20-07-2025

2721CMD303032250006 MD

PHYSICS

1)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2)

7+1+ + + ..... ∞ =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Find the distance between point A(–1,3) & point B (3,0) :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 5
(4) 7

4) Value of sin 2° is :

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

5)
The area of the should region is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) –2

6) If –4x – 5y = 15 then y – x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

(A) sin θ (P) 2sin θ/2 cos θ/2

(B) cos θ (Q) cos2 θ/2 – sin2 θ/2

 (C) (R) 1-2cos2 θ

(D) cos 2θ (S)

(1) P,Q,R,S
(2) P,Q,S,R
(3) P,S,Q,R
(4) S,P,R,Q

8) The integral dx is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If y = x3 then find average value of y from x = 0 to x = 1.

(1) 3

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If
then value of + + is :-

(1) 3
(2) 0
(3) –3
(4) 1

11) If velocity varies with time as then graph between v and t is represented by -
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) sin 74° = ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) If x < < 1 then, (1 + x)–n can be written as :

(1) 1 + nx
(2) 1 – nx
(3) x + n
(4) x – n

14) One of the rectangular components of velocity of 80 kmh–1 is 40 kmh–1. What is the other
component ?

(1) 40 kmh–1
(2) 69.28 kmh–1
(3) 89.44 kmh–1
(4) 120 kmh–1

15) The angles which a vector makes with X, Y and Z axes respectively are

(1) 60°, 60°, 60°

(2) 45°, 45°, 45°
(3) 60°, 60°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45°, 60°

16) A car going due North at turns right through an angle of 90° without changing
speed. The change in velocity of car is

(1) 20 ms–1 in South-East direction

(2) in South-East direction
(3) 20 ms–1 North-East direction
(4) 20 ms–1 North-West direction

17)

Which pair of the following forces will never give resulant force of 2 N ?

(1) 2 N and 2 N
(2) 1 N and 1 N
(3) 1 N and 3 N
(4) 1 N and 4 N

18) Two forces, each numerically equal to 5N, are acting as shown in the figure. Find the angle

between forces ?

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 30°
(4) 150°

19) List-I List-II

(I) (P) 3
(II) (Q) 7

(III) (R) 5

(IV) (S) 1

(1) I → Q; II → S; III → P; IV → R
(2) I → P; II → Q; III → R; IV → S
(3) I → S; II → P; III → R; IV → Q
(4) I → P; II → R; III → Q; IV → S

20) If resultant of and is perpendicular to then angle between and will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Two vectors and have magnitudes of 3 units and 4 units, respectively. Angle between and
is θ.

List-I List-II
(I) (P) θ = 0
(II) units (Q) θ = π
(III) units (R)

(IV) (S)
units
(T)

(1) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-R

(2) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-S
(3) I-R, II-Q, III-P, IV-S
(4) I-Q, II-S, III-R, IV-P

22) A particle moves from (1, 1, 1) to (3, 4, 5). Then it's displacement vector will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) Two force act on a particle in the ratio 1 : 2. Resultant of these forces is three times the first
force. Angle between them is :-

(1) 0o
(2) 90o
(3) 60o
(4) 30o

24) If a vector make angle α, β and γ respectively with the x, y and z axis. Then sin2α + sin2β + sin2
γ=

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

25) If then angle between and will be :

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 135°
(4) 150°

26)

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 5N
(4) 0N

27) Which of the following is true statement

(1) β > α
(2) α > β
(3) α = β
(4) None

28) The area of the parallelogram whose sides are represented by the vector and is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Two spheres having equal charges exert F force on each other. Now 40% charge of one sphere is
transferred to another sphere. Then find new force between them in terms of F.

(1) 0.84 F
(2) 0.96 F
(3) 0.65 F
(4) 0.81 F

30) Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed respectively, at distance 0, and d from the origin, on the
x-axis. If the net force experienced by +Q, placed at x = 0, is zero, then value of q is-

(1)
+

(2)
+

(3)
–

(4)
–

31) When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant k, the maximum force of attraction
between two charges, separated by a distance-

(1) decreases k times

(2) increases k times
(3) remain unchanged

(4)
becomes times

32) Two equal point charges are being placed at distance r Now if the value of charges on each of
them are decreased by 20% then find the percentage change in electrostatic force between them : -
(r = constant)

(1) –36%
(2) –40%
(3) –44%
(4) +40%

33) Two spherical conductros B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel
each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having
same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C
and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

(1) F/4
(2) 3F/4
(3) F/8
(4) 3F/8

34) Two point charges placed at a distance r in air experience a certain force. Then the distance at
which they will experience the same force in a medium of dielectric constant K is

(1) r/K
(2) Kr

(3)

(4)

35) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown. The force on a +ve

charge kept at the centre of the square is

(1) zero
(2) along diagonal AC
(3) along diagonal BD
(4) perpendicular to the side AB

36) A charge of 4μC is to be divided into two. The distance between the two divided charge is
constant. The magnitude of the divided charges so that the force between them is maximum, will be
:-

(1) 1 μC and 3 μC
(2) 2 μC and 2μC
(3) 0 and 4 μC
(4) 1.5 μC and 2.5 μC

37) Two charges each of 1 coulomb are at a distance 1 km apart, the force between them is

(1) 9 × 103 N
(2) 9 × 10–3 N
(3) 1.1 × 10–4 N
(4) 104 N

38) In given system what will be force on –1μc in vector form

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) What is the SI unit of permittivity of free space?

(1) Weber
(2) Farad
(3)
(4)

40) Match the Column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

I. a.

II. b.

III. E c.

IV. F d.

(Where :-
F force
E electric field
Permittivity of free space
Relative permittivity of medium.)
(1) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
(2) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
(4) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

41) Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and -Q respectively, are placed at certain
distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then force
between the charges becomes :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L
from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there is no gravitational effect, then angle
between the two suspensions and the tension in each will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Dielectric constant for metal is

(1) Zero
(2) Infinite
(3) 1
(4) Greater than 1

44) The value of electric permittivity of free space is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

45) Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 'a' as shown in the
given figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC
is
(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

2) 50g of CaCO3 on complete decomposition gives how much volume of gas at STP ? CaCO3(s) —→
CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 5.6 L
(4) 1 L

3) 10 L of Butane (C4H10) on complete combustion will produce ?

