AUTONOMOUS DECENTRALIZED MUNICIPAL GOVERNMENT OF THE CANTON OF LA LIBERTAD

BANK OF QUESTIONS SYSTEMS PROGRAMMER

1. A file or set of files that contain multiple pieces of information that, in some way,
the relationship is:
a) A Database Management System (DBMS)
b) A software application for database management
c) A database

2. The computer tool that allows creating, manipulating, managing, and deleting data and the
the structures of a database are:
a hierarchical database
b) A Database Management System (DBMS)
c) A relational database

3. In a public library database ...

"Books", "Members" and "Loans" would be entities of the database.
b) 'Partners' would be the relationship between 'Books' and 'Literary Genres'
"Books" and "Members" would be entities, and "Loans" the relationship.
d) Options a and c are true.

4. Microsoft Access, Apache OpenOffice Base, and LibreOffice Base are examples of:
a) Databases
b) Computer applications for Databases
c) Database Management Systems (DBMS)

5. The databases that we create and manage through applications like Microsoft Access,
Apache OpenOffice Base and LibreOffice Base are of type:
relational
hierarchical
c) transactional

6. From the following acronyms, indicate which one is a Database Management System (DBMS)
a) EXCEL
b) MySQL
c) BASE

7. The phases of designing a relational database are:

a) the conceptual design and the physical design
b) the conceptual design, the logical design and the physical design
c) conceptual design, analog design, and physical design
d) digital design, logical design, and global design

In a relational database ...

a) the records are the rows of the tables
b) the records are the columns of the tables
c) the fields are the rows of the tables
d) the tuples are the columns of the tables

9. A query in a database is ...

a) a way to select information from one or more tables, displayed as another table
b) an introduction screen, consultation, or modification of data in one or several tables
c) a presentation of the data in print view

10. A form in a database is ...

a) a way to select information from one or more tables, displayed as another table
b) an introduction screen, data query or modification in one or more tables
c) a presentation of the data in print view

11. A report in a database is ...

a) a way to select information from one or more tables, displayed as another table
b) an introduction screen, query or modification of data in one or more tables
c) a presentation of the data in print view

12. In the context of a database application, the key icon means:

a) Login or password required
b) Field or record blocked
c) Primary key

13. From the following fields of a database table, indicate which could be a key (or
primary (or main) key:
Full name of a user
b) Profession
c) ID card

14. In a relational database, to establish a relationship between two tables, they ...
They must have the same number of fields
b) They must have the same number of records
They must have a common field between both.
d) Options a and c are correct.
15. What type of relationship is there between these two tables in the database of a library?
Literary Language Work ID Title of the Work Author
Verse 1007 Crime and Punishment Fyodor Dostoevsky
Prose 1008 Twenty Love Poems and a Desperate Song Pablo Neruda
1009 Gypsy Ballad Federico García Lorca
1010 One Hundred Years of Solitude Gabriel García Márquez
1011 The Lord of the Rings J.R.R. Tolkien

one to many
many to many
One by one

16. What type of relationship is there between these two tables in the database of a video rental store?

ID number Member Movie_Id Title

0912552946 Juan Ramírez 0127 Titanic
0568195458 Andrés Zapata 0128 The Silence of the Lambs
2496582619 Christopher Rivera 0129 Forest Gump
0945185206 Christian Fernández 0130 Untouchables
0985151676 Maria Heras 0131 Four Weddings and a Funeral
0901229815 Andrea López 0132 Life is beautiful

one to many
many to many
One by one

17. In the previous example of the students table, the Tutoría field is used for the tutor to store
a lot of information from the various meetings you have with the student, with the parents, throughout
of the course. To do this, when defining the field Tutoring, it will be a field of type:
a) Text
b) Date/Time
c) Memo
d) Number

18. The fastest and simplest way to work with database applications is:
a) Using a tabulator
b) Through the windows
c) Using an assistant

19. In an employee table, we want to store the smoking status. The smoker field
it will be of type:
a) Text
Yes/No
c) Numeric
d) Memo
20. Which of the following is NOT a software development methodology?:
a) JAVA
b) XP
c) SRUM
d) MSF

21. In the most common database applications, data is printed using:

a) The consultations mainly
b) In the tables mainly
c) The reports mainly
d) The forms mainly

22. What is the output of the following algorithm:

Process
i<-3;
j<-4;
if(i=3 and j=4)
Condition 1 is met.
Who
Condition 1 is not met.
FinSi
if(i=3 or j=4)
The condition 2 is met.
Who
The condition 2 is not met
FinSi
FinProcess

a) Condition 1 is not met, Condition 2 is met

b) Condition 1 is met, Condition 2 is not met
c) Condition 1 is not met, Condition 2 is not met
Condition 1 is met, Condition 2 is met

23. How many phases does the RUP methodology have?

4
b) 5
c) 3
d) 6

24. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the RUP methodology?

a) Construction
b) Preparation
c) Initiation
d) Exponentiation

25. The RUP Methodology is more adaptable to projects of:

Medium Term
b) Short Term
Long Term
d) It has no defined deadlines

26. What does the acronym RUP stand for?

a) Relational Unified Programs
b) Rational Underline Process
c) Relational Unified Programs
d) Rational Unified Process

27. Indicate the correct statement about the Common Language Runtime (CLR) of the Framework
.NET:
a) There is a single Common Language Runtime (CLR) or one Common Language Runtime (CLR) for each
high-level language supported by the .NET platform?
b) There is a Common Language Runtime (CLR) for each high-level language supported by the
.NET platform
There is a single Common Language Runtime (CLR) for all the languages supported by the
.NET platform
There is a Common Language Runtime (CLR) for each of the high-level languages.
developed by Microsoft for the platform

28. What is a database?

a) A database is a set of information that is related to each other.
b) The set of values that an attribute can take
One or more that serve to distinguish each entity in the relationship
29. What is a relationship?
They are links between tables
b) Specify if it is necessary for a value to exist in a field
c) Dispersion of two elements

30. What is the first phase of the XP Methodology?

a) Planning
b) Tests
c) Design
d) Development

31. What is the meaning of the initials XP?

a) Extreme Programming
b) Extreme Process
c) Windows Operating System
d) Extreme Python

32. How many phases does the XP Methodology have?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6

33. Who was the creator of the XP Methodology?

a) Kent Beck
b) Ivar Jacobson
c) James Rumbaugh
d) Grady Booch

34. It is recommended to use the XP Methodology in projects of:

Medium Term
b) Long Term
c) Short Term

35. What is the nationality of the inventors of the SCRUM methodology?

Americans
b) Australians
Germans
d) Japanese

36. From which sport was the term SCRUM coined?

a) Basketball
b) Football
c) Rugby
d) Tennis

37. Which of the following is NOT a role within the SCRUM Methodology?
a) Team
b) Product Owner
c) ScrumController
d) ScrumMaster

38. Is SCRUM an agile methodology for software development?

a) No
b) It depends on the size of the project

c) It depends on the duration of the project

Yes

39. Which of the following documents is NOT a SCRUM artifact?

a) Burndown Chart
b) Scrum Cost
c) Sprint Backlog
d) Product Backlog
40. Which of the following is NOT a Software Development Methodology?
a) Unified Modeling Language (UML)
b) Crystal Clear
c) Agile Unified Process (AUP)
d) Feature Driven Development (FDD)

