Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

5. The position-time graph of a moving

Physics
(x-t)

particle is shown in the figure. The instantaneous

1. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of the particle is negative at the point:
speed of 20 m/s. It reaches a height of 15 m
above the ground, after a time of:
2
(take g = 10 m/s )

1. 1 s
2. 3 s
3. 1 s or 3 s
4. 2 s
1. A 2. B

2. A drone takes off with a velocity 40km/h in a 3.

C D 4.
∘
direction 30 north of the east. The wind is blowing
at 40 km/h from north to south. What is the
magnitude of the drone’s resultant displacement in 6. A vehicle travels east for 6 km, then south for
2 hrs? 8 km & without stopping. If the trip takes 15 min,

1. 40 km what is the magnitude of the average velocity in

2. 80 km km/h?

3. 80√2 km 1. 40 2. 20

4. 100 km 3. 56 4. 14

3. Given below are two statements:

The average velocity of the object 7. The velocity of a particle (v) and the
over an interval of time is either displacement (s) are related to each other
Assertion (A): smaller than or equal to the average according to the given graph:
speed of the object over the same
interval.
Displacement is the shortest
Reason (R):
distance between two points.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. The magnitude of the initial acceleration of the
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. particle is:
27 9
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 1. m/s
2
2. m/s
2

8 8

3 2
3. m/s 4. zero
4. The position of a particle with respect to time t 8
along the x-axis is given by x = 9t2 − t3 where x
is in metres and t in seconds. What will be the
position of this particle when it achieves maximum
speed along the +x-direction?
1. 32 m
2. 54 m
3. 81 m
4. 24 m

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

8. Given below are two statements: 11. Two cars A & B move from town X to town Y :
The average speed of a particle that both accelerating uniformly from rest to a
has undergone motion can be zero, maximum speed of 40 km/h and immediately,
Assertion (A):
but its average acceleration cannot decelerating uniformly to a stop at Y . The distance
be zero. between X & Y is 120 km. For car A,the
The average speed is the distance acceleration & deceleration have the same
travelled per unit time over the magnitude; for car B, the acceleration is twice the
Reason (R): entire motion, while the average deceleration. The times taken by A & B are tA &
acceleration is the change in t . Then:
B
velocity divided by the time.
1. t
A
= 2t
B
2. t
B
= 2t
A

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. 3t
A
= 2t
B
4. t
A
= t
B
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 12. Buses ply between &
which are 100 km
A B,
correct explanation of (A).
apart, from 6 AM till 6 PM. Those that ply from A
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
towards B start from A at 6 AM, and thereafter,
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
once every 30 min. On the other hand, those that
ply from B towards A start from B at 6 AM, and
thereafter, once every hour. The journey takes
9. Preeti reached the metro station and found that
2.5 hr, with no stops in between. A passenger
the escalator was not working. She walked up the
boards the 7 AM bus from A to B and then takes
stationary escalator in time t1 . On other days, if she
the next bus back to A. His average speed during
remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the journey is:
the escalator takes her up in time t2 . The time
taken by her to walk upon the moving escalator will
be: 1. 40 km/h
t1 t2 t1 t2
1. 2. 2. 36.4 km/h
t2 − t1 t2 + t1
3. 33 km/h
t1 + t2
3. t − t 4. 4. 25 km/h
1 2
2

13. During uniformly accelerated motion in a

straight line, which of the following can be negative
10. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length or positive?
L

suspended below a balloon of mass M . The 1. distance travelled 2. time travelled

balloon is stationary with respect to the ground. If
3. average velocity 4. average speed
the man begins to climb up the rope at velocity
→
v rel(relative to rope), in what direction and with
what speed (relative to ground) will the balloon
move?
→ →
m
1. V =
M
v rel

→ →
m
2. V = −
M
v rel

→ →
3. V = −
m
v rel
(m+M )

→ →
4. V = +
m
v rel
(m+M )

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

14. A car moving in a positive x-direction with 17. Two cars A and B, each 5 m long, are
uniform positive acceleration. Which one of the travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of
following velocity-time graphs correctly represents 36 km/hr and 72 km/hr. The car B is just
the motion of the car? behind the car A, but is beginning to overtake.
What will be the distance covered by the car B by
the time it is just ahead of the car A?

1. 2.

1. 10 m 2. 15 m
3. 20 m 4. 25 m
3. 4.

18. A person sitting on the ground floor of a

building notices through the window, of height
1.5 m, a ball dropped from the roof of the building

crosses the window in 0.1 s. What is the velocity of

15. A ball is released from the top of a building the ball when it is at the topmost point of the
2
180 m high. It takes time t to reach the ground. window? (g = 10 m/s )
With what speed should it be projected down so
5t 1. 15.5 m/s 2. 14.5 m/s
that it reaches the ground in time 6 ?
3. 4.5 m/s 4. 20 m/s
1. 50 ms−1
2. 61 ms−1
3. 11 ms−1
19. A particle moves around a circle with a unique
4. 2 ms−1
uniform speed in each revolution. After the first
16. The displacement x (in m) of a particle of
revolution and during the 2nd revolution: its speed
rd
mass m (in kg) moving in one dimension under the doubles; and during the 3 revolution, its speed
action of a force, is related to time t (in s) by; becomes 3 times the initial speed and so on. The
t = (√x + 3). The displacement of the particle time for the 1st revolution is 12 sec. The average
when its velocity is zero will be: time per revolution, for the first four revolutions, is:
1. 4.8 s
1. 4 m 2. zero
2. 9.6 s
3. 6 m 4. 2 m 3. 6.25 s
4. 6 s

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

20. The displacement-time (x-t) graph of the 24. A person standing on the floor of an elevator
particles A and B is shown in the figure. What is drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time t1 ,
the relative velocity of B with respect to A? if the elevator is moving uniformly and time t2 , if
the elevator is stationary. Then:
t < t2 or t1 > t2 depending upon whether the
1. 1
lift is going up or down.
2. t1 < t2
3. t1 > t2

