The document consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to steam boilers and turbines, covering definitions, types, functions, and operational characteristics. Key topics include the differences between fire tube and water tube boilers, boiler efficiency, safety devices, and the principles of steam turbine operation. Answers to each question are provided, indicating the correct choice for each query.
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Atd Basic MCQ
The document consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to steam boilers and turbines, covering definitions, types, functions, and operational characteristics. Key topics include the differences between fire tube and water tube boilers, boiler efficiency, safety devices, and the principles of steam turbine operation. Answers to each question are provided, indicating the correct choice for each query.
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1. A closed vessel made of steel and used
for the generation of steam is called a
{a) steam boiler —_(b) steam turbine
{c) steam condenser (d) steam injector
Ans: a
2. The selection of type and size of a steam
boiler depends upon
{a) the power required and working
pressure
(b) the geographical position of the power
house
(0) the fuel and water available
(d) all of the above
Ans:d
3. Ina fire tube boiler, the water is
contained inside the tubes which are
surrounded by flames and hot gases from
outside.
(a) True (b) False
Ans: b
4, In water tube boilers, the water passes
through the tubes which are surrounded
by flames and hot gases.
(a) Yes (b) No
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is a fire tube
boiler?
(a) Lansashire boiler
{b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c) Yarrow boiler
(d) none of these
Ans: a
6. Fire tube boilers are limited toa
maximum working pressure of
(2) 0.17MN/m? (b) .7MN/m?
(c) 17MIN/m? (a) 170 MN/m?
Ans: b
7. Which of the following is a water tube
boiler?
(a) Lancashire boiler
(b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
{c) Locomotive boiler
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ATD MCQ Session -1
(d) Cochran boiler
Ans: b
8. When the circulation of water, ina
boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the
boiler is know
{a) internally fired boiler
(b) externally fired boiler
(0) natural circulation boiler
(d) forced circulation boiler
Ans: d
9. Fire tube boilers are
{a) internally fired
(b) externally fired
(c) internally as well as externally fired
(d) none of these
Ans: a
10. Water tube boilers are
{a) internally fired
(b) internally as well as externally fired
(0) externally fired
(d) none of these
Ans: b
11. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made
hemispherical
{a) to give maximum space and strength
(b) to withstand the pressure of steam
inside the boiler
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: ¢
12. Lancashire boiler is
{a) stationary fire tube boiler
(b) internally fired boiler
(0) horizontal boiler
(d) all of these
Ans: d
13. For the same diameter and thickness of
tube, a water tube boiler has....
heating surface as compared to fire tube
boiler.
(a) More (b) less (c) equal
Ans:
14. Which of the following statement
dicates the difference between Cornish
boiler and Lancashire boiler?[Link]
ATD MCQ Session -1
{a) Cornish boiler is a water tube boiler
whereas Lancashire boiler is a fire tube
boiler.
(b) Cornish boiler is a fire tube boiler
Whereas Lancashire boiler is a water tube
boiler:
(c) Cornish boiler has one flue tube whereas
Lancashire boiler has two flue tubes.
(d) Cornish boiler has two flue tubes
Whereas Lancashire boiler has one flue
tube.
Ans: ¢
15. Locomotive boiler is a
(a) single tube, horizontal, internally fired
and stationary boiler
(b) single tube, vertical, externally fired and
stationary boiler
(c) multitubular, horizontal, internally fired
and mobile boiler
{d) multitubular, horizontal, externally fired
and stationary boiler
Ans: ¢
16. The Locomotive boiler has
(2) 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes
(b) 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes
(c) 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes
(d) 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes
Ans: ¢
17. The maximum steam pressure in a
Locomotive boiler is limited to
{a)0.18MN/m2 —— (b) 1.8 MN/m?
(c) 18 MN/m? (d) 180 MN/m?
Ans: b
18. The water tube boilers produce steam
at a.......pressure than that of fire tube
boilers.
(a) lower {b) higher
Ans: b
19. Benson boiler requires
{a) no drum (b) one drum
(c) two drums (d) three drums
Ans: a
20. The average operating pressure of
Benson boiler is
(a) 100 bar (b) 150 bar
(c) 200 bar
Ans: d
21. The rate of steam produced in Benson
boiler is
{a) 100 tonnes/h
() 175 tonnes/h
Ans: b
22. Which of the following boiler is best
suited to meet the fluctuating demand of
steam?
