SECTION A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND GRAMMAR

1. Choose the correct sentence:

(a) Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
(b) Let the tea being grown in Darjeeling.
(c) Teo is grown in Darjeeling.
(d) Tea grows in Darjeeling.

2. In the sentence given below, four words are underlined. Choose the word that is
incorrect in the context.
"We will work together, closer than ever before on advancing shared values and
promoting a secure, prosperous Indo-Pacific."
(a) Together
(b) Advancing
(c) Promoting or prosperous
(d) All are correct

3. In the sentence given below, four words are underlined. Choose the word that is
incorrect in the context.
"In a politically charged country, we have chosen to prove that we've been
responsible, like pictures of the indelible ink-marked pointing finger on voting day."
(a) Charged
(b) Prove
(c) Pictures
(d) Pointing

4. In the sentence given below, four words are underlined. Choose the word that is
incorrect in the context.
"Dr. Yadav conforms an increase in the number of sleep disruption or deprivation
cases, which could also be attributed to factors such as anxiety."
(a) Conforms
(b) Disruption
(c) Deprivation
(d) Factors

5. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

DEMEAN
(a) Debase
(b) Belittle
(c) Admire
(d) Ignore
6. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:
SAGACIOUS
(a) Ingenious
(b) Astute
(c) Prudent
(d) Ignorant

Direction (7–11): In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the
blanks with the most appropriate option from the given alternatives.

The State of the World’s Birds, an annual review of environmental resources, has
revealed that 48% of the extant bird species are (7) ________. As in most instances of
ecological degradation, humanity’s expanding carbon (8) ________ on the natural
world and climate change are the principal causes. The study, led by Manchester
Metropolitan University, found that (9) ________ and loss of natural habitat are the
key threats to avian biodiversity. The importance of birds is (10) ________. Birds are
highly visible and sensitive indicators of ecologies. They function as pollinators, seed-
dispersers, ecosystem engineers, scavengers and help in pest control too. When bird
populations decline, they adversely affect each segment of the ecology that benefits
from their activities. For example, when some species of vultures were nearly driven
to extinction in India, the population of feral dogs increased, sparking concerns about
a rise in rabies. The (11) ________ loss of birds thereby signifies a deeper threat to
fellow species, including human beings.

7. Which of the following options will come in blank (A)?

(a) Falling under
(b) Getting under
(c) Undergoing
(d) Underlying

8. Which of the following options will come in blank (B)?

(a) Foot fault
(b) Foot slog
(c) Foot pace
(d) Footprint

9. Which of the following options will come in blank (C)?

(a) Cannibalize
(b) Overutilization
(c) Overexploitation
(d) Triumph
 10. Which of the following options will come in blank (D)?
(a) Unappreciated
(b) Acknowledged
(c) Overlooked
(d) Misunderstood

11. Which of the following options will come in blank (E)?

(a) Impending
(b) Imminent
(c) Distant
(d) Forgotten

SECTION C: VOCABULARY – ANTONYMS

12. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

FLUSTER
(a) Soothe
(b) Confound
(c) Commend
(d) —

13. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

IMPEDE
(a) Expedite
(b) Thwart
(c) Retard
(d) Hamper

14. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

REPUGNANT
(a) Odious
(b) Pleasant
(c) Austere
(d) Sombre

15. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word:

SUSPICIOUS
(a) Likely
(b) Dusky
(c) Shady
(d) Fishy
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions:

Pollution is one of the most pressing issues facing modern society. Due to industrialization,
population growth, and lack of proper regulation, pollution has been on the rise globally. Air
pollution results from the burning of fossil fuels, vehicular emissions, and industrial
discharges. It leads to respiratory diseases and contributes to climate change. Water
pollution, on the other hand, is caused by the release of untreated sewage and industrial
waste into water bodies. This not only endangers aquatic life but also contaminates drinking
water sources. An alarming side-effect of water pollution is the occurrence of algal blooms,
which are a result of the use of inorganic fertilizers in agriculture. These blooms consume
oxygen in the water, leading to the death of fish and other organisms. Effective waste
management, use of clean energy sources, and stringent environmental laws are essential to
combat pollution and ensure a sustainable future.

