1. A wide flange section for a 5.

5m long column (hinged at both ends) has the following

properties
A=13500 mm2 E=200Gpa
Ix=1200x 10 mm4 Iy=150x106 mm4
6

Determine the Euler Critical Load of The Column

a. 9,788 kn
b. 19,976 kn
c. 39,152 kn
d. 26,539 kn

Situation 1. Two C380 x 50 channels are used as a column. The column is 15 m high, latticed together
so they have equal moments of inertia about the principal axes. Assumed both ends are pinned and Fy
is 240 Mpa and the modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 Gpa

Properties of a C380 x 50
A= 6430 mm2 X bar= 20mm
Ix= 131x106 mm4 Iy= 3.39x106 mm4

2. Compute the back-to-back distance of the channels.

a. 152.42mm
b. 241.75mm
c. 492.46mm
d. 396.67mm

3. Find the minimum length of a column with this section.

a. 12.94 mm
b. 11.32 mm
c. 13.74 mm
d. 10.29 mm

4. What safe load will the section be able to carry with a factor of safety of 2.5
a. 2298.52 kn
b. 1986.14 kn
c. 2103.31 kn
d. 2017.07 kn
Situation 2. A W200 x 100 steel column has an unsupported height of 8m. Using a 36 steel with
Fy=248 Mpa and E=200Gpa compute the allowable axial load that the column could carry.

Properties of W200x 100

A= 12700mm4

Ix= 113 x106 mm4

Iy= 36.6 x106 mm4

Rx= 94.4 mm

Ry= 54 mm

5. If both are Fixed

a. 94.19 kn
b. 110.26 kn
c. 106.11 kn
d. 121.23 kn

6. If both ends are pinned

a. 46.93 kn
b. 24.63 kn
c. 30.91 kn
d. 39.37 kn

7. If one is pinned and one end is fixed.

a. 78.49 kn
b. 64.37 kn
c. 86.19 kn
d. 94.82 kn

Situation 3. Built-up column 12m long. Consists of W350x90 with 10x350 plates weld to form a box
section. The column has fixed ends and is braced at one-thirds with respect to the Y-axis.

Properties of W200x100:

A= 11,540mm2

Ix= 2.66x108 mm4

Iy= 0.44 x108 mm4

 bf= 250mm

tf= 16mm

tw= 10mm

Fy= 248Mpa

8. Compute the effective slenderness ratio with respect to the x-axis.

a. 62.26
b. 44.47
c. 88.95
d. 54.16

9. Compute the effective slenderness ratio with respect to the y-axis.

a. 16.03
b. 32.06
c. 22.44
d. 89.76

10. Compute the axial load capacity.

a. 118.59 Kn
b. 98.09 Kn
c. 129.70 Kn
d. 123.86 Kn
Situation 1. Given that the field unit weight of a soil sample is 1800 kg per cubic meter and the unit
weight of the soil particles is 2000 kg per cubic meter and the moisture content of the soil is 12
percent:

1. Evaluate the void ratio.

a. .244
b. .331
c. .452
d. .275

2. Evaluate its dry unit weight in kN/m³.

a. 15.77
b. 17.71
c. 18.98
d. 16.25

3. Evaluate the degree of saturation, in percent.

a. 45.36
b. 98.36
c. 51.75
d. 77.83

Evaluate the plastic settlement, in meters, in a layer of plastic clay due to an increase of pressure
caused by loads above it under the following conditions.