(a) Locomotive boiler
(b) Lancashire boiler
(0) Cornish boiler
(d) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Ans: a
23. The fittings mounted on the boiler for
its proper and safe functioning is a
(a) water level indicator
(b) pressure gauge
(0) safety valve
(d) all of these
Ans: d
24. Which of the following is not a boiler
mounting?
{a) Blow off cock
(0) Economiser
Ans:
25. The device attached to the steam chest
for preventing explosions due to excessive
internal pressure of steam is called
{a) safety valve(b) water level indicator
(c) pressure gauge
(4) fusible plug
Ans: a
26. The number of water level indicators in
a boiler are generally,
number.
(d) 250 bar
(b) 135 tonnes/h
(d) 250 tonnes/h
(b) Feed check valve
(d) Fusible plug
(a) one (b) two.
(c) three (d) four
Ans: b
27. The function of a safety valve is,
(a) to blow off steam when the pressure of
steam inside the boiler exceeds the working
pressureGS)
Make
(b) to indicate the water level inside the
boiler to an observer
(c) to measure pressure of steam inside the
steam boiler
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
28. A safety valve mainly used with
locomotive and marine boilers is
{a) lever safety valve
(b) dead weight safety valve
(¢) high steam and low water safety valve
(d) spring loaded safety valve
Ans: d
29, The principal function of a stop valve is
to
{a) contro! the flow of steam from the boiler
to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required
{b) empty the boiler when required and to
discharge the mud, scale or sediments
Which are accumulated at the bottom of the
boiler
(c) put off fire in the furnace of the boiler
When the level of water in the boiler falls to
an unsafe limit
(d) increase the temperature of saturated
steam without raising its pressure
Ans: a
30. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to
{a) control the flow of steam from the boiler
to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required
(b) empty the boiler when required and to
discharge the mud, scale or sediments
which are accumulated at the bottom of the
boiler
(0) put off fire in the furnace of the boiler
When the level of water in the boiler falls to
an unsafe limit
(d) increase the temperature of saturated
steam without raising its pressure
Ans: b
31. Assoun in a boiler is used to put off fire
in the furnace of the boiler when the level
of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe
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(a) blow off cock
(b) fusible plug
(c) stop valve (a) safety
valve
Ans: b
32. A valve installed between the boiler
and the feed pump is
(a) blow off cock ——_(b) feed check valve
(c) steam stop valve (d) none of these
Ans: b
33. A device used to heat feed water by
utilising the heat in the exhaust flue gases
before leaving through the chimney, is
known as
{a) economizer (b) fusible plug
(c) superheater
Ansia
(d) stop valve
34. An economiser is generally placed
between
{a) last superheater or reheater and air
preheater
(b) induced draft fan and forced draft fan
(0) air preheater and chimney
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
35. An economiser is installed in a boiler
primarily to
(a) superheat the steam
(b) reduce fuel consumption
(c) increase steam pressure
(d) all of these
Ans: b
36. The performance of a boiler is
measured by the
(a) amount of water evaporated per hour
(b) steam produced in kg/h
(c) steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
(d) all of these
Ans: dGe)
STEAMIBOMERS continued
1. In order to compare the capacity of
boilers, the feed water temperature and
working pressure are taken as
(a) 50° Cand normal atmospheric pressure
(b)S0°C and 1.1 bar pressure
(c) 100° C and normal atmospheric pressure
(d) 100°C and 1.1 bar pressure
Ans: ¢
2. The equivalent evaporation is defined as
(a) the ratio of heat actually used in
producing the steam to the heat liberated
in the furnace
(b) the amount of water evaporated: or
steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
(c) the amount of water evaporated from
‘and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam
(d) the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water
