23-07-2025

7601CMD303022250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) n identical capacitors each of capacitance C when connected in parallel given the effective
capacitance 90µF and when connected in series give 2.5 µF. The value of n and C respectively are :-

(1) 6 and 15 µF
(2) 5 and 18 µF
(3) 15 and 6 µF
(4) 18 and 5 µF

2)

On placing a dielectric plate between the plates of a charged condenser its:-

Potential Energy
Capacity Charge
Difference stored

remains
(1) decreases decreases increases
unchanged

remains
(2) increases increases increases
unchanged

remains
(3) increases decreases decreases
unchanged

remains
(4) decreases decreases increases
unchanged
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal charges combine to form a big drop. The
ratio of the potentials of the bigger drop and the smaller drop is :-

(1) 8 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 8

4) A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C. It is discharged through a small coil of resistance
wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity s and mass m. If the
temperature of the block is raised by ΔT, the potential difference V across the capacitance is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Minimum number of capacitors of 4 μF capacitance each required to obtain a capacitor of 10 μF

will be :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

6) Two condensers of capacities 2 C and C are joined in parallel and charged up to potential V. The
battery is removed and the condenser of capacity C is filled completely with a medium of dielectric
constant K. The p.d. across the capacitors will now be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5μF capacitor is-

(1)
volts
(2) 4 volts
(3) 6 volts
(4) 8 volts

8) Find the equivalent capacitance of circuit and charge on 5 µF capacitor

(1) 4µF, 50µC
(2) 8µF, 25µC
(3) 4µF, 25µC
(4) 8µF, 50µC

9) Current drawn by the battery long time after switch 'S' is closed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is 10 μF. As shown in the figure this capacitor is
divided into two equal parts; these parts are filled by media of dielectric constants K1 = 2 and K2 = 4.

Capacity of this arrangement will be :

(1) 20 μF
(2) 30 μF
(3) 10 μF
(4) 40 μF

11) A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
different dielectric constants K1, K2 and K3 as shown in figure. If a single dielectric material is to be
used to have same capacitance C in this capacitor, then the dielectric constant K is given by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) K = K1 + K2 + 2K3

12) For the circuit shown in figure find the charge stored on capacitor in steady state.

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

13) Equivalent capacitance between A and B is :-

(1) 8 μ F
(2) 6 μ F
(3) 26 μ F
(4) 10/3 μ F
14) Find time constant of following circuit.

(1) RC
(2) 2/3 RC
(3) 5/3 RC
(4) 3/2 RC

15) In the given figure capacitor and it capacitance and breakdown voltage as shown, then what will
be the e.m.f of source we can apply, so that all capacitor are safe in the circuit :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Potential difference between the points A and B is :-

(1) 8V
(2) –8V
(3) 12V
(4) –12V

17) Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other capacity 2C, are connected to a V volt battery,

as shown in figure The work done in charging fully both the condenser
is

(1)
(2) 2CV2

(3)

(4) 3CV2

18) A parallel plate capacitor has charge Q and surface area of each plate is A. The force of
attraction between the plates of the parallel plate capacitor.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K, that can just fill the air gap of capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the
following is incorrect ?

(1) The energy stored in the capacitor increases K times

(2)
The change in energy stored is
(3) The charge on the capacitor remain same as before
(4) The potential difference between the plates remain unchanged.

20) Find charge on capacitor at steady state.

(1) 14µC
(2) 4µC
(3) 2µC
(4) 1µC

21) Calculate the current flowing through the capacitor branch in the circuit shown in figure,

initially after the switch is closed.

(1) zero
(2) 20A
(3) 10A
(4) 5A

22) A current of 1.6 A is flowing through a wire having cross-sectional area 1 mm2. If density of free
electrons in the material of the wire is 1029 per m3, the drift velocity of electrons will be :-

(1) 10–4 m/s

(2) 10–3 m/s
(3) 10–2 m/s
(4) 0.1 m/s

23) Find total charge flow through it from 2 sec to 8 sec.

(1) 35 μC
(2) 40 μC
(3) 45 μC
(4) None of these

24) Find potential difference across 24 Ω :-

(1) 48 volt
(2) 2 volt
(3) 4 volt
(4) 1 volt

25) The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of current is shown here. The current i
will be

(1) 3 A
(2) 13 A
(3) 23 A
(4) -3 A

26) The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :-

(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 6 A

27) Find the power dissipated in the circuit.

(1) 1.5 W
(2) 2 W
(3) 1 W
(4) none of the above

28) Find the potential difference (Va – Vb) between a and b in the given circuit

(1) 14 V
(2) 17 V
(3) 12 V
(4) –14V

29) Consider a solid wire of square cross–section (fig.). Its resistance between square faces is R1 and

between rectangular faces is R2 then R1/R2 is

(1) a/b
(2) b/a
(3) a2/b2
(4) b2/a2

30) Equivalent resistance between the points A and B is :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 3 Ω
(4) 4 Ω

31) In the circuit, calculate the current through 6 V battery is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

32) An electric current passes through non uniform cross section wire made of homogenous &
isotropic material . If JA & JB be the current density & EA & EB are electric field intensity at A & B
respectively then :–

(1) JA > JB , EA > EB

(2) JA > JB , EA< EB
(3) JA < JB , EA > EB
(4) JA < JB, EA < EB

33) In the given circuit, find the reading of voltmeter will be

(1) E
(2) 2E

(3)

(4) Zero

34) For the circuit shown in figure choose incorrect answer

(1) i1 = 24 A
(2) i2 = 2 A
(3) i3 = 15 A
(4) i4 = 8A

35) Find the value of current in 4Ω ?

(1) 4A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 1A

36) The bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are connected to the mains as shown in figure. If B3 is disconnected from

the circuit by opening switch S, then incandescence of bulb B1 will :-

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Become zero
(4) No change

37) Two wires of resistances R1 and R2 have temperatuere coefficient of resistance α1 and α2
respectively. These are joined in series the effective temperature coefficient of resistance is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Variation of current passing through a conductor as the voltage applied across its ends is varied
as shown in the adjoining Fig. If the resistance is determined at the points A, B, C and D, we will find

that :-

(1) Resistance at C and D are equal

(2) Resistance at B is higher than at C
(3) Resistance at C is higher than at B
(4) none of the above

39) Find current i in the circuit.

