DAYANANDA SAGAR PRE UNIVERSITY COLLEGE

SHAVIGE MALLESHWARA HILLS, KUMARASWAMY LAYOUT, BANGALORE - 560 111

II PUC Science / Commerce MCQ Assignment – 2 July 2025

Name of the Student :

Year : Section : Combination : Language :

Signature of Student :

Name of the Parent and Signature :

Signature of Staff :

P C M B CS E Kan Hindi San Eng

General Instructions :

1. There are four options, only one option out of four is correct and appropriate, which the
students need to select.
2. While answering the mcq’s, students are hereby informed to solve and show the detailed
solution for every question.
3. Students must not select more than one option.
4. Students are encouraged to write, why the other options are incorrect.
5. MCQ’s are designed and developed to assess competencies based learning outcomes and
ability to think critically about the subject. Thus students are requested to read each
question carefully before reading the answer options.
 PHYSICS

1. Identify the statement which is not true

a) spring force and gravitational force are conservative.
b) coulomb force is conservative
c) coulomb force do not obey inverse law
d) potential energy in moving a charge against the repulsive force is stored as potential
energy.

2. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinite distance to a point which
is at a distance x from the source charge + 𝑄 is W. Then the electrostatic potential at
that point is
a) 𝑊𝑄 b) c) d) 𝑊

3. If 𝑛 identical capacitors of capacitance C each are connected in series, then the effective
capacitance is
a) 𝑛𝐶 b) c)𝑛 𝐶 d)

4. Which of the following statement is wrong for series combination of capacitors?

a) charge on each capacitor is same.
b) applied potential difference is equal to sum.
c) net charge stored is equal to that on any one of the capacitors in the combination.
d) effective capacitance is lesser than least of the individual capacitance.

5. In a charged capacitor, energy is stored as

a) kinetic energy of the charges on the plates
b) gravitational potential energy
c) electrostatic potential energy
d) both kinetic energy and potential energy of the charges.

6. 1 volt is equivalent to
a) b) c) d)

7. Which of the following is a polar molecule ?

a) H2 b) O2 c) H2O d) N2

8. If length and area of cross section of a conductor are doubled then its resistance will be
a) unchanged b) halved c) doubled d) quadrupled
9. The drift velocity does not depend upon
a) cross section of the wire
b) length of the wire
c) number of the free electrons
d) magnitude of the current

10. He current drawn from a cell is maximum when

a) R = 0 b) R < r c) R > r d) R = r

11. If two identical cells of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in series, then the
equivalent emf and equivalent internal resistance is
a) E , 2r b) 2E , 2r c) E , r d) 2E , r

12. In a wheatstone bridge, if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the
deflection in galvanometer will
a) change in previous direction
b) not change
c) change in opposite direction
d) none of these

13. The direction of flow of current through electric circuit is

a) from low potential to high potential
b) from high potential to low potential
c) does not depend upon potential value
d) current cannot flow through circuit

14. Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on the law of conservation of

a) energy b) charge c) momentum d) momentum
and energy

15. The internal resistance of an ideal cell is

a) zero
b) between 0 and 0.1Ω
c) between 0 and 0.5Ω
d) infinite
CHEMISTRY ASSIGNMENT-2

1. Azeotropes are binary mixture having

(a) same composition in liquid and vapour phase and boil at constant temperature.
(b) different composition in liquid and vapour phase and boil at constant temperature.
(c) same composition in liquid and vapour phase and boil at different temperature.
(d) different composition in liquid and vapour phase and boil at different temperature.

2. In comparision to a 0.01M solution of glucose, the depression in freezing point of a 0.01M

MgCl2 solution is ______
(a) the same (b) about twice
(c) about three times (d) about six times

3. The unit of molal elevation constant (Kb) is

(a) mol/dm3 (b) mol/kg (c) J/K/mol (d) Kkg/mol

4. The KH value (K bar) of Argon(I), carbon dioxide (II), Formaldehyde (III) and Methane (IV)
are 40.3, 1.67, 1.83× 10 and 0.413 respectively at 298K. The increasing order of solubility
of gas in liquid is
(a) I < II < IV < III (b) III < IV < II < I (c) I < III < II < IV (d) I< IV < II < III

5. Choose the correct statement

(a) KH value is same for a gas in any solvent.
(b) higher the KH value more the solubility of gas.
(c) KH value decreases on increasing the temperature of the solution.
(d) Easily liquefiable gases usually have less K H values.

6. Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?
(a) 1.0M NaOH (b) 1.0M Na2SO4 (c) 1.0M NH4NO3 (d) 1.0M KNO3

7. The rise in boiling point of a solution containing 1.8g glucose in 100g of solvent is 0.1 C. The
molal elevation constant of the liquid is
(a) 2Kkg/mol (b) 10Kkg/mol (c) 0.1Kkg/mol (d) 1.0Kkg/mol

8. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12Kkg/mol. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078m containing a non-volatile solute is benzene.
(a) 0.20K (b) 0.80K (c) 0.40K (d) 0.60K

9. The reagent used in Sandmeyer’s reaction is

(a) Cu2Cl (b) Cu and HCl (c) Cu2Cl2 (d) CuCl2
10. Identify the products A and B in the reactions
R-X + AgCN A + AgX
R-X + KCN B + KX
(a) A= RNC ; B = RCN (b) A = RNC ; B = RNC
(c) A = RCN ; B = RCN (d) A = RCN ; B = RNC

11. Which of the following is an organometallic compound?

(a) CH3COONa (b) CH3‒CH2‒Mg‒Br (c) (CH3COO)2Ca (d) CH3ONa

12. The correct IUPAC name of

NO2
F

(a) 4-Ethyl-1-Fluoro-2-nitrobenzene (b) 1-Ethyl-4-Fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

(c) 3-Ethyl-6-Fluoro-nitrobenzene (d) 5-Ethyl-2-Fluoro-nitrobenzene

13. Tertiary alkyl halide is practically inert to substitution by S N2 mechanism because of

(a) insolubility (b) instability (c) inductive effect (d) steric hindrance

14. The plane polarized light produced by passing ordinary light through Nicol prism. It is
passed through the solution of compound ‘A’. The ‘A’ canrotate the plane polarized light in
clock wise direction. The compound ‘A’ cannot be
(a) 2- Chlorobutane (b) 2-aminoethanoicacid
(c) Bromochloroiodomethane (d) 2, 3-dihydroxypropanal

[Link] a haloalkane with ꞵ hydrogen atom is heated with ‘X’ gives olefin (alkene). The role of
‘X’ and name of the reaction is
(a)Base, substitution reaction (b) Nucleophile , substitution reaction
(c) Base, elimination reaction (d) Nucleophile, elimination reacytion
.