per hour from and at 100 C
Ans:¢
3, The ratio of heat actually used in
producing the steam to the heat liberated
In the furnace, Is known as
{a) equivalent evaporation
(b) factor of evaporation
(c) boiler efficiency
(d) power of a boiler
Ans: ¢
4. The power of a boiler may be defined as
(a) the ratio of heat actually used in
producing the steam to the heat liberated
in the furnace
(b) the amount of water evaporated or
steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
(c) the amount of water evaporated from
and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam
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(d) the evaporation of 15.653 kg of water
per hour from and at 100° C
Al
5. The amount of water evaporated from
feed water at.....into dry and saturated
steam at 100° C at normal atmospheric
pressure is called equivalent evaporation
from and at 100°
(a) ore
(b) a0"c
(Q) 60°C
(6) 100°C
Ansid
6. When the total heat of steam is h ki/ke
and the sensible heat of feed water is hn
ki/kg, then the factor of evaporation is
given by
(a) h-hy,/2257
(b) n+ hy/2257
(c)h x hy/2257
(d) none of these
Ans:a
7. The factor of evaporation for all boilers
is always
(2) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) greater than unity
Ans: ¢
8. The boiler efficiency is given by
mpc
bse)
mye
acer)
ms(h= pn)
mpc
{c)
g(t hips)
mpc
{d)
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Ans: ¢
9. In a boiler, the heat is lost
(a) to dry flue gases
(b) in moisture present in the fuel
() to steam formed by combustion of
hydrogen per kg of fuel
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
10. The maximum heat loss is a boiler
occurs due to
(a) moisture in fuel
(b) dry flue gases
(c) steam formation
(d) unburnt carbon
Ans: b
11. The draught is the .
above and below the fire grate.
pressures
{a) sum
(b) difference
Ans: b
12. The object of producing draught in a
boiler is
(a) to provide an adequate supply of air for
the fuel combustion
(a} to exhaust the gases of combustion from
the combustion chamber
(c) to discharge the gases of combustion to
the atmosphere through the chimney
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
13. The draught may be produced by a
(a) mechanical fan
(b) chimney
(c)asteam jet
(4) all of these
Ans: d
14, A draught produced by a chimney due
to the difference of densities between the
hot gases inside the chimney and cold
atmospheric air outside it, is called natural
draught.
{a} Yes
(b) No
Ans:a
15. The draught in locomotive boilers is
produced by 2
(a) chimney
(b) centrifugal fan
(c) steam jet
(d) none of these
An:
16. The draught produced by a steam jet
issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney
iscalled
(a) induced steam jet draught
(b) chimney draught
(c) forced steam jet draught
(d) none of these
Ansia
17. The draught produced by a steam jet
issuing from a nozzle placed in the ashpit
under the grate of the furnace is called
(a) induced steam jet draught
(b) forced steam jet draught
(b) chimney draught
(d) none of these
An
18. The natural draught is produced by
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(b) centrifugal fan Ans.c
(c) chimney
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: ¢
19. The arti
produced by
(a) steam jet
(b) centrifugal fa
{c) chimney
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: d
20. For maximum discharge through a
chimney, the condition is that height of hot
gas column producing the draught should
be
(a) one-half the height of chimney
(b) equal to the height of chimney
(c) two times the height of chimney
(d) four times the height of
Ans: b
21. The action of steam in a steam turbine
is
ney
{a) static
(b) dynamic
(c) static and dynamic
(d) neither static nor dynamic
Ans. b
22. The turbine blades are
(a) straight
(b) circular
(c) curved
23. The turbine blades do not change the
direction of steam issuing from the nozzle.
{a) True
(b) False
Ans. b
24. Which of the following statement is
correct for steam turbines as compared to
reciprocating steam engines?
{a} A steam turbine develops higher speeds,
(b) The efficiency of steam turbine is higher
(c) The steam consumption is less.