41. The following definition corresponds to: 'It is a standardized set of concepts, practices and
criteria to focus on a particular type of problem that serves as a reference, to
confronting and solving new problems of a similar nature
a) Agile Methodology
b) Blocks
c) RUP
d) Framework

42. How many phases does the MSF Methodology have?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 5

43. The initials MSF stand for:

a) Microsoft Solutions Framework
b) Microsoft System Framework
c) Microsoft Solutions Files
d) Mackintosh Solutions Framework

44. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of MSF?

a) The prices for licenses, training, and support are cheap
It has ease of support and maintenance
It is adaptable and can be used for projects of any magnitude.
d) Create a risk analysis discipline that aids and evolves with the project

45. Which of the following is NOT a role in the MSF Methodology?

Product Manager
b) DBA
c) Program Manager
Implementation Administrator

46. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the MSF Methodology?

a) Planning
b) Simulation
c) Vision
d) Development

47. The MSF Methodology is the combination of the following two types of models:
a) Recursive and UML
b) Spiral and Recursive
c) Cascade and Recursive
d) Waterfall and Spiral

48. The attribute that allows knowing the type of a variable, constant, or field of the database:
%TYPE
%ROWTYPE
c) &
%COLUMN

49. A trigger is a PL/SQL block associated with a table that executes as a consequence of a
a certain SQL instruction. Which of the listed instructions does not correspond for use
the Trigger.
a) INSERT
b) UPDATE
c) DELETE
d) DROP

A database is divided into logical storage units called:

a) ControlFiles
b) Tablespaces
c) Segments
d) Extensions

51. The code contained in a trigger, called the body of the trigger, is made up of
blocks
a) Function
b) Cursor
c) PL/SQL
d) Procedure

52. Which of the following is not true about the PL/SQL language?
a) Supports embedded SQL statements.
b) It has all the characteristics of a modern structured programming language.
c) It is not a block-structured language.
d) Applications developed using PL/SQL are not portable.

53. Which of the following is not true about the PL/SQL language?
a) The general syntax of PL/SQL is based on that of the ADA and Pascal programming languages.

In addition to Oracle, PL/SQL is available in the TimesTen in-memory database and IBM DB2.
c) PL / SQL is closely integrated with SQL.
d) Does not offer error checking.

54. Which of the following is not true about the declaration section of a PL/SQL block?
a) This section starts with the keyword DECLARE.
b) It is a mandatory section.
c) define all the variables, cursors, subprograms, and other elements that will be used in the program.

55. Which of the following is not true about the execution section of a PL/SQL block?
a) It must have more than one line of executable code.
b) It can have only a NULL command to indicate that nothing should be executed.
c) Statements must always end with a semicolon.
d) The section may contain SQL commands, control logic commands, assignment commands, as well
like other commands.

56. Which of the following is not true about the exception handling section of a block
PL/SQL?
a) This section begins with the keyword EXCEPTION.
b) It is a mandatory section.
c) It contains exceptions that handle errors in the program.

57. Which of the following is not a PL/SQL unit?

table
b) Type
c) Trigger
d) Package

58. Which of the following statements is true about data types and subtypes?
characters in PL/SQL?
a) LONG is a variable-length character string with a maximum size of 32,760 bytes.
b) ROWID is a physical column identifier, the address of a column in a regular table.
c) CHAR is a variable-length character string with a maximum size of 32,767 bytes.
d) NCHAR is a variable-length national character string with a maximum size of 32,767.
bytes.

59. Which of the following is not true about large object data types and in PL/SQL?
a) BFILE is used to store large binary objects in operating system files outside the database.
of data.
b) BLOB is used to store character data in the database.
CLOB is used to store large blocks of character data in the database.
d) NCLOB is used to store large blocks of NCHAR data in the database.

60. What value will be assigned to the variable declared as follows? contador binary_integer;
a) 0
b) 1
c) NULL
d) Integerf

What will happen when the code is executed?

DECLARE
-- Global variables
num number := 95;
BEGIN
dbms_output.put_line('num: ' || num1);
DECLARE
-- Local variables
num number := 195;
BEGIN
dbms_output.put_line('num: ' || num1);
END;
END;
a) It will not run, it has a syntax error
It will be printed
num: 95
num: 195
c) It will be printed
num: 95
num: 95
It will be printed
num: 195
num: 195

62. Which of the following is not true about PL/SQL constants and literals?
a) A constant holds a value that, once declared, does not change in the program.
b) The CONSTANT declaration cannot impose the NOT NULL constraint.
c) A constant is declared using the keyword CONSTANT.
d) A CONSTANT declaration requires an initial value.

63. To obtain the server output result and display it on the screen, you must write:
a) Establish the server output in
b) Establish the server output in
c) Set dbmsoutput to
d) Set the dbms output to

64. Which of the following is not true about PL/SQL decision-making structures?
a) The IF instruction associates a condition with a sequence of instructions enclosed by the words
key THEN and END IF.
b) The IF instruction also adds the ELSE keyword followed by an alternative sequence of
instruction.
c) The IF-THEN-ELSIF instruction allows you to choose between several alternatives.

d) PL / SQL does not have a CASE statement

65. How are all records selected from the table?

a) Select * insert table_name;
b) Select * as table_name;
c) Select * where table_name;
d) Select * from table_name;

66. How to add records to a table?

INSERT INTO table_name VALUES ('ALEX', 33, 'M');
INSERT into table_name VALUES ('ALEX', 33, 'M');
INSERT into table_name VALUES ('ALEX', 33, 'M');
INSERT into table_name VALUES (ALEX, 33, M);

67. If when creating a table we want a column not to accept nulls, we use the constraint:
Default
Default Not Null
Not Null
Values Not Null

68. A file or set of files that contain multiple pieces of information that, in some way,
What is the relationship?

a) A Database Management System (DBMS)

b) A software application for database management
c) A database
d) A relational system

69. What does this order by nombre_campo statement do?

a) Arrange from uppercase to lowercase
b) Default sort by arrival to the table
c) Sort by default in ascending order
d) Sort by default in descending order

70. Write an SQL query to find the largest element in a column?

a) Select max(field_name) from table_name.
b) Select max(field_name) from table_name.
c) Select min(field_name) from table_name.
d) Select prom(field_name) from table_name

71. What is the default port for MySQL and APACHE in the XAMPP connection?
a) MySQL :3347 APACHE: 7000
3310
3306
d) MySQL :3350 APACHE: 5000

72. What clause do we use to rename a column in the result of a query?

as
b) AS
c) Rename
Rename

73. What clause is used to apply filters in queries, that is, to select some rows from the table?
that meet a certain condition?
a) WHERE
b) MAX
c) SELECT
d) FROM

74. If when creating a table we want a column to not accept nulls, we use the constraint:
a) Default
b) Default Not Null
c) Not Null
d) Values Not Null

75. It is about providing a solution to the ABC company where there have been continuous issues.
frauds in the collection process. Several cases have been detected in which customers
they affirm that despite having honored their payments and even keeping the receipt
they receive calls from the ABC company requesting payment. When checking the database,
Indeed, the clients appear as delinquent, but the proof in each case is also
legitimate. What would you suggest as the best solution both preventively and detectively for
avoid these frauds?
a) Implement a firewall, DMZ, IDS, and IPS to prevent hacker attacks.
b) Determine an alert for the modification of the collections database and implement logs
audit
c) Implement an Information Security Management System.