(1) 1/4 A
(2) 1/3 A
(3) 1/2 A
(4) None

40)

Resistances R, 2R, 4R, 8R, ........ ∞ are connected in parallel, then the effective resistance will be

(1) R
(2) 2R
(3) R/2
(4) 4R

41) Reading of ameter will be :

(1) 10A
(2) 4A
(3) 16A
(4) 20A

42) The elevator shown in fig. is descending with an acceleration of 2 ms–2. The mass of the block A
= 0.5 kg. The force exerted by the block A on the block B is :- (take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 8 N
43) If spring constant of the spring is 100 N/m, extension produced in it is nearly :-

(1) 18 cm
(2) 13 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 21 cm

44) A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being

pulled by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 ms–2. The tension T1 will be :-

(1) 200 N
(2) 220 N
(3) 240 N
(4) 260 N

45) Calculate T1 & T2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) s-block metal oxides are basic in nature except BeO which is amphoteric.
(2) P-block non-metal oxides are acidic in nature except NO, N2O, CO.
(3) In d-block all elements are metals
(4) In p-block all elements are metals

2) Amphoteric oxide is ?

(1) CO2
(2) SnO2
(3) CaO
(4) SiO2

3) Which of following statement is incorrect :

(1) Lithium and Magnesium exhibit diagonal relationship

(2) Elements of groups 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17 are known as representative elements
(3) In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled
(4) General configuration of f-Block elements is (n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2

4) Which of the following is CORRECT order :-

(1) → Basic strength

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
(4) All of these

5) Which one of the following statement is incorrect about transition elements ?

(1) The last electron enters into them in the d-orbital

(2) Their properties are in between those of s-block elements and p-block elements
(3) The transition elements with smallest atomic number is scandium
(4) Lanthanum is not a transition element but is a lanthanoid

6) Matching list :-

Column ΙΙ
Column Ι
Period and
Element
group number

(P) Si (1) 4, 3

(Q) Sc (2) 3, 14

(R) Ga (3) 6, 13

(S) Tℓ (4) 4, 13
 P Q R S
(1) 2 1 3 4
(2) 1 2 4 3
(3) 2 1 4 3
(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which order for atomic radii is incorrect?

(1) Cl– > Na+ > Mg+2 > Al+3

(2) MnO2 > KMnO4
(3) O–2 > F– > Na+ > Mg+2
(4) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl

8) If Mn+x has 5.92 BM as magnetic moment then value of x will be :-

(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

9) If the ionic radius of and are nearly same (1.34 A°) then the atomic radius of K and F
respectively are :-

(1) 1.96 A°, 0.72

(2) 1.34 A°, 1.34 A°
(3) 0.72 A°, 1.96 A°
(4) 1.96 A°, 1.34 A°

10) In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated
against it?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F¯ - increasing ionic size
(2) B < C < N < O - increasing first ionization energy
(3) I < Br < F < Cl - increasing electron gain ethalpy (with negative sign)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb - increasing metallic radius

11) The most basic among these hydroxides, is :-

(1) Be(OH)2
(2) Mg(OH)2
(3) Ca(OH)2
(4) Ba(OH)2

12) The incorrect statement among the following is :

(1) IP1 of Al is less than IP1 of Mg

(2) IP2 of Mg is less than IP2 of Na
(3) IP1 of Na is less than IP1 of Mg
(4) IP3 of Mg is less than IP3 of Al

13) Which of the following is correct size order

(1) C < O < S < Se

(2) O < C < S < Se
(3) C < S < O < Se
(4) O < C < Se < S

14)

Correct order of size is :-

(1) Ce+3 > Gd+3 > Lu+3 > La+3

(2) Li > I > Br > Cl
(3) Mg > Mg+2 > Al > Al+3
(4) O+ > O > O– > O–2

15) Fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine are placed in the same group (17) of the periodic table,
because:-

(1) They are non-metals

(2) They are electronegative
(3) Their atoms are generally univalent
(4) They have 7 electron in the outermost shell of their atom

16) The process requiring the absorption of energy is

(1) F F¯
(2) Cl Cl¯
(3) O O2¯
(4) H H¯

17)

Consider the following sequence of reaction.

The final product (B) is :-

(1)

(2) C6H5CH2CH2OCH3

(3)

(4)

18) Products?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)
20) Identify the product obtained in the following reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

+ Br2 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following ether can not under go in cleavage with HI?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

23) Which of the following reaction/s are possible
(A) CH3–CH2–OH

(B) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(C)
(D) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, C, D
(4) All are possible

24) What will be final product (B) in the following sequence of reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) CH3CH2Br
Find correct statement :-
 2
(1) All the product formed follow SN mechanism.
(2) Product (A) is formed by reaction known as swarts reaction.
(3) Product (B) is formed by reaction williamson's contineous etherification reaction.
(4) All of these

26) Which of the following reaction is not favourable in forward direction :-

(1)
+ Na —→

(2)

+ NaHCO3 —→

(3)
+ NaOH —→

(4)
+ NaHCO3 —→

27) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

Reagents Products
I CH3Br + AgNO2 CH3NO2
II CH3CH2Cl + KCN CH3CH2CN
III CH3CH2OH + KBr CH3CH2Br
IV CH3–O–CH3 + NaBr CH3Br
(1) I, II, IV
(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) I, II
(4) I, II, III

28) Which of the following compound is most reactive in Williamson ether synthesis ?

(1) t-butyl chloride

(2) Ethyl chloride
(3) Methyl chloride
(4) s-butyl chloride

29) Among the compounds

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
The correct decreasing order of acidic strength is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30)
A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Major product is

:-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CHO
(3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
(4) None

32) Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid ?

(1) Victor-Mayer test

(2) Neutral FeCl3
(3) Aqueous NaOH
(4) Tollen's reagent
33) The major product in the following reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) When vapours of a secondary alcohol is passed over heated copper at 573 K, the product formed
is :-

(1) a carboxylic acid

(2) an aldehyde
(3) a ketone
(4) an alkene

35) The product of the reaction between diethyl cadmium and acetylchloride is -

(1) CH3COCH3
(2) C2H5COC2H5
(3) CH3CHO
(4) CH3COC2H5

36)

In which of the following reaction aldehyde will form?

(a) Stephen's reduction
R–C N+SnCl2+HCl
(b) Etard reaction

(c) Gattermain's formylation

+CO+HCl

(d) Ph–CH=N–CH3
(1) Only a & b
(2) Only a & c
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) All of these

37) Identify product Z in the following reaction sequence CH2=CH–CH2–Br Y

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) CH3–Br X Y

(1) (CH3)3C–OH

(2)

(3) (CH3)3C–NH2

(4)

39) Which cannot be prepared by Rosenmund reduction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) CH3CH2 – C ≡ N + C6H5MgBr → A B

B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH = NH

(4)

41) Assertion : In lucas test, 3° alcohols react immediately.

Reason : An equimolar mixture of anhyd ZnCl2 and conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Assertion : tert-butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of tert-butyl bromide with
sodium methoxide.
Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong nucleophite.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Assertion : Alcohols have higher boiling points than ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason : Alcohols and ethers are isomeric in nature.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) The assertion and reason both are false.

44) Assertion (A) :- Order of IP in 13th group is

B > Tl > Ga > In > Al.
Reason (R) :- Irregular trend in I.E. is due to Transition contraction & Lanthanoid contraction is
present in 13th group.