16. The primary cause of air pollution is:

(a) Forest fire
(b) Industrialization
(c) Burning of fossil fuels
(d) Use of air conditioners

17. The source of water pollution is:

(a) Fossil fuel
(b) Forest
(c) Land
(d) Sewage

18. The rise of algal bloom is due to:

(a) Organic pesticides
(b) Inorganic fertilizers
(c) Chlorinated hydrocarbons
(d) All the above

19. According to the passage, what harms our rivers?

(a) Dumping of e-waste
(b) Urbanization
(c) Sewage and industrial waste
(d) Groundwater exploitation
 20. Which of the following is a direct consequence of industrial activity mentioned in the
passage?
(a) Climate change
(b) Monsoon delay
(c) Algal bloom
(d) Water pollution

SECTION E: GENERAL AWARENESS

21. Eritrea, which became the 182nd member of the UN in 1993, is in the continent of:
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) Europe
(d) Australia

22. Grand Central Terminal, Park Avenue, New York is the world's:
(a) Largest railway station
(b) Highest railway station
(c) Longest railway station
(d) None of the above

23. Hitler party which came into power in 1933 is known as:
(a) Labour Party
(b) Nazi Party
(c) Ku-Klux-Klan
(d) Democratic Party

24. The ozone layer restricts:

(a) Visible light
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) X-rays and gamma rays
(d) Ultraviolet radiation

25. FFC stands for:

(a) Foreign Finance Corporation
(b) Film Finance Corporation
(c) Federation of Football Council
(d) None of the above
26. Fastest shorthand writer was:
(a) Dr. G. D. Bist
(b) J.R.D. Tata
(c) J.M. Tagore
(d) Khudada Khan

27. Epsom (England) is the place associated with:

(a) Horse racing
(b) Polo
(c) Shooting
(d) Snooker

28. First human heart transplant operation was conducted by Dr. Christiaan Barnard on:
(a) 3rd December 1967
(b) 3rd December 1968
(c) 3rd November 1967
(d) 3rd November 1968

29. Gulf cooperation council was originally formed by:

(a) Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE
(b) UAE, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and Iraq
(c) Iraq, Bahrain, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and UAE
(d) None of the above

30. First Afghan War took place in:

(a) 1839
(b) 1843
(c) 1833
(d) 1848

31. Headquarter of which of the following organizations is in Rome?

(a) FAO
(b) UNESCO
(c) ILO
(d) WHO
32. Galileo was an astronomer who:
(a) Developed the telescope
(b) Discovered four satellites of Jupiter
(c) Discovered that the movement of pendulum produces a regular time
measurement
(d) All of the above

33. Habeas Corpus Act 1679:

(a) States that no one was to be imprisoned without a writ or warrant stating the
charge against him
(b) Provided facilities to a prisoner to obtain either speedy trial or release in bail
(c) Safeguarded the personal liberties of the people against arbitrary imprisonment
by the king's orders
(d) All of the above

34. Each year World Red Cross and Red Crescent Day is celebrated on:
(a) May 8
(b) May 18
(c) June 8
(d) June 18

35. The first Governor General of Pakistan is:

(a) Mohammed Ali Jinnah
(b) Liaquat Ali Khan
(c) Khwaja Nazimuddin
(d) None of the above

36. The first China War was fought between:

(a) China and Britain
(b) China and France
(c) China and Egypt
(d) China and Greek

37. National sport of Bhutan is:

(a) Football
(b) Archery
(c) Table Tennis
(d) Cricket

38. Which is the capital of Norway?

(a) Stockholm
(b) Oslo
(c) Helsinki
(d) Copenhagen
39. National emblem of which country features a dragon?
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Japan
(d) Mongolia

40. In which state is the Maithon Dam located?

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Odisha
(c) West Bengal
(d) Chhattisgarh

41. Which player is associated with Lawn Tennis?

(a) Somdev Devvarman
(b) Sushil Kumar
(c) Leander Paes
(d) Pankaj Advani
SECTION E: GENERAL AWARENESS

42. The headquarters of the United Nations is situated in:

(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) The Hague
(d) Paris

43. The Indian National Congress had passed the 'Quit India Resolution' on:
(a) August 8, 1942
(b) August 15, 1947
(c) January 26, 1950
(d) October 2, 1939

44. 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India is taken
from:
(a) Rigveda
(b) Satpath Brahmana
(c) Mundak Upanishad
(d) Ramayana

45. The first Indian satellite Aryabhata was launched in:

(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1977
(d) 1980

46. Dr. C.V. Raman received the Nobel Prize in Physics in the year:
(a) 1929
(b) 1930
(c) 1931
(d) 1932

47. The main source of revenue for a State Government in India is:
(a) Sales tax
(b) Excise duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Property tax

48. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right in the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right against Exploitation
 49. The longest river in the world is:
(a) Nile
(b) Amazon
(c) Yangtze
(d) Mississippi

50. How many permanent members are there in the UN Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Ten

SECTION F: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE & LOGICAL REASONING

51. The LCM of two numbers is 375 and their HCF is 10. If one of the numbers is 150, find
the other.
(a) 25
(b) 250
(c) 125
(d) 300

52. A sum of ₹800 amounts to ₹920 in 4 years. The rate of simple interest per annum is:
(a) 2.5%
(b) 3.5%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 5%

53. What time will it take for an amount to double at 4.5% per annum simple interest?
(a) 35 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 45 years
(d) 50 years