76. What is the main role of the Implementation Administrator?

a) Manage the installation of the solution
b) Develop the conceptual design of the solution
c) Manage the solution tests
d) Implement the schedules of the solution

77. Which of the following is NOT a deliverable in the Vision Phase of the MSF Methodology?
a) Project Structure Document
b) Vision and Scope Document
c) Risk Assessment Document
d) Detailed Project Schedule

78. How many risks should we consider in the Vision Phase of the MSF methodology?
a) Everyone

b) The easiest to solve

Minimum 10
d) The most relevant

79. To solve the problems that arise when a risk materializes, we have the:
a) Contingency Plan
b) Development Plan
c) Schedule Analysis
d) Implementation Plan

80. If the project has 3 risks with probabilities of occurrence of: 0.5, 0.3, and 0.8 and the
impactos de cada riesgo en el proyecto sobre un máximo de 10 puntos son 6, 4 y 9
respectively, what would be the risk rating of the project out of a total of 30 points?
10.4
b) 9.4
c) 11.4
12.4

81. Which of the following is NOT a key task in the Planning Phase of the MSF Methodology?
a) Create the functional specification
b) Create the test and development environments
c) Create or define the business goals
d) Create the schedules

82. The major milestone of the Planning Phase of the MSF Methodology is:

a) Approve the contingency plans

b) Approve the vision and scope document
c) Approve the project plan

83. The main objective of the Development Phase in the MSF Methodology is:
a) It is the phase in which we build the proposed solution
b) It is the phase where we make contingency plans.
c) It is the phase where we define the scope of the project

84. One of the following is NOT a key task of the Development Phase in the MSF Methodology:
a) Start the development cycle
b) Create a functional prototype of the application

c) Develop the components of the solution

d) Create the testing and development environments

85. Which of the following is not a deliverable in the Development Phase of the MSF Methodology?
a) Source code and executables
b) Installation and configuration scripts for implementation
c) Revised program plan
d) Completed functional specifications
86. What is the name of the MSF phase where the project begins and whose final objective is to create a
shared vision among all the participants of the project?
a) Planning
b) Development
c) Implementation
Vision

87. Who are the stakeholders of the project?

a) The stakeholders in the project
b) Those who pay for the project

c) Those who do not interact at all with the project

d) Those who control the project's timelines

88. Which of the following is NOT a principle of the MSF Methodology?

a) Promote open communications
b) Learning only from negative experiences
c) Strengthen the team members
d) Invest in quality

89. Which of the following is a model used within the MSF Methodology?
a) Static Model
b) Dynamic Model
c) Class Model
d) Model of Work Teams

90. When a phase needs to be fully completed before moving on to the next, we are
talking about a development type:
a) Multifunctional
b) Recursive
c) Spiral
waterfall
91. The following definition corresponds to a type of development: 'It does not define clear stages within the '
development of the project, however it is open to changes by the client at any time
a) Multifunctional
b) Recursive
c) Spiral
Waterfall

If risk A has a greater impact than risk B:

Risk A has a lower priority of occurring
Both risks have the same priority
Risk B has a lower priority of occurring.

93. What is the name of the MSF phase where the project is tested in simulated environments, which must
to be the most similar to real environments, and any errors are corrected if present
application?
a) Planning
b) Stabilization
c) Development
Vision

94. Which of the following is NOT a type of test conducted in the Stabilization Phase of the
MSF methodology?
a) Homologation Test
b) Database Test
c) Security Test
d) Integration Test

95. Which of the following is a deliverable of the Stabilization Phase in the MSF Methodology?
a) Detailed Schedule
b) Contingency Plan
c) Functional Specifications
d) Source Code and Executables

96. A stress test of the system is for:

a) Check if the programmers are overloaded with work
b) Verify if users are in a position to use the system
c) Verify the system's behavior under extreme usage situations
d) Verify if the project costs are skyrocketing

A usability test is for:

a) Measure how many users use the software
b) Measure how many developers use the software
c) Measure the ease with which users use the software

98. The release of a software is:

a) The purchase of finished software
b) The release of finished software
c) The testing process of a completed software

99. What is the name of the phase where all the tasks that the team executes are considered, to
put into production the developed technological solution and the components that make it up?
a) Vision
b) Implementation
c) Planning
d) Stabilization

100. Which of the following is a deliverable of the Implementation Phase of the Methodology?
MSF?
Training Plan
Sampling Plan
Project Plan
Test Plan

101. What role is of greater importance in the final phase of the MSF Methodology?

Product Manager
Implementation Administrator
Tester
Project Manager

102. If software is put into production without proper testing, what problem can it cause:
Suspension of operations
Loss of information
Unnecessary costs
Integration, validation failures

103. One characteristic of a good Systems Auditor is:

a) He must be an expert in the accounting field.

b) He/She must be in constant training to be competent in the tasks he/she performs.

c) You should seek to request participation in all audits that are conducted.
d) Must have knowledge in business administration.

104. The LEAST reliable controls are:

a) Combined preventive controls with manual controls.
b) Combined preventive controls with automatic controls.
c) The detective controls combined with manual controls.
d) Combined detective controls with automated controls.

105. A threat can be defined as:

a) A measure aimed at mitigating in some way the risks that may exist in a company.
b) A vulnerability identified within a company.
c) An agent or event that can exploit a vulnerability identified within a company.
A series of unfortunate events that trigger an emergency plan in a company.

106. Which of the following BEST describes the early stages of an IT audit?
a) Observe the key organizational facilities.
b) Evaluate the IT environment.
c) Understand the business process and the environment applicable to the review.

d) Review previous IT audit reports.

107. The overall business risk for a particular threat can be expressed as:
a) A product of the probability and the magnitude of the impact if a threat were to occur
successfully a vulnerability.
b) The magnitude of the impact if a threat source successfully exploits the vulnerability.
c) The probability that a certain threat source would exploit a certain vulnerability.

d) The collective opinion of the risk assessment team.

108. What evidence would be much MORE reliable in an audit work:

a) Evidence whose content cannot be read by the auditor.
b) Evidence provided by the audited party regarding the execution of their own work.
c) Evidence provided by an independent external party to the organization.
d) An identified piece of evidence but with incomplete content.

109. Who should the results of an audit be primarily directed to?

to the Head of a particular area.
b) To the General Manager of a company.
At the highest level of hierarchy in a company.
to the same audited.

During a security audit of IT processes, an IT auditor found that no

there were documented security procedures. The IT auditor must:
a) Create the procedures document.
b) Conclude the audit.
c) Carry out compliance tests.
d) Identify and evaluate existing practices.

111. Reviewing the long-term strategic plans of management helps the IT auditor to:
a) Achieve an understanding of the goals and objectives of an organization.

b) Test the company's internal controls.

c) Determine if the organization can trust the information systems.
d) Determine the number of audit resources needed.

