1.118 Å

5)

IUPAC name of the compound K3[Fe(CN)5CO] is :-

(1) Potassium pentacynocarbonylferrate(III)

(2) Potassium carbonylpentacyanoferrate(III)
(3) Potassium pentacyanocarbonylferrate(II)
(4) Potassium carbonylpentacyanidoferrate(II)

6) EAN of complex [Fe(C2O4)3]3– is :-

(1) 27
(2) 24
(3) 35
(4) 29

7)

Correct increasing order of spin magnetic moment (in B.M.) for complexes for :

(I) [FeF6]–3 (II) [V(H2O)6]+2 (III) [Fe(H2O)6]+2

(1) II < III < I
(2) III < II < I
(3) III < I < II
(4) II < I < III

8) d-orbital used in hybridisation of complex ion [Ni(CN)4]–2 is :-

(1)
(2) dxy
(3)
(4) dyz

9) Square Planar complex MABXY (where A, B, X & Y are unidentate ligands and M is central metal)
shows number of geometrical isomer.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) None

10) Which of the following is an outer orbital complex

4–
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
2+
(4) [Ni(NH3)6]

11) The bonds in K4[Fe(CN)6] are

(1) Ionic only

(2) Covalent only
(3) Ionic and covalent
(4) Ionic, covalent and coordinate covalent

12) Spin magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2- is 5.9 BM geometry would be

(1) Square planar

(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Square pyramidal
(4) Octahedral

13) Statement-I :- Complex which contain identical ligand are homoleptic complex.
Statement-II :- Homoleptic complex may be cationic, anionic and neutral complex.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I correct but statement-II incorrect
(4) Statement-I incorrect but statement-II correct

14) The maximum number of atoms which are in same plane in [NiCl4]2– are:

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

15) Which of the following compound does not exhibit characteristic colour ?

(1) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
(2) [Sc(H2O)6]Cl3
3+
(3) [Ti(H2O)6]
(4) KMnO4

16) What is electronic arrangement of metal atom/ion in octahedral complex with d4 configuration, if
Δ0 < pairing energy.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) In Which of the following increasing order of splitting energy correct ?

–4 +2 +2 –4
(1) [CrCl6] < [Cr(H2O)6] < [Cr(NH3)6] < [Cr(CN)6]
–4 +2 +2 –4
(2) [CrCl6] > [Cr(H2O)6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(CN)6]
+2 –4 +2 –4
(3) [Cr(H2O)6] > [CrCl6] > [Cr(NH3)6] > [Cr(CN)6]
(4) None of these

18) Which of the following system has maximum number of unpaired electrons:-

(1) d3 (Octahedral)
(2) d5 (Octahedral, low spin)
(3) d8 (Tetrahedral)
(4) d6 (Octahedral, low spin)

19) The complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ is formed in Brown ring test for nitrates select correct statement
for the complex ?

(1) Hybridisation of Fe is sp3d2

(2) Fe and NO has +1 oxidation state
(3) It has spin only magnetic moment of 3.87 B.M.
(4) All of the above

20) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Complexes) (Types)

[Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and ionisation

(a) (i)
[Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 isomerism

[Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] and coordination

(b) (ii)
[Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6] isomerism

[Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Br and
(c) (iii) linkage isomerism
[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4

[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and
(d) (iv) solvate isomerism
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

21) The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle values in a

fac-[Co(NH3)3Cl3] complex is/are :

(1) 90° & 180°

(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 90° & 120°

22) The total Number of isomers possible for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]+ is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

23) Which of the following does not have optical isomer?

(1) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl

24) Total number of isomers in [Pt(NH3)2(CN)2] is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

25) The sum of co-ordination number and oxidation number of Ni in [Ni(dmg)2] is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

26)

In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyl the CO bond strength is expected to increase in the
order:-

+ –
(1) [Mn(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]
– +
(2) [V(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]
– +
(3) [V(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6]
+ –
(4) [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]

27) The crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) for [CoCl6]4– is 18000 cm–1. The CFSE for
[CoCl4]2– will be :-

(1) 6000 cm–1

(2) 16000 cm–1
(3) 18000 cm–1
(4) 8000 cm–1

28) The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

29) Bidentate ligand among the following is:

(1) CO
(2) SCN–
–
(3) CH3COO
2–
(4) C2O4

30) Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent?

(1) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(2) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(3) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]
(4) Na2CoCl4

31) A compound has the empirical formula CoCl3.5NH3. When an aqueous solution of this compound
is mixed with excess silver nitrate, 2 mol of AgCl precipitate per mol of compound. Hence the
coordination compound is

(1) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.NH3
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(3) [Co(NH3)3Cl3](NH3)2
(4) None of the above

32) Which of the following octahedral complex have maximum stereoisomers :-

–4
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
–1
(2) [Co(en)(CN)4]
+
(3) [Co(en)2(Cl)2]
+3
(4) [Co(en)3]

33) Which of the following d-orbitals of metal is not the part of t2g set in octahedral field ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) How many unpaired electrons will be there in a d7 octahedral high spin complex ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

35)

Which of the following is most stable complex ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Assertion (A) : Correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in visible region for given
complex is :
[Ni(H2O)6]2+ > [Ni(NH3)6]2+ > [Ni(en)3]2+
Reason (R) : According to spectrochemical series order of strength of ligand is
H2O > NH3 > en