(1) A is correct & R is correct, R is correct explanation of A

(2) A is correct, R is incorrect
(3) A is incorrect, R is correct
(4) Both A & R incorrect

45) Assertion :- H2Se is more acidic than H2S.

Reason :- S is more electronegative than Se.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

BIOLOGY

1) A common feature of inanimate and animate object was

(1) Sense of rejuvenation

(2) Sense of awe
(3) Sense of fear
(4) More than one option is correct

2) Read the following terms carefully :-

Chara, Algin, Carrageen, Mannitol, Chlorophyll 'b' , Polysiphonia, Dictyota, Fucus, Pyriform
gametes, Oogamous, Volvox, Chlorophyll 'd', Fucoxanthin, Phycoerythrin, holdfast How many terms
are related with brown algae.

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 7
(4) 8

3) Oogamous type of reproduction found in :-

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Chlorella
(3) Fucus
(4) Anabaena

4) Read the following statements (a – e) and answer the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts and mosses gametophytes are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(c) Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix, Ectocarpus and Spirogyra is oogamous
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are not correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

5) Societies with ____ view of biology could register ___ progress in Biological knowledge

(1) Monumental, Limited

(2) Systematic, Greater
(3) Anthropocentric, Limited
(4) Systematic, Limited

6) Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them :-
(A) In Sphagnum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte
(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent
(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum
(D) In pteridophyte main plant body is gametophyte.
(E) Some pteridophyte flourish well in sandy soil.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

7) How many of the following structures have a single set of chromosome in cells ?
Primary protonema of moss, Rhizoids of fern prothallus, Gemmae in Marchantia, Capsule wall of
moss, Endosperm of Pinus, Vegetative cell of pollen grain, Leaves of fern, Cotyledons of wheat,
Leaves of Funaria

(1) Eight
(2) Six
(3) Five
(4) Seven

8) How many plants in the list given below are the members of non vascular embryophytes :-
Spirogyra, Volvox, Fucus, Polysiphonia, Polytrichum, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Funaria, Selaginella,
Equisetum.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
9) Read statement A to D & find out how many is/are incorrect statement :
(A) In majority of the pteridophytes all the spores are of similar kinds.
(B) Genera like Selaginella & Salvinia produce two kind of spore.
(C) Female gametophytes is retained on parental sporophyte. This event is a precursor to the seed
habit.
(D) Red algae reproduce asexually via motile spores

(1) zero
(2) one
(3) two
(4) three

10) Complex post fertilization developments are seen in :-

(1) Chlorella and spirullina

(2) Gracilaria and porphyra
(3) Volvox and ulothrix
(4) Gelidium and chara

11) (A) Cell wall possesses pectin.

(B) Cell wall contains poly-sulphate esters.
(C) Multicellular thalli in most cases
(D) More abundance in colder areas.
How many of above characters are shown by red algae ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

12) Which one of the following statement is not true for Bryophytes ?

(1) They are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.

(2) Mosses have multicellular and branched rhizoids.
(3) Their zygote undergoes meiosis immediately and then produces sporophyte.
(4) Their spore germinates and produces gametophyte.

13) Find the correct about bryophyta :-

(1) Bryophytes have more economic importance

(2) Have well developed root, stem and leaves
(3) Gemma cup is sexual bud
(4) Bryophytes have great ecological importance

14) Select the option that correctly identifies A, B and C in the given figure of Thallus of Marchantia:
(1) A - Antheridiophore, B - Bud, C - Rhizoids
(2) A - Antheridiophore, B - rhizoids, C - Gemma cup
(3) A - Archegoniophore, B - Gemma cup, C - Rhizoids
(4) A - Archegoniophore, B - Rhizoids, C - Gemma cup

15) Study the given diagram and give answer of questions a, b and c.
(a) Name of plant ?
(b) Class of plant ?
(c) Ploidy of rhizoids ?

a b c

(1) Sphagnum Lycopsida Haploid

(2) Equisetum Sphenopsida Diploid

(3) Funaria Liverwort Diploid

(4) Marchantia Moss Haploid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
16) Identify the diagram and a, b and c :-

(1) Chara; a - Branches, b - Stipe, c - Fronds

(2) Dictyota; a - Frond, b - Midrib, c - Stipe
(3) Laminaria; a - Frond, b - Stipe, c- Holdfast
(4) Fucus; a- Air bladder, b - Midrib, c- stipe

17) Which of the following statement is incorrect about Gymnosperm.

(1) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species

(2) Tap roots are present generally .
(3) Before and after fertilization, ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed.
(4) All Gymnosperm are dioecious without any exception.

18) Evolutionary important character of Selaginella is

(1) heterosporous nature

(2) rhizophore
(3) strobili
(4) Homosporous nature

19) The biggest spin of classification studies was recognition of sharing of similarities among living
organisms both ___

(1) Forward , backward

(2) Forward, horizontal
(3) Backward, vertically
(4) Horizontally and vertically

20) A botany student encountered a palm like, short tree with pinnately compound leaves with
sessile leaflets bearing mid rib but no lateral veins. Unbranched stem has persistent woody leaf
bases. The plant has to be :-

(1) Cycas
(2) Pinus
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Ginkgo

21) Choose the correct option of members of rhodophyceae :-

(1) Ectocarpus Porphyra, Fucus

(2) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gelidium
(3) Dictyota, Chara, Gelidium
(4) Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

22) Pyrenoids contain

(1) Oil beside starch

(2) Starch beside oil
(3) Protein beside starch
(4) Starch beside Protein

23) Assertion :- Bryophyta are reptiles of plant kingdom.

Reason :- Bryophyta are first seed producing plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Identify the following diagram (A, B, C & D) and select the correct option:-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Laminaria Funaria Salvinia

(2) Dictyota Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Fucus Chara Salvinia

(4) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Male gametes are flagellated in :-

(1) Nostoc
(2) Spirogyra
(3) Porphyra
(4) Fucus

26) Porphyra, Laminaria and sargassum are among the ___ species of marine algae used as food

(1) 80
(2) 90
(3) 70
(4) 100

27) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d.

Correctly identify

(1) a - Mesocarp; b - Seed; c - Endocarp; d - Thalamus

(2) a - Thalamus; b - Seed; c - Mesocarp; d - Endocarp
(3) a - Thalamus; b - Seed; c - Endocarp; d - Mesocarp
(4) a - Endocarp; b - Seed; c - Thalamus; d - Mesocarp

28) Choose the correct option from the following statements.

I. Apomixis can be seen in Asteraceae and grasses.
II. In Apomixis seeds develop either from diploid egg cell or from cells of nucellus.
III. Seeds collected from hybrids plant maintain hybrid character for a longer times.
IV. In Apomixis, there is segregation of characters.

(1) All are correct

(2) All are incorrect
(3) Only I and II are correct
(4) Only II, IV are correct

29) What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
chromosomes in its root tip cells?