The PRIMARY objective of an IT audit function is:

a) Determine if everyone uses SI resources according to their job description.
b) Determine if information systems safeguard assets and maintain integrity.
data.
c) Examine accounting books and related documentary evidence for the computerized system.
d) Determine the organization's ability to detect fraud. Resp: b

113. In a risk-based audit approach, an IT Auditor should first conduct:

an assessment of inherent risk.
b) An evaluation of control risk.
c) A control evaluation test.
d) A substantive test assessment.

114. IT auditors who have participated in the development of an application system

they could make their independence appear hindered if:
They will conduct a review of the application development.
b) They will recommend increases in control and other systems.

They will conduct an independent evaluation of the application after its implementation.
They will actively participate in the design and implementation of the application system.

115. Phishing consists of:

a) Fraudulently acquire confidential information from the same user
b) Acquire information in any way using social engineering.
c) Acquire information by "fishing" data packets traveling over the Internet.
d) Acquire information by intercepting calls without the user knowing.

116. What would be the BEST location for an alternate processing site:
a) Place it in the building across from the main offices so that the response time is minimized.
b) To locate it 45 km away even though its cost may be high.
c) Place it in the allied building near the main offices so that the response time is minimized.
d) Place it 1km away to minimize costs and rotate staff between both locations.

117. A business impact analysis study will help to:

a) Identify the RTO (Recovery Time Objective) of the business processes.
b) Identify the RTO (Recovery Time Objective) of the largest business processes.
e) Identify the RTO (Recovery Time Objective) of the business operational processes.
d) Identify the RTO (Recovery Time Objective) of the critical business processes.

118. What is the correct statement:

a) ISO 27002 is a Code of Good Practices for Information Security.
b) ISO 27001 provides specifications for Information Quality Management Systems
ISO 27002 is a Code of Good Practices for the Implementation of Continuity Plans.
d) ISO 27001 provides Specifications for Information Continuity Management Systems.

119. Computer-based auditing techniques consist of:

a set of software tools that assist the system auditor.
b) A set of best practices for auditing the information that a computer may contain.
c) A set of techniques and tools used by the auditor to collect information from the
computerized environments.
d) A set of audit guidelines based on ISO 27001 to automate the auditor's work with
total security.

120. An off-site backup facility that has rich cabling, air conditioning,
false floor, etc. but no computing or communication equipment, intended to operate a
information processing installation is better known as:
cold alternate site.
b) Hot alternate site.
c) Alternate mirror site.
d) Incomplete alternate site.

121. After conducting the business impact analysis (BIA), what is the next step?
next in the business continuity planning process?
a) Test and maintain the plan.
b) Develop a specific plan.
c) Develop recovery strategies.
d) Implement the plan.
122. An IT auditor has audited a business continuity plan (BCP). What is the
Is the following finding the MOST critical?

a) The unavailability of a telephone exchange (PBX).

b) The absence of guards at the entrance of the computer center.
c) The lack of backup systems for user PCs.
d) The access card system failure.

123. An Information Security Management System consists of:

a) A set of controls based on ISO 27001.
b) The planning, execution, verification, and continuous improvement of a set of controls that
allow reducing the risk of experiencing security incidents.
c) The identification of the critical processes of a business to safeguard its technology assets.
d) Consider a set of controls based on ISO 27002.

124. To create a business continuity plan, the first step is to:

a) identify the critical business processes.
b) Identify the hardware and software that are critical to the business.
c) Conduct a business criticality analysis.
d) Carry out a business risk assessment.

125. In a Business Continuity Plan:

a) The location of the alternate site should be revealed so that customers can go and continue with
its operations.
b) The location of the alternate site should never be revealed.

c) The location of an alternate site must be fully known by everyone in a company, including
the clients.
d) The alternate site and the main site must be located in the same place.

126. Generally, what are the most used software applications by auditors?
world level
a) ACL and Auto Audit.
b) Audimaster and IDEA.
c) IDEA and Auto Audit.
IDEA and ACL.
127. After conducting the business impact analysis (BIA), what is the next step?
next in the business continuity planning process?
a) Test and maintain the plan.
b) Develop a specific plan.
c) Develop recovery strategies.
d) Implement the plan.

128. An IT auditor reviewing an organization's disaster recovery plan should

verify that it is:
Tested every 6 months.
b) Reviewed and updated periodically.
c) Approved by the Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
d) Communication to all department addresses of the organization.

129. Information security preserves:

a) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information.
b) Continuity, integrity, and availability of information.
c) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information.
Continuity, integrity, and consistency of the information.

130. An off-site backup facility that has electrical wiring and air conditioning.
false floor, etc. but no computing or communications equipment, intended to operate a
information processing installation is better known as:
a) Cold site.
b) Warm site.
c) Dial up site.
d) Duplicate processing installation.

131. COBIT ES:

a) A security standard used at an international level.
b) A framework or reference for free use.
c) A summary of work restricted for use only by company managers.
d) A security guide applied to business continuity.
132. An off-site information processing facility:
a) It should have the same amount of physical access restrictions as the processing site.
primary
It should be easily identifiable from the outside so that in case of an emergency it can be
easily found.
c) It should be located close to the site that originates it so that it can be put into operation
quickly.
d) It does not need to have the same level of environmental monitoring as the site that originates it.

A disaster recovery plan deals with:

a) The technological aspect of a business continuity planning.
b) The operational part of a business continuity plan.
c) The functional aspect of a business continuity plan.
d) The general coordination of a business continuity planning.

134. Which of the following components of a business continuity plan is

PRIMARILY the responsibility of the IT department of an organization:
a) Develop the business continuity plan.
b) Select and approve the strategy for the business continuity plan.
c) Declare a disaster.
d) Restore the information systems and data after a disaster.

135. For the purposes of an adequate audit report, controls can be found in:
The ISO 27002 Standard.
b) The ISO 27001 Standard.

c) The ISO 12207 Standard.

d) The experience and judgment of the auditor.

A 'black hat' hacker is also known as:

Hacker.
b) Cracker.
e) User.
d) Newbie.
137. The difference between the Subject and the Scope in a Systems Audit is:
a) The Scope refers to the area of review, while the Subject indicates the specific detail of the review.
b) The Subject focuses on identifying the resources and the Scope on the quantity of the resources to
to use.
c) The Subject focuses on the identification of compliance evidence and the Scope in the identification
of the substantive evidence.
d) The Scope refers to the specific detail of the review, while the Subject identifies the area of
revision.

138. Reviewing the long-term strategic plans of management helps the IT auditor to:
a) Achieve an understanding of the goals and objectives of an organization.

b) Test the company's internal controls.

c) Determine if the organization can trust the information systems.
d) Determine the number of audit resources needed.

139. A characteristic of a good Systems Auditor is:

a) They must be an expert in the accounting field.

b) They must be continually trained to be competent in the work they perform.

c) You should seek to request participation in all audit work that is carried out.
d) Must have knowledge in business administration.

140. What evidence would be much MORE reliable in an audit work:

a) Evidence whose content cannot be read by the auditor.
b) Evidence provided by the audited party regarding the execution of their own work.
c) Evidence provided by an independent external party to the organization.
d) An identified piece of evidence but with incomplete content.