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

37) Assertion (A) : Coordination compounds are generally formed by transition metals.
Reason (R) : Transition metals generally have partly filled d-orbitals of the nth shell.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

38) EAN of metal carbonyl M(CO)x is 36 if atomic no. of metal M is 26, what is the value of x:

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 6

39) How many EDTA4– molecule is/are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Six
(4) Three

40) Among the ligands NH3, en, CN– and CO the correct order of their increasing field strength, is

–
(1) CO < NH3 < en < CN
–
(2) NH3 < en < CN < CO
–
(3) CN < NH3 < CO < en
–
(4) en < CN < NH3 < CO

41) The conditions and consequence that favours the t2g3, eg1 configuration in a metal complex are :

(1) Weak field ligand, high spin complex

(2) Strong field ligand, high spin complex
(3) Strong field ligand, low spin complex
(4) Weak field ligand, low spin complex

42) The solution of the complex [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 in water:-

(1) Will give the tests of Cu2+ ions

(2) Will give the tests of NH3
(3) Will give the tests of ions
(4) Will not give the tests of any of the above species

43) An ambidentate ligand is one which :-

(1) Is linked to the metal atom at two points

(2) Has two donor atoms but only one of them has the capacity to form a coordinate bond
(3) Has two donor atoms but either of the two can form a co-ordinate bond
(4) Forms chelate rings
44) [Fe(H2O)6]+2 has crystal filled splitting energy value 10,400 cm–1 and pairing energy value 17,600
cm–1 then it is :

(1) Low spin complex

(2) Paramagnetic in nature
(3) Diamagnetic in nature
(4) Tetrahedral complex

45) Which one of the following are paramagnetic?

A. [NiCl4]2– B. Ni(CO)4 C. [Ni(CN)4]2–
D. [Ni(H2O)6]2+ E. Ni(PPh3)4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and C only

(2) B and E only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) A and D only

BIOLOGY

1) The figure below shows three steps (A,B,C) of meiosis. Select the option giving correct
identification.

(1) C- Meiosis I Anaphase showing segregation of homologus chromosomes.

(2) A -Meiosis I Prophase showing crossing over
(3) B- Meiosis II Anaphase showing separation of chromatids
(4) A- Meiosis II Zygotene stage showing pairing of chromosomes.
2) Which of the following statement is correct about the diagram given below:-

(1) This disorder was first described by marshall Nirenberg.

(2) This genetic disorder is due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome
(3) This genetic disorder is due to the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21
(4) The affected individual is long statured with large rounded head.

3) What is the percentage of parental type progenies in F2 generation, if a cross is made between
white eyed female Drosophila with miniature wing and red eyed male Drosophila with normal wing.

(1) 62.8 %
(2) 31.4 %
(3) 37.2 %
(4) 18.6 %

4) β-Thalassemia is controlled by a gene which is present on chromosome number

(1) 11
(2) 12
(3) 16
(4) 21

5) Statement-I : Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in
a whole set of chromosomes in an organism, this phenomenon is known as polyploidy.
Statement-II : Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or
loss of a chromosome(s) called aneuploidy.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

6) Select the incorrect statement:

(1) In domesticated birds, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg
(2) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have not sex chromosome
(3) Human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other
(4) Male fruitfly is heterogametic

7) Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by

(1) Thomas Hunt Morgan

(2) Gregor Johann Mendel
(3) Hugo de Vries
(4) Langdon Down

8) Statement I : Chromosomal abberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

Statement II : UV radiations can cause mutations in organisms and it is a mutagen.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

9) Rediscovery of Mendelian principle is associated with all scientists, except

(1) Hugo de Vries

(2) Erich Von Tschermak
(3) Carl Correns
(4) Bateson

10) Given below is genetic distance between different genes

a — b = 21 cM
b — c = 7 cM
a — c = 14 cM
a — d = 6 cM
d — b = 15 cM
Find the recombination frequency between gene c and d.

(1) 15%
(2) 8%
(3) 20%
(4) 21%

11) Drosophila is suitable for experimental genetics because of all the following reasons. Which one
is not true?

(1) It can be easily grown in laboratory

(2) Life cycle is about two months
(3) A single mating produces a large of progeny flies
(4) Females are easily distinguishable from the males
12) Observe the figure and identify [A]+[B]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a
female has to be at least __(i)__ and father should be __(ii)__

(1) (i) Haemophilic, (ii) Carrier

(2) (i) Carrier, (ii) Haemophilic
(3) (i) Haemophilic, (ii) Normal
(4) (i) Haemophilic, (ii) Haemophilic

14) The following are results of crossing a female fly (AaBb) with a male fly (aabb). AaBb 1005
aabb 1000
Aabb 200
aaBb 210 Which two genotypes are the recombinant offspring?

(1) AaBb & Aabb

(2) AaBb & aaBb
(3) Aabb & aaBb
(4) AaBb & aabb

15) Alfred Sturtevant is known for his contribution

(1) In naming the Y chromosome

(2) In preparing first chromosomal map
(3) In discovery of mitotic crossover in Drosophila
(4) All of the above

16) Which of the following leads to variation in DNA?

(1) Recombination
(2) Mutation
(3) Mutagens
(4) All of the above

17) The recombination frequency between the genes a and c is 5%, b and c is 15%, b and d is 9%, a
and b is 20%, c and d is 24% and a and d is 29%. What will be he sequence of these genes on a
linear chromosome?