Initial Interangular pressure =180kPA

Increase in Interangular Pressure =120kPa

Thickness of the clay layer =10m

Coefficient of Consolidation =0.315

Void Ratio of the Clay=1.5

4.
a. .98
b. .28
c. .46
d. .75
 5. CE Board May 2022. A layer of soft clay having an initial void ratio of 1.20 is 6 m thick.
Under a compressive load applied above it, the void ratio decreased by one-third.
Evaluate the reduction in the thickness of the clay layer.
a. 2.75 m
b. 3.02 m
c. 1.09 m
d. 1.50 m

6. You have been hired as the Project Engineer for a development company in Norther
Luzon to build 610 housing units surrounding four lakes. Since the original ground is low,
you will use the limestone excavated from the lake to fill the land in order to build roads
and housing pads. Your estimated fill requirements are 700,000 m3, with a dry density
equivalent to a void ratio e = 0.46. The "in-situ" limestone extracted from the lakes has
an e = 0.39, whereas the limestone dumped into the trucks has an e = 0.71. How many
truckloads will you need, if each truck carries 10 m³?
a. 10000 truck-loads
b. 52,640 truck-loads
c. 62,000 truck-loads
d. 45,000 truck-loads

Situation2. A soil sample has a unit weight of 105.7 pcf and a saturation of 50%. When its saturation
isincreased to 75%, its unit weight raises to 112.7 pcf.

7. Determine the void ratio e,

a. .63
b. .80
c. .71
d. .42

8. Determine the specific gravity, Gs

a. 2.65
b. 2.31
c. 2.75
d. 2.80
9. Sw
10. Sc
11. Cl
Situation 1. After conducting an elastic analysis on a reinforced concrete beam, the following service
moments were obtained:

Dead Load Moment: 65 kn.m

Live Load Moment: 75kn.m

Wind Load Moment: 70 kn.m

Earthquake Load Moment: 105 kn.m

The concrete cover to centroid of steel reinforcement is 65mm, fc’=28MPa, fy=420MPa. Use NSCP
2015.

1. What is the value of the factored load moment (kn.m) that will be used in the design?
a. 241
b. 258
c. 226
d. 212

2. Which of the following dimensions can be used as a preliminary section for the beam?
a. 350 x 500
b. 275 x 450
c. 250 x 400
d. 275 x 550

3. How many 28-mm bars are required to reinforce the beam?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. None of the above

Situation 2. A concrete beam 600 mm deep and 400 mm wide is reinforced with 6-28mm bars near
the bottom and 4-28mm bars near the top. Effective cover to centroid of reinforcement is 65mm.
Suppose fc= 21MPa and fy= 420MPa.

4. What is the depth of the Whitney stress block for the analysis of the section, in mm, if the
effect of displaced concrete is neglected?
a. 121.235
b. 122.116
c. 112.216
d. 221.336
5. What is the depth of the Whitney Stress block, in mm, if the effect of displaced concrete is
considered?
 a. 115.508
b. 136.788
c. 129.098
d. 130.576

6. Considering the effects of displaced concrete, what would be the design moment capacity of
the beam?
a. 612.746
b. 661.746
c. 673.787
d. 678.788

Situation 3. Refer to the figure below. A concrete beam built monolithically into a slab of thickness
100mm, is subjected to positive bending. The Total depth of the beam is 600mm, while the effective
width is also 600mm. It is reinforced with 5-20mm diameter deformed bars arranged in two layers as
shown: fc<= 21 Mpa, fy= 420 Mpa

7. What is the effective depth of the beam, in mm?

a. 522.2
b. 530
 c. 520
d. 525

8. At what depth, in mm, from the top of the flange is the neutral axis located?
a. 72.50
b. 72.40
c. 73.00
d. 72.47

9. What is the design moment capacity of the beam, in kn.m?

a. 290.689
b. 300.900
c. 291.774
d. 292.000

Situation4. A beam with a simple span of 6 meters has an irregular cross-section shown below.
Tension and Compression reinforcements (if needed) are to be placed at an effective cover of 65mm
from the nearest concrete beam face. It is to carry a design moment of 200 kn.m. The concrete has
fc”= 32Mpa, while the steel has fy= 275MPa. The section is to be ensured tension is controlled.