141. The LEAST reliable controls are:

a) The preventive controls combined with manual controls.
b) The preventive controls combined with automatic controls.
c) Detective controls combined with manual controls.
d) The detective controls combined with automated controls.
A threat can be defined as:
a) A measure aimed at mitigating in some way the risks that may exist in a company.
b) A vulnerability identified within a company.
c) An agent or event that can exploit a vulnerability identified within a company.
a series of unfortunate events that activate an emergency plan in a company.

143. Which of the following BEST describes the initial stages of an IT audit?
a) Observe the key organizational facilities.
b) Evaluate the IS environment.
c) Understand the business process and the environment applicable to the review.

d) Review previous IT audit reports.

144. The overall business risk for a particular threat can be expressed as
a) A product of the probability and the magnitude of the impact if a threat were to explode
successfully a vulnerability.
b) The magnitude of the impact if a threat source successfully exploited the vulnerability.
c) The probability that a certain threat source would exploit a certain vulnerability.
The collective opinion of the risk assessment team.

145. During a security audit of IT processes, an IT auditor found that not

there were documented security procedures. The IT auditor must:
a) Create the procedures document.
b) To conclude the audit
c) Carry out compliance tests.
d) Identify and evaluate existing practices.

146. In a risk-based auditing approach, an IT auditor should first conduct:

an assessment of inherent risk.
b) A substantive test assessment.
c) An assessment of control risk.
d) A control evaluation test.
147. IT auditors who have participated in the development of an application system
they could make their independence appear hindered if:
They will conduct a review of the application development.
b) They will recommend increases in control and other systems.

c) They will conduct an independent evaluation of the application after its implementation.
They will actively participate in the design and implementation of the application system.

148. In what situation is it BETTER to use a substantive test:

a) In the evaluation of an access control policy for a computing center.
b) In the evaluation of the documentation of a user manual for a sales application.
c) In the evaluation of the interest calculation of a savings account.
d) In the evaluation of the change control over a sales application.

149. Why should a Systems Auditor review the organizational chart of the company being audited?
a) To optimize the responsibility and authority granted to the members of the company.
b) To control the responsibilities and authority of the members of the company.
c) To gain a better understanding of the responsibilities and level of authority in the
members of the company.
d) To identify those responsible for a project.

150. The PRIMARY objective of a compliance test is to verify if:

a) A control is implemented according to how it is written.
The documentation is accurate and documented.
c) User access is provided as specified.
d) The data validation procedures are provided.

151. The plan aimed at restoring business processes after a

emergency refers to:
a) Business Continuity Plan
b) Crisis communication plan
c) Crisis Communication Plan
d) Disaster Recovery Plan
152. The pillars to maintain an Information System are:
a) Speed, Ease, Cunning
b) Disposition, Interaction, Trust
c) Availability, Integrity, Confidentiality
d) Confidentiality, Disposal, Integration

153. The National Public Procurement Service needs to formulate terms of reference for
to hire the development of a software application for administrative management and registration
assets of the institution, for which reason it must:
a) Consult the Portal of the Ministry of Telecommunications and the Information Society
b) Consult in the Portal of the Information Systems of Science, Technology, Innovation, and Knowledge
Ancestrales in the Ecuadorian Software portal.
c) Consult on the Institutional Portal of the Agency for Regulation and Control of Telecommunications.
d) Consult on the Institutional Portal of the National Public Procurement Service in a particular manner
in the Electronic Catalog tool.

154. The Public University plans in its annual hiring plan to contract software.
with blockchain technology for verifying the traceability of financial management;
As part of the preliminary study, it has been determined that said software program is distributed by a
Spanish company that has no representatives in the country and has a price of USD 130,000.00.
In accordance with the proposed scenario, the entity must initially:
a) Carry out the verification of the non-existence of national production or offer by attaching in a manner
prior to the authorization issued by the Ministry of Telecommunications and the Society of
Information.
b) Carry out an Electronic Reverse Auction procedure considering that it involves the acquisition of
a standardized good that is not available in the Electronic Catalog.
c) Request the foreign supplier to register in the Single Registry of Suppliers so that they can
participate in the consulting procedure that will be called through the Institutional portal of the Service
National Public Procurement.
d) To look for a national supplier that shows interest in being a representative of the company in the country
Spanish so that through this the hiring procedure can be carried out.

155. What is the order of precedence for contracting related to software:

a) 1.-Software in any other modality that includes services with a majority value component
Ecuadorian addition; 2.- Open source software that includes source code development services,
parameterization or implementation with an important component of added Ecuadorian value; 3.-
Open source software without a majority component of added value Ecuadorian services; 4.-
International software through national suppliers; 5.- International software through
from foreign suppliers.
b) 1.-Open source software that includes source code development services, parameterized or
implementation with an important component of added value from Ecuador; 2.- Open Source Software
open without a majority component of Ecuadorian value-added services; 3.- Software in any
another modality that includes services with a majority component of Ecuadorian added value; 4.-
International software through national providers; 5.- International software through
from foreign suppliers.
c) 1.- Open source software that includes source code development services,
parameterization or implementation with an important component of added value from Ecuador;
2.- Software in any other modality that includes services with a majority component of
Ecuadorian added value; 3.- Open source software without a majority component of services
of Ecuadorian added value; 4.- International software through national suppliers;
5.- International software through foreign suppliers.
d) 1.- Open source software without a majority component of Ecuadorian added value services;
2.- International software through national providers; 3.- Open source software that
including source code development services, parameterization or implementation with a significant
Ecuadorian value-added component; 4.- Software in any other modality that includes services
with a majority component of added value from Ecuador; 5.- International software through
from foreign suppliers.

156. Which of the following services is not necessary to establish as part of the contractual object
for the acquisition of software:
a) Development services
b) Online support services
c) Parameterization and implementation

157. In a procurement process for the acquisition and maintenance for, with a period of 300
days, the invited bidder must present as an appendix to their offer:
a) The details of services related to the order of precedence corresponding to the international software by
through local suppliers.
b) The list of programmers, developers, or authors who are effectively included in the
software credits, as well as the list of technical personnel involved in the service provision
hired.
c) The list of unit prices breaks down the value of each of the components involved in the
software development and including the added value of each one from Ecuador.
d) A detail of the IT infrastructure and user manuals for the software operation.

158. Which of the following documents must the invited bidder or bidders present in the
processes for the development and/or acquisition of software during the phase
precontractual
a) Software registration submitted to the Mintel.
b) Intellectual property registration.
c) Certificate of registration in the Software portal.

d) Timeline of the time spent on software creation.

159. Which of the following parameters should not be considered to determine the Added Value
Ecuadorian in public procurement processes related to software acquisition:
a) Parameterization
b) Development
c) List of developers
d) Implementation

160. What is the percentage for an offer to be considered to have an important component of
Ecuadorian Added Value in software contracting:
40%
b) 60%
c) 20%
75%

161. Which of the following documents should not be presented by the supplier as support for the
Ecuadorian Addendum Declaration for software contracting:
a) Official documentation that supports the nationality of the technical staff.

b) Official documentation supporting the supplier's fiscal address.

c) Intellectual Property Register.
d) Official documentation and authorization issued by the Ministry of Telecommunications.