4. t1 = t2

5 7
25. The motion of a particle is given by
1. m/s 2. m/s S = 1 + 4t − 2t . The distance travelled by the
2

12 9
particle during t = 0 to t = 2 seconds will be:
6 7
3. m/s 4. m/s 1. 0 unit 2. 2 unit
9 12
3. 4 unit 4. 3 unit

21. A ball, thrown vertically upward, is observed to

26. The displacement of a particle is represented
move upward with a speed v1 at time t1 and a
by the equation s = (3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8) where
speed v2 , downward, at time t2 .
The average velocity of the ball during the motion is s is in metre and t in seconds. The acceleration of
(downward): the particle at t = 1 second is:
v −v
2 1 v +v2 1
1. zero
1. 2. 2
2 2 2. 14 m/s
3. v2 − v1 4. v2 + v1 3. 18 m/s
2

2
4. 32 m/s
22. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-
dimensional motion such that its velocity varies
according to v(x) = βx−2n where β and n are
constants and x is the position of the particle. The
acceleration of the particle as a function of x is
given by:
1. −2nβ2 x−2n−1 2. −2nβ2 x−4n−1
3. −2β 2 x−2n+1 4. −2nβ2 x−4n+1

23. A ball thrown vertically upwards attains a

maximum height of 80 m. The time taken to fall
from the highest point to half of the maximum
height is: (take g = 10 m/s²)
1. 1.18 s
2. 2.82 s
3. 2.0 s
4. 1.76 s

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27. Consider a chessboard, as shown in the figure, 28. Two particles, A & B, move along the x-axis

where the width of each square is 2 cm. Assume (as shown in the figure) with their initial velocities
that all pieces are kept at the centres of the u ,u
A B
and their accelerations aA , aB (constant
squares, before and after a move. Also, assume accelerations). Their relative separation s is
that each single move takes 2 s – irrespective of measured from A towards B, with the initial
however many squares (distance) are taken. condition as depicted in the figure. Match the
conditions mentioned in Column-I with the
corresponding correct graph of s, in Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

What is the maximum possible displacement of a (A) a

A
= a
B
≠ 0 (I)

rook ( ♖) in a single move?

Note: A rook can move any number of squares
along only x or only y (positive or negative)
direction.
1. 14 cm 2. 16 cm
3. 18 cm 4. 16√2 cm (B) a > a ,u < u (II)
A B A B

(C) a < a ,u = u (III)

A B A B

(D) a < a ,u < u (IV)

A B A B

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

29. The graph represents the position-time (x-t) 32. Which of the following is correct regarding the
relationship for a body. graph in which the motion of two persons A and B
is shown from their home to their office? (Home of
A is taken as origin, x is the position and t is time).

Based on this, one can conclude that the body:

1. has a constant speed
2. has a constant acceleration 1. B starts earlier than A.
3. is stationary 2. A moves faster than B.
has both constant speed and constant 3. Both meet at 150 m from the house of A.
4. 4. Both meet at 50 m from the house of B.
acceleration

Choose the correct option from the given ones:

30. Which of the following statements are true for a
1. (A), (B), and (C) only
moving body?
2. (A) and (B) only
If its speed changes, its velocity must change
(A) 3. (B) and (D) only
and it must have some acceleration.
If its velocity changes, its speed must change 4. (A), (B), (C), (D)
(B)
and it must have some acceleration.
If its velocity changes, its speed may or may
(C) not change, and it must have some
acceleration.
If its speed changes but the direction of motion
(D) does not change, its velocity may remain
constant.

Choose the correct option from the options given

below:
1. (A) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

31. The friction of the air causes vertical

retardation equal to 10% of the acceleration due to
gravity. The maximum height will be decreased by:
(Take g = 10 ms-2)
1. 8% 2. 9%
3. 10% 4. 11%

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33. The velocity (v)-time (t) plot of the motion of a 35. A mass is thrown vertically upwards from the
body is shown below: ground with a certain initial velocity u. Which one
of the following velocity-time (v-t) graphs
represents the motion of the mass?

1. 2.
The acceleration (a) -time (t) graph that best suits
this motion is:

1. 2.

3. 4.

3. 4.

36. A particle has initial velocity ^ ^

(2 i + 3 j) and
34. A point mass is moving with a velocity v in the

positive x-direction. The velocity v (in m/s) is acceleration (0. 3 i + 0. 2 j). The magnitude of
^ ^

described by the equation v = 5t + 10t2 , where t velocity after 10 s will be: 1. 9√2 units
is in seconds. The acceleration of the point mass at
2. 5√2 units
t = 2 s is:
2
3. 5 units
1. zero 2. 10 m/s 4. 9 units
2 2
3. 12 m/s 4. 45 m/s
37. A horizontal bridge is built across a river. A
student standing on the bridge throws a small ball
vertically upwards with a velocity 4 ms–1. The ball
strikes the water surface after 4 s. The height of
bridge above water surface is: (Take g = 10 ms−2
)
1. 68 m 2. 56 m
3. 60 m 4. 64 m

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

38. A car travels a distance AB in three equal 41. A ball, thrown vertically upward, is observed to
segments: the first third at a velocity of v1 m/s, move upward with a speed v1 at time t1 and a
the second third at v2 m/s, and the final third at speed v2 , downward, at time t2 .
v3 m/s. Given that v3 = 3v1 , v2 = 2v1 and The acceleration of the ball is (downward):
v1 = 11 m/s, the average velocity of the car is:
v2 − v1 v2 + v1
1. 2.
t2 − t1 t2 − t1

v2 − v1 v2 + v1
3. 4.
t2 + t1 t2 + t1

1. 12 m/s 2. 18 m/s

3. 16 m/s 4. 11 m/s
42. A batsman takes the first run by moving from A
to B and then goes for the second run. When he
reaches 20 yards from B to D (see figure), he was
39. The velocity-time graph of a point mass moving
run out. The net displacement of the batsman is:
in the +x-direction is shown below. The
acceleration of the point mass is:

1. 2 yards
2. 20 yards
3. 22 yards
4. 42 yards

1. 0.25 m/s
2
43. Two stones A and B are projected
2 simultaneously with the same speed: one (A)
2. 0.4 m/s
2
vertically up and the other (B) horizontally from
3. 0.8 m/s the same point. Stone A rises up to a maximum
2
4. 1.0 m/s height H and falls down. The separation between
A and B, when A reaches its maximum height:

40. The motion of a particle along a straight line is 1. is less than H

described by the equation x = 8 + 12t − t3 2. is greater than H
where x is in meter and t in seconds. The 3. is equal to H
retardation of the particle, when its velocity
4. cannot be related with H
becomes zero, is:
1. 24 ms-2
2. zero
3. 6 ms-2
4. 12 ms-2

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44. A particle moving along a straight line 47. Which species are oxidized and reduced in the
undergoes a displacement (x), which is shown in given reaction?
the adjacent figure, as a function of time (t). The FeC2 O4 + KMnO4 → Fe3+ + CO2 + Mn2+
distance travelled by the particle from t = 0 to 1. Oxidised : Fe,C ; Reduced : Mn
t = 6 s is: 2. Oxidised : Fe; Reduced : Mn
3. Reduced : Fe,Mn ; Oxidised : C
4. Reduced : C; Oxidised : Mn,Fe

48. If the chemical reaction given below is

assumed to be balanced, what will be the values of
a, b, c, and d, respectively?
− − +
IO + aI + bH → c H2 O + d I2
3

1. 5, 6, 3, 3
2. 5, 3, 6, 3
1. 2 m 3. 3, 5, 3, 6
2. 3 m 4. 5, 6, 5, 5
3. 4 m
4. 0 m 49. For the redox reaction,
a
45. The acceleration-time graph of a particle is MnO
−
+ bC2 O
2−
+ cH
+
→ dMn
2+
+ eCO2 + fH2 O
4
shown in the figure. What is the velocity of the 4

the correct stoichiometric coefficients of the

particle at t = 8 s if the initial velocity of the
reactants a, b, and c respectively for the balanced
particle is 3 m/s?
equation are:
1. 16, 5, 2
2. 2, 5, 16
3. 2, 16, 5
4. 5, 16, 2

50. Glucose is added to 1 litre of water to the

extent that ΔTf /Kf becomes equal to 1/1000.
The amount of glucose added is:
1. 4 m/s 1. 180 g
2. 5 m/s 2. 18 g
3. 6 m/s 3. 1.8 g
4. 7 m/s 4. 0.18 g

51. Two compartments, A and B, are separated by a

Chemistry semipermeable membrane. Compartment A
46. Balance the following half-reaction in acidic contains 0.01 M Na₂SO₄ solution, and
solution: compartment B contains 0.02 M BaCl₂ solution. In
NO
−
→ NH
+ which compartment will the precipitate of BaSO₄ be
3 4
formed?
When balanced with the smallest whole-number
1. Compartment A
coefficients, what is the sum of all the coefficients
2. Compartment B
and electrons used?
3. No precipitate is formed in any compartment
1. 13
4. Precipitate forms in both compartments A and B
2. 26
3. 15
4. 23

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52. Select the correct statements: 57. The sum of the coefficients of the reactants in
A raw mango placed in a concentrated salt the following reaction is :
(A) solution loses water via osmosis and shrivels . . . . CS2 +. . . . . Cl2 → CCl4 +. . . . S2 Cl2

into a pickle. 1. 5
The value of van’t Hoff factor for ethanoic acid 2. 3
(B) 3. 6
(acetic acid) in benzene is more than 1.
68% nitric acid and 32% water is an example of 4. 4
(C)
a minimum boiling azeotrope.
58. Determine the vapor pressure (in torr) of a
Tanks used by scuba divers are filled with air
(D) MgCl2 solution, given the following data:
and helium to avoid bends.
a) molality: 1 m
1. Only B and D are correct.
b) vapor pressure of pure solvent: 100 torr
2. Only A, B, and D are correct.
c) α (degree of dissociation) = 80 %
3. Only C and D are correct.
4. Only A and D are correct. 1. 95.53 2. 78.23
3. 68.12 4. 58.26
53. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid
components, A and B, respectively of an ideal
binary solution. 59. Which species among the following can act as
If XA represents the mole fraction of component A, an oxidizing agent but not as a reducing agent?
1. Cl2
the total pressure of the solution will be:
1. pA + XA (pB-pA) 2. Cl–
2. pA + XA (pA-pB) 3. ClO2–
3. pB + XA (pB-pA) 4. ClO4–
4. pB + XA (pA-pB)
60. The vapour pressure of chloroform and
54. What is the mole fraction of methyl alcohol in a ethylene glycol at 400 K is 300 mm Hg and 500 mm
5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol? Hg, respectively. The vapour pressure of the
1. 0.100 solution prepared by mixing 50 g of chloroform and
2. 0.190 25 g of ethylene glycol at 400 K will be:
3. 0.086
4. 0.050 1. 397 mm Hg
2. 424 mm Hg
55. Which of the following solutions has the 3. 229 mm Hg
highest osmotic pressure? 4. 501 mm Hg
1. 1% glucose solution
2. 1% urea solution 61. The correct order of N-compounds in its
3. 1% sucrose solution decreasing order of oxidation states is :
4. All of the above have the same osmotic 1. HNO3 , NO, N2 , NH4 Cl
pressure 2. HNO3 , NO , NH4 Cl , N2
3. HNO3 , NH4 Cl , NO , N2
56. The number of moles of K2 Cr2 O7 required to 4. NH4 Cl , N2 , NO , HNO3
oxidise one mole of F eSO4 in acidic medium is:
1. 6 2.
1
62. Consider the following reaction :
2
aCu + bHNO3 → cCu(NO3 ) + dNO + eH2 O
1 1 2
3. 3
4. 6 The values of a, b, and e in the reaction are,
respectively:
1. 3, 8 and 4
2. 5, 2 and 8
3. 5, 2 and 16
4. 2, 5 and 8