.
 DAYANANDA SAGAR PRE UNIVERSITY COLLEGE
II PU MATHEMATICS ASSIGNMENT – 2
𝟓
1. The value of cos(sin-1 )
𝟏𝟑
𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟐 𝟓
a) b) - c) d) none of these
𝟏𝟑 𝟏𝟑 𝟏𝟐
2. Simplify tan[sec-1√𝟏 + 𝒙𝟐 ]
𝟏 𝟏 𝒙
a) b) x c) d)
𝒙 𝟏 𝒙𝟐 𝟏 𝒙𝟐
-1 0
3. Value of sec [sec (-600 )] =
a) -600 b) -300 c) 300 d) 1500
𝟏
4. The principal value of sin-1(- )
𝟐
𝝅 𝝅 𝝅 𝝅
a) b) c) − d) −
𝟑 𝟔 𝟑 𝟔
-1𝟏 -1
5. If sin (sin + cos x ) = 1, then x is equal is
𝟓
𝟒 𝟏
a) 1 b) 0 c) d)
𝟓 𝟓
-1
6. The range of tan x is
𝝅 𝝅 𝝅
a) 𝝅, b) − , c) (−𝝅, 𝝅) d)(𝟎, 𝝅)
𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
7. The value of cos (tan-1 (tan 2)) is
𝟏 𝟏
a) b) - c) cos 2 d) – cos 2
√𝟓 √𝟓
√𝟑 𝟏
8. The value of sin-1 ( ) – sin-1 is
𝟐 𝟐
0 0
a) 45 b) 90 c)150 d) 300
𝟒𝝅
9. Value of sec-1 (sec ) is
𝟑
𝝅 𝟐𝝅 𝟒𝝅 𝝅
a) b) c) d)−
𝟑 𝟑 𝟑 𝟑
𝟏 𝒙𝟐 𝟏 =
10. Simplify tan-1
𝒙
-1 𝟏
a) tan x b) tan-1 x c) 2 tan-1 x d) None of these
𝟐
𝟏
11. Value of tan-1 =
𝒙𝟐 𝟏
𝝅 𝝅
a) + cosec-1 x b) - sec-1 x c) cosec-1 x d) sec-1 x
𝟐 𝟐
𝟑
12. [sin(tan-1 ) ]2 =
𝟒
𝟑 𝟓 𝟗 𝟐𝟓
a) b) c) d)
𝟓 𝟑 𝟐𝟓 𝟗
𝟏𝟒
13. sin ( 2tan-1( )) + cos (tan-1 2√𝟐 ) is equal to
𝟏𝟓
𝟏𝟒 𝟑 𝟐√𝟐 𝟐√𝟐
a) b) c) d)
𝟏𝟓 𝟒 𝟕 𝟏𝟓
14. 1+ cot2(sin-1 x) =
𝟏 𝟏 𝟐
a) b) x2 c) d)
𝟐𝒙 𝒙𝟐 𝒙
15. If x = sin-1[ sin (-6000) ], the one of the possible value of x is
𝝅 𝝅 𝟐𝝅 𝟐𝝅
a) b) c) d) −
𝟑 𝟐 𝟑 𝟑
CLASS ASSIGNMENT -2 CLASS : II PUC SUB: BIOLOGY
CHAPTER: REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
SELECT THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE FROM THE CHOICES GIVEN BELOW.
1. What are the various aspects of reproductioncovered by WHO?
(a) Physical→ Emotional Behavioural
(b)Physical→EmotionalBehaviouralSocial
(c)Physical→EmotionalGestational→ Social
(d) PhysicalEmotionalSocial

2. Which of these options is correct with regards tostatements X and Y?

Statement X: Some STDs do not show symptoms infemales.
Statement Y: Some STDs in females may remainundetected for long time.
(a) Statement X and Yare correct and X is thecorrect explanation forY
(b) Only statement X is correct.
(c) Only statement Y is correct.
d) Statement X and Yare correct

3. Statement I: Introduction of sex education inschools should be encouraged.

Statement II: This will encourage children tobelieve in myths about sex related aspects.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

4. Statement I: Amniocentesis is legally banned for sexdetermination.

Statement II: Amniocentesis was being misused foraborting normal female foetus
a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

1. Statement I: Lactational amenorrhea is absence ofmenstruation during intense lactation

Statement II: This is a highly reliable method ofcontraception.
a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II isincorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

6. Statement I: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy or space
children.
Statement II: IUDs are most widely accepted methods contraception in India.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and StatementII are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
7. Statement I: Use of condom is a safeguard against AIDS and sexual díseases besides checking
pregnancy.
Statement II: Certain contraceptives are plantedunder the skin of the upper arm to prevent
pregnancy.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

8. Statement I: All contraceptives have the addedadvantage of protection against sexually

transmitteddiseases.
Statement II: Natural birth control methods havenegligible side effects.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

9. Statement I: GIFT is an in-vitro fertilisationtechnique.

Statement II : In GIFT, gametes are fertilisedoutside the female body
a) Both Statement I andStatement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and StatementII is correct

10. Choose the correct statement

i. According to the WHO, reproductive health istotal well being in the physical, social, emotional
and behavioural aspects ofreproduction.
ii. According to the WHO, reproductive healthtotal well being in the physical, social andemotional
aspects ofreproduction.
iii. A reproductively healthy society has people with physically and functionally normal
reproductiveorgans.
iv. A reproductively healthy societies have abnormal sex related emotional and behavioural
interactions.
a. i, ii and iii
b. ii andiv
c. iand iii
d. i only