10. What is the depth of the compression stress block for the beam?
a. 118.594
b. 188.898
 c. 181.945
d. 111.845

11. How many 25-mm deformed bars are needed as tension reinforcement?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

12. How many 25-mm deformed bars are needed as compression reinforcement?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

Situation 1. Two plates are welded as shown. The plates are 15mm thick and 400mm wide. Fu=
550Mpa. Assume that the max size of weld is 1.8mm less than the thickness of plate allowable shear
stress= 0.3Fu
 1. Find the maximum size of fillet weld.
a. 8.8mm
b. 9.3mm
c. 12.4mm
d. 13.2mm
2. Compute the effective area of weld.
a. 5261mm2
b. 7467mm2
c. 7014mm2
d. 4978mm2
3. Find the safe value of P in kn
a. 1232.06kn
b. 82.1037kn
c. 1157.31kn
d. 868.07kn

Situation 2. A 150x90x12 angle is welded to a guest plate as shown. Area of one angle is 2750mm 2

Allowable stresses:

FV=.3Fu (Shear) Fu=400MPa

FT=.6Fy Fy=248Mpa

4. Find the load P which is acting on the centroid of the welds.

a. 308.5kn
b. 409.2kn
c. 312.7kn
d. 209.6kn
5. Find the weight of the weld of the side b.
a. 175mm
b. 225mm
c. 265mm
 d. 182mm
6. Determine the total length of weld (a+b).
a. 325mm
b. 225mm
c. 334mm
d. 245mm

Situation 3. Two plates 100mm wide by 12mm thick joined together by 4-22mm rivets. Assume that
the diameter of rivet hole is 3mm larger than rivet diameter.

Allowable Stresses:

Allowable stress in rivets = 80MPa

Allowable bearing stress of rivets in plates = 180MPa

Allowable tensile stress in plates = 118MPa

7. Find the safe value P so as not to exceed the allowable shear stress.
a. 190.08kn
b. 121.64kn
c. 82.80kn
d. 127.21kn
8. Find the safe value of P so as not to exceed the allowable bearing stress.
a. 190.08kn
b. 121.64kn
c. 82.80kn
d. 127.21kn
9. Find safe value of P.
a. 190.08kn
 b. 121.64kn
c. 82.80kn
d. 127.21kn
10. What is the efficiency of the connection?
a. 25%
b. 33.33%
c. 50%
d. 66.67%

Situation 1: A 6m-high retaining wall is backfilled with coarse sand. The dry unit weight of the sand is
16.4 kN/m3 and the internal angle of friction is 35 degrees. The back of the wall is vertical and has
weep holes along the bottom of the wall for drainage of the backfill. The field moisture content of the
backfill when place was 11%.

1. Calculate the total lateral force per meter of wall for this condition.
a. 100.68 kn
b. 85.36 kn
c. 90.7 kn
d. 77.21 kn
2. If the weep holes become plugged up and the moisture content in the lower 3 m of the backfill
is increased to 16%, calculate the total lateral force (in kN) per meter of the wall for this
condition.
a. 124.91 kn
b. 127.81 kn
c. 124.36 kn
d. 132.59 kn
3. Where is the point of application of the resultant of the lateral force from the bottom for
second condition
a. 1.73 m
b. 1.76 m
c. 1.71 m
d. 1.68 m
4. CE Board May 2022: What is the friction angle of the soil when the coefficient of passive
resistance is 4?
a. 63.78
b. 36.87
c. 87.36
d. 33.76
5. CE Board November 2016: In accordance with Rankine’s theory for active earth pressure on a
retaining wall, with horizontal backfill, evaluate the coefficient of active earth pressure for the
wall if the angle of internal friction of the soil is 28 degrees.
a. 0.361
b. 0.316
c. 0.613
d. 0.631
6. CE Board May 2015: Determine the lateral pressure of a soil whose angle of internal friction is
30˚, 6 m. from the ground surface at rest condition. Dry unit weight of soil is 17.5 kN/m3.
Assume water table is too deep.
a. 52.5 kPa
b. 55.2 kPa
c. 25.2 kPa
 d. 22.5 kPa
7. A 6-m-high retaining wall is to support a soil with unit weight y=17.4 kN/m 3, soil friction angle 0
= 26 degrees, and cohesion c'=14 kPa. Compute the Rankine active force before tensile crack
occurs.
a. 27.22 kn
b. 17.22 kn
c. 72.22 kn
d. 12.27 kn
8. A vertical retaining wall 6m high is to support a cohesionless soil having a unit weight of 15.5
kN/cu.m and an angle of internal friction of 30 degrees. Compute the static force considering a
coefficient of friction of 0.268 between the wall and the soil.
a. 84.09 kn
b. 82 kn
c. 83.05 kn
d. 87.34 kn
9. In accordance with Rankine’s theory for lateral active earth pressure on a retaining wall, with
horizontal backfill, what angle of internal friction, in degrees, results in a coefficient of lateral
earth pressure equal to .50?
a. 91.9 degrees
b. 51.9 degrees
c. 15.9 degrees
d. 19.5 degrees