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63. The largest freezing point depression among 68. (i) Cu+ → Cu(s) ; E°= 0.52 V
the following 0.10 m solutions is shown by: (ii) Cr3+ → Cr2+ ; E° = -0.41 V
1. KCl 2. C6 H12 O6
(iii) Fe3+ → Fe2+ ; E° = 0.77 V
3. Al2 (SO4 )3 4. K2 SO4
(iv) Fe2+ → Fe(s) ; E° = -0.44 V
Which of the above reactions can be carried out by
using HI as a reducing agent?
64. The process of reduction can be defined as:
[Given: I2(s) → 2I- ; E°= 0.54 V]
1. loss of electrons
2. increase in oxidation number 1. (i) and (iii)
3. addition of an electropositive element to a 2. (ii) and (iv)
substance 3. only (iii)
4. addition of an electronegative element to a 4. Only (ii)
substance
69. An example of a disproportionation reaction
65. In the following balanced reaction,
among the following is:
− − + 2+
Z 2MnO + 10I + 16H → 2Mn + 5I2 + 8H2 O
XMnO
−

4
+ YC2 O
2−

4
+ ZH
+
⇌ XMn
2+
+ 2YCO2 + 1.
H2 O
4

values of X, Y and Z respectively, are:

2. 2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2
1. 2, 5, 16
2. 8, 2, 5 3. 2KMnO4 → K2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2

3. 5, 2, 16 4. 2CuBr → CuBr2 + Cu

4. 5, 8, 4

66. The molarity of NaNO3 solution is 2M. The 70. Consider the following reactions :
density of solution is 1.2 gram/ml. The molality of 2 S2O32–(aq) + I2(s) → S4O62–(aq) + 2I–(aq)
the solution will be: S2O32–(aq) + 2Br2(l) + 5H2O(l) → 2SO42–(aq) + 4Br–
(Molar weight of NaNO3 = 85) +
1. 1.94 m (aq) + 10H (aq)
2. 2 m The same reductant, thiosulphate reacts differently
3. 2.06 m with iodine and bromine because:
4. 1.85 m 1. Br2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than I2
2. I2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than Br2
67. What factor influences the molar mass of 3. Both '1' and '2'
acetic acid in benzene when measured using 4. Neither '1' nor '2'
freezing point depression?
1. Vapour Pressure 71. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of
2. Dissociation water and ethyl alcohol is less than that of the
3. Complex formation theoretical value of a water and alcohol mixture.
4. Association (Dimerisation) Hence, the mixture shows:
1. That solution is highly saturated
2. Positive deviation from Raoult's law
3. Negative deviation from Raoult's law
4. Nothing can be inferred

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72. Consider the given two statements: 75.

The value of Van't Hoff factor (i) 0.1 M solution of glucose has the
Assertion (A):
for ethanoic acid in benzene is Assertion (A): same decrement in the freezing
less than unity. point as 0.1 M solution of urea.
Molecules of ethanoic acid Reason (R): Kf for both has the same value.
Reason (R): dimerizes in benzene due to
hydrogen bonding. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
explanation of (A). 2.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2.
correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
76. The correct formula of Roult's law for non-
volatile and electrolyte solute is:
73. The oxidation states of Na and O in Na2O2 are, (P = Vapour pressure of pure solvent
respectively: Ps = vapour pressure of solution
1. +1, ‐1 i = Van't Hoff Factor
2. ‐1, +1 n = Moles of solute
3. +1, ‐2 N = Moles of solvent)
4. +2, ‐2 P −Ps P −Ps n
1. P
= i ( n+N
n
) 2. Ps
= i ( n+N )
74. P −Ps P −Ps
= in
3. = ​in+N
in
4.
Mixture of nitric acid and water P Ps in+N

Assertion (A): forms maximum boiling

azeotropes.
77.
Interaction between nitric acid and
water is stronger than the The freezing point of 0.05 M urea
Reason (R): interaction Assertion (A): solution is different from that of
between nitric acid and nitric acid or 0.05 M sodium chloride solution.
water and water. The depression in the freezing
point is directly proportional to the
Reason (R):
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct number of species present in the
1. solution.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
correct explanation of (A). 1.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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78. The oxidation number of iodine in 84. The

values of Van't Hoff factors for
IO
−

3
−
, IO
4
, KI and I2 respectively are: KCl, N aCl and K2 SO4 , respectively, are:
1. -2, -5, -1, 0 1. 2, 2 and 2 2. 2, 2 and 3
2. +5, +7, -1, 0 3. 1, 1 and 2 4. 1, 1 and 1
3. +2, +5, +1, 0
4. -1, +1, 0, +1
85. Consider the following reduction processes:
79. Conversion of PbSO4 to PbS is: 2+ − ∘
Zn + 2e → Zn(s); E = −0.76 V
1. Reduction of S 2+ − ∘
Ca + 2e → Ca(s); E = −2.87 V
2. Oxidation of S 2+ ∘
−
3. Dissociation Mg + 2e → Mg(s); E = −2.36 V

4. None of the above Ni

2+
+ 2e
−
→ Ni(s); E
∘
= −0.25 V

What is the ascending order of reducing power for

80. The compound among the following that has the given metals?
the highest oxidation number of sulphur is: 1. Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni
1. H2SO4 2. Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
2. SO3 3. Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca
3. H2S2O7 4. Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni
4. All have the same oxidation number for sulphur.
86. Which of the following pairs will form an ideal
81. The species given below that does not show a solution?
disproportionation reaction is: 1. Chloroform and Acetone
1. BrO −
2. BrO4
−
2. Ethanol and Acetone
− − 3. n-Hexane and n-Heptane
3. BrO3 4. BrO2
4. Phenol and Aniline