11. Choose the right one among the statements givenbelow

a. IUDs increase phagocytosis reactions in theuterus
b. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
c. IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d IUDs once inserted need not to be replaced.
12. Select the correct statement from the following.
a. Surgical methods of contraception preventgamete formation
b. All sexually transmitted diseases are completelycurable
c. Sexually transmitted infections may often beasymptomatic in females
[Link] reason for infertility can be physiological butnot psychological

13. StatementI : 1UDs can cause excess menstrualbleeding and pain.

Statement II: IUDs can perforate uterus.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

14. These statements are given regarding MTP. Choosewhich one is the correct option.
i. Are generally advised during first trimester
ii. Are used as contraceptive method
iii. Are always surgical
iv. Require an assistance ofqualified medical personnel
a. i and iii
b. ii and iii
[Link] iv.
d. iii and iv

15. Identify the wrong statements

i. Pills and hormone releasing IUDs make cervixhostile to sperms
ii. The mode of action of implants in similar to thatofpills
iii. Vasectomy prevents conception
iv. Tubectomy blocks ovulation
a. ii, iv
b. i, ii
c. iii, iv
d. iv
 2 nd PUC Electronics MCQ
1 A FET has
(a) two terminals (b)three terminals (c) four terminals (d) one terminal

2 FET operates on
(a)Single carriers only (b)Both type of carriers (c) no carriers (d) both majority and minority
Carriers

3 In a JFET operating above pinch off voltage the

(a) Drain current starts decreasing (b) Drain current increases
(c )Drain current remains constant (d)None of these

4 The current is controlled in FET by

(a)electric field (b)magnetic field (C) both electric and magnetic field (d) none of these

5 In a FET the ratio of drain to source voltage (V DS ) to the drain current (I D ) for a constant
value of gate to source voltage (V GS ) is known as
(a) A.C drain resistance (b) D.C drain resistance
(c) trans-conductance (d)amplification factor

6 In a FET the ratio of change in drain current (ΔI D ) to the change in gate-to-source voltage
(ΔV GS ) at constant drain-to–source voltage (V DS ) is known as
(a)A.C drain resistance (b) D.C drain resistance (c) trans-conductance (d)amplification factor

7 In a FET the ratio of change in drain-to-source voltage (ΔV DS ) to the change in gate-to-
source voltage (ΔV GS ) at constant drain current I D is known as
(a)A.C drain resistance (b) D.C drain resistance
(c) trans-conductance (d)amplification factor

8 A JFET has the tree terminals, namely

(a) Cathode, anode, grid (b)emitter, base, collector
(c) source, gate, drain (d)none of the above

9 In a P-channel JFET, the charge carriers are

(a) electrons (b) holes (c) both electrons and holes (d) none of the above

10 In a N-channel JFET, the charge carriers are

(a)electrons (b) holes (c) remains the same (d) none of the above

11 If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the conducting channel is
(a)decreased (b) increased (c) both electrons and holes (d) none of the above

12 The input control parameter of a JFET is

(a)gate voltage (b) source voltage (c) drain voltage (d) gate current

13A JFET has high input impedance because

(a)it is made of semiconductor material (b) input is reverse biased
(c) of impurity atoms (d) none of the above

14 In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off voltage, the depletion layers
(a) almost touch each other (b) have a large gap
(c) have moderate gap (d) none of the above

15 The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called as
(a) breakdown (b) Saturation (c)pinch-off (d) cut-off
 COMPUTER SCIENCE ASSIGNMENT-II

1. Stack follows ________ principle.

a. LIFO b. FIFO c. FCFS d. LIFS
2. The process of inserting an element in stack is called_________ .
a. INSERT b. POP c. PUSH d. TOP
3. The value of postfix expression for a+b is________
a. +ab b. a+b c. ab+ [Link] of these
4. Which data structure is used to evaluate postfix expression?
a. Queue b. Deque c. Stack d. Tuple
5. Prefix notation is also called as ________.
a. Polish notation b. Reverse polish notation
c. Reverse postfix d. None of the above
6. DEQUE in python is implemented using __________ data structure.
a. QUEUE b. List c. Stack d. tuple
7. _______ function returns the number of elements in the QUEUE.
a. peek b. length c. size d. count
8. Assertion(A): A Stack is a liner data structure that follows FIFO principle.
Reason (R) : in stock, recently added element is available last for access.
a. Both A and R true b. A is True and R is False.
c. A is False and R is True. d. Both A and R are False.
9. What is the order of removing the elements of the following Stacks?

