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Atd Basic MCQ

The document consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to steam boilers and turbines, covering definitions, types, functions, and operational characteristics. Key topics include the differences between fire tube and water tube boilers, boiler efficiency, safety devices, and the principles of steam turbine operation. Answers to each question are provided, indicating the correct choice for each query.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
16 views13 pages

Atd Basic MCQ

The document consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to steam boilers and turbines, covering definitions, types, functions, and operational characteristics. Key topics include the differences between fire tube and water tube boilers, boiler efficiency, safety devices, and the principles of steam turbine operation. Answers to each question are provided, indicating the correct choice for each query.
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF or read online on Scribd
1. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called a {a) steam boiler —_(b) steam turbine {c) steam condenser (d) steam injector Ans: a 2. The selection of type and size of a steam boiler depends upon {a) the power required and working pressure (b) the geographical position of the power house (0) the fuel and water available (d) all of the above Ans:d 3. Ina fire tube boiler, the water is contained inside the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases from outside. (a) True (b) False Ans: b 4, In water tube boilers, the water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases. (a) Yes (b) No Ans: a 5. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler? (a) Lansashire boiler {b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler (c) Yarrow boiler (d) none of these Ans: a 6. Fire tube boilers are limited toa maximum working pressure of (2) 0.17MN/m? (b) .7MN/m? (c) 17MIN/m? (a) 170 MN/m? Ans: b 7. Which of the following is a water tube boiler? (a) Lancashire boiler (b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler {c) Locomotive boiler [Link] ATD MCQ Session -1 (d) Cochran boiler Ans: b 8. When the circulation of water, ina boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is know {a) internally fired boiler (b) externally fired boiler (0) natural circulation boiler (d) forced circulation boiler Ans: d 9. Fire tube boilers are {a) internally fired (b) externally fired (c) internally as well as externally fired (d) none of these Ans: a 10. Water tube boilers are {a) internally fired (b) internally as well as externally fired (0) externally fired (d) none of these Ans: b 11. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made hemispherical {a) to give maximum space and strength (b) to withstand the pressure of steam inside the boiler (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above Ans: ¢ 12. Lancashire boiler is {a) stationary fire tube boiler (b) internally fired boiler (0) horizontal boiler (d) all of these Ans: d 13. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler has.... heating surface as compared to fire tube boiler. (a) More (b) less (c) equal Ans: 14. Which of the following statement dicates the difference between Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler? [Link] ATD MCQ Session -1 {a) Cornish boiler is a water tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler. (b) Cornish boiler is a fire tube boiler Whereas Lancashire boiler is a water tube boiler: (c) Cornish boiler has one flue tube whereas Lancashire boiler has two flue tubes. (d) Cornish boiler has two flue tubes Whereas Lancashire boiler has one flue tube. Ans: ¢ 15. Locomotive boiler is a (a) single tube, horizontal, internally fired and stationary boiler (b) single tube, vertical, externally fired and stationary boiler (c) multitubular, horizontal, internally fired and mobile boiler {d) multitubular, horizontal, externally fired and stationary boiler Ans: ¢ 16. The Locomotive boiler has (2) 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes (b) 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes (c) 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes (d) 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes Ans: ¢ 17. The maximum steam pressure in a Locomotive boiler is limited to {a)0.18MN/m2 —— (b) 1.8 MN/m? (c) 18 MN/m? (d) 180 MN/m? Ans: b 18. The water tube boilers produce steam at a.......pressure than that of fire tube boilers. (a) lower {b) higher Ans: b 19. Benson boiler requires {a) no drum (b) one drum (c) two drums (d) three drums Ans: a 20. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is (a) 100 bar (b) 150 bar (c) 200 bar Ans: d 21. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is {a) 100 tonnes/h () 175 tonnes/h Ans: b 22. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam? (a) Locomotive boiler (b) Lancashire boiler (0) Cornish boiler (d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler Ans: a 23. The fittings mounted on the boiler for its proper and safe functioning is a (a) water level indicator (b) pressure gauge (0) safety valve (d) all of these Ans: d 24. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting? {a) Blow off cock (0) Economiser Ans: 25. The device attached to the steam chest for preventing explosions due to excessive internal pressure of steam is called {a) safety valve(b) water level indicator (c) pressure gauge (4) fusible plug Ans: a 26. The number of water level indicators in a boiler are generally, number. (d) 250 bar (b) 135 tonnes/h (d) 250 tonnes/h (b) Feed check valve (d) Fusible plug (a) one (b) two. (c) three (d) four Ans: b 27. The function of a safety valve is, (a) to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure GS) Make (b) to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer (c) to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler (d) none of the above Ans: a 28. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is {a) lever safety valve (b) dead weight safety valve (¢) high steam and low water safety valve (d) spring loaded safety valve Ans: d 29, The principal function of a stop valve is to {a) contro! the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when required {b) empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments Which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler (c) put off fire in the furnace of the boiler When the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit (d) increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure Ans: a 30. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to {a) control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when required (b) empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler (0) put off fire in the furnace of the boiler When the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit (d) increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure Ans: b 31. Assoun in a boiler is used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe ‘sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at [Link] Easy ATD MCQ Session -1 (a) blow off cock (b) fusible plug (c) stop valve (a) safety valve Ans: b 32. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is (a) blow off cock ——_(b) feed check valve (c) steam stop valve (d) none of these Ans: b 33. A device used to heat feed water by utilising the heat in the exhaust flue gases before leaving through the chimney, is known as {a) economizer (b) fusible plug (c) superheater Ansia (d) stop valve 34. An economiser is generally placed between {a) last superheater or reheater and air preheater (b) induced draft fan and forced draft fan (0) air preheater and chimney (d) none of the above Ans: a 35. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to (a) superheat the steam (b) reduce fuel consumption (c) increase steam pressure (d) all of these Ans: b 36. The performance of a boiler is measured by the (a) amount of water evaporated per hour (b) steam produced in kg/h (c) steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt (d) all of these Ans: d Ge) STEAMIBOMERS continued 1. In order to compare the capacity of boilers, the feed water temperature and working pressure are taken as (a) 50° Cand normal atmospheric pressure (b)S0°C and 1.1 bar pressure (c) 100° C and normal atmospheric pressure (d) 100°C and 1.1 bar pressure Ans: ¢ 2. The equivalent evaporation is defined as (a) the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace (b) the amount of water evaporated: or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt (c) the amount of water evaporated from ‘and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam (d) the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100 C Ans:¢ 3, The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated In the furnace, Is known as {a) equivalent evaporation (b) factor of evaporation (c) boiler efficiency (d) power of a boiler Ans: ¢ 4. The power of a boiler may be defined as (a) the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace (b) the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt (c) the amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at https d/[Link]/ ATD MCQ Session -2 Make tt (d) the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100° C Al 5. The amount of water evaporated from feed water at.....into dry and saturated steam at 100° C at normal atmospheric pressure is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100° (a) ore (b) a0"c (Q) 60°C (6) 100°C Ansid 6. When the total heat of steam is h ki/ke and the sensible heat of feed water is hn ki/kg, then the factor of evaporation is given by (a) h-hy,/2257 (b) n+ hy/2257 (c)h x hy/2257 (d) none of these Ans:a 7. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always (2) equal to unity (b) less than unity (c) greater than unity Ans: ¢ 8. The boiler efficiency is given by mpc bse) mye acer) ms(h= pn) mpc {c) g(t hips) mpc {d) TE sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at (med https d/[Link]/ me Easy ATD MCQ Session -2 Make It Easy Ans: ¢ 9. In a boiler, the heat is lost (a) to dry flue gases (b) in moisture present in the fuel () to steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel (d) all of the above Ans: d 10. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to (a) moisture in fuel (b) dry flue gases (c) steam formation (d) unburnt carbon Ans: b 11. The draught is the . above and below the fire grate. pressures {a) sum (b) difference Ans: b 12. The object of producing draught in a boiler is (a) to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion (a} to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber (c) to discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney (d) all of the above Ans: d 13. The draught may be produced by a (a) mechanical fan (b) chimney (c)asteam jet (4) all of these Ans: d 14, A draught produced by a chimney due to the difference of densities between the hot gases inside the chimney and cold atmospheric air outside it, is called natural draught. {a} Yes (b) No Ans:a 15. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by 2 (a) chimney (b) centrifugal fan (c) steam jet (d) none of these An: 16. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney iscalled (a) induced steam jet draught (b) chimney draught (c) forced steam jet draught (d) none of these Ansia 17. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit under the grate of the furnace is called (a) induced steam jet draught (b) forced steam jet draught (b) chimney draught (d) none of these An 18. The natural draught is produced by (a) steam jet sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at (med https d/[Link]/ me Make It Easy ATD MCQ Session -2 Make It Easy (b) centrifugal fan Ans.c (c) chimney (d) both (a) and (b) Ans: ¢ 19. The arti produced by (a) steam jet (b) centrifugal fa {c) chimney (d) both (a) and (b) Ans: d 20. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the condition is that height of hot gas column producing the draught should be (a) one-half the height of chimney (b) equal to the height of chimney (c) two times the height of chimney (d) four times the height of Ans: b 21. The action of steam in a steam turbine is ney {a) static (b) dynamic (c) static and dynamic (d) neither static nor dynamic Ans. b 22. The turbine blades are (a) straight (b) circular (c) curved 23. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle. {a) True (b) False Ans. b 24. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as compared to reciprocating steam engines? {a} A steam turbine develops higher speeds, (b) The efficiency of steam turbine is higher (c) The steam consumption is less. (¢) all of these Ans.d 25. In an impulse turbine, steam expands (a) wholly in blades (b) wholly in nozzle (c) partly in the nozzle and partly in blades (¢) none of these Ans. b 26. De-Laval turbine isa () simple impulse turbine (b) simple reaction turbine (c) impulse-reaction turbine (d) none of these Ans.a 27. De-Laval turbine isa (a) single rotor impulse turbine (b) multi-rotor impulse turbine (c) impulse reaction turbine (d) none of these Ans.a sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at https d/[Link]/ Easy ATD MCQ Session -2 THE Make 28 De-Laval turbines are mostly used {a) where low speeds are required (b) for small power purposes and low speeds (c) for large power purposes (d) for small power purposes and high speeds Ans. d 29. In an ideal impulse turbine, the (a) absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet (b) relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet (c) axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet (d) whirl vel the outlet at inlet is equal to that at Ans. b 30. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam while it passes over the (a) 10 to 15% (c) 20 to 30% (b) 15 to 20% (d} 30 to. 40% Ans.a 31. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade is... the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade. (a) equal to (b) less than (c) greater than Ans.a 32. A single stage turbine is not used because it requires large reduction gearing due to very high rotational speed. (2) Agree (b) Disagree Ans.a 33. In a reaction turbine the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before the moving blades (a) the steam is allowed to expand (b) the expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving blades (c) the steam is expanded from a high Pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more nozzles (d) the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant Ans. b 34, Parson's turbine is a (2) simple impulse turbine {b) simple reaction turbine (c) impulse-reaction turbine (d) none of these Ans. b 35. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is reduced in the fixed blades as ‘well as in moving blades. {a) Correct (b) Incorrect Ans. a 36. The velocity of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in the fixed blades as ‘well as in moving blades. (a) True (b) False Ans. b @ Te Easy sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at Me https d/[Link]/ me Make It Easy ATD MCQ Session -3 Tt Easy SEESATUTBINE continucd.. 1. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given power has.....tow of blades. (a) equal (b) less (c) more Ans.c 2. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by (a) number of casing (b) number of entries of steam (c) number of exits of steam (d) each row of blades Ans. d 3. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction turbine, represents (a) isothermal process (b) isentropic process (c) throttling process (d) free-expansion process Ans. b 4. Parson's reaction turbine is a.... reaction turbine. (a) 40 percent (b) 50 percent (c) 60 percent (a) 70 percent Ans. b 5. In areaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades, (a) pressure increases while velocity decreases (b) pressure decreases while velocity increases (c) pressure and velocity both decreases (d) pressure and velocity both increases Ans. b 6. Ina reaction turbine, when steam flows ‘through the moving blades, {a) pressure increases while velocity decreases (b) pressure decreases while velocity increases (c) pressure and velocity both decreases (d) pressure and velocity both increases Ans.c 7. Which of the following statement is correct? (a) The efficiency of steam turbines is greater than steam engines. (b) A flywheel is a must for steam turbine. (c) The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle (d) The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in fixed blades as well as in moving blades Ans. a 8, Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of {a) heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades (b) heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at (med https d/[Link]/ me Make It Easy ATD MCQ Session -3 Make It Easy (c) heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades (c) heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving. blades Ans. ¢ 9. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving, blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. ‘The degree of reaction will be (a)04 (b) 0.56 (0.67 (d) 1.67 Ans. a 10. Ina reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is (a) no-heat drop in moving blades (b) no heat drop in fixed blades (c) maximum heat drop in moving blades (a) maximum heat drop in fixed blades Ans.a 11. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called (a) blading efficiency (b) nozzle efficiency (c) gross or stage efficiency (d) mechanical efficiency Ans.a 12. The ratio of the workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam is called (a) blading efficiency (b) nozzle efficiency {c) stage efficiency (d) mechanical efficiency Ans. c 13. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is. maximum when (a) Vp = 0.5 Veosar (b) Ve =V cosa. (c) Vb = 0.5V’cosa (a) Vi = V'cose. Ans.a 14. The efficiency of reaction turbi maximum when (a) Vp = 0.5 Veosa (b) Vp=V cosa {c) Vp = 0.5V’coser (a) Vp=Vcosa Where, a= Angle made by the absolute velocity (V) at inlet. Ans. b Q1. The compressed air may be used (2) in gas turbine plants (b) for operating pneumatic drills (c) in starting and supercharging of I, engines (@) all of the above Ans:d 2. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called (a) compression ratio (b) expansion ratio (c) compressor efficiency (a) volumetric efficiency Ans: a 3. The absolute pressure of air at the outlet of a compressor is called sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at (med https d/[Link]/ me Make It Easy ATD MCQ Session -3 Make It Easy (a) back pressure (b) critical pressure (c) discharge pressure (d) none of these Ans: ¢ Q4. The inlet pressure is always. discharge pressure. {a) equal to (b) less than (c) more than Ans: b Q5. The compression ratio for the compressor is alWAYS....ee UNIY. {a) equal to (b) less than (c) more than Ans:¢ Q6. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called (a) free air delivery (b) compressor capacity {c) swept volume (d) none of these Ans: b Q7. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in (a) kg/m? (b) ke/m_ (c) m/min (d) m°/kg. Ans: ¢ Q8. The compressor capacity is defined as the (a) actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal temperature and pressure conditions (b) volume of air delivered by the compressor (c) volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke (d) none of the above Ans: a Q9. In air compressors, free air delivery means the (a) actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal ‘temperature and pressure conditions (b) volume of air delivered by the compressor (c} volume of air sucked by the compressor during in suction stroke (d) none of the above Ans:a Q10. Standard air is the air at. relative humidity of 36 percent {a) 0.1 bar and 20 C (b) 1 bar and 20°C (00.1 bar and 40°C (4) 1 bar and 40°C Ans: b Q11.1na double acting compressor, the air is compressed (a) in one cylinder (b) in two cylinders (c) ina single cylinder on both sides of the piston (2) in two cylinders on both sides of the piston Ans: Q12. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is....uu. the atmospheric pressure. {a) equal to (b) less than (c) more than Ans: b Q13. A 3 m*/min compressor means that it (a) compresses 3m°/min of standard air (b) compresses 3m°/min of free air (c) delivers 3m*/ min of compressed air (a) delivers 3 m/min of compressed air at delivery pressure Ans: b EBRBIEEBEE continued... Qi. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two stage compression with inter-cooler, is the original atmospheri intercooling is intercooling. {a) equal to (b) less than (c) more than Ans: a Q2. —Intercooling in compressors is done (a) to cool the air during compres (b) to cool the air at delivery (c) to enable compression in two stages (d) to minimise the work of compression Ans: d Q3. The intercooler pressure, for minimum work required, for a two stage reciprocating air compressor, is given by air temperature, then the perfect known as 3/P1 pr = Intake pressure of air, p2= Intercooler pressure, and ps = Delivery pressure of air. Ans: ¢ Q4. The minimum work required for a ‘two stage reciprocating air compressor is 5 4 a fae on™ ey on ( 4 {(¢) 2% Work recuired foreach stage (@) allofthese Ans: d Q5, The minimum work required for a three stage reciprocating air compressor sure success in SAIL, BARC & ISRO (IPRC&VSSC) join our courses at httosd/[Link]/ the work required for each stage {a) equal to (b) double (c) three times (4) six times Ans: ¢ Q6. A large clearance volume in a reciprocating compressor results (a) reduced volume flow rate (b) increased volume flow rate (c) lower suction pressure (2) lower delivery pressure Ans: a Q7. In a reciprocating air compressor, the compression work per kg of (a) increases as clearance volume increases (b) decreases as clearance volume increases (0) is independent of clearance volume (4) increases as clearance volume decreases Ans: ¢ Q8. The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be .... as compared to that at sea level (a) same {b) lower (c) higher (d) unpredictable Ans: b Q9. For minimum work required to compress and deliver a quantity of air by multi-stage compression, (a) the compression ratio in each stage should be same (b) the intercooling should be perfect (c) the workdone in each stage should be same (d) all of the above Ans: d Q10. For perfect intercooling in a three stage compressor, wpa e (a) 22 = 23 = 2 (lit p2 ps @ ATD MCQ Session -4 Mat vs 2 PaPe (d) pi ps=P2 Ps Ans: a Qll. If the clearance ratio for a reciprocating air compressor is ‘K’, then its volumetric ef ncy is given by (a) 1-K+K (ps/pa)/" (b) 144-K (p2/p1)"" (c) 1-K+K (p:/p2)"™ (d) 14K-K (p2/p,)"""" Ans: b Q12. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about (a) 10 to 40% (b) 40 to 60% {c) 60 to 70% 87 {d) 70 to 90% Ans: d Q13. The reason for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor being less than 100 percent {a) pressure drop across the valves (b) superheating in compressor (c) clearance volume and leakages (d) all of these Ans: d Q14. A rotary compressor is driven by an (a) electric motor (b) engine (c) either (a) and (b) (d) none of these Ans: ¢ Q15. The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of {a) centrifugal type (b) axial flow type (c) radial flow type (d) none of these Ans: b Q16. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is of [Link] ATD MCQ Session -4 (a) centrifugal type (b) axial flow type (c) radial flow type (d) none of these Ans: b Q17. Rotary compressors are used for delivering {a) small quantities of air at high pressures (b) large quantities of air at high pressures (c) small quantities of air at low pressures (4) large quantities of air at low pressures Ans: d Q1. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine (a) requires less space for installation (b)_ has compressor and combustion chamber (c) has less efficiency (4) all of these Ans: Q2. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a (a) compressor (b) heating chamber (c) cooling chamber (¢) all of these Ai Q3. In a closed cycle gas turbine, the ai compressed {a) isothermally (b) polytropically (0) isentropically (d) none of these Ans:¢ Q4. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the {a) rankine cycle (b) bell- coleman cycle (c) carnot cycle (d) brayton cycle efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas turbine (a) same (b) lower (c) higher (d) none of these Ans:¢ Q6. The overall thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is (a) 4) (b) 0) (ove (qd) aie) Ans:¢ Q7. The ri of the net work obtained from the gas turbine plant to the turbine work is known as (a) compression ratio (b) work ratio (c) pressure ratio (d) none of these Ans: b Q8. In a gas turbine cycle with regeneration (a) pressure ratio increases (b) work output decreases: (c) thermal efficiency increases (d) heat input increases Ans: ¢ Q9. Reheating in a gas turbine (a) increases the thermal efficiency (b) increases the compressor work (c) increases the turbine work (d) decreases the thermal efficiency Ans: ¢ Q10. Reheating in a multi-stage expansion gas turbine..............compressor work. {a) has no effect on (b) decreases (c) increases Ans: b [Link] ATD MCQ Session -4 Q11. A regenerator in a gas turbine improves thermal efficiency. {a) Correct (b) Incorrect Ans: a Q12. The compression ratio turbine is fa) 4 (b)7 (9 (¢)12 Ans: Q13. For maximum work, the reheating should be done to an intermediate pressure of : where P; = Maximum pressure, and P2 = Minimum pressure. he a gas vids (oy B= Ans: d

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