Situation 2: A 6m-high retaining wall is backfilled with coarse sand. The dry unit weight of the sand is
16.4 kN/m3 and the internal angle of friction is 35 degrees. The back of the wall is vertical and has
weep holes along the bottom of the wall for drainage of the backfill. The field moisture content of the
backfill when place was 11%.

10. Calculate the total lateral force per meter of wall for this condition.
a. 100.68 kn
b. 85.36 kn
c. 90.7 kn
d. 77.21 kn

Situation 1. A reservoir of glycerin has a mas of 1200 kg and volume of .952 cu. M. Find:

1. Weight:
 a. 11,727 N
b. 11,772 N
c. 12,001 N
d. 11,778 N
2. Unit Weight
a. 12.266 kn/m3
b. 11.066 kn/m3
c. 11.606 kn/m3
d. 12.366 kn/m3
3. Mass Density
a. 1,260.5 kg/m3
b. 1,270.0 kg/m3
c. 1,259.8 kg/m3
d. 1,261.0 kg/m3
4. Specific Gravity
a. 1.06
b. 1.36
c. 1.26
d. 1.46

Situation 2. The specific gravity of a certain oil is 0.82. Calculate the

5. specific weight
a. 50.167 lb/ft3
b. 52.104 lb/ft3
c. 51.067 lb/ft3
d. 51.168 lb/ft3
6. mass density in slugs/ft3
a. v59 slugs/ft3
b. X59 slugs/ft3
c. S59 slugs/ft3
d. 1.59 slugs/ft3
7. mass density in kg/m3
a. 830 kg/m3
b. 450 kg/m3
c. 430 kg/m3
d. 820 kg/m3

8. A liter of water weighs about 9.75 N. Compute its mass in kilograms

a. 0.994 kg
 b. 0.998 kg
c. 0.988 kg
d. 0.984 kg

Situation 3. If an object has a mass of 22kg at sea level.

9. What will be its weight at a point where the acceleration due to gravity g = 9.75m/s 2?
a. 214.5 N
b. 314.5 N
c. 412.5 N
d. 321.4 N

10. What will be its mass at that point?

a. 23 kg
b. 22 kg
c. 32 kg
d. 33 kg

11. Air is kept at a pressure of 200 kPa absolute and a temperature of 30°C in a 500-liter container.
What is the mass of air?
a. 1.25 kg
b. 1.35 kg
c. 1.16 kg
d. 1.15 kg
1. CE Board Exam (Nov. 2019): The crest shown consist of cylindrical surface of which AB is the
base, supported by a structural frame hinge at C. the length of the gate per perpendicular to
the paper is 10 m. compute the horizontal force components of the total pressure AB.

