26-06-2024

DISTANCE 7601CMD30355124001
LEARNING PROGRAMME MD
01.09.2024

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If the units of length, velocity and force are halved, then the unit of power will be :-

(1) doubled
(2) halved
(3) quadrupled
(4) remain unaffected

2) In a certain system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s. The
unit of kinetic energy will be

(1) 0.1 erg

(2) 1 erg
(3) 10 erg
(4) None of these

3) Newton/metre2 is the unit of :-

(1) Energy
(2) Momentum
(3) Force
(4) Pressure

4) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

5) Which of the following is dimensionally correct

(1) Pressure = Energy per unit area

(2) Pressure = Energy per unit volume
(3) Pressure = Force per unit volume
(4) Pressure = Momentum per unit volume per unit time

6) If P & Q have two different non-zero dimensions, which of the following operation is possible ?
(1) P + Q
(2) PQ
(3) P – Q
1-
(4)

7) If P = where P is pressure and t is time are constant find dimension of :-

(1) [ML–1]
(2) [ML–1T–1]
(3) [M–1LT]
(4) Information is insufficient

8) If area (A), velocity (v) and denisty ( ) are taken as fundamental units, what is the dimensional
formula for force?

(1) [Av2 ]
(2) [A2 v ]
(3) [Av 2]
(4) [Av ]

9) A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as follows: x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B and
C are constants. Which of the following do not have the same dimensions ?

(1) x and B
(2) C and z–1
(3) y and B/A
(4) x and A

10) Young modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed in CGS units of dyne/cm2, it will be
equal to :-

(1) 1.9 × 1010

(2) 1.9 × 1011
(3) 1.9 × 1012
(4) 1.9 × 1013

11) The velocity of water waves v may depend upon their wavelength , the density of water and
the acceleration due to gravity g. The method of dimensions gives the relation between these
quantities as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Which one of the following quantities has dimensions different from the remaining three

(1) Energy per unit volume

(2) Force per unit area
(3) Product of voltage and charge per unit volume
(4) Angular momentum per unit mass

13) If the energy (E), velocity (v) and force (F) be taken as the fundamental quantity, then the
dimensions of mass will be :-

(1) Fv–2
(2) Fv–1
(3) Ev–2
(4) Ev2

14) The equation constant. The units of a are :

(1) dyne × cm5

(2) dyne × cm4
(3) dyne / cm3
(4) dyne / cm2

15) he position of a particle at time t is given by the relation , where v0 is a

constant and > 0. The dimensions of v2 and a are respectively

0
(1) M L1T–1 and T–1
0 0
(2) M L1T and T–1
0
(3) M L1T–1 and LT–2
0
(4) M L1T–1 and T

16) The function f is given by f = Asin x + Bcos t, where x is displacement and t is time. The

dimension of is :-

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M1L T–1]
0
(3) [M L–1T]
0
(4) [M L1T–1]

17) In a system of units if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units
then the dimensional formula of energy is :-
(1) FA2T
(2) FAT2
(3) F2AT
(4) FAT

18) If mass 'M' time 'T' and energy 'E' are taken to be fundamental quantity, then dimensional
formula for length is :-

(1) ME2T2
(2) EM–2T–2
(3)
(4)

19) If x = then :

(1) the dimensions of x and a are same

(2) dimensions of a and b are not same
(3) x is dimensionless
(4) dimension of x is [MLT–1]

20) Dimensional formula of planck's constant is similar to:

(1) torque
(2) work
(3) pressure
(4) angular momentum

21) Solar constant is defined as energy received by earth per cm2 per minute find the dimensions of
solar constant :

(1) [ML2T–2]
0
(2) [M2L T–1]
(3) [ML1T–3]
(4) [ML1T–2]

22) The van der walls' equation of state for some gases can be expressed as :

Where P is the pressure, V the molar volume and T is the absolute temperature of the given sample
of gas, a, b and R constants. The dimensions of 'a' are :-

(1) [ML5T–2]
(2) [ML-1T–2]
(3) [L3]
(4) [L6]

23) Given that T stands for time period and l stands for the length of simple pendulum. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity, then which of the following statements about the relation T2 = (l/g) is
correct ?

(1) It is correct both dimensionally as well as numerically

(2) It is neither dimensionally correct nor numerically
(3) It is dimensionally correct but not numerically
(4) It is numerically correct but not dimentsionally

24)

Column -I Column -II

Gravitational
(i) (p) M1L1T-1
constant ' G '

(ii) Torque (q) M-1L3T-2

(iii) Linear momentum (r) M1L-1T-2

(iv) Pressure (s) M1L2T-2

The correct match is :-
(1) (i)-(r) (ii)-(p) (iii)-(s) (iv)-(q)
(2) (i)-(q) (ii)-(s) (iii)-(p) (iv)-(r)
(3) (i)-(q) (ii)-(p) (iii)-(r) (iv)-(s)
(4) (i)-(p) (ii)-(r) (iii)-(s) (iv)-(q)

25) Measure of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01 s
The value of AB will be

(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m

(2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m
(4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m

26) The position of a particle moving along a straight line is given by x = (1–e–At) where B is

constant and A > 0. The dimensions of is same as

(1) linear momentum

(2) moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity
(4) acceleration

27) In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is

(1) 0.036
(2) 0.36
(3) 3.6
(4) 36

28) The equation of the stationary wave is :-

y = 2A
Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) The unit of ct is same as that of

(2) The unit of x is same as that of

(3) The unit of is same as that of

(4)
The unit of is same as that of

29) E,m, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively,

then the dimension of are same as that of

(1) Angle
(2) Length
(3) Mass
(4) Time

0
30) The quantity : e is the permittivity of free space, L is length, V is potential
difference and t is time. The dimensions of X are same as that of