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 63
(4) 84

30) The device to prevent inbreeding in hermaphrodite flowers is all, except

(1) Dicliny
(2) Protandry
(3) Presence of self-incompatibility
(4) Homogamy

31) Persistent of nucellus in the seed is known as perisperm, which is found in all except

(1) Black pepper

(2) Beet
(3) Castor
(4) Pea

32) Total mitotic divisions required for the development of mature male and female gametophytes
respectively from 20 microspores and 20 megaspores in an angiosperm is

(1) 40 and 20
(2) 10 and 20
(3) 40 and 40
(4) 40 and 60

33) What is true for cotyledon in grass family?

(1) Called as scutellum that is situated at the apex of embryonal axis

(2) Called as scutellum that is situated towards lateral side of the embryonal axis
(3) Called as coleoptile that is situated at the apex of embryonal axis
(4) Called as coleoptile that is situated towards lateral side of the embryonal axis

34) Asexual reproduction mimics sexual reproduction when

(1) There is no fruit formation

(2) Thalamus is associated with fruit
(3) Pseudocarpic fruits are formed
(4) Seed formation occurs without fertilization

35) The remains of second cotyledon in some grassesis called

(1) Scutellum
(2) Hypocotyl
(3) Epiblast
(4) Epicotyl

36) Statement A: Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents.

Statement B: Pollen grains coming in contact with stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water
pollination

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

37) Examine the figure given below and select the correct option w.r.t the four part A, B, C and D

correctly.

(1) A - Plumule; B - Hypocotyl; C - Cotyledon; D - Radicle

(2) A - Hypocotyl; B - Plumule; C - Cotyledon; D - Root Cap
(3) A - Hypocotyl; B - Cotyledon; C - Hypocotyl; D - Radicle
(4) A - Plumule; B - Cotyledon; C - Hypocotyl; D - Root Cap

38) Which of the following change does not occur in ovary as a result of sexual reproduction?

(1) Ovary wall → Pericarp

(2) Ovary → Fruit
(3) Ovule → Fruit wall
(4) Integument → Seed coat

39) The correct sequence of events in the life cycle bryophytes is

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D, E, A, C, В
(2) B, E, A, C, D
(3) B, E, A, D, C
(4) D, Е, А, B, C

40) Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the
correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametopyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, A, D, E, C
(2) B, A, E, C, D
(3) D, E, C, А, В
(4) E, D, C, B, A

41) Which one is wrongly matched?

(1) Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia

(2) Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae
(3) Unicellular organism-Chlorella
(4) Gemma cups - Marchantia

42) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and
carried by air currents.
Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male
gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed. In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

43)

Which of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes

(2) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes
(3) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal leafy stage
(4) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free living

44) Given below are two statements One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A The first stage of gametophyte the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate below:
answer from the options given

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is correct but R is correct.
(3) A is correct but R correct.
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

45) Assertion : In banana fruits are seedless.

Reason : In banana, fruit formation from ovary occurs without fusion of gametes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47)
People in the age group of _______are more vulnerable to STI's.

(1) 15-24 years

(2) 12-15 years
(3) 18-30 years
(4) 60-70 years

48) Find out incorrect match from the following table:-

Contains only Daily pill without any

(i) Mala-D
estrogen gap
(ii) Saheli Centchroman Steroidal
(iii) LNG-20 Pill inhibit sperm motility
(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) only (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)

49) Which of the following infections can be transmitted by sharing of injection needles?

(1) HIV & Gonorrhoea

(2) Hepatitis-B and Chlamydiasis
(3) HIV & Hepatitis-B
(4) Trichomoniasis & Gonorrhoea

50) Test tube baby programme is

(1) In-vitro fertilization followed by the transfer of embryo into the fallopian tube or uterus
(2) In-vivo fertilization in a female followed by implantation of embryo in her reproductive tract
(3) In-vitro fertilization followed by implantation of zygote into the uterus
(4) Fertilization inside the body followed by embryo transfer in test tube

51) All of the following are incorrect w.r.t. ‘Saheli’, except

(1) It is only a post-coital contraceptive pill.

(2) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing embryo from getting implanted
(3) Steroidal preparation, either progesterone or combination of progesterone or estrogen
(4) Protects the endometrial lining from adverse effect of estrogen

52) Assertion (A): Periodic abstinence is a method of conception exercised during 10th - 17th day
of the 32 days menstrual cycle by a normal healthy couple.
Reason (R): Minimum chances of conception are possible during the duration of 10th to 17th day of
the 32 days menstrual cycle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

53) Match the column

Column- I Column- II

(i) World population reached

(A) 1951
7.2 billion

(ii) MTP amendment Act by govt

(B) 1971
of India

(C) 2017 (iii) MTP legalized in India

(iv) Family planning programme

(D) 2011
launched in India
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

54) Read the following statements :

(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(b) All sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos are always transferred into the uterus.

(1) (a) and (b) correct

(2) (b) and (c) incorrect
(3) (a), (b) and (d) correct
(4) All are incorrect

55) Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the

(1) Suppression of gonadotropins

(2) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins
(3) Suppression of gametic transport
(4) Suppression of fertilization

56) IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity.
Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs?
(a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
(b) The released copper ions suppress the sperm motility.
(c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
(d) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.
(e) The IUDs require surgical intervention for their insertion in the uterine cavity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (d) and (e) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (d) only

57) According to World Health Organisation (WHO) reproductive health means total well being in all
aspects of reproduction i.e. in
(a) Physical
(b) Social
(c) Emotional
(d) Behavioural

(1) a, b, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) All

58) Which of the following method of contraception is exclusively for female use only.
Natural, Barrier, IUDs, Saheli, Injectables, implants, surgical method.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

59) Statement - I:- Reproductive and child health (RCH) care programmes creating awareness
among people about various reproduction related aspects.
Statement - II:- With the help of audio-visual and the print media governmental and non-
governmental agencies have taken various steps to create awareness among the people about
reproduction.

(1) Both Statements are correct

(2) Statement - I is true, Statement - II is false
(3) Statement - II is true, Statement - I is false
(4) Both Statements are false

60) In India the population crossed 1.2 billion mark in may 2011 the probable reason for this are, the
decline in
I. MMR
II. Death rate
III. Number of people in reproducible age
IV. IMR

(1) III and IV only

(2) I and II only
(3) I,II,III and IV
(4) I,II and IV
61) Read the following statements (A-D)
A. The programmes called family planning were initiated in 1951
B. In the last century an all-round development in various fields significantly improved quality of life
of people
C. Successful implementation of various action plans to attain reproductive health requires strong
infrastructural facilities, professional expertise and material support.
D. Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex determination to legally check increasing menace of
female foeticides.
Which of the following statements are correct ?