(1) 4L of CO2
(2) 20L of CO2
(3) 10L of CO2
(4) 40L of CO2

4) Equal moles of SO2 and O2 reacts to form SO3 which one is the limiting reactant :-

(1) SO2
(2) O2
(3) SO3
(4) None of these

5) A sample of PCl3 contains 1.4 mole of the substance. How many atoms are there in the sample?

(1) 4
(2) 5.6
(3) 8.431 × 1023
(4) 3.372 × 1024

6) 25 nm is equal to :-

(1) 25 × 10+3 µm
(2) 25 × 10–3 µm
(3) 25 × 10–6 µm
(4) 25 × 10+6 µm

7)

The largest number of molecules are in :

(1) 36 g H2O
(2) 28 g CO
(3) 46 g C2H5OH
(4) 54 g N2O5

8) At STP, the density of CCl4 vapour in g/L will be :-

(1) 6.87
(2) 3.42
(3) 10.26
(4) 8.21

9)

A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. Its vapour density is 70. The value of x must be:

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

10) 64 g of an organic compound has 24 g carbon and 8 g hydrogen and the rest is oxygen. The
empirical formula of the compound is :

(1) CH4O
(2) CH2O
(3) C2H4O
(4) None

11) Density of a gas at STP is 4.5 gm/Litre, then its molar mass would be :

(1) 50
(2) 75
(3) 25
(4) 100

12) The vapour density of gas A is four times that of B. If molecular mass of B is M, then the
molecular mass of A is :-

(1) M
(2) 4M

(3)

(4) 2M

13) 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

14) 5.6 L of oxygen at STP contains –

(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms

(2) 3.01 × 1023 atoms
(3) 1.505 × 1023 atoms
(4) 0.7525 × 1023 atoms

15) Insulin contains 0.32% of sulphur by mass. Then calculate minimum molecular mass of insulin :-

(1) 100
(2) 1000
(3) 10000
(4) 10

16) An organic compound on analysis gave C = 54.5%, H = 9.1% by mass. Its empirical formula is

(1) CHO2
(2) CH2O
(3) C2H4O
(4) C3H4O

17) If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops then number of molecules in a drop of water is

(1) 6.023 × 1023

(2) 1.673 × 1021
(3) 1.344 × 1018
(4) 4.346 × 1020

18) The percentage of oxygen in ethanol is

(1) 13.13%
(2) 34.78%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

19) 2.2 g of a compound of phosphorous and sulphur has 1.24 g of P in it. Its empirical formula is

(1) P2S3
(2) P3S2
(3) P3S4
(4) P4S3

20) Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. If it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, the number of
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is:

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 3

21) Haemoglobin contains 3% iron and its one molecule contains 3 atoms of iron. Find molecular
weight of haemoglobin :- (Atomic weight of iron= 56)

(1) 168
(2) 16800
(3) 56
(4) 5600

22) When 3g of C2H6 is completely burnt then find out produced volume of water vapour at STP :-

(1) 0.672 lit

(2) 6.72 lit
(3) 67.2 lit
(4) 30 lit

23) When mixture of 6 L of CH4 and Propane were burnt 7 L CO2 was obtained then CH4 and propane
in mixture will be :-

(1) 5.5 L and 0.5 L

(2) 6 L and 1 L
(3) 3 L and 4 L
(4) 5 L and 2 L
24)

How many moles of KClO3 (Potassium chlorate) to be heated to produce 5.6 Litre O2 at N.T.P. ?

2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)

(1) 0.66
(2) 2.66
(3) 0.16
(4) 3.73

25) How much volume of CO2 produced at STP when 15 litre octane(C8H18) is completely combusted
with oxygen ?

(1)
L
(2) 8L
(3) 15L
(4) 120L

26) The IUPAC name of compound is

(1) 5-Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexene

(2) 4-Ethyl-5,5-dimethyl cyclohex -2-ene
(3) 3-Ethyl-5,5-dimethyl cyclohex-6-ene
(4) 6-Ethyl-4,4-dimethyl cyclohexene

27) IUPAC name of compound

(1) 2, 3-diethyl butane

(2) 2-ethyl-3-methyl pentane
(3) 3-methyl-2-ethyl pentane
(4) 3,4-dimethyl hexane

28) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the
IUPAC system of nomenclature is

(1) –SO3H, –COCl, –CONH2, –CHO

(2) –CHO, –COCl, –SO3H, –CONH2
(3) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COCl
(4) –COCl, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO

29) IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 2-Bromophenylpropanoate
(2) 2-Bromophenylpropionate
(3) Ethyl-2-bromobenzoate
(4) None of the above

30) What is the IUPAC name of the following compound ?

(1) 2-cyano-2-methyl hex-4-yne--ol

(2) 2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl-hex-4-yne-nitrile
(3) 2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl hex-5-yne-nitrile
(4) 1-cyano-2-hydroxymethyl-2-methyl-4-hexyne

31) The number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is :-

(1) 10 σ bonds and 3π bonds

(2) 8 σ bonds and 5π bonds
(3) 11 σ bonds and 2π bonds
(4) 13 σ bonds and no π bond

32) Which of the following numbering is right ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Number of 2° hydrogen in isobutane is :

(1) 3
(2) 0
(3) 9
(4) 1

34) Which IUPAC sequence pair, first have correct and second incorrect name -

(1) 2-Dimethylpentane and 2,2-Dimethylpentane

(2) But-4-ol-1-yne and But-3-yn-1-ol
(3) 2-Chloro-4-methylpentane and 4-Chloro-2-methylpentane
(4) 2,5,7-Trimethyloctane and 2,4,7-Trimethyloctane

35) Which of the following name is correct according to IUPAC rules ?

(1) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
(2) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(3) Hexane-3,5-dione
(4) 6-Methyloctan-3-ol

36) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitro benzene

(2) 5-Ethyl-2-fluoro-1-nitro benzene
(3) 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitro benzene
(4) 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitro benzene

37) Which of the following compound has maximum number of olefinic bonds.

(1)

(2)

(3) O=CH–CH=CH–CH=O
(4) O=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH2

38) Which of the following is saturated compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the following compound has all 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° 'C' atoms -

(1) Iso pentane

(2) Neo pentane
(3) Iso octane
(4) 3-Ethyl pentane

40) What is the molecular weight of smallest alkane which contains one 4° 'C'.