a. 529.74 KN
b. 321.70 KN
c. 824.97 KN
d. 733.24 KN

2. CE Board Exam (Nov. 2019): A triangular gate or height 1.2 m and base 0.9 m is installed in a
position that its plane is inclined 60 degrees with the horizontal with its vertex at the top and
the base is parallel to the water surface. The vertex is at a depth of 2 m vertically below the
water surface. Fresh water is on one side of the gate. If the gate is hinged at the bottom,
evaluate the force normal to the gate at its vertex that will be required to open it in KN.
a. 4.45 KN
b. 2.77 KN
c. 2.56 KN
d. 2.61 KN

3. CE Board Exam (Nov. 2021): A mercury barometer at the base of the mountain reads 620 mm.
At the same time, another barometer at the top of a mountain reads 450 mm. Assuming weight
of air is to be constant at 10N/m3, what is the appropriate height of the mountain?
a. 2268 m
b. 1436 m
c. 1965 m
d. 2330 m
4. CE Board Exam (Nov. 2021): A triangular plate of height h=1.2m, and base b=2m is submerged
vertically in a water with its top edge(base)at the liquid surface and parallel to it. Evaluate the
total force acting on one side of the plane in N.
a. 4550.5 N
b. 2668.2 N
c. 5034.2 N
d. 4708.8 N

5. Obtain the location of the force from the center of gravity of the plate in mm.
a. 230 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 194 mm
d. 100 mm

6. Obtain the location of the force from the liquid surface, in mm.
a. 500 mm
b. 600 mm
c. 763 mm
d. 704 mm

7. CE Board Exam (May 2000) A dam 4 m on top, 16 m at the bottom, and 24m high, has water
18m deep on its vertical side. Neglecting hydrostatic uplift, find the soil pressure at the heel.
Assume unit weight of concrete of 23.54 kn/m3.
a. 705.00 Kpa
b. 258.74 Kpa
c. 446.26 Kpa
d. 352.50 Kpa

8. CE Board Exam (May 2000): A pressure gage at elevation 10 m at the side of a tank containing a
liquid reads 80 Kpa. Another gage at elevation 4m reads 120 Kpa. Find the specific gravity of the
liquid.
a. 0.62
b. 0.73
c. 0.65
d. 0.68

9. CE Board Exam (Nov. 2019): A hydraulic jack is used to raise a 10 kN car. A force of 40 kN is
applied on a 25 cm diameter plunger. What diameter of jack in mm is required to raise the car?
a. 250
 b. 800
c. 125
d. 150
10. CE Board Exam (May 2022): What height in meters of a column of special gage liquid having a
sg. of 2.90 would exert the same pressure as the column of oil 6m high having a sg. of 0.80.
a. 1.31 m
b. 8.00 m
c. 3.43 m
d. 1.66 m
CE BOARD (May 2019) A cylinder having a diameter of 1.20 m and weighing 800 N is held in position is
sea water by a wire tied to an anchor block resting at the bottom of the sea such that 0.30 m of the
cylinder is below the surface of the water with its axis vertical. The anchor block has a volume of 0.50
cubic meter and weighs 24 kN per cubic meter in air. Assume sea water to have a specific gravity =
1.03. Neglecting the weight and volume of the cable.

1. What is the buoyant force on the cylinder for the position described, in kN.
a. 3.43 kN
b. 3 kN
c. 2.628 kN
d. 3.628 kN

2. What is the tensile force in the wire when the top of the cylinder is 0.60 m above the water
surface, in kN.
a. 3.43 kN
b. 3 kN
c. 2.628 kN
d. 3.628 kN

3. What is the rise in the tide that will lift the anchor from the bottom of the sea, in meters.
a. 0.5 m
b. 0.378 m
c. 0.578 m
d. 0.6 m