(¢) all of these
Ans.d
25. In an impulse turbine, steam expands
(a) wholly in blades
(b) wholly in nozzle
(c) partly in the nozzle and partly in blades
(¢) none of these
Ans. b
26. De-Laval turbine isa
() simple impulse turbine
(b) simple reaction turbine
(c) impulse-reaction turbine
(d) none of these
Ans.a
27. De-Laval turbine isa
(a) single rotor impulse turbine
(b) multi-rotor impulse turbine
(c) impulse reaction turbine
(d) none of these
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THE
Make
28 De-Laval turbines are mostly used
{a) where low speeds are required
(b) for small power purposes and low
speeds
(c) for large power purposes
(d) for small power purposes and high
speeds
Ans. d
29. In an ideal impulse turbine, the
(a) absolute velocity at the inlet of moving
blade is equal to that at the outlet
(b) relative velocity at the inlet of the
moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
(c) axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at
the outlet
(d) whirl vel
the outlet
at inlet is equal to that at
Ans. b
30. The blade friction in the impulse
turbine reduces the velocity of steam
while it passes over the
(a) 10 to 15%
(c) 20 to 30%
(b) 15 to 20%
(d} 30 to. 40%
Ans.a
31. In impulse turbines, when friction is
neglected, the relative velocity of steam at
outlet tip of the blade is... the relative
velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) greater than
Ans.a
32. A single stage turbine is not used
because it requires large reduction gearing
due to very high rotational speed.
(2) Agree
(b) Disagree
Ans.a
33. In a reaction turbine
the
nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before
the moving blades
(a) the steam is allowed to expand
(b) the expansion of steam takes place
partly in the fixed blades and partly in the
moving blades
(c) the steam is expanded from a high
Pressure to a condenser pressure in one or
more nozzles
(d) the pressure and temperature of steam
remains constant
Ans. b
34, Parson's turbine is a
(2) simple impulse turbine
{b) simple reaction turbine
(c) impulse-reaction turbine
(d) none of these
Ans. b
35. The pressure of steam, in reaction
turbines, is reduced in the fixed blades as
‘well as in moving blades.
{a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
Ans. a
36. The velocity of steam, in reaction
turbines, is increased in the fixed blades as
‘well as in moving blades.
(a) True (b) False
Ans. b
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SEESATUTBINE continucd..
1. An impulse turbine as compared to a
reaction turbine, for a given power
has.....tow of blades.
(a) equal
(b) less
(c) more
Ans.c
2. A stage, in reaction turbine, is
represented by
(a) number of casing
(b) number of entries of steam
(c) number of exits of steam
(d) each row of blades
Ans. d
3. The expansion of steam, as it flows over
the blades in reaction turbine, represents
(a) isothermal process
(b) isentropic process
(c) throttling process
(d) free-expansion process
Ans. b
4. Parson's reaction turbine is a.... reaction
turbine.
(a) 40 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 60 percent
(a) 70 percent
Ans. b
5. In areaction turbine, when steam flows
through the fixed blades,
(a) pressure increases while velocity
decreases
(b) pressure decreases while velocity
increases
(c) pressure and velocity both decreases
(d) pressure and velocity both increases
Ans. b
6. Ina reaction turbine, when steam flows
‘through the moving blades,
{a) pressure increases while velocity
decreases
(b) pressure decreases while velocity
increases
(c) pressure and velocity both decreases
(d) pressure and velocity both increases
Ans.c
7. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(a) The efficiency of steam turbines is
greater than steam engines.
(b) A flywheel is a must for steam turbine.
(c) The turbine blades do not change the
direction of steam issuing from the nozzle
(d) The pressure of steam, in reaction
turbines, is increased in fixed blades as well
as in moving blades
Ans. a
8, Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio
of
{a) heat drop in fixed blades to the heat
drop in moving blades
(b) heat drop in moving blades to the heat
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(c) heat drop in moving blades to the heat
drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in
moving blades
(c) heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop
in moving blades to the heat drop in moving.
blades
Ans. ¢
9. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving,
blade is two-third of the isentropic
enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine.
‘The degree of reaction will be
(a)04
(b) 0.56
(0.67
(d) 1.67
Ans. a
10. Ina reaction turbine when the degree
of reaction is zero, then there is
(a) no-heat drop in moving blades
(b) no heat drop in fixed blades
(c) maximum heat drop in moving blades
(a) maximum heat drop in fixed blades
Ans.a
11. The ratio of the workdone on the
blades to the energy supplied to the
blades, is called
(a) blading efficiency
(b) nozzle efficiency
(c) gross or stage efficiency
(d) mechanical efficiency
Ans.a
12. The ratio of the workdone on the
blades per kg of steam to the total energy
supplied per stage per kg of steam is called
(a) blading efficiency
(b) nozzle efficiency
{c) stage efficiency
(d) mechanical efficiency
Ans. c
13. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is.
maximum when
(a) Vp = 0.5 Veosar
(b) Ve =V cosa.