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, d, b, c
(3) a, c, b, d
(4) d, b, a, c

18) Morgan found in F2 generation that the genes of white eye & yellow bodies showed ...[A]...
percent recombination while white eyed & miniature wing showed ...[B].... percent recombination.

(1) [A] 37.2, [B] 1.3

(2) [A] 1.3, [B] 37.2
(3) [A] 3.1, [B] 32.7
(4) [A] 32.7, [B] 3.1

19) Statement-I :- Haemophilia is Mendelian disorder.

Statement-II :- Colourblindness is present in 0.4% female and 8% of male.

(1) Both statement I and II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and II is correct.
(3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct.

20)

Match the following column :-

(1) Turner syndrome (a) Mating between relatives

(2) (b) XO female

(3) Royal disease (c) Down's syndrome

(4) Broad palm (d) Haemophilia

(1) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

21) A normal male whose father was colourblind marries a female whose mother was colourblind.
Find out probability of their son & daughter to be diseased respectively :-

(1) 50% & 0%

(2) 100% & 50%
(3) 50% & 50%
(4) 0% for both

22) A normal woman whose father is suffering from haemophilia marries a man (normal) whose
father also suffering from haemophilia. What is the chance of their daughter being diseased ?

(1) 50%
(2) 0%
(3) 25%
(4) 100%

23) (a) Myotonic dystrophy

(b) Sickel cell anaemia
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Haemophilia
Which of the above mentioned diseases are dominant ?

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) (c) and (d)

24) A colour blind man (XcY) has a colour blind sister (XcXc) and a normal brother (XY). What is
genotype of father and mother

(1) XcY, XcXc

(2) XcY, XcX
(3) XY, XcXc
(4) XY, XcX

25) If a colourblind female marries a normal male (XY) then

(1) All the sons are normal

(2) All the sons are colourblind
(3) All the daughter are colourblind
(4) Both sons and daughters are colourblind

26) Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of

the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

27) A couple has 3 daughters, what is the probability of their 4th child to be son?

(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%

28) If a character is always transmitted directly from a father to all his sons and from their sons to
all their sons, then which chromosome carries the gene for the character?

(1) Autosomes
(2) X chromosome
(3) Y chromosome
(4) None of the above

29) In honey bees, females are (i) having (ii) chromosomes and males are (iii) having
(iv) chromosomes :-

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Diploid 46 Haploid 23

(2) Haploid 23 Diploid 46

(3) Diploid 32 Haploid 16

(4) Haploid 16 Diploid 32

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct
identification.
(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females
(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ femals, XX males

31) Males produce sperm by mitosis in :-

(1) Drone in honey bee

(2) Man
(3) Reptiles
(4) All of these

32) Which of the following structure was discovered by Henking?

(1) Y-body
(2) Barr body
(3) X-body
(4) Nu-body

33) In XX-XO type of sex determination :-

(1) Males have a pair of X-chromosome beside the autosome

(2) Males have only one X-chromosome besides the autosome
(3) Females have only one X-chromosome beside the autosome
(4) Female have no X-chromosome

34) In honey bee, male individual (drone) develops from unfertilized eggs. This phenomenon is
known as

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Epigamic
(4) Syngamic

35) Monosomy and Trisomy can be respectively represented as:-

(1) 2n - 1 and 2n - 1 - 1
(2) 2n - 1 and 2n + 1
(3) 2n + 1 and 2n - 1
(4) 2n + 1 and 2n + 1 + 1

36)

The loss of one of the X-chromosome causes –

(1) Down’s syndrome

(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

37) Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866)
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also
expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.

(1) B and E only

(2) A and B only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and E only

38) The pedigree chart given below depicts :-

(1) Sickle cell anaemia

(2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Colour blindness
39)

How many of the following statements are not incorrect?

(A) Thalassemia is controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2.
(B) Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that the former is a quantitative problem of
synthesising too few globin molecules while the latter is a qualitative problem of synthesising an
incorrectly functioning globin.
(C) In sickle cell anaemia, heterozygous (HbAHbS) individuals appear apparently unaffected but they
are carrier of the disease as there is 50 per cent probability of transmission of the mutant gene to
the progeny, thus exhibiting sickle-cell trait.
(D) Male honeybees (drones) do not have father and thus cannot have sons, but have a grandfather
and can have grandsons.
(E) In sickle cell anaemia, the mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under high
oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle
like structure.
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) One

40) The given pedigree is for autosomal dominant disorder. What will be genotype of III-2 individual?

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) aa
(4) AA or Aa

41) Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to the
offspring when both partners are carrier for the gene or heterozygous. Identify P, Q, R and S:-
 P Q R S

(1) GTG CAC Valine Glutamic acid

(2) GGG CCC Glutamic acid Valine

(3) GCG CGC Valine Glutamic acid

(4) GTG CAC Glutamic acid Valine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to :-

(1) Change of Amino Acid in -chain of haemoglobin

(2) Change of Amino Acid in -chain of haemoglobin
(3) Change of amino acid in both and chain of haemoglobin
(4) Mutation in gene present on chromosome number 12

43) A genetic disorder caused by additional copy of X-chromosome is

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Sickle cell anemia

44) What will be the complement of sex chromosomes of a male child affected with Down’s
syndrome?