A(0) A(1) A(2)

10 20 30

a. 10 20 30 b.20 10 30 c. 30 20 10 d. 30 10 20
10. Which of the following situation causes overflow of stack ?
a. Inserting an element to a full stock.
[Link] an element to an empty stack.
c. Delecting an element from full stock.
d. Deleting an element fromempty stack;
11. Assertion (A): A Stack is a LIFO(Last in First Out) list.
Reason (R) : In Stack, recently added element is available last for access.
a. Both A and R True b. A is true and R is False.
c. A is False and R is true. d. Both A and R are False.
12. Which of the following is used to test whether a Stack is empty or not ?
a. top() b. isfull() c. isempty() [Link] of these.
13. An expression in which the operator are placed in between the operands is called.
a. infix [Link]. c. postfix. [Link]
14. The postfix expression for x*y+z is
a.x y+z* b.x y * z + c. x*y*z d. x+y+z
15. The combination of operands (variables or constants) and operators is called
a. formula [Link] c. constraint d. none of these
*****
 ENGLISH - ASSIGNMENT #2

1. ROMEO AND JULIET

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS BY CHOOSING THE CORRECT OPTION:

1. The phrase 'teach the torches to burn bright' suggests:

a) Juliet's glow is brighter than the light of the torch.

b) Juliet's beauty is capable of enabling the torches to burn bright.

c) Juliet's beauty surpasses the brightness of light.

d) Juliet glows like a torch.

2. 'for earth too dear' - this phrase suggests that the lady's beauty is ____________.

a) divine b) rare c) expensive d) unavailable on earth

3. When Romeo shines like a star in the face of heaven, the world will ____ ,according to Juliet.

a) not worship the garish sun

b) fall in love with night
c) keep staring at heaven
d) worship the moon
4. “Beauty too rich for use.” It refers to ______.

a) Romeo b) Juliet c) Rosaline d) the nurse

5. The measure done; I’ll watch her place of stand. The word ‘measure’ means______.

a) dance b) party c) night d) day

[Link] feels that he had not seen ______ until he met Juliet.
a) black-browed night b) Snowy Dove
c) true beauty d) an Ethiope’s ear

7. _______ is compared to a rich jewel in an Ethiope's ear.

a) Romeo b) Juliet c) Snowy dove d) Rosaline

8. According to Romeo, his hand would be blessed________.

a) when he touches her hands b) when he marries her

c) when he attends the party d) when she dances with him
9. After the dance is over, Romeo intends to _______.
a) meet and talk to Juliet b) touch Juliet’s hand
c) watch Juliet’s place of stand d) dance with her

10. The phrase ‘thou day in night’ refers to ________.

a) Juliet b) face of heaven
c) Roseline d) Romeo

11. Juliet hangs upon the cheek of night ________.

a) as a rich jewel in an Ethiope’s ear b) as yonder lady

c) like a snowy dove d) on a garish sun

12. The phrase 'new snow' suggests _________________.

a) description of Romeo’s charm b) Romeo’s love for Juliet

c) love as pure as snowy dove d) love as precious as gold
13. When Romeo shines as stars, he will ______________________.

a) fall in love with night b) be in heaven

c) make the face of heaven fine d) make people forget sun

14. Juliet expects Romeo to come during __________.

a) day b) night c) evening d) noon

15. Juliet says, "Come night, come Romeo; _______________

a) thou night in day b) thou day in night

c) on a raven’s back d) upon the cheek of night
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À ÀÄß ¤gÁPÀj¹zÀªÀgÄÀ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?

C) ¥ÉèëAiÀiÁ D) ¤±Á±ÀªÄÀ ð E) £ÉëÄZÀAzÀæ F) ¹ÃvÁ

12. £ÉëÄZÀAzÀægÀ ¥ÀwAiÀÄ ºÉ¸ÀgÉãÀÄ?