(1) A, B, C, only
(2) A, B,C, D,
(3) A, B, only
(4) B, C, D only

62) In a procedure, some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to analyse the fetal
cells and dissolved substances to test for the presence of following disorders to determine the
survivability of the foetus. Choose the option that includes the set of disorders accessed by this
procedure.
(a) Jaundice
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Sickle cell anemia
(d) Exopthalmic goitre
(e) Haemophilia

(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) b, c and e
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) Only b and c

63) Given below are the few statements w.r.t. progestogen-estrogen combination pills. Choose the
option which correctly states each statement as true (T) or false (F).
A. Pills have to be taken daily without any break
B. Menstruation does not occur
C. Very effective with lesser side effects
D. Well accepted by the females

A B C D

(1) F F T T

(2) T T T T

(3) T F T F

(4) F T T F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
64) Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the
statements given below:
I. They are introduced into the uterus.
II. They are placed to cover the cervical region.
III. They are an example of physical barriers.
IV. They act as spermicidal agents.

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) III and IV

65) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III:-

Column-I
Column-II Column-III
(Contraceptive
(Mechanism) (Example)
method

Copper releasing (a) Prevent

(A) (i) LNG–20
IUDs ovulation

Hormone releasing (b) Prevent

(B) (ii) Nirodh
IUDs insemination

(c) Prevent
(C) Oral pill (iii) MALA-D
implantation

(d)
(iv) Multiload
(D) Barrier method Suppress sperm
375
motility
(1) A – d – iv, B – a – i, C – c – iii, D – b – ii
(2) A – b – iv, B – c – ii, C – a – i, D – c – iii
(3) A – d – iv, B – c – i, C – a – iii, D – b – ii
(4) A – d – iv, B – a – ii, C – c – i, D – b – iii

66) The above figure is related with mouth part of cockroach. Identify A to E :-

(1) A–Maxillae, B–Hypopharynx, C–Labium, D–Mandible, E–Labrum

(2) A–Mandible, B–Labium, C–Maxilla, D–Labrum, E–Hypopharynx
(3) A–Labrum, B–Mandible, C–Hypopharynx, D–Maxilla, E–Labium
(4) A–Labium, B–Hypopharynx, C–Labrum, D–Maxilla, E–Mandible

67) In cockroach, the ootheca is formed by the secretion of :-

(1) Phallic gland
(2) Uricose gland
(3) Collaterial gland
(4) Mushroom gland

68) What is the correct sequence of organs in the digestive system of cockroach?
(a) Oesophagus (b) Ileum
(c) Gizzard (d) Colon
(e) Rectum (f) Crop
Options:

(1) a, f, c, d, e, b
(2) a, f, c, b, e, d
(3) a, f, c, b, d, e
(4) a, c, f, d, e, b

69) Select the true statement regarding frog (Rana tigrina) from following :-

(1) Frog is a homeothermal animal

(2) Frog drinks about 5 litres water per day
(3) Poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog.
(4) A very long tail is present in posterior part of frog's body.

70)

In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by the fusion of-

(1) 7th, 8th, 9th terga

(2) 8th, 9th sterna
(3) 9th tergum and 10th sternum
(4) 9th and 10th terga and 9th sternum

71) If the supra-oesophageal ganglia of cockroach is destroyed, which activity/activities will be most
affected?
(a) Movement of antenna
(b) Vision
(c) Grinding of food in gizzard
(d) Flattering of wings

(1) (a), (c)

(2) (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (b), (c)
72) Identify the marked A, B, C and D respectively :

A-Antennae ; B-Pronotum ;
(1)
C-Tegmina ; D-Anal cerci
A-Antennae ; B-Mesothorax ;
(2)
C-Tegmina ; D-Anal style
A-Antennae ; B-Pronotum ;
(3)
C-Tegmina ; D-Anal style
A-Antennae ; B-Tegmina ;
(4)
C-Pronotum ; D-Anal cerci

73) In cockroach, gaseous exchange between air and body cells takes place by diffusion at the level
of :

(1) Trachea
(2) Capillaries
(3) Tracheoles
(4) Spiracles

74) Read the following statements for frog and choose the correct option-
(A) Bilobed tongue present in frog by which food is captured
(B) Frog drinks water through buccal cavity
(C) Hind limbs have copulatory pads
(D) In water, respiration occur through moist body surface
(E) One paired mesonephric kidney present on lateral side of vertebral column

(1) Only A, C and D are correct

(2) Only B, D and E are correct
(3) Only A, D and E are correct
(4) All A, B, C, D and E are correct

75) Given below is a list of some structure :

Diaphragm, Tail, Anus, Cloaca, Triangular sinus venosus, Nictitating membrane and 12 pairs of
cranial nerves.
How many of the above structure are not found in Rana tigrina ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3
76) Statement-I :- Each thoracic segment of cockroach bears a pair of legs.
Statement-II :- Hind wings of cockroach are transparent, membranous.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

77) Assertion- In frog digestion of food take place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted
from the wall of stomach.
Reason - Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

78) Frog differs from human in possessing:

(1) Thyroid as well as parathyroid gland

(2) Paired cerebral hemisphere
(3) Hepatic portal circulation
(4) Nucleated red blood cells

79) Read the following statements w.r.t digestive system of cockroach

(i) Crop is present in between oesophagus and gizzard in midgut.
(ii) 6-8 blind tubules called gastric caecae are present at the junction of midgut and hindgut.
(iii) Proventriculus has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and inner six chitinous teeth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct, (iii) is incorrect

(2) (i) and (iii) are correct, (ii) is incorrect
(3) (ii) and (iii) are correct, (i) is incorrect
(4) (i) and (ii) are incorrect, (iii) is correct

80) Match the following columns.

Column-I
Column-II
(Structures in
(Number)
cockroach)

A Spiracles i 6-8

B Heart chambers ii 100-150

C Hepatic caecae iii 13

D Malpighian tubule iv 20

Select the correct option.

 A B C D

(1) ii iv iii i

(2) iii ii iv i

(3) i iv ii iii

(4) iv iii i ii

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Male frog can be distinguished externally from female frog by all of the following features except
a. Presence of sound producing vocal sacs
b. Presence of copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs
c. Ureters carry both sperms and urine in male frog
d. Testes are adhered to the upper part of kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) c and d only

82) Assertion : Malpighian tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated cells.

Reason : Waste product of cockroach is uric acid.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

83) Assertion: Duodenum receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas
through a common duct in frog.
Reason: Salivary glands are absent in frog. So digestion start in stomach.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

84) Given below are two statement one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) :- If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.
Reason (R) :- The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the belly side
of its body.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explantion of (A)

85) Assertion : In frog, the alimentary canal is short and length of intestine is reduced.
Reason : Frog is carnivorous in nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

86) Assertion (A) : The system for control and coordination is highly evolved in the frog.
Reason (R) : Sensory papillae ; taste buds and nasal epithelium are cellular aggregations around
nerve endings

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct

87) Statement-(1) : Brain of frog is divided into forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
Statement-(2) : Hindbrain is consists of cerebral hemisphere and medulla oblongata.