162. The GADMCLL requires contracting a standardized non-cataloged application that allows it to
to monitor the management of the entity's contracts for an amount of USD.
6,000.00, for which it must:
a) Carry out the hiring process through Minor Amount.
b) Request the Ministry of Telecommunications for technical feasibility and contract through the
Electronic Reverse Auction Procedure for being standardized.
c) Request the National Public Procurement Service to unblock CPC
d) Request the relevant authorization from the Ministry of Telecommunications.

163. For the procurement of software, it is considered as Ecuadorian Added Value without
majority component to percentage:
Less than 75% and greater than 40%

Less than 40% and greater than 20%

Less than 60% and greater than 20%

Less than 60% and greater than 40%

164. In a procurement process for the acquisition and maintenance of a software for
25,000,000, with a term of 300 days, the invited bidder must submit as an annex to their
offer:
a) A detail of the IT infrastructure and user manuals for the operation of the software
b) The list of programmers, developers, or authors who were effectively included in
the software credits, as well as the list of technical personnel involved in the provision of the
contracted service.
c) The list of unit prices breaking down the value of each of the components involved in the
software development including the added value of each of them from Ecuador.
d) The details of services related to the corresponding order of precedence for international software by
through local suppliers.

165. In the Oracle DBMS.

a) Users with the database administrator role are SYS, SYSTEM, and any other.
user who has been granted the DBA role ('Data Base Administrator').
b) A schema is a collection of users that contain objects of this type.
c) A user can modify the data dictionary of the objects in their schema.
d) If a database instance is on a UNIX machine and the database clients are
say, users or applications connect to it with a single user, but from UNIX machines,
LINUX and WINDOWS then the database administrator will define this connection user or
Database user as 'external'.

166. The privileges in the Oracle DBMS are.

a) Permissions granted to users both on schema objects and on the system. These
privileges are also given to the profiles.
b) They are both system privileges and schema object privileges. These are assigned to
roles and users.
c) Permissions that are managed through profiles to limit CPU usage and to define policies
about the password (expiration, complexity of it, etc.)
They are a set of permissions grouped over the database objects that simplify management.
from the database. In no case does it involve permissions on the system.
167. In a company that uses ORACLE as the DBMS, a system error has occurred that
it has damaged the datafiles of the database, but not the log files (redo log). For the
backup and recovery policy implemented, there are copies of all essential files
from the Database in another safe place, and there is also an undamaged physical backup made
ten hours before the incident
a) It is not possible to perform a complete recovery process using the physical backup and the redo files.
log.
b) Without having logical backups, a complete recovery process cannot be performed.
c) We have a physical backup prior to the system failure, so a process could be carried out
recovery with the log files, but it would be incomplete with loss of information.
If the database can be stopped, the essential files of the database could be replaced with the duplicates.
externals in the safe place. Subsequently, the database must be raised, thus carrying out a process of
full recovery.

168. Which of the following statements is true? The data dictionary of a database.
a) Allows any database user to perform direct modification operations
(through UPDATE) about him.
b) Store the definition of all objects in the database.
It is stored in the USERS tablespace and any user of the database can access it.
d) It is optional. That is to say, there can be databases without a data dictionary.

169. Regarding transactions and their processing. Which of the following statements is
true?
a) A transaction is a sequence of operations that must be executed atomically.
In Oracle, a transaction is a sequence of SQL statements, but due to mechanisms specific to the DBMS.
It is not necessary to treat it as a single unit.
There are no errors at the transaction level.

d) When a transaction ends successfully, the updates that make up the transaction are recorded with
the ROLLBACK statement.

170. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The control file contains the name of the database, the physical location where they are found
"tablesplaces", the SCN (current Log Sequence Number) and the data dictionary.
b) In the 'Redo Log' file, all committed data is stored, except for some.
transactions in which such writing is excluded.
c) The 'Redo Log' files are used to recover a database, as they store all the
modified data and the old data, in case, for example, a ROLLBACK of the transaction is executed.
d) The TEMPORAL tablespace is used to store temporary data such as the SCN ("Sequence Number")
of the Actual Log”) and temporal information of the backups that are made at a given time,
among other things

171. Given the PERSON relation (ID, name, address, phone, payroll), if we wanted that
only 3 users (for now) can consult and modify the data related to the phone
and the payroll in the relationship, we should:

a) Assign selection and modification permissions for these fields to each user we want to
meet those requirements. It would be the most efficient.

b) Create a role, grant selection and modification permissions for those fields and assign that role to each
user. It would be the most efficient.

c) Create a profile, grant selection and modification permissions for those fields, and apply that profile to each
one of the users. It would be the most efficient.

d) Create a profile, apply that profile to each of the users, and finally, grant that profile permissions
selection and modification of the appropriate fields. It would be the most efficient.

172. Which of the following statements is true regarding control files in the System
Oracle Database Manager?
They store information about the logical structure of the Database among other things.
It is the database file that stores the location and status of the backups.
c) They provide the mechanism to redo transactions in case of a failure in the database.

d) It is the database file that stores the definition of all the objects in the database (tables, views, indexes,
procedures, functions, triggers, etc.

173. Which of the following statements is true regarding Recovery in the Management System?
from the ORACLE Database?
a) To be able to perform a hot backup, it is necessary to be in 'NO ARCHIVELOG' mode.
b) In databases that always have to be running, it is only possible to do cold backups.
c) The Oracle 'IMPORT' tool allows for logical backups.
d) A hot backup of a tablespace consists of copying all the files of
storage associated with it while the database is in 'ARCHIVELOG' mode

174. Regarding physical design. Which of the following statements is true?:

It is recommended to define indexes if the key on which it is created is large.
b) Tables organized as indexes are only recommended for tables with a large row size.
size
c) Organized tables as indexes are only recommended for tables with a small row size.
d) To increase performance in data access, indexes, tables organized by
indices, Clusters and Hash Cluster

175. An Oracle instance consists of:

a) The Global Shared Memory Area (SGA)
b) The Private Global Area of Memory (PGA)
c) The SGA plus the Oracle processes for accessing the Database
d) The PGA plus the Oracle processes for database access

176. Indicate the correct option regarding the following statement:

CREATE PROFILE user_profile LIMIT

30
SESSION_PER_USER 3
UNLIMITED

a) The sentence is correct

b) The sentence is incorrect, as properties regarding the use of hardware resources cannot be mixed.
password properties in the same CREATE PROFILE statement
c) The sentence is incorrect, as password properties cannot be managed in the
CREATE PROFILE statement
d) The sentence is incorrect, as it is only possible to indicate the lifespan of a password in the
CREATE/ALTER USER statements

177. A role is defined as:

a set of users
b) A set of privileges over the system
c) A set of privileges over user schema objects
d) A set of privileges over the system and/or over user schema objects

178. Among the classic problems associated with concurrency, a non-repeatable read or
blurred reading
a) It does not occur, because this type of problem does not appear in the concurrency of the DBMS.

b) It occurs when two transactions that access the same items have their operations interleaved.
in such a way that they modify or incorrectly access the value of some item

c) It occurs when a transaction T1 reads a data item twice and another transaction T2 modifies it.
the item between the two readings and confirms it
It happens when a transaction T1 reads a data item twice and another transaction T2 modifies it.
item between the two readings, but without confirming this modification