(1) 58
(2) 72
(3) 84
(4) 100

41) Which of the following compound is homocyclic hydrocarbon derivative

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) IUPAC name of

(1) Di ethanal
(2) Ethanedial
(3) Dial
(4) Dicarbaldehyde

43) Which of the following is correct structure of 4-ethyl-5-isopropyl octane.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44) Which of the following is 2° radical

(1) (Ph)3C–
(2) Ph–CH2–
(3) CH3 CH(CH3)CH2–
(4) (CH3)2CH–

45) Which of the following compound has only one type of carbon atoms ?

(1) Neo pentane

(2) Iso butane
(3) Propane
(4) Benzene

BIOLOGY

1) Regarding axoneme of cilia and flagella following statements are given :

(a) It usually has peripheral nine (doublets) microtubules
(b) It has no membrane around it
(c) It has nine pairs of radial spoke
(d) It has a pair of centrally located microtubules
Which of the above are not correct statements ?

(1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, d
(4) b, c

2) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bacterial flagella :-

(1) It composed of three parts filament, hook and basal body

(2) It forms by tubulin protein
(3) Their number and arrangement may vary
(4) Gram negative bacteria have L, P and S, M rings

3) Which of the following statement is correct regarding chloroplast?

(1) A number of organised flattened membranous sacs called cristae, present in stroma.
(2) Its outer membrane is less permeable.
(3) The stroma contains enzymes required for the carbohydrates and protein synthesis.
(4) Its ribosomes are larger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes.

4) Which is mismatched?

(1) Amyloplasts – Store protein granules

(2) Elaioplasts – Store oils, or fats
(3) Chloroplasts – Contain chlorophyll pigments
(4) Chromoplasts – Contain pigments other than chlorophyll

5) Match the columns :–

Column-I Column-II

Endoplasmic
(a) (i) Cellular respiration
reticulum

(b) Free ribosome (ii) Osmoregulation and excretion

(c) Mitochondrion (iii) Synthesis of lipids

Contractile
(d) (iv) Synthesis of non- secretory proteins
vacuole

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

6) Which of the following is a universal feature of all living cells ?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Mitochondria

7) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Schleiden, a German Botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed that all plants
are composed of different kinds of cells.
(b) Schwann, a German Zoologist studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells had a
thin outer layer which is today known as plasma membrane.
(c) Rudolf Virchow said "Omnis cellula-e-cellula"
(d) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a final
shape.
Options :

(1) Statements (a) and (b) only

(2) Statements (b) and (c) only
(3) Statements (c) and (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

8) How many cell organelles are devoid of membrane:

Nucleolus, Peroxisome, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Centriole.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

9) Statement-I :- Number of nucleolus per cell can be variable in different types of cell.
Statement-II :- Nucleolus is site of ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Both statement are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect while II is correct

10) (I) Amyloplast–Store starch (Potato)

(II) Elaioplasts–(Store oil and fat)
(III) Aleuroplast–Store protein
The above types of plastids are included under :

(1) leucoplasts (colourless plastid)

(2) chromoplast (non-green colour plastid)
(3) chloroplast (green plastid)
(4) none of these

11) How many of the following single membrane bound organelles are found in only plant cells ?
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosome, Large Central vacuole, Peroxisome, Microbodies

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

12) Choose the correct statements

(I) The stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of sugars
(II) Mitochondria is an power-house of cell as it produces most of the cellular ATP
(III) Mitochondria and chloroplast are found in plant cells
(IV) Mitochondria are the sites of anaerobic respiration
(V) The stroma of mitochondria posses a single linear DNA, many RNA molecules, 80S ribosomes

(1) IV and V
(2) II, IV and V
(3) I, II, III
(4) III and V

13) Match the columns Ι, ΙΙ and ΙΙΙ and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column Ι Column ΙΙ Column ΙΙΙ

A i Mesophyll cell p Elongated

B ii Tracheid q Round and biconcave

C iii Red blood cell r Amoeboid

D iv White blood cell s Round and oval

(1) A-iii-q, B-iv-r, C-i-s, D-ii-p

(2) A-iv-r, B-iii-q, C-ii-p, D-i-s
(3) A-iii-r, B-iv-q, C-i-p, D-ii-s
(4) A-iv-q, B-iii-r, C-ii-s, D-i-p

14) Cilia takes part in :-

(1) Attachment
(2) Locomotion
(3) Feeding
(4) All of the above

15) Which one of the following pair contains both double membranous organelles and contains their
own DNA ?

(1) Ribosome, Chloroplast

(2) Mitochondria, Chloroplast
(3) Golgibody, Lysosome
(4) Lysosome, Mitochondria

16) Cell membrane is made up of :-

(1) Lipid
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Protein
(4) All of these

17) Middle lamella is composed mainly of

(1) calcium pectate

(2) phosphoglycerides
(3) hemicellulose
(4) muramic acid

18) Extensions of cell membrane inside a prokaryotic cell; that are involved in respiration are called
?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Chromatophore
(3) Nucleoid
(4) Plasmid

19) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following in an ascending order of their size.
(i) Mycoplasma
(ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBC
(iv) Bacteria

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, iv, iii, ii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) iii, ii, i, iv

20) Which of the following contains lytic enzymes ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Chromosome
(4) Mitochondria

21) Nucleoid is found in :-

(1) Blue green algae

(2) Algae
(3) Fungi
(4) Amoeba

22) Cell theory is not applicable to:

(1) Algae
(2) Fungus
(3) Viruses
(4) Bryophytes

23) One of the most important function of the plasma membrane is :-

(1) Formtion of nuclear membrane

(2) Tranport of molecules across it
(3) Export of macromolecules
(4) Detoxification

24) ATP synthesis occur in :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Leucoplasts

25) An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures which helps in the maintenance of
cell shape is called :-

(1) Plasmalemma
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Endplasmic reticulum
(4) Thylakoids

26) When a lysosome fuses with a phagosome/food, it results in the formation of :-

(1) Secondary lysosome

(2) Primary lysosome
(3) Autophagic vacuole
(4) Residual body

27) The function of nucleolus is the synthesis of :-

(1) DNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) r-RNA
(4) t-RNA

28) Who proposed the theory that "cells arise only from pre-existing cells" ?

(1) Mohl
(2) Virchow
(3) Haeckel
(4) Brown

29) Microtubules are arranged in a special manner in flagella like:-

(1) 9 + 0
(2) 9 (triplet) + 2 (singlet)
(3) 9 (doublet) + 2 (singlet)
(4) 9 (triplet) + 0 (singlet)

30)

From the following figure, label-A is representing which of the following

(1) Cristae
(2) Tubules
(3) Cisternae
(4) Columns

31) Several ribosomes attach to a single m-RNA & form a chain called as :-

(1) Polysome
(2) Microsome
(3) Axoneme
(4) Mesosome

32) Assertion :- Content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
Reason :- Nucleolus is not covered with any kind of membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) Assertion : Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction.