CE Board (May 2019) Three pipes A, B and C are connected in parallel. If the combined discharged of
the 3 pipes is equal to 0.61m³/s and assuming they have equal values of friction factor “f”. Compute
the following using the data shown. Pipe A, B C length are 600m,480m,750m respectively. Pipe A,B,C
diameter are 150m,200m,100m respectively. Compute the rate of flow of pipeline A in lit/sec.
 4. What is the rate of flow of pipeline A in lit/sec?
a. 170 li/sec
b. 390 li/sec
c. 50 li/sec
d. 60 li/sec

5. What is the rate of flow of pipeline B in lit/sec?

a. 170 li/sec
b. 390 li/sec
c. 50 li/sec
d. 60 li/sec

6. What is the rate of flow of pipeline C in lit/sec?

a. 170 li/sec
b. 390 li/sec
c. 50 li/sec
d. 60 li/sec

7. CE Board (Nov. 2021) Timber, 0.6m by 0.6m x 3 m is submerged in water, in which 1/3 of its
length is exposed to air. What is the unit weight of the timber?
a. 7.54 kN/m3
b. 6.54 kN/m3
c. 3.34 kN/m3
d. 9.24 kN/m3

Situation3: A 600-mm diameter non-rigid pipe conveys water from a reservoir with a velocity of 2.50
m/s. The flow is suddenly stopped by the closure of valve situated 400 m from the reservoir. Assume
that the pressure increases at a uniform rate and that there is no damping of the pressure wave. The
pipe has a thickness of 20 mm and a modulus of elasticity of 1.40 x 1011 Pa. The bulk modulus of
elasticity of water 2.20 x 109 Pa.

8. . Which of the following most nearly gives the celerity of the pressure wave?
a. 1366.79 m/s
b. 1222.76 m/s
c. 1483.24 m/s
d. 1616.04 m/s
 9. Which of the following most nearly gives the time for the pressure wave to travel round trip
along the pipe?
a. 0.65 s
b. 0.54 s
c. 0.59 s
d. 0.50 s

10. . Which of the following most nearly gives the water hammer pressure developed in the pipe
due to instantaneous valve closure?
a. 4040.11 kPa
b. 3708.12 kPa
c. 3415.29 kPa
d. 3056.90 kPa

Determine whether each of the structures below are internally determinate, indeterminate, or
unstable. If it is indeterminate, to what degree is it indeterminate?
1.

a. Determinate
b. S.I. to the 2nd degree
c. S.I. to the 1st degree
d. Unstable

2.
 a. Determinate
b. S.I. to the 2nd degree
c. S.I. to the 1st degree
d. Unstable

3.

a. Determinate
b. S.I. to the 2nd degree
c. S.I. to the 1st degree
d. Unstable

4.

a. Determinate
b. S.I. to the 2nd degree
c. S.I. to the 1st degree
 d. Unstable

The total length of the beam shown below is 10 m and the uniform load Wo is equal to 15kn/m

5. What is the moment at

midspan when x=2m:

a. 37.5 kn-m
b. -37.5 kn-m
c. -187.5 kn-m
d. 187.5 kn-m

6. Find the length of overhang so that the moment at midspan is zero.

a. 2.5 m
b. 2.6 m
c. 2.4 m
d. 2.7 m

7. Find the span L so that the maximum moment in the beam is the least possible value

a. 5.90 m
b. 5.88 m
c. 5.92 m
d. 5.86 m

A cantilever beam 3.5 m long, carries a concentrated load , P, at mid-length.

Given :

P= 200kn

E= 200000 GPa

Beam Moment of Inertia, I=60.8x106 mm4

8. How much is the deflection (mm) at mid-length?

a. 1.84

b. 29.40

c. 23.50

d. 14.70

9. What force (kN) should be applied at the free end to prevent deflection?

a. 7.8

b. 41.7

c. 62.5

d. 100

10. To limit the deflection at mid-length to 9.5 mm, how much force (kN) should be applied at the free
end?

a. 54.1

b. 129.3

c. 76.8

d. 64.7