179. The concept of transaction in Oracle allows:

a) Prevent concurrency issues
b) Make optimizations on the physical design of the database
c) Allow recovery from failures and prevent concurrency issues

180. From the following definitions, which is the correct one?

a) The SYSTEM tablespace stores Oracle data, such as statistics, instance status, and data.
from an application like tables, etc.

b) In the REDO tablespace, the old data of a transaction is stored and the new data in the UNDO.
c) The TEMP tablespace is used as temporary for join, order-by, hash, etc. operations of the
different users who have TEMP as the default temporary tablespace
In the SYSTEM tablespace, in addition to having the dictionary data, it also stores certain data.
temporary operations of join, order, etc. of users and even data

181. What tool does Oracle provide to query the plan it has followed when
execute a query?
a) SQL-Plus
SQL*Expert
c) SQL-Analyze (Explain plan)
SQL Status

182. Which of the following statements is true?:

a) The rollback segments store the latest statements made on the DB
b) The control files store the logical structure of the DB.
A backup of the database is a file for storing changes in the database
d) A logical backup is not a backup of the database

183. Which of the following statements is true?

a) In a data file or 'Datafile', at least one 'tablespace' is created to contain the procedures.
stored, triggers and tables of a schema
b) In a data file or "Datafile" at least one "tablespace" is created to contain the tables of a
scheme
c) When a database object is created, such as a table or index, it is assigned to a
"tablespace" through the user's default options or through specific instructions
A logical block in Oracle is composed of logical segments in which objects are stored.
Oracle, such as tables, stored procedures, etc.

184. Regarding the task of controlling the Integrity of the Database, in a system
multi-user like the Oracle DBMS, which of the following statements is correct?
a) To ensure integrity, transactions must be able to be executed serially,
one after another.
b) If simultaneous transactions are executed, it is not necessary to establish control mechanisms.
concurrency to ensure data consistency.
c) When transactions are executed using Oracle's multiversioning model, the data that they see
the transactions are exactly the same.
d) Ensuring integrity when we have multiple concurrent transactions has a disadvantage, it affects
the scalability of the Database.

185. Which of the following instructions is correctly written:

a) Create table "Select" (Column1 number(8));
b) Create table employees (Column1 number(8));
c) Create table update (Column1 number(8));
d) Create table employees (Column1 number(8));

186. The different types of Tablespaces are:

a) System, Normal, and Undo

b) Temporary, Normal, System and Undo

c) Redo, Memory and Normal

187. Where is the PHP code executed?

a) Server
b) Client (own computer)
The code is saved in the terminal and on the server at the same time.

188. Which of these are tags for inserting PHP code into HTML pages?
a) < ? y ? >
< php >< /php >
<# y #>

189. In which attribute of a form do we specify the page to which the data will be sent?
of the same?
a) name
b) file
c) action
d) description

190. Which of these instructions is correctly written in PHP?

a) if (a=0) print a
b) if (a==0) echo "hello world";
c) if (a==0) { echo ok }
if (a==0): print a;

191. Which of these PHP instructions will correctly print the message 'Hello
“World” in bold letters?
a) print <strong>Hello World</strong>;
b) print (<strong>Hello World</strong>);
<strong>Hello World</strong>

192. Two ways to pass parameters between PHP pages are:

a) Require and Include
b) Get y Put
c) Post and Get
d) Into e Include

193. Which of these instructions is used to query a database?

MySQL?
a) mysql_query
mysql_access
c) mysql_db_access
194. An array is...
a) A set of alphanumeric characters
b) A system to convert a text variable into a number
a set of elements

195. How is a string variable defined in PHP?

a) char str;
b) string str;
In PHP, the type of variables is not explicitly defined.

196. We have the following code: $a="10"; $b=$a + 2; What will be the value of $b?
12
b) 12
102
d) None (a number cannot be added to a string)

197. What is the purpose of the following code?: if (isset($variable)){}

a) Traverse an array named $variable

b) Create a variable named "$variable"
c) Check if the variable "$variable" is defined and has a non-null value.

198. When we want to set the value of a timestamp field in MySQL, we use
the constant
a) CURRENT_DATETIME
b) CURRENT_TIMESTAMP
CURRENT_DATE
d) TIME_STAMP

199. When we want to print the content of a variable or text in PHP, we can use the
instructions:
a) print_r
b) echo
c) printer
200. Which option is correct to access a session data?
$_SESSION->name
$_SESSION['name']
session('name')

201. What is the correct order of the parameters of the mail function?
asunto
destinatario
body
body

202. What will be the result of this script?

<?
$variable = 2;
echo $variable++;
echo ++$variable;

a) 23
b) 24
c)34

203. What is the name of the reserved word to declare a function?

a) dim
b) func
c) function
d) void

204. Which of the following options is used to assign a value to the variable nombreVariable?
$variableName = 33;
$nombreVariable = my Variable;
variableName = "my Variable";

205. What method do we use to initialize the session?

$_SESSION
b) Session
c) session_start

206. What loop or loops allow us to iterate through each element of a vector?
a) foreach
b) if
c) switch

207. Which of these are constructors of the Image class in PHP 4?

a) class Image
b) function Image
c) function __construct

208. What is the correct way to indicate that the Image class inherits from Banner?

a) class Banner as Image

b) class Banner extends Image
c) class Banner inherits from Image

209. Consider the following code snippet:

<?php
First
list (, $result) = $arr;
?>

210. After executing it, the value of $result would be the

A. First
B. Second
C. Third

211. When the driver files for sessions are used by default through
About sessions, PHP stores session information on the web server's hard drive.
Are the session files to be cleaned?
a) PHP remove the session associated with session_destroy() is called within a script.
b) When the session_cleanup function() is called, PHP iterates over all session files, and
remove them if the session timeout limit is exceeded.
c) When the session_start() function is called, PHP iterates over all session files and deletes them.
if the session timeout limit is exceeded
d) When the function session_start() is called, PHP sometimes iterates over all session files, and
eliminate them if they exceeded the session timeout limit.

212. What is the order of the parameters in the mail() function?

subject
b) to address, subject, extra headers, body
to address
d) subject, to address, body, extra headers

213. The following PHP script is designed to subtract two indexed arrays of numbers.
Which statement is correct?

a) The script is valid.

b) Missions must be done in a single line.
c) It has too many line break characters between the states.
d) No, the hyphen is not found within curly braces.

214. What is the purpose of the escapeshellarg() function?

a) The removal of malicious characters.
b) Escape malicious characters.
c) Creation of a series of arguments for a shell command.
d) Preparing data to be used as a single argument in a shell command.
215. Which of the following statements are not true?
a) strstr() allows the search for a substring in another string
b) strrpos() allows for searching a substring within another string.
c) strstr() and strrchr() return -1 if the second parameter is not a substring of the first
parameter.
d) strstr() and strrpos() can return a value that is different from an integer.