Reason : Other constrictions may also occur on some chromosomes

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

34) Assertion : Cell wall is unique character of the plant cells

Reason : Cell membrane is only found in animal cells.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false

35) Assertion (A) : Enzymes of lysosome optimally active at basic pH.

Reason (R) : Lysosomes are single membrane bound structure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

36) Which of the following cell organelle is found in all living cells (Both eukaryotic & prokaryotic)

(1) E.R.
(2) Golgi complex
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Plastids

37) Algae have cell wall made up of :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan and murin
(3) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate
(4) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin and protein

38) Smallest living cell is :-

(1) PPLO
(2) Virus
(3) Viroid
(4) Sperm

39) When centromere is present at one end of chromosome, it is known as :-

(1) Acrocentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Metacentric
(4) Submetacentric

40) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) Vacuole is bounded by single membrane called tonoplast which regulate the osmotic expansion
of a cell.
(B) Centriole form the basal body of cilia and give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in
plant cells
(C) Leucoplast are the colourless plastids with stored food
(D) Middle lamella is a layer of calcium pectate, which holds the different neighbouring animal cells
together
How many of the above statement are right?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

41) Assertion : Calcium pectate is referred as plant cement.

Reason : It glues neighbouring plant cells together.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

42) Study the section of cilia/flagella it shows the different parts :-

In which of the following options all the four blanks A, B, C and

D are correctly identified :-

(1) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Arm

(2) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
(3) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(4) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke

43) Ribosomes factory of cell is :-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Rough endoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Smooth endoplasmic Reticulum
(4) Golgibody

44) Read the following statement and find out the correct statement :-
(a) Mitochondria is typically sausage shaped or cylindrical
(b) Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by fission
(c) Chromoplasts have fat insoluble carotenoid pigments like carotene and xanthophylls
(d) Plastids are found in plant cells and euglenoids

(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

45) Cytoplasm of one cell is connected with other through :

(1) Cytoplasmic dense bodies

(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Torus
(4) Pit membrane

46) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

47) On tip of nose which cartilage is present :

(1) Elastic
(2) White Fibrous
(3) Hyaline
(4) Calcified

48) Transitional epithelium present in :

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Ureter
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) All the above

49)

Which of the following are correct w.r.t. epithelial tissue?

(A) It has free surface which may face towards the body fluid.
(B) It provides covering for some part of body
(C) Intercellular matrix is abundant

(D) It lies on basement membrane.

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) Only (C)
(3) (A), (C), (D)
(4) (A), (B), (D)

50) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement?

(1) The structures of the cells vary according to their function.

(2) The epithelial cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(3) Main function of compound epithelium is secretion and absorption.
The inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and of pancereatic ducts of covered by compound
(4)
epithelium.

51)

Identify figure A and B, structures 1 and 2 respectively ? Figures are related with specialised
connective tissue :-

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

52)

Epithelial cells have a variety of junctions between them. Why ?

(1) because they have rich supply of blood vessels.

(2) because cells are loosely packed with each other
(3) because they provide structural & functional link
(4) because cells are flat or cuboidal or columnar in shape

53)

How many of the following statements are correct regarding epithelium

a. They are always secretory
b. Forms a definite layer
c. Free surface is always modified into microvilli
d. Germinal epithelium is simple cuboidal epithelium

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

54) Match the following in column A and column B–

Column A Column B

(a) Collagen fibres (i) Vasoconstrictor

(b) Elastic fibres (ii) Kupffer cell

(c) Serotonin (iii) White fibres

(d) Liver (iv) Yellow fibres

(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

55) Choose the statements which are related with simple and stratified epithelium?
(a) Composed of single layer of cells
(b) Consists of two or more layers of cells
(c) Functions as lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(d) It has protective function as it does in our skin

a b c d
(1) Simple Simple Stratified Stratified
(2) Simple Stratified Simple Stratified
(3) Simple Stratified Stratified Simple
(4) Stratified Simple Simple Stratified
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
56) Epithelium present in cornea of eye & vagina of female is :

(1) Nonkeratinised
(2) Keratinised
(3) Simple squamous
(4) Stratified cuboidal

57) Find out the incorrect matched pair :

Type of tissues Examples

(1) The squamous epithelium Forms diffusion boundaries

Ducts of glands and tubular part

(2) The cuboidal epithelium
of nephrons in kidney

(3) The columnar epithelium Lining of stomach and intestine

Fallopian tubes, stomach and Air

(4) The cuboidal epithelium
sacs of lungs
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Statement-1 : Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of
complex animals.
Statement-2 : The matrix of connective tissue is made by modified polysaccharide.

(1) Only statement-1 is correct

(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Statement-1 & 2 both are correct
(4) Statement-1 & 2 both are incorrect

59) What will happen if ligaments are torn?

(1) Bones will move freely at joint and no pain

(2) Bone less movable at joint & pain
(3) Bone will become unfixed
(4) Bone will become fixed

60)

How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provides protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.

(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

61) Assertion : Simple columnar epithelium is also called as Germinal epithelium.

Reason : Columnar cells of gonads forms gametes.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reasons not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

62) Statement-I :- Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue. Statement-II :- The cells of
tissue are specilased to store fats.

(1) Both statements I & II are incorrect.

(2) Both statements I & II are correct.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement is correct.

63) Select incorrect match with respect to simple epithelium shown and its location in the body?

(1)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs

(2)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons

(3)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons

(4)

Simple epithelium-
Location-Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
64) Which of the following is/are part of areolar tissue?

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Mast cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) All of these

65) The term squamous and cuboidal apply to the ........... of cells in ........... tissue :-

(1) Location, connection

(2) Shape, connection
(3) Location, nerve
(4) Shape, epithelial

66) Pseudostratified epithelium is always :-

(1) Single layered but some time double layer

(2) Double layer but some time single layer
(3) Always single layer
(4) None of the above

67) Identify A to D given in the figure.

(1) A–Collagen fibres, B–Macrophage, C–Mast cell, D–Fibroblast

(2) A–Macrophage, B–Fibroblast, C–Mast cell, D–Collagen fibres
(3) A–Mast cell, B–Collagen fobres, C–Macrophage, D–Fibroblast
(4) A–Fibroblast, B–Mast cell, C–Collagen fibres, D–Macrophage

68) Where is columnar epithelium found?