(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are true.

(2) Both statement (1) and (2) are false.
(3) Statement (1) is true but (2) is false.
(4) Statement (1) is false but (2) is true.

88) As per 2017 amendment of MTP Act opinion of two medical practitioners is mandatory
if pregnancy has lasted for

(1) 8 weeks
(2) 12 weeks
(3) More than 28 weeks
(4) More than 12 weeks but less than 24 weeks

89) All the given tasks are performed by Reproductive and Child Health care (RCH) programs except

(1) Post natal care of mother and child

(2) Discouraging social evils and sex education in schools
(3) Importance of equal opportunities for male and female child
(4) Benefits of massive child immunisation
90) If male is impotent and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive technology
(ART) is used for treating the infertility in particular couple?

(1) IUI
(2) IUT
(3) ZIFT
(4) GIFT
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 1 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 2 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 1 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 3 4 1 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 1 3 3 1 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) When the capacitors are in parallel Ceff = C1 + C2 + C3 + ...+Cn = nC

⇒ nC = 90 µF ...(i)
When capacitors are in series,

Ceff = C/n
⇒ C/n = 2.4 µF ...(ii)
On multiplying eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

C2 = 225 (µF)2 or C = 15µF

On substituting the value of C in eq. (i), we get

n=

2)

Conceptual

3) = n2/3 = (8)2/3 =

4)

5)
6)
Since total charge remains same
2CV + CV = 2CV' + KCV'

7) ⇒ Cequ = 3 µF
The charge through the circuit = 3 × 12 = 36 μC
∴ Potential difference across 4.5 μF capacitor

V= = = 8 volts

8) = + + =
Q12 = 240µC
V12 = 20 V
Q8 = 240
V8 = 30 ⇒ Vmid = 10 V
Q = 50µC

9) After long time C is open

i = V/2R

10) C = = 10 µF

C1 =

C2 =
Ceq = C1 + C2 = 30 µF

11)
Hence,

12)
Use point potential theory to solve the circuit. In steady state capacitor would be open
circuited.
Apply junction rule at junction having potential V

⇒
Charge on capacitor, Q = C(E – V)

13) ⇒ CAB = 8 μF

14)

Short the cell open the capacitor

15)

If 2µC charge is flow in the circuit then no one capacitor will be damage

Q = CE volt

16)
Apply KVL in loop

Q = 16
now, apply KVL A to B

VA + = VB VA – VB = –8

17) Work done in charging fully both the condensers = 3CV2

Energy stored

18) F = QE =

19) Ceq = KC, q' = CeqV = KCV = Kq

U=

U' = KC.V2 = KU
20)

Potential difference across capacitor is (8–6)= 2V

So, Q = CV = (1µF) × 2V = 2µC

21) Cap. → behave as wire

∴ Current through cap. branch = 10A

22) i = neA Vd

Vd =

23)

Area under the curve represent charge.

= A1 + A2

24) Given circuit can be redraw as

VA – VB = IR = 2×1 = 2V

25)
put ℓ = 1 cm
A = 1 cm × 100 cm

26)

27)

Its a balanced WSB.

Req =

P=

28) Va – 6 – 5 + 3 – 6 = Vb
Va – Vb = 14 V

29) R1 = & R2 =

30) Circuit can be redrawn as shown.

RAB = 2 Ω
31)

32)

I is same & J = I/A so JA > JB

J = E/ρ so EA > EB . (a)

33) i =
V = 2E – I(2r) = 0

34)

35) i= = 2A

36) After disconnecting Reff will increase so current through B1 will decrease so Its glow will
decrease.
Hence option (2) is correct.

37) ΔReq = ΔR1 + dR2

Req αeq ΔT = R1 α1 ΔT + R2 α2 ΔT

aeq =

38) Resistance at a point on curve R = = slope of the tangent on curve at a point

39)
Net emf = 6 + 12 – 8 = 10 V
Net resistance = 2 + 3 + 1 + 4 + 10 = 20 Ω

40)

= + ............∞ =

⇒ = =

Req =

41)

Ammeter reading = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4
= 2A + 2A + 6A + 6A
= 16 A

42)
 Solving within the frame

NA + FP = Mg
NA = Mg – Ma
= 0.5 (10–2) = 4N

43)

kx = T =

x= = .13 m = 13 cm

44)

T1 = (12 + 8) (9.8 + 2.2) = 240 N

45)
T1sin30° = T2cos30°
T2sin30 + T1cos30° = mg

CHEMISTRY

46)

In p-block all elements are metals

47) Explain Question: Identify Amphoteric oxide

Concept: Nature of oxides
Solution:
CO2, SiO2 → acidic
CaO → basic
SnO2 → Amphoteric oxide
Final Answer (2)

48) Explanation :- The question asks which statement about periodic trends and electronic
configurations is incorrect.
Concept :- (Electronic configuration)
The incorrect statement is that in the 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d and 5p are filled in
that order. The correct filling order is 5s, 4d, and 5p. The 4f subshells are filled in the 6th
period. The other statements about diagonal relationships, representative elements, and f-
block configurations are correct.
Final Answer Option 3 (In 5th period, the subshells 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p would be filled)

49)

All of these

50)

Explanation:
The question asks to identify which of the provided statements regarding transition elements
is factually incorrect.

Concept: (Lanthanum, Lathanoids series & Transition elemets)

The incorrect statement is: "Lanthanum is not a transition element but is a lanthanoid."
Lanthanum (La) is classified as a transition element, specifically a d-block element.
Lanthanoids begin with Cerium (Ce), following Lanthanum.

Final Answer : Option (4)

51)

Conceptual

52) Explanation :- The question asks which of the given orders of atomic radii is incorrect.
Concept- :- The correct order should be B > Al > Ga > In > Tl.
Answer Option -4 (B > Al > Ga > In > Tl)

53) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about Oxidation state of Mn when Mn has magnetic moment of 5.92

Concept : Magnetic moment of Mn. Oxidation state of Mn.

Explanation & Solution :
The atomic number of manganese (Mn) is 25, and its electronic configuration is [Ar]3d54s2.

If its magnetic moment is 5.92 it means it must have 5 unpaired electrons.

In the 3d5 configuration, there are five d orbitals, and according to Hund's rule, each of the
five electrons will occupy a separate d orbital with parallel spins. This means there are 5
unpaired electrons (n = 5).
And 5 unpaired electrons will be there when Mn will acquire +2 Oxidation state so x = 2

Answer : Option 2

54)

1.96 A°, 0.72

55)

B < C < N < O - increasing first ionization energy

56)

Ba(OH)2

57)

IP3 of Mg is less than IP3 of Al

58)

O < C < S < Se

59)

Li > I > Br > Cl

60)

They have 7 electron in the outermost shell of their atom

61)

O O2¯

62)

C6H5CH2CH2OCH3
63)

64)

65)

66)

67)

None of the above

68)

Conceptual

69)

70)

All the product formed follow SN2 mechanism.