216. What is the difference between mysql_connect() and mysql_pconnect()?

a) mysql_pconnect() creates a connection between MySQL from localhost to the remote web server

b) mysql_pconnect() creates a permanent connection to the database

c) the function mysql_pconnect() does not exist

217. What is the output:

I love Windows
echo str_replace("Linux", "Windows", $string);

I love Windows
I love Linux
c) I love WindowsLinux

218. What is true about the 'Boolean data type':

a) It can be TRUE or FALSE.
b) It can be TRUE and FALSE
c) It is always 1

219. Choose the selection that best fits the following statements:
PHP is a scripting language based on the ____ engine. It is primarily used for _____
develop dynamic content, although it can be used to generate documents ____ (among others) such as
so.

a) Dynamic, PHP, databases, HTML

b) Embedded, Zend, HTML, XML
c) Based on Perl, PHP, Web, Static
d) Embedded, Zend, Docbook, MySQL
e) Zend base, PHP, Image, HTML

220. Which of the following is not a valid PHP code?

$10
b) ${"MyVar"}
&$something
$10_somethings

At runtime, the inclusion of a PHP script is done using the ________.

build, while the compile time of the inclusion of PHP scripts is being done
through the construction of _______.
include_once
b) require, include
c) require_once, include
d) include, require

222. How can a script achieve a clean termination?

a) When exit() is called
b) When the execution reaches the end of the current file
c) When PHP is blocked
d) When it ends from Apache due to a problem in the system

223. Under normal circumstances, and ignoring the browser errors - how can it be a
Can a cookie be accessed from a domain different from the one it was set for?
a) By querying the HTTP_REMOTE_COOKIE header
b) It cannot be done
c) The establishment of a domain different when calling setcookie()
d) By sending an additional request to the browser

224. Suppose you want to sort an array in ascending order by time that is preserved.
the fundamental value associations. Which of the following PHP sorting functions that
do you use?
a) ksort ()
b) asort B. ()
c) krsort ()
d) sort ()
225. Which of the following functions reads all the content of a file?
a) fgets ()
b) file_get_contents (), readfile (), file ()
c) fread ()

226. Which of the following function calls will cause a file pointer to be returned to
beginning of the file?
a) reset ()
fseek (-1)
c) fseek (0, SEEK_END)
d) fseek (0, SEEK_SET)

227. What is the difference between stat() and fstat()?

a) While stat() works on opening pointer files, fstat() works on files specified by path.
b) While fstat() works on file pointers, stat() works on specified files
by route
c) fstat() has nothing to do with files
d) stat () has nothing to do with files

228. What is firmware?

a) It is hardware and software that enables the interrelationship between a PC and external electronic devices and
receives external commands and responds by operating the device.

It is a free program offered to the end user with no profit motive.

c) It is a part of a system or a network that is designed to block unauthorized access.
allowing authorized communications at the same time.
d) It is a connection interface standard for various platforms, intended for data input and output.
at high speed.

229. This type of maintenance involves cleaning the system and its components the frequency
the implementation of this type of maintenance depends on the environment of the
computer and the quality of the components.
a) Passive preventive maintenance
b) Active preventive maintenance
c) Cleaning the system
d) Installation and uninstallation
230. This is the one that keeps the information when we turn off the computer; also here it
It saves most of the programs and the operating system.
a) The RAM memory
b) The Hard Drive
c) The CD-ROM
d) ROM Memory

231. The main feature of this type of maintenance is to inspect the equipment and
detect failures in their initial phase and correct them at the right time.
a) Corrective maintenance
b) Adaptive maintenance
c) Preventive maintenance
d) Installation and uninstallation

A user submitted a problem report because they cannot access any device in the
red. What tool can the network technician use to quickly verify if the
Does the computer have a valid IP address?
a) Ipconfig
b) Netstat
c) Ping
d) tracert

233. How many IP addresses does each Class B network contain that can be assigned to hosts?
16,777,214
16,777,216
c) 65,536
65,534.

234. What is the range of values for the first octet in class A IP networks?
a) 0 A 127
b) 0 A 126
c) 1 A 127
d) 1 A 126
235. Users in the accounting department cannot access the applications on a server.
The technician believes that the problem lies in the server. What Windows tool is
Should you use it on the server to determine if it is functioning correctly?
Device Manager
b) Firewall
c) Startup management tool
d) System configuration editor

A computer can access devices on the same network, but it cannot access
devices from other networks. What could be the possible cause of the problem?
The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
The computer has an invalid IP address.
The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

A technician needs to configure the hard drive of a computer to make it seem like it exists.
one disk for the operating system and four disks for data from different sources
Applications. How can the hard drive be configured to achieve this perception?
a) Create five primary partitions.
b) Create an extended partition with five logical units inside.
c) Create a primary partition and an extended partition with four logical units within it
last.
d) Create five extended partitions

A technician is experiencing problems with laptops that are overheating.

continuously. What preventive maintenance procedure can be performed on the
laptops to solve this problem?
a) Regularly change the laptop battery.
Encourage users to run the laptop on battery more frequently.
c) Encourage users to run the laptop from the AC adapter with more
frequency
d) Clean the ventilation holes

239. What is an Operating System?

a) Programs that initialize the computer
b) Set of instructions that helps the user in performing a task.
c) Set of programs that manage the tasks that are executed concurrently in the
computer
It is a valid IP.
12,345.77
[Link]
c) 1234.577
[Link]

241. During the troubleshooting process of a PC that won't boot, it is suspected that the
The problem lies in the RAM modules. The RAM modules are removed and placed in another.
PC, which turns on correctly. Then, the RAM modules are reinserted into the PC.
original, which now also turns on correctly. What was the most likely cause of
Problem?

a) The RAM modules have defective blocks.

b) The RAM modules were not properly seated.
c) The RAM modules were not compatible with the PC specifications.
d) The RAM modules were inserted backwards in the DIMM slots.

A technician finished assembling a new PC and now has to configure the BIOS. What in
At what moment should a key be pressed to start the BIOS setup program?
a) Before turning on the PC.
b) During the Windows loading process.
c) During the POST.
d) After the POST but before Windows starts to load.

243. A small LAN uses a shared printer that is connected to a PC. None
Users can print, but everyone can access the shared resources of the
PC to which the printer is locally connected. What is a possible cause of this?
problem?
a) The cable that connects the printer to the PC is faulty.
The printer needs a new ribbon.
The printer's print queue is full.
The wrong paper was loaded in the printer.

244. Why is it an important organizational tool for the technician to keep a record of
all services and repairs?
a) It increases the cost of services and repairs.
It allows sharing information publicly on the Internet.
c) It reduces the technical skills required of the new technicians.
d) Provide reference material on similar problems that may occur in the future.

245. A host is any device that:

Send and receive information over the network

b) They only receive information from the network

c) They only send information to the network

d) They serve as network peripherals

246. The media access control (MAC) address in a NIC:

a) It can be changed manually
b) It can be changed automatically
c) It can never be changed
d) Change in each restart del device

247. Ethernet architecture is based on the standard:

IEEE 802.3
b) IEEE 802.11
c) IEEE 802.5
d) IEEE 803.2

248. The connectors used in Ethernet (ISO 8877) are:

RJ-45
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-15
d) RJ-54

249. The term ISP means:

a) Internet Service Provider
b) Internet Service Protocol
c) Satellite Internet Provider
d) IP Subnet Protocol
250. The following order of the UTP cable wires for networks: (white-green, green, white-
orange, blue, white-blue, orange, white-brown, brown). They correspond to the norm:
TIA-568A
b) TIA-568B
TIA-586C
Crossed Cable