(1) XO
(2) XY
(3) XXY
(4) XYY

45) In phenylketonuria mental retardation takes place due to accumulation of

(1) Tyrosine
(2) Phenylalanine
(3) Phenylpyruvic acid
(4) Dopamine

46) In England the moths colour was observed more white before industrialisation but after
industrialisation converted into dark or black coloured wings, is a example of :-

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Natural selection
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Industrialisation select

47) Mechanism of evolution :-

(1) Mutations
(2) Formation of new species
(3) Natural selection
(4) All of these

48) Flipper of penguin and flipper of dolphins are example of :-

(1) Homologous organ

(2) Analogous organ
(3) Atavistic organ
(4) Vestigial organ

49) 'Marsupial mole' and kangaroo are the examples of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Both (1) & (3)

50) Peripatus is a connecting link between :

(1) Fishes and Amphibia

(2) Mollusca and Annelida
(3) Annelida and Arthropoda
(4) Reptiles and Mammals
51) Following are the two statements regarding fossils :
(a) Fossils are the impression or remains of the hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.
(b) Fossils are found only in rocks.
Which of the following option is correct regarding the above two statements ?

(1) Statement (a) is incorrect and statement (b) is correct

(2) Statement (b) is incorrect and statement (a) is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

52) The original variety of Darwin finches was:-

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Vegetarian
(3) Seed-eating
(4) Cactus eating

53) The first cellular form of life appeared on earth before how many years?

(1) 2000 million

(2) 3000 million
(3) 4000 million
(4) 100 million

54) The first living form that appeared on earth was

(1) Heterotrophs
(2) Mixotrophs
(3) Autotrophs
(4) Omnivorous

55) What does Evolutionary Biology primarily study?

(1) Chemistry of living organisms

(2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Composition of stars
(4) Human anatomy

56) According to the theory of spontaneous generation, life comes out from ?

(1) space
(2) decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud, etc.
(3) living organisms
(4) dead organisms

57) Choose the correct answer about Miller's experiment:

(1) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH4, NH3, H2, N2O and water vapour at 800°C.
(2) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing NH4, NH3, H2, N2O and water vapour at 1000°C
(3) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at 800°C
(4) Electric discharge in a closed flask containing CO2, N2O, NH3, N2 and water vapour at 800°C

58) The first form of life originated from pre-existing non-organic molecules proposed by:

(1) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Miller
(3) Charles Darwin
(4) Weismann

59) From the point of view of early chemical evolution, the simple organic molecules formed were:

(1) Sugar
(2) Amino acid
(3) Purine and Pyrimidines
(4) All of these

60) Which of the following gas, was absent in primitive atmosphere?

(1) H2
(2) N2
(3) O2
(4) NH3

61) A biotic synthesis can take place today because:

(1) Earths atmosphere is not reducing

(2) Earth's atmosphere is oxidizing
(3) Temperature is not high
(4) All of the above

62) Which of these is a false statement:

(A) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(B) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
(C) Prokaryotes were started photosynthesis.
(D) The primitive atmosphere was more suitable for cynobacteria.

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (C) and (D)
(3) Only (D)
(4) (B) and (D)

63) The most acceptable theory of origin of life was proposed by:
(1) Miller and Urey
(2) Darwin and Huxley
(3) Schleidena and Schwann
(4) Oparin and Haldane

64) Louis Pasteur's view on the origin of life is that:

(1) Life originated within six days

(2) Life originated spontaneously from the living organisms only
(3) Life originated spontaneously from the non-living substances
(4) Life came from other planet

65) About how long ago was the earth formed:

(1) 4.5 billion years ago

(2) 10 billion years ago
(3) 3.0 billion years ago
(4) 20 billion years ago

66) The thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbits represent:

(1) Analogy
(2) Homology
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) None of these

67) Analogous organs represents:

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Convergent and Divergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

68) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point
and literally radiating to the other area of geography is called an _______.

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Atavism
(3) Saltation
(4) Adaptive radiation

69) The eye of Octopus and eye of Vertebrates shows different patterns of structure, yet they
perform similar function. This an example of:

(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

70) Homologous organs are usually:

(1) Similar in origin

(2) Similar in function
(3) Similar in development
(4) SImilar in behavious

71) Tasmanian Wolf is a marsupial while Asian Wolf is a placental mammal. This shows:

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters

72) How many following statements are correct according to theory of special creation?
(i) All living organisms that we see, today were created as such.
(ii) Life came out from decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud, etc.
(iii) Earth is about 4000 years old.
(iv) Units of life called spores were transferred to different planets including earth from outer space.
(v) Life comes only from pre-existing life.
(vi) Diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) All of these

73) Koala is:-

(1) Marsupial mammal

(2) Placental mammal
(3) Placental anteater mammal
(4) Marsupial anteater mammal

74) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding universe including earth?
(i) The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe.
(ii) The universe expanded and hence, the temperature came down. Hydrogen and Helium formed
sometime later.
(iii) The gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present day universe.
(iv) There was no atomosphere on early earth.
(v) Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia released from molten mass covered the
surface.
(vi) The UV rays from the sun brokeup water into Hydrogen and Oxygen and the lighter O2 escaped.