82. An ideal solution is made by mixing 2 moles of

benzene
(P
o
= 266 mm) and 3 moles of another liquid
(P
o
.
= 236 mm)

The total vapor pressure of the solution at the

same temperature would be:
1. 502 mm 2. 248 mm
3. 600 mm 4. 298 mm

83. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of

urea (molar mass = 60 g mol–1) and 1.8 g of
glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol–1) in 100 mL of
water at 27 ºC. The osmotic pressure of the
solution is:
(R = 0.08206 L atm K–1mol–1)
1. 8.2 atm
2. 2.46 atm
3. 4.92 atm
4. 1.64 atm

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87. Points A and B in the below-mentioned graph 90. Identify the incorrect oxidation state for the
represent, respectively: element mentioned in the following species:
−
1. The oxidation state of Cl in ClO3 is +5.
2. The oxidation state of Cr in K2 Cr2 O7 is +6.
3. The oxidation state of O in Cu2 O is -1.
4. The oxidation state of Au in HAuCl4 is +3.

Biology
91. The cell shown in the given figure is most likely
at:

Partial pressures of first and second

1.
components
Vapour pressures of the pure second and first
2.
components
Partial pressures of second and first
3.
components
Vapour pressures of the pure first and second 1. Prophase II
4. 2. Prophase I
components
3. Anaphase I
4. Anaphase II
88. The reaction of sulphur in an alkaline medium
is given below: 92. Intercalated discs are:
− 2− 2− flattened interconnected smooth ER in muscle
S8( s) + aOH (aq) → bS (aq) + cS2 O
3 1.
+ dH2 O(ℓ)
(aq)
fibre
The value of 'a' is:
communication junctions between cardiac
1. 10 2. 12 2.
muscle cells
3. 14 4. 17 cell junctions that hold smooth muscle cells
3.
together in a unit
dorsoventrally flattened mitochondria in a
89. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B 4.
skeletal muscle cell
are 400 and 600 mm Hg, respectively, at 298 K. On
mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial
volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture.
93. Match the following organelles with their
The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture.
functions:
The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole
Column I Column II
fractions of components A and B in the vapour
phase, respectively, are: 1. Chloroplast A. Protein synthesis
1. 500 mm Hg, 0.5, 0.5 2. Peroxisome B. Photosynthesis
2. 450 mm Hg, 0.5, 0.5 3. Nucleolus C. Detoxification
3. 500 mm Hg, 0.4, 0.6 4. Centrosome D. Cell division
4. 450 mm Hg, 0.4, 0.6
1. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

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94. Which of the following statements would not be 97. Match List-I with List-II:
applicable to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in a List-I List-II
eukaryotic cell? Establish a barrier that prevents
Frequently observed in cells actively involved in Adhering
1. (a) (i) leakage of extracellular
protein synthesis and secretion junctions
things across a layer of cells
2. Bear ribosomes on their surface Tight Functions like rivets and fasten
(b) (ii)
Continuous with the outer membrane of the junctions cells together into strong sheets
3.
nucleus Pass information through
Gap
4. Sites of synthesis of steroidal hormones (c) (iii) neurotransmitters from one cell
junctions
to another
Provide cytoplasmic channels
Synaptic
95. Select the incorrect statements with respect to (d) (iv) from one cell to an adjacent cell
junctions
Cyclostomes: for communication
(a) They lack scales and paired fins.
(b) They have circular mouth with jaws.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(c) They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
below
(d) They migrate to deep sea for spawning.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (a) (b) (c) (d)
options given below: 1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (b) and (d) only 3. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4. (a) and (d) only 4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

96. Which of the following animals is not matched

to its correct scientific name? 98. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
1. Penguin: Aptenodytes 2. Tortoise: Testudo homologous chromosomes is called:
Angel fish: 1. Kinetochore
3. Platypus: Macropus 4. 2. Bivalent
Pterophyllum
3. Axoneme
4. Equatorial plate

99. Consider the given two statements:

The tegmina in cockroaches are
Statement I: opaque and leathery, covering the
hindwings at rest.
The forewings are used for flight in
Statement II:
cockroaches.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

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100. Ciliated epithelium in humans is primarily 105. Microbodies:

found in: are membrane bound minute vesicles that
I:
1. The walls of capillaries and alveoli in the lungs contain various enzymes
The lining of sweat glands and sebaceous II: are present in only animal cells.
2.
glands 1. Only I is correct
3. The outermost layer of the skin (epidermis) 2. Only II is correct
The inner lining of the fallopian tubes and 3. Both I and II are correct
4. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
respiratory tract

106. Mesorchium in frogs:

101. Which of the following statements accurately is a double fold of peritoneum that adheres
1.
describes the male reproductive system of a frog? testes to kidney.
The testes produce eggs and are attached to is a double fold of peritoneum that adheres
1. 2.
kidneys. ovaries to kidney.
The male frog has a pair of testes which are 3. is the outer cortical part of testes.
2. connected to the ventral side of the kidneys by a 4. is the outer cortical part of ovaries.
structure called mesorchium.
The testes produce spermatozoa, and the
3. reproductive process is facilitated by a pair of 107. In Obelia:
seminal vesicles. both polyp and medusa forms exist during its
a:
The vasa efferentia transport urine from the life cycle
4.
kidneys to the urinary bladder. metagenesis, a sort of alternation of generation,
b:
is seen
polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae
c:
102. Centromere is required for form the polyps sexually
1. transcription
2. crossing over 1. only a is correct 2. only a and b are correct
3. cytoplasmic cleavage
3. only c is correct 4. a, b and c are correct
4. movement of chromosomes towards poles