71) + NaHCO3 —→

72)

Conceptual

73) NCERT XII, Pg. # 337

Alcohol, Phenol, Ether

74) The correct order of acidic strength is.

Acidic character is define by the stability of anion formed after releasing proton. sp
carbonation is more
stable due to more electro negativity, followed by sp2, and sp3. Electro negativity of the
depends on the % s character, since s orbital is closest to the nucleus, thus electron which is
present in orbital’ s with more s character will be more attracted by the nucleus and result
electro negativity of sp is greater than the other two and acid is more acidic than alcohol.

75)

76) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 340

77)

Neutral FeCl3
78) Oxymercuration- demercuration follows
Markovnikov's addition of water without rearrangement.

79)

a ketone

80) Explaination: Find out the product of the reaction between diethyl cadmium and acetyl
chloride.
Concept: Preparation of carbonyl compounds.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

81)

All of these

82)

83) Explaination: Identify the final product (Y) of given multistep reaction.
Concept: Preparation of G.R., NAR.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (2)

84)

Conceptual
 85)

86)

⇒ Lucas test is test to distinguish 1° / 2° and 3° alcohol

⇒ Lucas reagent is conc. HCl + Anhy.ZnCl2 .
⇒ Since 3° carbocation is most stable hence 3° alcohol reacts immediately with lucas reagent.

87) In above reaction ,

tert. butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of tert-butyl bromide with sodium
methoxide, so, Assertion is true.

A. Sodium methoxide is good nucleophile since it has concentrated -ve charge density"

Answer (2)

88)

Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

89)

I.E. → B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In

due to Lanthanoid contraction & Transition contraction

90)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg # 01

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32,33

93) NCERT Pg. # 30, Para-3.1

94)
 Solution:

A. (a) In liverworts and mosses, gametophytes are free living

Correct. The gametophytes in liverworts, mosses, and ferns are indeed free-living,
meaning they exist independently from the sporophyte.

B. (b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous

Correct. Gymnosperms like Pinus and some ferns are heterosporous, meaning they
produce two different kinds of spores: microspores (male) and megaspores (female).

C. (c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox, and Albugo is oogamous

Correct. In these organisms, sexual reproduction is oogamous, meaning the male gamete
(sperm) is smaller and motile, while the female gamete (egg) is larger and non-motile.

D. (d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

Incorrect. The sporophyte in liverworts is less elaborate than in mosses. Mosses have a
more complex and distinct sporophyte structure, including a stalk and capsule.

E. (e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious

Correct. Both Pinus (a gymnosperm) and Marchantia (a liverwort) are dioecious,
meaning they have separate male and female individuals.

Based on this analysis, three statements are correct: (a), (b), and (c). Therefore, the correct
answer is:

1. four.

95) XI NCERT Page No. 01

96)

A. (B) In Ginkgo, the male gametophyte is not independent.

B. This statement is correct. In Ginkgo, the male gametophyte is not an independent structure. It
remains within the pollen grain and depends on the parent sporophyte for its development.

Other options are incorrect

97) Primary protonema of moss, Rhizoids of fern prothallus, Gemmae in Marchantia,

Endosperm in Pinus, Vegetative cell of pollen grain, leaf of Funaria.

98)

Nonvascular embryophytes means bryophytes

Polytrichum, sphagnum, Marchantia, Funaria
99)

NCERT XI, Pg # 38

100)

NCERT pg no. 34

101) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 33 table-3.1

102)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

103) NCERT XI Pg.# 35

104) NCERT Pg. No. 34, Fig 3.2

105)

NCERT Pg. No. 37, Fig. 3.3

106)

XI New NCERT Page No. 25

107)

NCERT Page No.:-38,39

108)

NCERT Pg. No. 38, 3.3

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 01

110) NCERT XI - Pg. # 39.

111) NCERT XI - Pg. # 34

112)
NCERT XI, Pg # 26

113)

NCERT XI Pg. # 35

114)

Certainly, let's analyze the diagram and identify the correct option.
Analysis of the Diagram:
• Diagram A: This appears to be a brown alga with a branched, feathery structure. This is
characteristic of Polysiphonia.
• Diagram 8: This shows a plant with a leafy, moss-like appearance. This is consistent with
Sphagnum.
• Diagram C: This depicts a plant with a floating stem and submerged, feathery leaves. This is
characteristic of Salvinia. Matching with the Options: Looking at the options provided, only
option (4) correctly matches the identified plants:
• (A): Polysiphonia
• (B): Sphagnum
• (C): Salvinia
Therefore, the correct answer is (4).

115) XI NCERT Page No. 33

116)

NCERT Pg 26

117)

NCERT Pg - 21

118)

NCERT Pg - 22

119)

Module

120)

NCERT Pg - 15

121)
NCERT Pg - 20

122)

Module

123)

NCERT Pg - 19

124)

NCERT Pg 22

125)

NCERT Pg - 19

126)

NCERT Pg - 12

127)

NCERT Pg - 19

128)

NCERT Pg - 18

129)

Module

130)

Module

131)

NCERT Pg - 28

132)

NCERT Pg - 33
 133)

NCERT Pg - 32

134)

NCERT Pg - 30

135) NCERT-XII Pg#37

136)

Question Asking About:

Identify the device:

Identify the implantation site:

Solution Explanation:

Correct Implantation Site: Copper-T IUDs are inserted into the uterine cavity.

Correct Answer: Option (3)

137) NCERT XII, Page # 64

138) NCERT Pg. # 48

139)

Question Asking About:

This question is testing your knowledge of infectious diseases and their modes of transmission.
It specifically asks you to identify which infections can be spread through the sharing of
injection needles.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

To solve this, you need to understand that sharing needles poses a high risk of transmitting
bloodborne infections. These are infections that spread through contact with infected blood.
HIV & Hepatitis B: Both HIV and Hepatitis B are bloodborne viruses, making this the
correct answer. Sharing needles can directly transmit these viruses from one person to
another.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3) HIV & Hepatitis B.

140)

The correct answer is: 1. In-vitro fertilization followed by the transfer of embryo into
the fallopian tube or uterus
The test tube baby programme involves the following steps:
1. In-vitro fertilization (IVF): Fertilization occurs outside the body (in a laboratory dish/test
 tube) by combining the egg and sperm.
2. Embryo transfer: The fertilized egg (zygote) or developed embryo is transferred into the
fallopian tube (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer, ZIFT) or uterus (Intrauterine Transfer, IUT),
depending on the stage of development.

141)

The correct answer is:

2. Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing the embryo from getting
implanted.