(1) (i), (v) and (vi)

(2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (v) and (vi) only
(4) Only (vi)

75) S.L Miller performed his experiment in:-

(1) 1955
(2) 1963
(3) 1953
(4) 1954

76) Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the:

(1) Development of embryo

(2) Homologous organs
(3) Fossils
(4) Analogous organs

77) Fossils are generally found in:

(1) Sedimentary rocks

(2) Igneous rocks
(3) Metamorphic rocks
(4) None of these

78) Assertion : Comparative anatomy and morphology shows similarities and differences among
organisms of today and those that existed years ago.
Reason: In whales, bats, Cheetah and human: all of them have humerus, radius, ulna, carpals,
metacarpals and phalanges in their forelimbs.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

79) Assertion : Life originated by chance coming together of necessary chemicals through a series
of chemical reactions in which elements combined to form organic compounds in water.
Reason: Biogenesis has not been experimentally proved.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

80) Statement I : A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in
which they existed.
Statement II : Different-aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-forms who probably
died during the formation of the particular sediment.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

81) Which of the following statements are not incorrect?

Statement I : An a mixed population, those that can better adapt, survive and increase in
population size.
Statement II : Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.

(1) Only statement I is not incorrect

(2) Only statement II is not incorrect
(3) Both statements I and II are not correct
(4) Both statements I and II are not incorrect

82) Presence of tail in new born baby is an example of:

(1) Atavism
(2) Vestigial organs
(3) Homology
(4) Analogy

83) Ontogeny of frog exhibits phylogeny, because:

(1) Larva is an example of living fossil

(2) Phylogeny repeats ontogeny
(3) Ontogeny exhibits natural selection
(4) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

84) Which of the following is the vestigial organs of man?

(1) Caudal vertebrae, vermiform appendex and ear muscles

(2) Hair, atlas and ear muscles
(3) Caudal vertebrae, wisdom teeth and patella
(4) Hair, cochlea and vermiform appendix

85) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
(I) Formation of protobionts
(II) Synthesis of organic monomers
(III) Synthesis of organic polymers
(IV) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) II, III, IV, I
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, III, II, IV

86) Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:

(1) Alfred Wallace

(2) Charles Darwin
(3) Oparin
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer

87) Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to
changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(A) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands.
(B) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(C) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(D) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs

(1) (A) and (C)

(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) Only (D)
(4) Only (A)

88) After about how many years of formation of earth, life appeared on this planet?

(1) 50 billion years

(2) 500 billion years
(3) 50 million years
(4) 500 million years

89) Embryological support for evolution was proposed by:

(1) Alfred Wallace

(2) Ernst Heckel
(3) Karl Ernst vol Baer
(4) Charles Darwin

90) Select the correct match regarding adaptive radiation of Australian marsupials corresponding to
placental mammals:

(1) Spotted Cuscus - Lemur

(2) Numbat - Flying Squirrel
(3) Tasmanian Wolf - Bobcat
(4) Marsupial mouse - Mole
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 1 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 4 4 4 4 1 1 4 2 4 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 1 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 3 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 2 1 2 2 4 3 1 1 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 4 1 1 4 2 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For diamagnetic substance

x is -ve and small
∴ slope = -ve and |slope| = small

2) M = ⇒ = ⇒ depend on q, m

3) Theoretical

4) Pole strength does not depend on length.

So, strength of the two pieces will remain same.

5)

M.F. Lines forms closed loop. Outside the magnet it is directed from North to south inside it is
directed from south to north.

6)
Point P in the axial direction for resultant magnetic moment

B=

7) For diamagnetic material does not depend on temperature.

8) Magnetic moment of bar magnet :–

(a) Parallel to its length :-

For each part :-
l' = l

m' = (A' = )
Magnetic moment of each part :-
M' = (m/2)l

(b) Perpendicular to its length :-

For each part :-

l' =
m' = m (A' = A)
Magnetic moment of each part
M' = m(l/2)

Sp. Note :-
A bar magnet of magnetic moment ‘M’ cuts into ‘n’ equal parts then magnetic moment of each
part becomes :

9) Magnetic induction for medium

10)

(a) MNet =

(b) MNet = 0
 (c) MNet = 2M

(d) MNet =
c>d>a>b

11) Magnetic moment of rod = M

Let r be the radius after bending it into a semicircular arc.
The separation between the two ends is 2r. Here
length = circumference of the semicircle
i.e.,

Also and

12)

By theory

13)

14)

Angle between normal to the plane of the coil and direction of magnetic field is θ = 60o

∴ Flux linked with coil ϕ = BA cosθ = 4.0 × 0.5 × cos 60o ⇒ ϕ = 1 weber

15) The direction of current in the solenoid is anti-clockwise as seen by observer. On

displacing it towards the loop a current in the loop will be induced in a direction so as to
oppose the approach of solenoid. Therefore the direction of induced current as observed by

the observer will be clockwise.

16)

Given m = 4A-m, 2ℓ = 8 cm, A = 1 cm2

I= = =

I= = 4 × 104 A/m

17)

18) Question Explanation :

We need to determine the total charge Q passing through a circuit when the magnetic flux
changes by Δϕ over time Δt in a circuit with resistance R.

Concept :
Based on Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction and Ohm's Law, the induced emf
produces a current in the circuit.