(c) Vb = 0.5V’cosa
(a) Vi = V'cose.
Ans.a
14. The efficiency of reaction turbi
maximum when
(a) Vp = 0.5 Veosa
(b) Vp=V cosa
{c) Vp = 0.5V’coser
(a) Vp=Vcosa
Where, a= Angle made by the absolute
velocity (V) at inlet.
Ans. b
Q1. The compressed air may be used
(2) in gas turbine plants
(b) for operating pneumatic drills
(c) in starting and supercharging of I,
engines
(@) all of the above
Ans:d
2. The ratio of the discharge pressure to
the inlet pressure of air is called
(a) compression ratio
(b) expansion ratio
(c) compressor efficiency
(a) volumetric efficiency
Ans: a
3. The absolute pressure of air at the
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(a) back pressure
(b) critical pressure
(c) discharge pressure
(d) none of these
Ans: ¢
Q4. The inlet pressure is always.
discharge pressure.
{a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
Ans: b
Q5. The compression ratio for the
compressor is alWAYS....ee UNIY.
{a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
Ans:¢
Q6. The volume of air delivered by the
compressor is called
(a) free air delivery
(b) compressor capacity
{c) swept volume
(d) none of these
Ans: b
Q7. The capacity of a compressor is
expressed in
(a) kg/m?
(b) ke/m_
(c) m/min
(d) m°/kg.
Ans: ¢
Q8. The compressor capacity is defined as
the
(a) actual volume of the air delivered by the
compressor when reduced to normal
temperature and pressure conditions
(b) volume of air delivered by the
compressor
(c) volume of air sucked by the compressor
during its suction stroke
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
Q9. In air compressors, free air delivery
means the
(a) actual volume of the air delivered by the
compressor when reduced to normal
‘temperature and pressure conditions
(b) volume of air delivered by the
compressor
(c} volume of air sucked by the compressor
during in suction stroke
(d) none of the above
Ans:a
Q10. Standard air is the air at.
relative humidity of 36 percent
{a) 0.1 bar and 20 C
(b) 1 bar and 20°C
(00.1 bar and 40°C
(4) 1 bar and 40°C
Ans: b
Q11.1na double acting compressor, the air
is compressed
(a) in one cylinder
(b) in two cylinders
(c) ina single cylinder on both sides of the
piston
(2) in two cylinders on both sides of the
piston
Ans:
Q12. The pressure of air at the beginning
of the compression stroke is....uu. the
atmospheric pressure.
{a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
Ans: b
Q13. A 3 m*/min compressor means that it
(a) compresses 3m°/min of standard air
(b) compresses 3m°/min of free air
(c) delivers 3m*/ min of compressed air
(a) delivers 3 m/min of compressed air at
delivery pressure
Ans: bEBRBIEEBEE continued...
Qi. When the temperature of air leaving
the intercooler, in a two stage compression
with inter-cooler, is the original
atmospheri
intercooling is
intercooling.
{a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
Ans: a
Q2. —Intercooling in
compressors is done
(a) to cool the air during compres
(b) to cool the air at delivery
(c) to enable compression in two stages
(d) to minimise the work of compression
Ans: d
Q3. The intercooler pressure, for minimum
work required, for a two stage
reciprocating air compressor, is given by
air temperature, then the
perfect
known as
3/P1
pr = Intake pressure of air, p2= Intercooler
pressure, and ps = Delivery pressure of air.