C) ¸ÀÆAiÀÄð D) gÁd E) QÃwð F) ZÀAzÀæ

13. Qr߸ÉÆÖÃ£ï §UÉÎ w½AiÀÄ®Ä ¯ÉÃRQ AiÀiÁgÀ£ÀÄß ¨sÉÃn ªÀiÁrzÀgÀÄ?

C) PÀªÄÀ ®ªÀÄä ªÉÄÃqÀA D) ±ÁgÀzÁ E) gÉÃtÄPÁ F) ¸ÀgÀ¸Àéw

14. DAiÉÄ̬ÄzÉ £ÀªÀÄä PÉÊAiÀÄ°è UÀzÀåzÀ ¯ÉÃRPÀgÀÄ AiÀiÁgÀÄ?

C) £ÉëÄZÀAzÀæ D) ªÀÄÆtðZÀAzÀæ E) ¦.®APÉñï F) PÀĪÉA¥ÀÄ

15. PÉÆ£ÉUÉ §¸À°AUÀ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀjAzÀ ªÀÄÄPÀÛ£ÁVzÀÝ?

C) ¸ÀA¸ÁgÀ D) ¸ÀļÀÄî E) ¥Á¥À¥e

Àæ ÉÕ F) ¸ÀvåÀ
 DAYANANDA SAGAR PRE UNIVERSITY COLLEGE

KUMARSWAMI LAYOUT, BANGALORE

HINDI ASSIGNMEN – 02 (IIPUC)

I कोष्ठक में दिए गए कारक चिन्हों से ररक्त स्थान भररए :- 1×5=5

(पर, मे, ने, से, को)

1) —------ वह मेरा दोस्त अभिनय में पूरा है।

2) बेटी अपनी माता —-------- गहने मानती है।

3) रात —------- चलनेवाले ननशाचर कहलाते हैं।

4) राजेश —------ बहुत सारी कववताएं भलखी।

5) राम कैं ची —-------- कागज काटता है।

II अनेक शब्िों के लिए एक शब्ि लिखिए :- 1×5=5

6) जजसका आदद न हो

7) ईश्वर में ववश्वास रखने वाला

8) नीचे भलखा हुआ

9) रोगी का इलाज करने वाला

10) जो पररचचत न हो

III ननम्न लिखित प्रश्नों के सही विकल्पों को िन

ु कर लिखिए :- 1×5=5

11) सुजान ने गााँव में यह बनवाया -

i) एक तालाब ii) एक पक्का कुआाँ iii) एक मंददर iv) एक ववद्यालय

12) कततव्य करने का आरं ि यहााँ से शुरू होता है -

i) ववद्यालय ii) घर iii) मंददर iv) पाठशाला

13) अचिकार कववता में कवनयत्री भमटने को मानती है –

i) अपना वजूद ii) अपना उपहार iii) अपना अचिकार iv) अपना अवसाद

14) चकोर पक्षी इसे दे खता रहता है –

i) सूयत को ii) चंद्र को iii) बदल को iv) मोर को

15) हाँसी के मारें मर जाने की बात कहती है –

i) माँजली बहू ii) बेला iii) छोटी िािी

 DAYANANDASAGAR PU COLLEGE
SANSKRIT 2nd PU ASSIGNMENT-2 JULY (1st sat) 2025
I AkÉÉåÌlÉÌSï¸ÉlÉÉÇ mÉëzlÉÉlÉÉqÉç mÉëzlÉÉlÉÉÇ E¨ÉUÉÍhÉ MüÉå¸MüÉiÉç E®ØirÉ ÍsÉZÉiÉ| 15X1=15

1. ÌuÉ¢üqÉÉÌSirÉMüjÉÉÇ MüÉ MüjÉiÉrÉÌiÉ? (mÉÑijÉÍsÉMüÉ, ÌmÉmÉÏÍsÉMüÉ, lÉuÉqÉÉÍsÉMüÉ, qÉÉÍsÉMüÉ)