Formula Used :

• Faraday's Law:

• Ohm's Law:
• Charge Flow: Q = IΔt

Calculation :

Final Answer: Q =

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

19) By using
20)

Explaining the question : The question asks to identify the correct graph (I-H curve) that
represents the behavior of paramagnetic materials, showing how the induced magnetic
intensity I varies with the applied magnetic field H.
Concept : Paramagnetic materials have atomic magnetic moments that are randomly oriented
without an external magnetic field, resulting in zero net magnetization. When an external
magnetic field H is applied, these moments slightly align with the field, causing a small
positive magnetization. This magnetization (or induced intensity I) is directly proportional to
the applied field H for paramagnetic substances.
Solution : The relationship between magnetization (intensity I) and magnetic field (H) for
paramagnetic materials is given by \[ I = \chi_m H \] where is the magnetic susceptibility, a
small positive constant.
Tips and Tricks : Remember that for paramagnetic materials, magnetization is proportional
and positive with applied field, unlike ferromagnetic materials that show hysteresis.
Common Mistakes : Mistaking the I-H curve for paramagnetic materials as nonlinear or having
hysteresis loops, which is characteristic of ferromagnetic materials. Also, selecting a graph
with a negative slope is incorrect.

Final answer : Graphs showing nonlinear behavior, hysteresis loops, or negative slopes do not
correctly represent paramagnetic behavior because paramagnetism is characterized by a
linear, positively sloped I-H relationship.

21) Magnetic field exist in

Closed Loops (Monopoles do not exist)

(Gauss law for magnetism)

22) ϕ = BA

= [ML2T–2A–1]

23)

= Ampere/meter

24) When loop is entering in the field, magnetic flux linked with the loop increases so induced
emf in it
ε = Bvl = 0.6 × 10–2 × 5 × 10–2
= 3 × 10–4 V (Negative).
When loop completely enters in the field (after 5 sec) flux linked with the loop remains
constant, so ε = 0.
After 15 sec, loop begins to exist, linked magnetic flux decreases so induced emf
ε = 3 × 10–4V (Positive).

25) Problem Explanation : We need to find the magnetic susceptibility (฀) of a

paramagnetic substance given its magnetic dipole moment and magnetic intensity.
Concept Used :
Magnetic susceptibility.

Formula :
Magnetic susceptibility (฀) is related to magnetization (M) and magnetic intensity (H) by:
M = ฀H where
• Magnetization (M) is the magnetic dipole moment per unit volume: M =

• Magnetic susceptibility is then given by: ฀ =

Calculation:
1. Calculate volume of the cube: V = (1 cm)3 = (10–2 m)3 = 10–6 m3

2. Magnetization: M =
M = 20 A/m

3. Magnetic susceptibility: ฀ = ฀= = 3.33 × 10–4

Final Answer : 3.3 × 10–4

26)

For without acceleration

mg = BIℓ

mg = B × ×ℓ

mg = B × ×ℓ

v=

27)
dF = Edq
dτ = RdF

( I = mR2)
 28)

29) The charge through the coil = area of current-time (i – t) graph

Δϕ = 2 weber

30)

31) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
A permanent magnet retains strong magnetization (high retentivity) and demagnetization
(high coercivity). This ensures a stable, long-lasting magnetic field even under external
influences.
Concept:
Permanent magnets need high retentivity for strong magnetization and high coercivity to
resist demagnetization from external fields or temperature changes:
Formula:

A. Retentivity (Br): The residual magnetic field after external magnetization is removed.
B. Coercivity (Hc): The field required to demagnetize the material.

Key Conclusion:
High retentivity ensures strong permanent magnetization, while high coercivity prevents
easy demagnetization.

32) Induced emf e = Bvℓ ⇒ e = Bv (2R) =

33)

Side AD and BC are perpendicular to both velocity V & magnetic field, so cut the magnetic
field lines. Emf and electric field induced in AD and BC.

34) Induced current in the circuit

Magnetic force acting on the wire

 External force needed to move the rod with constant velocity

= 3.75 × 10–3 N

35) NCERT XII Pg#224

(∵ B = μ0nI ; L = μ0n2Aℓ)

UB = (B2Aℓ)

36) qt = 3sec = –7C, I =

Va +
Va – Vb = 26 – 3.5 = 22.5 V

37)

use B1 = B2

38) L2 and L3 are in parallel. Thus their combination gives

The L' and L1 are in series, thus the equivalent inductance is L = L1 + L' = 0.75 + 0.25 = 1H.

39)

M=

= (1)
 =

M∝

40) Explaining : The emf produced when I changes from 0 to 1A. in t = 10 seconds and L
= 10 µH
Concept : This question is based on

emf =

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

41) At t = 0

I=

42)

In steady state

A/C to ohm law

I= =

I=

43) Coercivity of a bar magnet is the value of magnetic filed intensity (H) that is needed to
reduce magnetisation to zero.
Since, for a solenoid magnetic induction is given as, ....(i) Where, n is
the number of turns (N) per unit, length (l) and l is the current.
Also ....(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

or
Substituting the given values , we get
 Thus, the value of coercivity of the bar magnet is 2600 A/m.

44)

The values of relative permeability of diamagnetic material are slightly less than 1 and ∈r is
quite high. According to given options we can take ∈r = 1.5 and μr = 0.5

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) C2O4–2 is a bidentate ligand

47)

Asking for : Number of ions furnished by complex K4​[Fe(CN)6​] in solution

Concept : Ionic compounds dissociate into their constituent ions in solution.

Solution:
Complex salts dissociate into simple cations and complex anions.

K4​[Fe(CN)6​] is a complex salt.

In aqueous solution, it dissociates into four potassium ions (4K+) and one complex ion
hexacyanoferrate(II) ion ([Fe(CN)6​]4−).

Therefore, the total number of ions present in the solution is 4 + 1 = 5.