Ans: ¢
Q4. The minimum work required for a
‘two stage reciprocating air compressor is
5 4 a fae
on™ ey on ( 4
{(¢) 2% Work recuired foreach stage (@) allofthese
Ans: d
Q5, The minimum work required for a
three stage reciprocating air compressor
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the work required for each
stage
{a) equal to
(b) double
(c) three times
(4) six times
Ans: ¢
Q6. A large clearance volume in a
reciprocating compressor results
(a) reduced volume flow rate
(b) increased volume flow rate
(c) lower suction pressure
(2) lower delivery pressure
Ans: a
Q7. In a reciprocating air compressor, the
compression work per kg of
(a) increases as clearance volume increases
(b) decreases as clearance volume increases
(0) is independent of clearance volume
(4) increases as clearance volume decreases
Ans: ¢
Q8. The performance of air compressor at
high altitudes will be .... as compared to
that at sea level
(a) same
{b) lower
(c) higher
(d) unpredictable
Ans: b
Q9. For minimum work required to
compress and deliver a quantity of air by
multi-stage compression,
(a) the compression ratio in each stage
should be same
(b) the intercooling should be perfect
(c) the workdone in each stage should be
same
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
Q10. For perfect intercooling in a three
stage compressor,
wpa e
(a) 22 = 23 = 2
(lit p2 ps
@
ATD MCQ Session -4 Matvs
2
PaPe
(d) pi ps=P2 Ps
Ans: a
Qll. If the clearance ratio for a
reciprocating air compressor is ‘K’, then its
volumetric ef ncy is given by
(a) 1-K+K (ps/pa)/"
(b) 144-K (p2/p1)""
(c) 1-K+K (p:/p2)"™
(d) 14K-K (p2/p,)""""
Ans: b
Q12. The volumetric efficiency for
reciprocating air compressors is about
(a) 10 to 40%
(b) 40 to 60%
{c) 60 to 70% 87
{d) 70 to 90%
Ans: d
Q13. The reason for volumetric efficiency
of reciprocating compressor being less
than 100 percent
{a) pressure drop across the valves
(b) superheating in compressor
(c) clearance volume and leakages
(d) all of these
Ans: d
Q14. A rotary compressor is driven by an
(a) electric motor
(b) engine
(c) either (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans: ¢
Q15. The type of rotary compressor used in
aeroplanes, is of
{a) centrifugal type
(b) axial flow type
(c) radial flow type
(d) none of these
Ans: b
Q16. The type of rotary compressor used in
gas turbines, is of
[Link]
ATD MCQ Session -4
(a) centrifugal type
(b) axial flow type
(c) radial flow type
(d) none of these
Ans: b
Q17. Rotary compressors are used for
delivering
{a) small quantities of air at high pressures
(b) large quantities of air at high pressures
(c) small quantities of air at low pressures
(4) large quantities of air at low pressures
Ans: d
Q1. Gas turbine as compared to steam
turbine
(a) requires less space for installation
(b)_ has compressor and combustion
chamber
(c) has less efficiency
(4) all of these
Ans:
Q2. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a
(a) compressor
(b) heating chamber
(c) cooling chamber
(¢) all of these
Ai
Q3. In a closed cycle gas turbine, the ai
compressed
{a) isothermally
(b) polytropically
(0) isentropically
(d) none of these
Ans:¢
Q4. The constant pressure gas turbine
works on the
{a) rankine cycle
(b) bell- coleman cycle
(c) carnot cycle
(d) brayton cycleefficiency as compared to an open cycle
gas turbine
(a) same
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) none of these
Ans:¢
Q6. The overall thermal efficiency of an
ideal gas turbine plant is
(a) 4)
(b) 0)
(ove
(qd) aie)
Ans:¢
Q7. The ri of the net work obtained
from the gas turbine plant to the turbine
work is known as
(a) compression ratio
(b) work ratio
(c) pressure ratio
(d) none of these
Ans: b
Q8. In a gas turbine cycle with
regeneration
(a) pressure ratio increases
(b) work output decreases:
(c) thermal efficiency increases
(d) heat input increases
Ans: ¢
Q9. Reheating in a gas turbine
(a) increases the thermal efficiency
(b) increases the compressor work
(c) increases the turbine work
(d) decreases the thermal efficiency
Ans: ¢
Q10. Reheating in a multi-stage expansion
gas turbine..............compressor work.
{a) has no effect on
(b) decreases
(c) increases
Ans: b
[Link]
ATD MCQ Session -4
Q11. A regenerator in a gas turbine
improves thermal efficiency.
{a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
Ans: a
Q12. The compression ratio
turbine is
fa) 4
(b)7
(9
(¢)12
Ans:
Q13. For maximum work, the reheating
should be done to an intermediate
pressure of :
where P; = Maximum pressure, and P2 =
Minimum pressure.
he
a gas
vids
(oy B=
Ans: d