103. Which part of the alimentary canal in frog

receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic 108. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts:
juices from the pancreas through a common bile I: are also double membrane bound.
duct? also contain small, double-stranded circular
II:
1. Stomach 2. Duodenum DNA molecules and ribosomes.
3. Oesophagus 4. Pharynx
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
104. What type of circulatory system is present in
3. Both I and II are correct
animals where blood is circulated through arteries, 4. Both I and II are incorrect
veins, and capillaries?
109. Identify the group where all given animals are
1. Open type
2. Closed type warm blooded [homoiothermous]:
3. Incomplete type 1. Aptenodytes, Struthio, Pteropus, Macaca
4. Pseudocoelomic type 2. Neophron, Columba, Crocodilus, Testudo
3. Balaeonoptera, Equus, Psittacula, Salamandra
4. Corvus, Marcopus, Naja, Hyla

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110. Which of the following statements accurately 114. Given below are two statements: One is
highlights a significant difference between the labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
class Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes? as Reason (R).
Osteichthyes possess a swim bladder which With the help of several ommatidia,
aids in buoyancy, whereas Chondrichthyes lack a cockroach can perceive several
1. Assertion (A):
a swim bladder and must constantly swim to images of an object, i.e., mosaic
avoid sinking. vision
Chondrichthyes have an operculum covering Mosaic vision gives less sensitivity
Reason (R):
2. their gills, while Osteichthyes do not have any but more resolution
covering over their gill slits. In the light of the above statements, choose the
Both Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes have a most appropriate answer from the options given
3. skeleton made entirely of bone, making them below:
rigid and durable in aquatic environments. 1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Chondrichthyes exhibit external fertilization 2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4. whereas Osteichthyes typically display internal Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
fertilization mechanisms. 3.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A)
111. Epithelial tissues lining the inner surface of
the stomach are simple columnar epithelium with
microvilli. What is the primary function of these 115. Consider the given two statements:
microvilli?
All living organisms are made up of
1. They provide structural support Statement I: cells, and it is the basic structural
2. They facilitate secretion and functional unit of life.
3. They increase surface area for absorption Cells can only arise from pre-existing
4. They act as sensory receptors Statement II: cells through the process of binary
fission.

112. Consider the given two statements: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
The frog never drinks water but 2. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
Statement I:
absorb it through the skin. 3. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
In frog, the skin is always maintained 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement II:
in a moist condition.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 116. Identify the option where all the animals given
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct in Column I share the characters given in Column II:
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Column I Column II

113. In human beings, the membrane of the Pseudocoelom,

1. Ancylostoma, Taenia
erythrocyte has approximately: Bilateral symmetry
1. 52 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids. 2. Delphinus, Camelus Mammary glands, Hair
2. 40 per cent protein and 52 per cent lipids. Closed circulation,
3. Octopus, Dentalium
segmented body
3. 50 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.
4. Obelia, Hydra Metagenesis, Diploblastic
4. 60 per cent protein and 40 per cent lipids.

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117. Which phase of mitosis is essentially the 122. The four sketches (A, B, C, and D) given below,
reverse of prophase in terms of nuclear changes? represent four different types of animal tissues.
1. S-phase Which one of these is correctly identified in the
2. Anaphase options given, along with its correct location and
3. Telophase function?
4. Interphase

118. A sheath of dense irregular connective tissue

that groups muscle fibres into bundles or fascicles
is called as:
1. Epimysium 2. Perimysium
3. Endomysium 4. Aponeurosis

119. Identify the incorrect statement:

In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste Tissue Location Function
1.
material occurs through malpighian tubules. Attach skeletal
In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by 1. (C) Collagen fibres Cartilage
2. muscles to bones
comb plates. Smooth
3. In Fasciola, flame cells help in excretion 2. (D) Heart Heart contraction
muscle tissue
Earthworms are hermaphrodites and yet, cross- Columnar Secretion and
4. 3. (A) Nephron
fertilization takes place among them. epithelium absorption
Glandular
4. (B) Intestine Secretion
epithelium
120. At a place where a ‘diffusion boundary’ is
present in the human body, you are most likely to
find 123. The phylum with exclusively marine animals
1. Simple squamous epithelium is:
2. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
1. Porifera 2. Cnidaria
3. Columnar ciliated epithelium
4. Compound epithelium 3. Ctenophora 4. Platyhelminthes

121. How do frogs primarily excrete nitrogenous

waste? 124. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
As ammonia through the skin when submerged mitosis:
1. A single nucleus gives rise to two identical
in water. 1.
daughter nuclei.
2. As urea through the kidneys.
The daughter nuclei are genetically identical to
3. As uric acid via the cloaca. 2.
the parent nucleus.
4. As urea through the skin.
The centromeres divide at the onset of
3.
anaphase.
Homologous chromosomes synapse in
4.
prophase.

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125. The terms for ‘summer sleep’ and ‘winter 129. All the following events take place during the
sleep’ seen in frogs respectively are: telophase stage of mitosis except:
1. Aestivation and Hibernation Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
1.
2. Hibernation and Aestivation and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
3. Diapause and Cryptobiosis Nuclear envelope develops around the
4. Cryptobiosis and Diapause 2. chromosome clusters at each pole forming two
daughter nuclei.
3. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER re-form.
126. Smooth muscles are: 4. Microtubules get organised into spindle fibres.
1. involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
2. voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
3. involuntary, cylindrical, striated 130. Given below are two statements:
4. voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate Concentrically arranged cisternae of
Golgi complex are arranged near the
127. Which group of animals belongs to the same Statement I: nucleus with distinct convex cis or
phylum? maturing and concave trans or
1. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm forming face.
2. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta A number of proteins are modified in
3. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish the cisternae of Golgi complex
4. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito Statement II:
before they are released from cis
face.
128. Match the following cell structure with its
In the light of the above statements, choose the
characteristic feature: most appropriate answer from the options given
Column I Column II below:
Tight Cement neighboring cells 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
(a) (i)
junctions together to form a sheet 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
Transmit information 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
Adhering
(b) (ii) through chemicals to 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
junctions
another cell
Establish a barrier to prevent 131. The homologous chromosomes separate,
Gap junctions while sister chromatids remain associated at their
(c) (iii) leakage of fluid across
epithelial cells centromeres in:
Cytoplasmic channels to 1. Metaphase I of Meiosis I
Synaptic 2. Anaphase I of Meiosis I
(d) (iv) facilitate communication
junctions
between adjacent cells 3. Metaphase II of Meiosis II
4. Anaphase II of Meiosis II