2. ÌuÉ¢üqÉÉÌSirÉÈ MüjÉÇ SåzÉÉliÉUÇ ÌlÉaÉïiÉÈ? (pÉÉåÌaÉuÉåwÉåhÉ, UÉeÉuÉåwÉåhÉ, rÉÉåÌaÉuÉåwÉåhÉ, qÉÎl§ÉuÉåwÉåhÉ)
3. eÉÉ ÌMüqÉÉÍ´ÉirÉ UɧÉÉæ ÎxjÉiÉÈ? (uÉפÉÇ AUhrÉÇ, NûÉrÉÉÇ, uÉפÉqÉÔsÉqÉç)
4. uÉ×®mÉͤÉUÉeÉxrÉ lÉÉqÉ ÌMüqÉç? (xÉgeÉÏÌuÉ, ÍcÉUeÉÏuÉÏ, oÉMüxÉÑUÈ, ÍcÉUgeÉÏuÉÏ)
5. mÉUSÒÈZÉålÉ Måü AirÉliÉ SÒÈÎZÉlÉÈ pÉuÉÎliÉ? (qÉÉkÉuÉÈ, xÉÉkÉuÉÈ, eÉlÉÉÈ, pÉÏUuÉÈ)
6. ÌuÉ¢üqÉÉÌSirÉÈ -----xÉqÉÏmÉÇ aÉcNûÌiÉ| (uɱÍzÉsÉÉ, oÉ×WûiÉç ÍzÉsÉÉ, µÉåiÉÍzÉsÉÉ, Ì¢üwhÉÍzÉsÉÉ)
7. ----SSÉÌiÉ cÉåiÉ xÉliÉÌiÉ cNåûSÉå pÉuÉÌiÉ| (mÉѧÉÏÇ, mɦÉÏÇ, xuÉrÉÇ, mÉѧÉÇ)
8. iuÉqÉç AÉiqÉlÉÈ----- MÑüÂ| (SÒÈÎZÉiÉÇ, SWûlÉÇ, zÉÏiÉsÉÇ, xÉqÉÏÌWûiÉÇ)
9. rÉxrÉ qÉUhÉMüÉsÉÈ xÉqÉÉrÉÉiÉÈ iÉxrÉåÎlSìrÉÉÍhÉ ------- mÉëÉmlÉÑuÉÎliÉ| (AÉlÉlSÇ, xÉliÉÉåwÉÇ, asÉÉÌlÉÇ, ÌlÉSìÉÇ)
10. iuÉÇ ÌuɵÉxrÉ AÉÌiÉïÇ mÉËUWûUÍxÉ| CÌiÉ -----uÉSÌiÉ| (UÉeÉÉ, oÉë¼hÉÈ, UɤÉxÉÈ, eÉlÉÉÈ)
11. qÉMüÎlSMüÉ lÉÉqÉ lÉaÉUÏ MÑü§É AÎxiÉ? (eÉÉ»ûuÉÏ iÉOåû, zÉUÉuÉiÉÏ iÉOåû, rÉqÉÑlÉÉ iÉOåû, xÉUrÉÔ iÉOåû)
12. mÉëuÉëÉeÉMüÈ uÉÍhÉeÉÈ aÉ×WÇû ÌMüqÉjÉïqÉç AaÉcNûiÉç? (pÉÉåeÉlÉÉjÉïqÉç, ÍpɤÉÉjÉïqÉç, pÉÉwÉhÉÉjÉïqÉç, mÉËU§ÉÉhÉÉiÉïqÉç)
13. Måü ÌlÉÌuÉïqÉzÉÉïÈ? (xÉliÉÈ, pÉÏUuÉÈ, xÉÉkÉuÉÈ, UɤÉxÉÉÈ)
14. UÉeÉmÉѧÉÈ qÉgeÉÔwÉÉrÉÉÈ AliÉÈ MÇü ÌlÉͤÉmÉÌiÉ? (xÉmÉïqÉç, aÉeÉqÉç, ÌmÉzÉÉÍcÉqÉç, uÉÉlÉUqÉç)
15. mÉËUuÉëÉeÉMüxrÉ AuÉxjÉÉÇ SØwPèuÉÉ MüÈ eÉWûÉxÉ? (xÉMüsÉÉå eÉlÉÉÈ, xÉMüsÉÉå sÉÉåMüÈ, xÉMüsÉÉå ÌuɵÉÈ, UÉeÉmÉѧÉÈ)