(1) Lining of intestine

(2) Outer wall of stomach
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) All of these

69) Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid

(2) The bone cells are present in the lacunae
(3) Communication junctions are present in cardiac muscles
(4) Bone has pliable ground substance

70) Find out the statements associated with epithelial tissues:

A : It originates first
B : It is only ectodermal in origin
C : It has high amount of intercellular substance
D : It is made up of compactly packed cells
E : It has maximum power of regeneration

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

71) Choose the correctly matched pair :-

loose
(1) Cartilage connective
tissure

specialised
(2) Tendon connective
tissue

dense
Adipose
(3) connective
tissue
tissue

losse
Areolar
(4) connective
tissue
tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Choose the correctly matched pair :-

(1) Inner surface of bronchioles Squamous epithelium

(2) Inner lining of salivary duct Ciliated epithelium

(3) Moist surface of buccal cavity Glandular epithelium

(4) Tubular part of nephron Cuboidal epithelium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
73) Which of the following statements is correct about epithelial tissue?

(1) It has abundant intercellular spaces

(2) It is richly vascularized
(3) It rests on a non-cellular basement membrane
(4) Its cells are loosely packed

74) Given below is the diagramatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C, and D and select the correct option given below:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) 3. Given below are two statements -

Statement I : Bones have a solid and pliable ground substances rich in calcium salts and collagen
fibre.
Statement II : Most of cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bone in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) Both statement-l and statement-Il are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-l is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

76) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 Tall and Cuboidal
a. 1. K. Bronchioles
slender cells epithelium

Flattened cells
Columnar Tubular parts
b. with irregular 2. L.
epithelium of nephrons
boundaries

Cilia on their Squamous Lining of

c. 3. M.
free surface epithelium intestine

Cube like Ciliated Walls of

d. 4. N.
cells epithelium blood vessels
(1) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—K, d—1—L
(2) a—2—K, b—1—L, c—4—M, d—3—N
(3) a—4—M, b—3—L, c—1—K, d—1—N
(4) a—2—M, b—3—N, c—4—L, d—1—K

77) Assertion (A) : Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue.

Reason (R) : Cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a solid ground substance in areolar tissue.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) incorrect.

78) Transitional epithelium is chacracterised with :-

(A)Modified simple squamous epithelium
(B) Modified compound epithelium termed as urothelium
(C)Basement membrane is much thicker and contains multiple layers of cells.
(D)Presence of single layer of squamous cells at the base.
Option are

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(2) (B), (C), (D)
(3) (C), (D)
(4) Only (B)

79) Assertion : Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Reason : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Assertion : Exocrine glands have ducts.

Reason : All glands of the body are multicellular.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
 Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.

81) Identify the diagram and find correct answer :-

(1) Stratified columnar epithelium = Ureter

(2) Simple-columnar epithelium = Trachea
(3) Pseudo stratified columnar epithelium = Renal-Pelvis
(4) Pseudo stratified columnar epithelium = Bronchi

82) Assertion :- Columnar epithelium also known as glandular epithelium, in most cases.
Reason :- Cells of columnar epithelium form the lining of the stomach.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

83) How many statement are not correct :

(i) Blood vessels lined by squamous epithelium.
(ii) Cuboidal epithelium found in ducts of gland.
(iii) Hormones are secretion of exocrine gland.
(iv) Compound epithelium protect against chemical and mechanical stress.
(v) Gap junctions help in rapid transfer of ions.

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) All are correct

84) Read the following statements :

(a) Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
(b) In connective tissue, the cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(c) Areolar connective tissue serves as a supportive frame work for epithelium.
(d) Adhering junctions helps to stop substance from leaking.
In the above, the correct statements are

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and d
(4) b and c

85) Assertion : Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
Reason : More then one layer of cells are present.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

86) Which of the following statements about cell junction are correct
(i) All the cells of the epithelium are held together with little intercellular materials.
(ii) In nearly all animal tissues specialized junction provide both structural and functional link
between its individual cells.
(iii) Tight junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
(iv) Adhering junctions provide cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(v) Gap junctions provide cytoplamic channels between cells for passage of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecules.

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iv) and (v)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

87) Assertion :- Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense irregular connective tissue.
Reason :- In tendons and ligaments fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed and fibres show a
irregular pattern.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

88) Assertion (A) :- Most of the bones are cartilaginous in origin.

Reason (R) :- Most of the embryonic cartilage goes under the process of ossification.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

89) How many statement are incorrect regarding bones :

(A) Bones have non-pliable matrix
(B) Bones cells are called osteocytes
(C) Some bones produces blood cells
(D) Bones are rich in calcium salts and elastin fibres
(E) Bones are type of specialised connective tissue
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

90) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Cartilage is solid, pliable & resist compression.
Statement-II :- Cartilage is present in tip of nose & between adjacent vertebrae.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 1 4 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 4 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 4 3 1 4 2 4 1 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 4 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 3 2 1 4 4 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

B. Concept:

A. Infinite Geometric Series: A series where each term after the first is found by
multiplying the previous one by a constant factor (common ratio).

B. Convergence: An infinite geometric series converges if the absolute value of the common
ratio is less than 1.

C. Sum of Convergent Geometric Series: The sum of an infinite converging geometric series
can be calculated using a specific formula.

C. Formula:

A. Sum (S) = a / (1 - r) where: a = first term of the series r = common ratio

D. Calculation:

A. Identify a and r:

a = 7 (first term)

A. r = 1/7 (common ratio)

B. Check for Convergence: |r| = |1/7| = 1/7 < 1 Therefore, the series converges.

C. Calculate the Sum: S = 7 / (1 - 1/7) , S = 7 / (6/7) , S = 49/6

E. Final Answer:

The sum of the infinite series is 49/6 Option 2

3)

4)

5)
= – cos 2n – (– cos n)
= –1 + cos n
= –1 –1 = –2

6)

–4x –5y = 15
5y = –4x – 15

Slope
C = – 3.