Select the correct option from the following:

Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

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132. Which alphabet represents telocentric 135. Consider the given two statements:
chromosomes in the given figure? Statement Male frogs have testes that are found
I: adhered to the upper part of kidneys.
Statement Female frogs have ovaries that are
II: functionally connected to the kidneys.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
1. A
correct.
2. B
3. C
136. Animals can be categorised on the basis of
4. D
their symmetry. Which of the following statements
are correct?
I: Sponges are mostly asymmetrical.
133. Which of the following is not true for
Cyclostomata? Coelenterates, ctenophores and adult
II:
They have a cartilaginous cranium and vertebral echinoderms have radial symmetry.
1. Annelids and arthropods exhibit bilateral
column. III:
Their mouth is jawless, circular, and adapted for symmetry.
2.
sucking.
1. Only I and II
3. They possess paired fins for locomotion.
2. Only I and III
Fertilization is external, and they exhibit indirect 3. Only II and III
4.
development. 4. I, II and III

137. You do not expect to see in a plant cell:

134. Consider the given two statements: 1. A tonoplast
Prokaryotic cells have a simpler 2. An elaioplast
structure than eukaryotic cells but 3. 80 S ribosomes
Assertion (A):
can carry out essential life 4. A centrosome
processes.
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane- 138. Which event marks the beginning of anaphase
bound organelles, but they have I?
Reason (R):
ribosomes and a plasma membrane 1. Separation of sister chromatids.
for metabolic functions. 2. Splitting of centromeres.
3. Disintegration of the nuclear membrane.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 4. Separation of homologous chromosomes.
1.
explanation of (A).
139. What is the specific composition of bacterial
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. ribosomes?
correct explanation of (A).
1. A 60S large subunit and a 40S small subunit
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. A 50S large subunit and a 30S small subunit
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3. An 80S ribosome with equal subunits
4. A 70S ribosome with multiple subunits

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140. Consider the following statements regarding 144. Mitosis accomplishes:

the cell cycle: the segregation of duplicated chromosomes
I:
Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase into daughter nuclei (karyokinesis)
(i)
occurs continuously throughout the cell cycle. division of the cell into two daughter cells by the
II:
DNA synthesis occurs specifically during the separation of cytoplasm (cytokinesis)
(ii)
G2 phase of the cell cycle. 1. Only I is correct
The interphase occupies more than 95% of the 2. Only II is correct
(iii) duration of the cell cycle in a typical human 3. Both I and II are correct
cell. 4. Both I and II are incorrect
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (i) and (iii) 145. Amphibians are not characterised by the
2. Only (i) and (ii) presence of:
3. Only (ii) and (iii) 1. Dry skin, with placoid scales
4. Only (i) 2. Eyelids
3. A tympanum
141. The epithelium shown will be found in the 4. Three-chambered heart
lining of:
146. A contractile vacuole will especially be highly
useful for osmoregulation in:
1. a unicellular marine water organism.
2. a multicellular marine water organism.
3. a unicellular fresh water organism.
4. a multicellular large fresh water organism.
1. PCT 2. DCT
3. Trachea 4. Fallopian tube
147. Unlike roundworms, flatworms:
1. are triploblastic
142. What is the primary function of the vacuole in 2. exhibit bilateral symmetry
plant cells, and what is its structure? 3. do not have a coelom
It stores lipids and proteins, and is bound by a 4. reproduce only by sexual methods
1.
double membrane.
It stores nutrients for energy, and is surrounded
2.
by the nuclear envelope.
It stores water, sap, and waste products, and is
3. bound by a single membrane called the
tonoplast.
It regulates cellular respiration and is bound by
4.
the mitochondria.

143. Which stage of meiosis can last for months or

years in the oocytes of some vertebrates?
1. Leptotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis

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148. Match List-I with List-II: 151. What is ‘X’ in the given diagram?
List-I (Events) List-II(Prophase-I)
Chromosomes start
A. pairing together to form I. Pachytene
synaptonemal complex
Chromosomes visible
under light microscope
B. II. Zygotene
and compaction
continues
Four chromatids of
bivalent chromosomes
C. become distinct and III. Diplotene
recombinant nodules
appear
1. Collateral Gland 2. Phallic Gland
Dissolution of
D. IV. Leptotene 3. Mushroom Gland 4. Corpora Allata
synaptonemal complex
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
152. Metamerism, or segmentation, is a
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-III characteristic feature of which of the following
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III phyla?
1. Arthropoda and Mollusca
2. Echinodermata and Coelenterata
149. In animal cells, which of the following 3. Annelida and Arthropoda
emerge(s) from a centriole-like structure called the 4. Platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes
basal bodies?
(i) Cilium
(ii) Flagellum
1. Only (i)
2. Only (ii)
3. Both (i) and (ii)
4. Neither (i) nor (ii)

150. Organisms prefer sexual mode of

reproduction in adverse conditions because:
1. It leads to a rapid proliferation of numbers
It requires two individuals that can support the
2.
progeny
It is less energy consuming than the asexual
3.
mode of reproduction
It provides protection and increases variations
4.
that may help progeny to survive

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153. Identify the correct statement regarding the 157. Select the wrong statement:
given figure? 1. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in the
2.
motility of bacterial cells
3. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells
4. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism

158. Consider the given two statements:

The fore limbs in frogs end in five
digits and they are larger and
Statement I:
muscular than hind limbs that end in
four digits.
Feet in frogs have webbed digits that
Statement II:
‘A’ links a pair of sister chromatids together help in swimming.
I:
during cell division. 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
‘B’ is a disc-shaped protein structure associated 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
with duplicated chromatids in eukaryotic cells 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
II:
where the spindle fibers attach during cell 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
division to pull sister chromatids apart.
1. Only I 159. The description of Ctenophores given below
2. Only II has been divided into separately underlined parts A,
3. Both I and II B and C. Identify whether the parts are True [T] or
4. Neither I nor II False [F]:
Ctenophores commonly known as sea walnuts or
154. Chromatophores take part in? comb jellies [A] are exclusively marine, radially
1. Photosynthesis symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue
2. Growth level of organisation [B] and their body bears eight
3. Movement external rows of ciliated comb plates [C], which
4. Respiration help in locomotion
A B C
155. Aschelminthes are: 1. F F T
radially symmetrical, triploblastic and 2. F T T
1.
pseudocoelomate animals. 3. T T F
bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and 4. T T T
2.
acoelomate animals.
bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and
3.
pseudocoelomate animals. 160. Lysosomes are:
radially symmetrical, diploblastic and vesicular structures not bound by a membrane
4.
eucoelomate animals. I: and formed by the process of packaging in the
Golgi apparatus.
very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic
156. Onion root tip cells have 16 chromosomes. II:
enzymes optimally active at an alkaline pH.
What will be the number of chromosomes in this
cell at the end of S phase? 1. Only I is correct
1. 4 2. 8 2. Only II is correct
3. 16 4. 32 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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161. In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of 166. The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) divides the
a human cell, cell division properly lasts for: intracellular space into two distinct compartments.
1. only about 1 hour What are these compartments called?
2. approximately 90 minutes 1. Luminal and nuclear compartments
3. between 4 and 5 hours 2. Luminal and extra-luminal compartments
4. 95% time of the cell cycle
3. Cytoplasmic and nuclear compartments
162. Consider the given two statements:
4. Cytoplasmic and nucleoplasmic compartments
Frogs exhibit cutaneous respiration,
Statement I: allowing gas exchange through their
167. In the case of Poriferans, the spongocoel is
moist skin while underwater.
lined with flagellated cells called:
During aestivation and hibernation,
1. Oscula
Statement II: frogs primarily rely on pulmonary
2. Choanocytes
respiration for gas exchange.
3. Mesenchymal cells
4. Ostia
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 168. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is labeled A, B, C, and D and select the right option for
4. them:
incorrect

163. The key event taking place in anaphase-I of

meiosis is:
1. Separation of homologous chromosomes
2. Separation of non-homologous chromosomes
3. Separation of sister chromatids
4. Separation of non-sister chromatids
Part-A Part-B Part-C
Part-D
164. All the following are basic types of tissues in Collagen
1. Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast
human body except: fibres
1. Ectoderm 2. Connective Collagen
2. Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
3. Neural 4. Muscle fibres
Collagen
3. Mast cell Fibroblast Macrophage
fibres
165. Which alphabet represents carbohydrate in Collagen
4. Macrophage Fibroblast Mast cell
the given figure? fibres

169. A ‘sea-horse’ is a:
1. marine bony fish
2. fresh water bony fish
3. cartilaginous fish
4. cyclostome
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

170. If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C DNA 174. The structure shown in the given diagram is
content in G1 phase, what would be the characteristically seen in the Phylum:
corresponding values at the end of the S phase?
1. 2N, 2C
2. 4N, 2C
3. 2N, 4C
4. 4N, 4C

171. A cell decides not to divide and enters the

Quiescent Stage (G0) exiting the cell cycle from:
1. G1 phase
2. S phase
3. G2 phase
4. M phase
1. Porifera
172. Consider the given two statements: 2. Ctenophora
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are 3. Cnidaria
not regarded as part of the 4. Molluska
Assertion (A):
endomembrane system in a
eukaryotic cell. 175. Consider the given two statements:
Mitochondria and chloroplasts are The nucleolus within the nucleus is
Statement
Reason (R): double membrane bound primarily involved in the synthesis of
I:
organelles. rRNA and assembly of ribosomes.
Ribosomes are membrane-bound
Statement
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly organelles that are only found within
1. II:
explains (A) the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. 2. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
correctly explain (A)
3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True
176. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
173. Consider the given two statements:
(a) S phase i. Proteins are synthesized
Meiosis is the mechanism by which
conservation of specific chromosome (b) G2 phase ii. Inactive phase
Statement
number of each species is achieved Quiescent Interval between mitosis and
I: (c) iii.
across generations in sexually stage initiation of DNA replication
reproducing organisms. (d) G1 phase iv. DNA replication
Statement Meiosis results in reduction of
II: chromosome number by half. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct;
1. Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
Statement II does not explain Statement I.
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; 1. iv i ii iii
2. 2. ii iv iii i
Statement II explains Statement I.
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 3. iii ii i iv
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 4. iv ii iii i

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 Custom Practice Test - 04-Jul Contact Number: 8527521718

177. What is the primary structural precursor to the

new cell wall formed during plant cytokinesis? Fill OMR Sheet*
1. Cell plate
2. Middle lamella *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
3. Spindle fibres where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there
4. Metaphase plate

178. Regarding mammals:

The most unique characteristic is the presence
I:
of mammary glands.
II: Skin is unique in possessing hair. CLICK HERE to get
III: Heart is unique in being four-chambered.
IV: Viviparity is a unique feature.
FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY NEETprep
1. Only I and II are correct course
2. Only III and IV are correct
3. Only I and III are correct
4. Only II and IV are correct

179. Match List-I with List-II:

List-II
List-I Stage of
Event Prophase-I
(Meiosis - I)
A. Chiasmata I. Pachytene
B. Crossing over II. Diakinesis
Synaptonemal complex
C. III. Diplotene
formation
Terminalisation of
D. IV. Zygotene
chiasmata
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II 2. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV 4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I

180. Which of the following statements is true

about cyclostomes?
1. They possess a jaw and paired fins.
2. They are endoparasites on fishes.
They have a cartilaginous skeleton and are
3.
devoid of jaws and paired fins.
Cyclostomes are exclusively found in marine
4.
environments.

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