54. A train travels 280 km by air, 480 km by road and 240 km by train. If the entire
journey takes 9 hours and the speed of the air travel is 280 km/h, what is the average
speed?
(a) 30 km/h
(b) 16 km/h
(c) 20 km/h
(d) None of these
55. What will come next in the series: 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, ?
(a) 27
(b) 29
(c) 30
(d) 31

56. What will come next in the series: 10, 20, 32, 46, 62, ?
(a) 78
(b) 80
(c) 82
(d) 84

57. In a class of 25 boys and 10 girls, if three students are selected at random, what is
the probability that 2 boys are selected?
(a) 1/40
(b) 21/46
(c) 7/41
(d) ½

58. Two friends Harish and Kalyan appeared for an exam. Let A be the event that Harish
is selected and B be the event that Kalyan is selected. The probability of A is 2/3 and
of B is 3/7. Find the probability that both are selected.
(a) 35/36
(b) 5/35
(c) 5/12
(d) 6/35

59. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of
getting a queen or a club card?
(a) 17/52
(b) 15/52
(c) 4/13
(d) 3/13

60. 16 persons shake hands with one another in a party. How many handshakes took
place?
(a) 124
(b) 120
(c) 165
(d) 150
61. Srinaya forgot the last digit of an 11-digit landline number. If she randomly dials the
final 2 digits after correctly dialling the first nine, what is the chance of dialling the
correct number?
(a) 1/10
(b) 1/100
(c) 1/1000
(d) 1/11

62. If in a certain code, CORDIAL is written as SPDCMBJ, how is SOMEDAY written in that
code?
(a) TPNDCBZ
(b) TPNDBZC
(c) TPNECZB
(d) TPNECZC

63. What comes next in the sequence: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25,?

(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 36
(d) 40

64. In a row of boys, A is 10th from the left and B is 9th from the right. If there are 15
boys in the row, what is the position of A from the right?
(a) 6th
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 8th

65. If 'green' is called 'blue', 'blue' is called 'white', 'white' is called 'yellow', 'yellow' is
called 'red', and 'red' is called 'black', then what is the colour of milk?
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Red

66. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How
is the man related to the woman?
(a) Uncle
(b) Father
(c) Cousin
(d) Brother
67. How many 4-letter words with or without meaning can be formed out of the letters
of the word 'LOGIC'?
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 60
(d) 20

68. How many diagonals can be drawn in a pentagon?

(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 3

69. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'RUMOUR' be arranged?
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 360
(d) 720

70. The population of a town increase by 10% annually. If its present population is
100,000, what will be the population after 2 years?
(a) 110,000
(b) 121,000
(c) 120,000
(d) 121,500

71. Find the average of first five multiples of 3.

(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 12

72. A shopkeeper sells an article for ₹120 and gains 20%. Find the cost price of the
article.
(a) ₹100
(b) ₹90
(c) ₹110
(d) ₹95
73. The average of five numbers is 27. If one number is excluded, the average becomes
25. What is the excluded number?
(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 37
(d) 35

74. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on ₹1,200 for
2 years at 10% per annum is:
(a) ₹24
(b) ₹12
(c) ₹6
(d) ₹18

75. A man rows downstream 32 km and upstream 24 km, taking 4 hours each time. The
speed of the current is:
(a) 2 km/h
(b) 1 km/h
(c) 3 km/h
(d) 4 km/h

76. In the given question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements followed by two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
Statements: CON # LBEY
Conclusions: I. N ≥ L II. A @ N
(a) Only conclusion I follows.
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

77. In the given question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements followed by two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
Statements: P # 0 * J % O
Conclusions: I. P % J II. O # P
(a) Only conclusion I follows.
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
 78. Which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question? What is
the maximum marks in the examination?
Statement I: The average marks of three students are 643. The first student got 56%,
and the second student got 63%.
Statement II: The third student got 32%, which is 171 marks less than the second
student. The second scored 144 more than the first.
(a) Only Statement I is sufficient.
(b) Only Statement II is sufficient.
(c) Both Statements I and II together are sufficient.
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient.

79. Which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question? What is
the present age of D?
Statement I: The present age ratio of M to D is 5:13. M is 9 years younger than P.
Statement II: P's age after 9 years will be 33 years. The difference between D's and
M's age equals the present age of P.
(a) Only Statement I is sufficient.
(b) Only Statement II is sufficient.
(c) Both Statements I and II together are sufficient.
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient.

80. In an examination for a bank, the number of passed candidates was five times the
number of failed candidates. If there had been 40 fewer candidates who appeared
and 20 more candidates had failed, then the ratio of passed to failed candidates
becomes 3:1. What was the initial number of failed candidates?
(a) 70
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 300

SECTION G: ESSAY WRITING

81. Write an Essay on any ONE of the following topics (10 Marks):

• Importance of Education in a Democratic Society

• Environmental Law and Sustainability

• Right to Privacy

• Child Labour and Human Rights

• Impact of Social Media on Society