7) Formulae Based

8)

9) Question Explanation
We have to find average value of y form x = 0 to x = 1 If y = x3

Concept
Integration

Formula

Calculation
Conclusion
Hence, option (2) is correct

Level : Easy

10)

sin θ1 = sinθ2 = sinθ3 = 1

θ1 = θ2 = θ3 = π/2

11) Here
m = – ve
c = + ve

12) sin 74° = sin(2 × 37°)

{sin2θ = 2 sinθ cosθ}
⇒ sin(2 × 37°) = 2 sin37° cos37°

13) If x < < 1

⇒ (1 + x)–n = 1 – nx

14) R = 80 km/h, Rx = 40 km/h

but ⇒ 802 = 402 +
⇒
⇒ = 69.28 km/h

15)
Comparing the given vector with

Rx = 1, Ry = 1, Rz = and

⇒ α = 60° ⇒ β = 60°

⇒ γ = 45°

16) Initial velocity is

Final velocity is
∴ The change in velocity is

17)

If two vectros A and B are given then range of their resultant can be written as (A – B) ≤ R ≤
(A + B)
i.e. , Rmax = A + B and Rmin = A – B.

18) Angle between forces = 120°

19)

(I)

(II)

(III) =3

(IV) =5

20) 1. Question Explain : The question asks for the angle between two vectors and given
that their resultant is perpendicular to . We need to use vector properties to find the angle
between the two vectors.

2. Concept Based : Vector addition and Dot product.

3. Formula Used :
• Condition for Perpendicular Vectors : If the resultant vector is perpendicular
to , then :

• The dot product formula :

where θ is the angle between and .

21)
(P)

(Q)

∴θ=0
(R)
∴θ=π

(S)
 22) Question Explanation: To find displacement vector.
Concept: Subtraction of vector.
Formula: Displacement
Solution: A (1, 1, 1) & B (3, 4, 5)
Then displacement =
=
​

23)
R = 3F ⇒ θ = 0°

24)

+ + =1
sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ = 2

25)

Given
⇒
⇒
⇒1+2+

⇒ ⇒ θ = 135°

26) Concept:
Use vector components to add and find the resultant. Symmetry suggests cancellation due to
equal magnitudes and 120° separation.
Formula:

A.

B.

C.

Calculation/Explanation:
Let be along x-axis:
Ax = 10, Ay = 0
at 120° : Bx = –5, By =
at 240°: Cx = –5, Cy = –
Add components:
Rx = 10 – 5 – 5 = -,
Ry = 0 +

So,
Final answer:

27) ⇒α<β

28)

Area =

29) Let us assume initially both the sphere were having equal charge q so, Force between
them can be written as -

When 40% charge is transferred from one the another then new force F’ -

(0.84) = 0.84 F

30)
For equilibrium of charges Q,

∴q=–

31) According to Coulomb's law,

F=
If a dielectric medium of constant k is placed between them,

F1 =

or, F1 = (New force decreases k times)

32)

33) Initially, F = k . (Fig. A). When a third spherical conductor come in contact alternately
with B and C and then removed, the charges on B and C are Q/2 and 3Q/4, respectively (Fig.
B)
Now force F' = k . =

34) = or = r2 or r' =

35)

36) Let distance between the two divided charges be r.

From Coulomb's law, force between two charge,

For F to be maximum,

[4 – 2q] = 0 ⇒ q = 2 μC
So, other charge will (4 – 2) μC i.e., 2 μC

37) Explain Question:

Two charges of 1 coulomb each are placed 1 km apart. You're asked to calculate the
electrostatic force between them using Coulomb's law.
Concept:

Coulomb's Law: Where

Formula: Calculation:

38) Question Explain

We are given two charges: at point and at point . We are to find
the electrostatic force on the charge at point in vector form.

Concept Based
Electrostatic force between two point charges using Coulomb's Law in vector form.
 Formula Used
Coulomb's Law in vector form:

Where

Calculation
Positions:

A.
B.

Displacement vector (from A to B):

Magnitude of :

Unit vector:

Charges:

A.
B.

Force:

Final Answer: Option 1

39) Question Explanation

The question asks for the SI unit of the permittivity of free space ε0, a fundamental constant in
electrostatics found in Coulomb's law.
Concept Based
Permittivity of free space determines the strength of the electric field produced in a vacuum. It
defines how electric fields interact with the medium.
Formula Used
Coulomb's Law:

Calculation
Rearranging for ε0.

Substitute units:

So, the SI unit of ε0 is , which matches option 3 .

40)

41)

42)

43) Theoretical.

44) Conceptual.
 45)

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation

We need to determine the number of moles of HCl gas formed when 22.4 L of H2 and 11.2 L of
Cl2 are mixed at STP.
Given
Volume of H2 = 22.4L
Volume of Cl2 = 11.2L
Condition = STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure)

Concept
Number of Moles Calculation & Concept

Explanation
At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L
The balanced chemical reaction for the formation of HCl is
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
From the balanced equation. 1 mole of H2 reacts with 1 mole of Cl2 to form 2 of HCI.

Moles of H2 =

Moles of Cl2 = =0.5 mol

Since Cl2 is the limiting reagent (we have less of Cl2) the moles of HCI formed will be based on
the amount of Cl2, available.
From the equation. 1 mole of Cl2 produces 2 moles of HCl. Therefore. 0.5 moles of Cl2 will
produce
0.5 mol Cl2 × 2 = 1 mol HCl
Final Answer
The number of males of HCl formed is 1 mole.
Correct Answer: Option 1,

47)

Question Explanation :
We need to find the volume of CO2 gas produced at STP when 50 g of CaCO3 decomposes
according to :
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
 Concept :
Use mole calculation and molar volume of gas at STP (22.4 L/mol)

Solution :
Molar mass of CaCO2 = 40 + 12 + (3 × 16) = 100 g/mol

Moles of CaCO2 =
From the equation 1 mol CaCO2 produces 1 mol CO2, produces 0.5 mol CO2.
Volume of CO2 at STP = 0.5 × 22.4 = 11.2 L

Final Answer :
Option (2)

48) Question Explanation

We are asked how much CO2 gas is produced from the complete combustion of 10 L of butane
(C4H10)
Given
Volume of butane = 10 L
Reaction is complete combustion
Concept
Volume of gas after combustion of organic compound.
Explanation
Balanced combustion reaction of butane
2C4H10 + 13O2 → 8CO2 + 10H2O
From the equation :
2 volumes of C4H10 give 8 volumes of CO2
i.e. 1 volume of C4H10 gives 4 volumes of CO2
Given: 10 L of C4H10
CO2 produced = 10 × 4 = 40 L
5. Final Answer
40 L of CO2 is produced
Correct Answer: Option 4

49)