Answer : Option : 4

48) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 247 Part-I

49) Answer-Option (1)

Explanation-The question asks how Fe coordination in Fe(CO)5 affects the C-O bond length.
Concept- (Back bonding in Fe(CO)5, Bond length C — O)
In Fe(CO)5 there exists a synergic bond between Fe and CO. Due to synergic bond formation
between metal and CO, the bond order of CO decreases.
As bond
As bond order decreases the Band length increases. Here the only option having greater bond
length than 1.128A° is option (1)-1.15A°
50)
Fe has (II) charge

51)

EAM = 26 – 3 + 2 × 6
= 35

52)

Asking for : Identifying the complex ion exhibiting geometrical isomerism.

Concept : Geometrical isomerism arises from different spatial arrangements of ligands around
the central metal atom in complexes with two or more types of ligands.

Solution / Explanation : [Cr(H2​O)4​Cl2​]+ - an octahedral complex of type MA4​B2 can exist as

cis - and trans isomers.

[Pt(NH3​)3​Cl]+ - (MA3​B type), [Co(NH3​)6​]3+ - (MA6 type​), and [Co(CN)5​(NC)]3− - (MA5​B type) lack
the necessary arrangement of different ligands for geometrical isomerism.

Answer : Option : 1

53)

Explanation :
The question asks about the specific d-orbital that the Nickel(II) ion utilizes in its dsp²
hybridization within the square planar complex [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻.

Concept :
Hybridization

Solution :
The complex ion [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ has a square planar geometry. This arises from dsp² hybridization
of the central Ni²⁺ ion. Specifically, the dₓ²-y² orbital of nickel is involved in the hybridization
process along with the s and two p orbitals to form the four hybrid orbitals directed towards
the cyanide ligands.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

54)

55)
 Explanation :
The question asks to identify which of the given coordination complexes is an outer orbital
complex.

Concept :
Valence Bond Theory (VBT)

Solution :

A. In [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺, Ni²⁺ has a 3d⁸ configuration.

B. NH₃ is a relatively strong field ligand but doesn't cause pairing here.
C. The hybridization involves 4s, 4p, and 4d orbitals, resulting in sp³d².

Thus, the outer 4d orbitals are used, making it an outer orbital complex with high spin.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

56)

57)
no. of unpaired e¯ = 5

Hybridisation → sp³, Tetrahedral geometry

58) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 248 (2019)

59) [NiCl4]2– is tetrahedral (sp3) with 3 atoms in one plane (1 central atom + 2 side atoms)

60) [Sc(H2O)6]Cl3 → Sc+3 = 3d° colourless.

61) Δ0 < Pairing energy

Means No pairing ⇒

62) Explanation :
The question asks you to arrange four given chromium coordination complexes in increasing
order of their crystal field splitting energy (Δ0).

Concept :
Crystal Field Theory (CFT)
Solution :
The splitting energy (Δ0) depends on the ligands' strength in the spectrochemical series : Cl– <
H2O < NH3 < CN–. Since Cr2+(d4) is the central ion in all octahedral complexes, the increasing
order of Δ0 is determined by the ligands field strength, resulting in : [CrCl6]–4 < [Cr(H2O)6]+2 <
[Cr(NH3)6]+2 < [Cr(CN)6]–4

63)

Option 1 is correct d3 (Octahedral).

64)

[Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
Fe+1 → 3d64s1

→ sp3d2
→ Outer Orbital Complex
→ +1 O.S.
→ 3 unpaired e– (paramagnetic)
→ µ = 3.87 B.M.

65)

(a) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2

- linkage isomerism (iii)
(b) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] and [Cr(CN)6] [Co(NH3)6]
- coordination isomerism (ii)
(c) [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
- ionisation isomerism (i)
(d) [Cr(H2O)6Cl3] and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
- solvate isomerism (iv)
(a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

66)
The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle in above octahedral complex is 90°

67)

[Co(en)2Cl2]
[M(AA)2b2]
68) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] has POS so optically inactive.

69)

[Pt(NH3)2(CN)2]
[Ma2b2] with ambidentate ligand

Similarly,
[Pt(NH3)2(NC)(CN)] → cis & trans
[Pt(NH3)2(NC)2] → cis & trans
∴ There will be total 6 isomers.

70) [Link] = 4, O.N. = +2

So 4 + 2 = 6

71)

+ve charge on CMA

= M – C bond strength
= C – O bond strength

72)

= = 8000 cm–1

73)

Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

Ni → 3d8 4s2
CO is SFL so unpaired electrons will get paired.

sp3 hybridisation
Tetrahedral, diamagnetic

74)

Bidentate or didentate means, ligands have 2 donor atoms.

C2O4–2

75) Question is Asking About:

In this question we have to check which complex is used to be as an anticancer agent.
Concept:
is known as platin. It is used as an anticancer agent.

Hence, option (2) is correct.

76) CoCl3.5NH3 or [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2(aq)

77) Asking About :- geometrical isomerism in compounds

Concept :- geometrical isomerism
Soln / Explanation :-

This complex has six identical CN– ligands. There are no different arrangements possible.
Number of stereoisomers. : 1 (no geometrical or optical isomers)

en is ethylenediamine, a bidentate ligand. We have two types of ligands: en and CN– Geometrical
isomers are possible: cis (en adjacent to two CNs) and trans (en opposite to two CNs)
The cis isomer is chiral and has a non-superimposable mirror image (two optical isomers)
Number of stereoisomers : 3 (1 trans + 2 cis)

• Two en ligands and two Cl– ligands.