A. Saheli (also known as Centchroman) is a non-steroidal, oral contraceptive, It works by

blocking estrogen receptors in the uterus, which helps to prevent implantation by altering
the endometrial lining, making it unsuitable for embryo implantation.

142) The correct answer is Option 4: Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Explanation:
Assertion (A): Periodic abstinence is a method of conception exercised during 10th-17th day
of the 32 days menstrual cycle by a normal healthy couple.
This statement is incorrect. Periodic abstinence is a method of contraception, not
conception. It involves avoiding sexual intercourse during the fertile window of the menstrual
cycle to prevent pregnancy.
Reason (R): Minimum chances of conception are possible during the duration of 10th to 17th
day of the 32 days menstrual cycle.
This statement is also incorrect. The fertile window, when the chances of conception are
highest, is typically around days 10-17 of a 28-day menstrual cycle.
Therefore, both the Assertion and Reason are false.

143) NCERT page: 41, 46

144) NCERT Pg. # 50

Corrected statements:
(a) Surgical methods of contraception block gamete transport.
(b) All sexually transmitted diseases are not completely curable.
(c) Oral pills are not very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos are transferred either in the fallopian tube or in the uterus.

145)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Intensely lactating mothers typically do not conceive due to the suppression of gonadotropins
(hormones like FSH and LH), which are essential for ovulation. Lactation leads to high levels
of prolactin, which inhibits the release of these hormones, preventing ovulation and
conception during the period of breastfeeding.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (1) is correct.

 .

146)

The correct statements are (b) and (d). These two statements accurately describe the actions
of IUDs.
Final Answer: (3) (b) and (d) only

147)

Question Asking About :

Asks to identify the aspects of well-being that constitute reproductive health according to the
World Health Organization (WHO).

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

A. The correct answer is 4. All.

A. The World Health Organization (WHO) defines reproductive health as a state of
complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease
or infirmity, in all matters relating to the reproductive system and to its functions and
processes.
B. This encompasses:
A. (a) Physical:
B. (b) Social:
C. (c) Emotional:
D. (d) Behavioural: Therefore, reproductive health involves well-being in all these
aspects.

148)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

The question asks for methods of contraception that are exclusively for female use. Here's the
correct breakdown:

A. Natural methods (e.g., calendar, withdrawal) can be used by both males and females.

B. Barrier methods (e.g., condoms, diaphragm) are available for both males and females.

C. IUDs (Intrauterine devices) are exclusively for females.

D. Saheli is a female-only contraceptive pill.

E. Injectables (like Depo-Provera) are exclusively for females.

 F. Implants are exclusively for females.

G. Surgical methods: Tubectomy (female sterilization) is for females, while vasectomy (male
sterilization) is for males.

So, methods like IUDs, Saheli, Injectables, and Implants are all exclusively for females. The
correct option is option 4, which includes all these methods.

Conclusion:

Hence, option (1) is correct.

149) Correct Answer:

Option 1: Both Statements are correct.
Explanation:
Statement I is correct because RCH programs focus on spreading awareness about
reproductive health. Statement II is also correct as both government and non-government
agencies use audiovisual and print media to educate the public on reproductive health issues.
Since both statements are true, option 1 is

150)

Question Asking About :

Asks to identify the factors related to a decline in mortality rates that likely contributed to
India's population growth.

Solution :

A. The correct answer is 4. I, II and IV.

A. I. MMR (Maternal Mrtality Rate): A decline in MMR indicates imprved maternal
healthcare, leading to more women surviving childbirth, contributing to population
growth.
B. II. Death rate: A general decline in the verall death rate (due to improvements in
healthcare, sanitation, and living conditions) directly contributes to population growth.
C. IV. IMR (Infant Mortality Rate): A decline in IMR indicates improved infant
healthcare, leading to more infants surviving, contributing to population growth.

Therefore, the decline in MMR, the overall death rate, and IMR are the primary reasons for
population growth.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

151)

The right answer is 2: A, B, C, D.

All of these statements hold true:
A: Family planning programs really did kick off in India back in 1951.
B: The last century brought about major advancements across various fields, which have
greatly enhanced our quality of life.
C: To effectively implement reproductive health action plans, we need strong infrastructure,
skilled professionals, and adequate material support.
D: A legal ban on amniocentesis for sex determination was put in place to fight against female
foeticide.
Together, these statements underscore the strides made towards improving reproductive
health and the overall well-being of society.

152)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 42 (examples)

153)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 45

154)

Ans. II and III

155)

The right answer is 3: A – d – iv, B – c – i, C – a – iii, D – b – ii.

Copper IUDs work by suppressing sperm movement (d), and a good example of this is the
Multiload 375 (iv).
On the other hand, hormone-releasing IUDs create an environment in the uterus that’s not
friendly for implantation (c), with LNG–20 (i) being a prime example.
Oral contraceptive pills stop ovulation (a), and MALA-D (iii) is one such example.
Lastly, barrier methods prevent insemination (b), and Nirodh (ii) serves as a classic example.
This all aligns perfectly with the mechanisms and examples of the different contraceptive
methods.

156) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 112, Figure no. 7.15(b)

157) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 114

158)

a, f, c, b, d, e

159)

Poisonous glands are not found on the body of frog.

160)
NCERT Page # 112

161)

NCERT Page no. 114

162) NCERT Pg.#111 (E), 111 (H)

163) NCERT Reference:

Zoology- XI Page No.-114

164)

NCERT Pg. # 80, 82

165) Diaphragm: Frogs do not have a diaphragm for respiration. They breathe through their
skin and lungs.
Anus: Frogs have a cloaca, a single opening for the digestive, urinary, and reproductive
systems.
Tail: Frogs do not have tails in their adult stage. Cortex, medulla and pyramid absent in
kidney of frog ans-1

166)

NCERT Pg. # 112

167) NCERT Pg.# 82

168) NCERT Page No.- 82;

169) NCERT page: 113

170) [Pg - 113, M]

171) [NCERT Pg. 116]

172) NCERT Pg. # 114

173) NCERT-XII Page No. 117

174) NCERT XIth, Pg 114 (E), 114(H)

 175) NCERT Pg. # 116

176) NCERT, Page No. 83

177) NCERT Pg. # 119

178) Question Explanation: The question refers to the 2017 amendment of the Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act in India, which specifies when the opinion of two medical
practitioners is required for the termination of pregnancy.
Solution: Under the 2017 amendment to the MTP Act, the requirement of obtaining the
opinion of two medical practitioners applies when the pregnancy has lasted for:

A. More than 12 weeks but less than 24 weeks.

A. This is when two medical practitioners' opinions are mandatory for pregnancy
termination, especially in cases of fetal abnormalities or risk to the mother's health.

Final Answer: (4) More than 12 weeks but less than 24 weeks

179) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 58

180) New NCERT - Pg. # 48