Given Data

A. Reactants: Equal moles of SO₂ and O₂

B. Reaction: The formation of SO₃ from SO₂ and O₂ typically follows the stoichiometric equation:
2 SO₂ + O₂ → 2 SO₃

Concept

A. Limiting Reactant: The substance that is completely consumed first and thus limits the amount
of product formed.
B. Stoichiometry: The balanced reaction shows that 2 moles of SO₂ react with 1 mole of O₂.
C. When provided with equal moles of SO₂ and O₂, the reactant with the higher stoichiometric
requirement (in this case, SO₂ which needs to be present in a 2:1 ratio relative to O₂) will be
the limiting reactant.
 Mathematical Calculation

A. Let the number of moles of each reactant be 1 mole:

A. Moles of SO₂ = 1 mole
B. Moles of O₂ = 1 mole
B. According to the balanced equation (2 SO₂ + O₂ → 2 SO₃):
A. For 1 mole of O₂, the reaction requires 2 moles of SO₂.
B. Since only 1 mole of SO₂ is available, the SO₂ is insufficient to react with all of the O₂
present.
C. Therefore, SO₂ is the limiting reactant because it runs out first.

Final Answer
The limiting reactant is: SO₂
(Option 1)

Question Level
Medium

50)

Question Explanation :
We have 1.4 moles of PCl5 and need to find the total number of atoms in the sample.

Concept :
This question is based on each molecule of PCl5 contains 1P atom and 3 Cl atoms, total 4 atoms
per molecules.
Total atoms = moles = Avogadro's number × atoms per molecules

Solution :
Number of molecules = 1.4 × NA = 1.4 × 6.022 × 1023 = 8.43 × 1023
Total atoms = 8.43 × 1023 × 4 = 3.372 × 1024

Final Answer :
Option (4)

51) Question Explanation:

Asking you to identify the incorrect statement.

Concept:
Kingdom protista

Solution:
Most chrysophytes are autotrphic not heterophic

Correct option: (4)

52) H2O = 2 mole; CO = 1 mole,

C2H5OH = 1 mole, N2O5 = 1/2 mole

53)
= 6.87 g/L

54)

Molecular weight = 2 × VD
= 2 × 70 = 140
(CO)x = 140
28 × x =140
X=5

55) C H O
mass 24 8 32

moles
ratio 2 8 2
Simple integer ratio 1 4 1
Hence empirical formula is CH4O

56)

Density = 4.5 g/litre

4.5 g per litre
Molar mass = 22.4 ℓ of a gas
1 liter = 4.5 g
22.4 ℓ = 4.5 × 22.4 = 100.8 g = 100 g

57)

(V.D.)A = 4 × (VD)B
MA = 4 × M B

58)
Mw = 30

59)

Number of moles of oxygen gas in 5.6 L can be calculated as,

Moles of O2 =

Number of atoms of O2 =
60)

Insulin must have one 'S' atom

now 0.32% insulin weighs 32

molecular mass =
= 10000

61)

Question is Asking About :-

To determine empirical formula.

Concept :
This question is based on Empirical formula

Given Data :-
C = 54.5% by mass = 54.59
H = 9.1% by mass = 9.1 g
O = 36.4% by mass = 36.4g

Solution :

Formula ⇒ C2H4O

Final Answer
Option (3)

62)

1 mL of water = 1 g of water

18 g of water contains 6.023 x 10²³ molecules

1 mL of water contains = (6.022 x 10²³) / 18 molecules = 20 drops

∴ 1 drop of water will contain = (6.022 x 10²³) / (18 x 20)

= 1.667 x 10²¹ molecules

63) Asking About : Percentage of oxygen in ethanol (C2H5OH)

Formula : % of O

Solution/Explanation : = 34.78%

64)

The ratio of weights of P:S is 1.24 : [2.2−1.24] = 1.24 : 0.96.

The molar ratio is 1.24/31​ : 0.96/32 ​= 4 : 3.

Therefore, the formula of the compound is P4​S3​.

65)

[Hint : Mas of nitrogen in 194 amu caffeine =

One molecule of caffeine will contain atoms of nitrogen.

66)

% wt =

1 mole of Haemoglobin contains Fe = 3 × 56 = 168 g

⇒ Molecular weight of Haemoglobin =

67) NCERT Pg # 25

moles of
moles of H2O(g) = 0.1 × 3 = 0.3
vol of H2O(g) at STP = 0.3 × 22.4 = 6.72 L

68)

Explaining Question:
Find volumes of CH4 and C3H8 in a 6 L mixture producing 7 L CO2 on combustion.
Concept: This question is based on Volume ratios from balanced combustion equations (Gay-
Lussac’s law)
Solution:
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O → 1 L CH4 gives 1 L CO2
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O → 1 L C3H8 gives 3 L CO2
Let CH4 = x L, then C3H8 = 6 − x L
Total CO₂ = x + 3(6 − x) = 7
⇒ x + 18 − 3x = 7
⇒ −2x = −11 → x = 5.5
CH4 = 5.5 L, C3H8 = 0.5 L

69) Moles of O2 = = mol

3 mol O2 —→ 2 mol KClO3

1 mol O2 —→ mol KClO3

mol O2 —→ × = 0.16 mol KClO3

70)

C8H18 + O2 → 8CO2 + 9H2O

one litre C8H18 —→ 8L CO2
15 L → 8 × 15L

71)

72)

73) According to priority table of functional group.

74) Ethyl-2-Bromo Benzoate

75)
2-hydroxy methyl-2-methyl hex-4-yne-nitrile
Word root = 6C(Hex)
Side chain = –CH3 (methyl) and –CH2–OH (Hydroxymethy)
1º suffix → yne
2° suffix → –CN(Nitrile)
Principle functional group must have least locant number.

76)
Number of sigma bonds = 10
Number of π-bonds = 3

77) Right numbering according to IUPAC

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

78)
There are no 2°C atoms present so 2°H atoms = zero.

79)

NCERT 11th Page No. 370 [Link]. 12.5

80)

NCERT 11th Page No. # 336, 338, 340

81)
4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitro benzene
82)

83) saturated compound

⇒ All C–C bonds are single bonds

84) iso octane

85) C5H12 ⇒ 72

86)

All ring forming atoms should be same

Homocyclic Hydrocarbon derivative

87)
Ethane-1, 2-dial
or
Ethanedial

88)
4-Ethyl-5-isopropyl octane
 89)

90) All 'C' atoms are 2°

BIOLOGY

91)

The incorrect statement is option : 4) b, c

Explanation:

A. (b) Incorrect: The axoneme has a membrane around it.

B. (c) Incorrect: The axoneme has Nine radial spokes, not nine pairs.

92)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 91

93) NCERT Pg. # 136

94)

The mis-matched option is : 1. Amyloplasts – Store protein granules

Explanation: Amyloplasts store starch, not [Link] statement is mismatched.