 • Geometrical isomers are possible: cis (Cl ligands adjacent) and trans (Cl ligands opposite)
• The cis isomer is chiral (two optical isomers)
• Number os stereoisomers: 3 (1 tans + 2 cis).

• Three en ligands.
• This complex is chiral (no plane of symmetry)
• Tow optical isomers are possible (non- superimposable mirror images)
• Number of stereoisomers : 2 (no geometrical isomers, only optical)

78)

dxy, dyz and dxz orbitals are present in t2g set in octahedral complex.

79)

80) is most stable complex among the given complexes as en(ethylenediamine) is

chelating ligand forms stable complex.

81)

Ligand field strength Eabs

82)

Both are correct but reason is not explaining formation of co-ordinate compound.

83)

[M(Co)x] EAN = 36
36 = 26 – 0 + 2x

x=5

84) EDTA is a hexadentate ligand, thus only one molecule is sufficient to form an octahedral
 complex.

85) CO > CN– > NH2–NH2 > NH3

86) For 3d4

0
If ligand is SFL : t2g4 eg (Low spin)
3 1
If ligand is WFL : t2g eg (High spin)

87)
So it gives test of only species.

88) An ambidentate ligand is one which has two donor atoms but either of the two can form a
Co-ordinate bond.

89)

Δ0 = 10400 cm–1
P = 17600 cm–1

Δ0 < P WFL

90)

A is tetrahedral and have two unpaired electrons, B is tetrahedral with no unpaired electrons,
C is square planar with zero unpaired electrons, D has octahedral geometry with two unpaired
electrons, E is tetrahedral with zero unpaired electrons.
Hence, A and D have unpaired electrons and show paramagnetic character.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 81

92)

NCERT XII, Pg#76

93)

NCERT XII, Pg#68

94) NCERT-XII, Pg # 91(E), 100(H)

95) NCERT Pg. # 91(E), 101(H)

96)

NCERT XII, Pg#70

97) Ncert Pg No. 83

98)

NCERT XII, Pg#72

99)

NCERT XII, Pg#65

100)

NCERT XII, Pg#67

101)

NCERT XII, Pg#67

102) NCERT-XII/Page no. 83

103)

NCERT XII, Pg#74

104)

NCERT XII, Pg#67

105)

NCERT XII, Pg#67

106)

NCERT XII, Pg#72

107)

NCERT XII, Pg#67

108) NCERT-XII, Pg # 83(E), 93(H)

109) NCERT XII Page No. # 89

110)

NCERT XII, Pg#76

111)

NCERT XII, Pg#73

112)

NCERT XII, Pg#74

113)

NCERT XII, Pg#73

114)

NCERT XII, Pg#73

115)

NCERT XII, Pg#73

116)

NCERT XII, Pg#74

117)

NCERT XII, Pg#69

118)

NCERT XII, Pg#72

119)

NCERT XII, Pg#71

120) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 85

121)

NCERT XII, Pg#71

122) NCERT XII pg.# 85

123)

NCERT XII, Pg#70

124)

NCERT XII, Pg#71

125)

NCERT XII, Pg#75

126)

NCERT XII, Pg#76

127)

NCERT XII, Pg#76

128)

NCERT XII, Pg#73

129)

NCERT XII, Pg#74,75

130)

NCERT XII, Pg#73

131) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 89

132)

67 Module

133)

NCERT XII, Pg#76

134)

NCERT XII, Pg#76

135)

NCERT XII, Pg#75

136) Module-2, Pg. # 131, 7.3

137)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#119

138)

NCERT XII, Page # 115

139) Explaining the Question:

Marsupial mole and kangaroo are the examples of-

Concept:
Evolution

Solution:
Marsupial mole and kangaroo are examples of adaptive radiation and divergent evolution.
 Adaptive Radiation : The process to evolution of different species in a given sea graphical
area starting from a point and literally recharting to other areas of habitat.

Convergent Evolution : When same structure developed along different directions due to
Adaptation to different needs.

Final Answer:
Option (4)

140)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#123

141) NCERT(XII) Pg# 129 Para: 7.3

142)

NCERT-XII Pg#133

143)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#112

144)

The first living beings were single celled bacteria like prokaryotes with naked DNA.
• They were probably chemoheterotrophs and anaerobic.

145) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

146) THEORY OF SPONTANEOUS GENERATION (ABIOGENESIS/AUTOGENESIS) :

A. For a long time, it was also believed that the life came out of decaying and rotting matter like
straw, mud, etc. spontaneously.

147)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#112

148)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

149)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#149

150)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

151)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

152)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

153)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

154)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

155)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

156)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#115

157)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#115

158)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#116

159)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#115

160)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#115

161)
NEW NCERT XI,Pg#118

162)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#112

163)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#117

164)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

165)

S.L. Miller conducted his famous experiment in 1953. This experiment, often referred to as
the Miller-Urey experiment, aimed to simulate the conditions of the early Earth and investigate
the origin of life.

166)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#113

167)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#113

168)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#115

169)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

170)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#113

171)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#116

172)
The presence of a tail in a newborn, a rare occurrence, is an example of atavism, also known
as a "reversion" or "throwback".

173)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#113

174)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#112

175)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#112

176)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#113

177)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#116

178)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#111

179)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#113

180)

NEW NCERT XI,Pg#118