Other options are correctly matched:

A. Elaioplasts – store fats/oils

B. Chloroplasts – contain chlorophyll

C. Chromoplasts – contain pigments other than chlorophyll

95)

Explanation: Option 2 correctly shows two DNA nucleotides linked by a phosphodiester bond
between the 5' phosphate of one and the 3' hydroxyl of the other. The 'H' at the 2' sugar
position confirms they are DNA nucleotides. Options 1 and 3 show RNA nucleotides (OH at 2').

Answer: 2
 96)

NCERT XI Pg. No. # 88, 90

97) The correct statement are -

(a) Schleiden, a German Botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed that all
plants are composed of different kinds of cells.
(b) Schwann, a British Zoologist studied different types of animal cells and reported that cells
had a thin outer layer which is today known as plasma membrane.
(c) Rudolf Virchow said "Omnis cellula-e-cellula"
(d) Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell theory a
final shape.

98)

Question Explanation:
How many cell organelles are devoid of membrane:
Nucleolus, Peroxisome, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Centriole.

Solution:

A. Nucleolus is membrane-less. It is a dense region within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) is synthesized.

B. Centriole is also membrane-less. It is involved in cell division but does not have a
membrane.

Hence,
Correct Option: 1

99)

NCERT-XI Page # 100

100)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 88

101) NCERT-XII, Pg . # 92

102)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 97

103) NCERT XI, Pg.# 127; fig. 8.1

 104)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 99

105)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 98

106) [Link]. : 131/8.5.1

107)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 94

108)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 90

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

110) NCERT XIth Page No. 134

111) Key Analysis:

A. Nucleoid is a region in prokaryotic cells where the genetic material (DNA) is located. It is not
enclosed by a membrane, unlike the nucleus in eukaryotic cells.

1. Blue-green algae (also known as cyanobacteria):

A. These are prokaryotes, and they have a nucleoid instead of a nucleus.

2. Algae:

A. Most algae are eukaryotes, so they have a true nucleus, not a nucleoid.

3. Fungi:

A. Fungi are also eukaryotes and have a true nucleus.

4. Amoeba:

A. Amoeba is a eukaryotic organism with a true nucleus.

Correct Answer:
1. Blue-green algae

112)

Allen module.
113) NCERT XI pg.# 132

114)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 97

115)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 98

116)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 96

117) NCERT Pg. # 138

118) Module Pg. # 126

119) NCERT Pg.#137/8.5.7

120)

The correct answer is: 1. Cristae

Explanation: In the figure of a mitochondrion, label-A is pointing to the cristae, which are
the folds in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. These folds increase the surface area
for cellular respiration.

121) NCERT, Pg. # 91

122) Module-1, Pg. # 210

123) NCERT-139

124)

Explanation: Assertion is true: The cell wall is a unique feature of plant cells (not found in
animal cells) but Reason is false: Cell membrane is found in both plant and animal cells, not
just animal cells.

125) NCERT Based.

126)

Asking about : Identifying the cell organelle present in all living cells (both eukaryotic and
prokaryotic).

Concept : Understanding the fundamental components of cells and the differences between
eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell structures.

Solution :

Ribosomes: Ribosomes are essential for protein synthesis and are found in all living cells, both
eukaryotic and prokaryotic. While the ribosomes differ slightly in structure (70S in
prokaryotes, 80S in eukaryotes), they are present in all cells.

Therefore, the cell organelle found in all living cells is ribosomes.

Answer: 3. Ribosomes

127) NCERT XI (Eng.), Pg.# 132 Para 4 line 5,6,7

128)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 90

129)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 101

130)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 96

131)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 94

132)

Ncert Page 99.

133)

Ncert Page 97.

134)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 98

135)

Concept:

A. Plasmodesmata are microscopic channels that pass through the cell walls of adjacent
plant cells, allowing direct communication and transport of materials between their
cytoplasms.

Solution:

A. Plasmodesmata are the specialized structures that create cytoplasmic continuity

between plant cells.

136)

Tendocalcaneous is the strongest tendon of body which connects gastrocmemius muscle of

shank with calcaneum bone of ankle.

137)

Module

138)

In Module

139) NCERT-Page No.101

140)

XITh NCERT Pg No : 101,102

141)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 104

142)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 102

143)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 101,102

144)

XIIITh Module

145) Option correction.

Right option is -
a- simple, b-stratified, c- stratified, d- stratified.
(a) Composed of a single layer of cells: This is characteristic of simple epithelium.
(b) Consists of two or more layers of cells: This is characteristic of stratified epithelium.
(c) Functions as lining for body cavities, ducts, and tubes: This can be both simple and
stratified epithelium, depending on the specific location and function.
(d) It has a protective function as -it does in our skin: This is primarily a function of stratified
epithelium.

146)

non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

147) NCERT-XI, Pg # 101, Para.-7.1.1

148) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102, 103

149) Ligaments are structure which connect bone to bone. They are made of bundles of elastic
fibres and few collagen fibers

150)

Only (i) statement correct

151)

XIIITh Module

152) NCERT-XI, Pg#103, Para.-IInd

153)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 101

154)
XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 103

155)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 101

156)

XIIITh Module

157)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 103

158)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 101

159)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 102

160)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 101

161)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 103

162)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 101,102

163) It rests on a non-cellular basement membrane.

164) Explanation : It is a adipose tissue (D) in which B-nucleus shift towards periphery due to
precence of A-fat storage area ( fat globules at centre of adipose cell) and C is plasma
membrane of Adipose cell.

165)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 104

166)

NCERT - XI. Pg # 101

167)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 103

168)

XIIITh Module

169) NCERT Pg. # 125

170) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

171)

XIIITh Module

172)

NCERT Pg. # 101

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101, 102

174) NCERT Page no 101, 102, 103.

175) Compound epithelium main function is to provide protection against chemical and
mechanical stress.
It is made of more than one layer of cells and has limited role in secretion and desorption.

176)

XITh Old NCERT Pg No : 102

177) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 103

178) NCERT, Pg # 104

Both A & R correct & R is the correct explanation of A.

179) NCERT, Pg # 104

180) NCERT, Pg # 104
Both statements I & II are true