(1) Resistance
(2) Charge
(3) Voltage
(4) Current

31) Given that

where a = constant, Using dimensional analysis, the value of n is :-

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) -1
(4) None of these

32) If the velocity of light C, Plank's constant h and gravitation constant G are taken as fundamental
units of system, the dimensions of force in the system would be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) The mass 'm' of the heaviest stone which can be displaced by flowing river water depends on the
velocity 'v' of flow of water, density 'r' of water and acceleration due to gravity 'g'. If mass 'm' of the
stone is directly proportional to nth power of velocity of flow, then what is the value of 'n' :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

34) The time period of a simple pendulum is given by . In an experiment, the length of the
pendulum is increased by 1%, while the acceleration due to gravity is also increased by 2%. The time
period will

(1) increase by 0.5%

(2) decrease by 0.5%
(3) increase by 1%
(4) decrease by 1%

35) A screw gauge has a screw having 2 threads in 1 mm. The circular scale has 50 divisions. Find
the diameter of wire, if the main scale shows 6th division and the vernier reads 46.

(1) 6.46 mm
(2) 3.46 mm
(3) 6.54 mm
(4) 3.04 mm

SECTION-B

1) A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillates with a period proportional of PadbEc where
P is the static pressure, d is the density of water and E is the energy of explosion. Then a, b and c
are :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 1, 1, 1

2) Match the physical quantites given in column I with dimensions in column II :-

Collumn I Collumn II

a Torque p ML2T-1

Angular 0
b q M L2T-2
momentum
0 0
c Latent heat r M L T1
0 0
d Surface tension s M LT

e Light year t ML2T-2

0
u ML T-2
(1) a – t, b – p, c – q, d – u, e – s
(2) a – q, b – r, c – p, d – t, e – s
(3) a – q, b – p, c – t, d – r, e – s
(4) a – t, b – s, c – q, d – p, e – r

3) The speed of light (c) , gravitational constant (G) and Planck's constant (h) are taken as the
fundamental units in a system. The dimension of time in this new system should be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The dimensions of , where e, , h and c are electronic charge, electric permittivity,

Planck's constant and velocity of light in vacuum respectively

0 0 0
(1) M L T
0 0
(2) M1L T
0 0
(3) M L1T
0 0
(4) M L T1

5)

The circular divisions of shown screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one rotation.
The diameter of the ball is
(1) 2.25 mm
(2) 2.20 mm
(3) 1.20 mm
(4) 1.25 mm

6) A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of its density is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) A vernier callipers having 1 main scale division = 0.1 cm is designed to have a least count of 0.02
cm. If n be the number of divisions on vernier scale and m be the length of vernier scale, then

(1) n=10, m=0.5 cm

(2) n=9, m=0.4 cm
(3) n=10, m=0.8 cm
(4) n=10 , m=0.2 cm

8) In certain vernier callipers 25 divisions on vernier scale have same length as 24 divisions on main
scale. One division on main scale is 1mm long. The least count of the instrument is

(1) 0.04 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.02 mm
(4) 0.08 mm

9) The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
measured to be 25 seconds. The percentage error in the time period is

(1) 16%
(2) 0.8%
(3) 1.8%
(4) 8%

10) Two full turns of the circular scale of gauge cover a diastance of 1 mm on scale. The total
number of divisions on circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that screw gauge has a zero error of
-0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire a student notes the main scale reading of 4
mm and the number of circular scale division in line, with the main scale as 40. The diameter of the
wire is
(1) 4.42 mm
(2) 4.83 mm
(3) 4.77 mm
(4) 4.88 mm

11) Two resistance are measured in ohm and is given as:-

R1 = 3 ± 1%
R2 = 6 ± 2%
When they are connected in parallel, the percentage error in equivalent resistance is

(1) 3%
(2) 4.5%
(3) 0.67%
(4) 1.33%

12) The relative density of a metal may be found by hanging a block of the metal from a spring
balance and noting that in air the balance reads (5 ± 0.05) N while in water it reads (4 ± 0.05)N.
The relative density would be quoted as:

(1) (5 ± 0.05)
(2) 5 ± 11%
(3) (5 ± 0.10)
(4) 5 ± 6%

13) The percentage error in measurement of a physical quantity m given by is minimum

when
(Assume that error in remain constant)

(1) = 45°
(2) = 90°
(3) = 60°
(4) = 30°

14) Which of the following is true for backlash error :-

(1) If can be compensate by measuring the object in ascending order of their sizes
(2) If can be compensate by measuring the object in descending order of their sizes
It can be compensated by measuring the objects either in ascending or descending order of
(3)
their sizes
It is not possible to be compensated by measuring the objects either in ascending or descending
(4)
order of their sizes, since it is a random error.

15) The length of a simple pendulum is about 100 cm known to an accuracy of 2 mm. Its period of
oscillation is 2 s determined by measuring the time for 500 oscillations using a clock of 1 s
resolution. What is the accuracy in the determined value of g?

(1) 0.1 %
(2) 0.2 %
(3) 0.4 %
(4) 0.5 %

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) 50g of CaCO3 on complete decomposition gives how much volume of gas at STP ? CaCO3(s) —→
CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 5.6 L
(4) 1 L

2) Equal moles of SO2 and O2 reacts to form SO3 which one is the limiting reactant :-

(1) SO2
(2) O2
(3) SO3
(4) None of these

3) The volume of CO2 liberated at STP. When 50 g of 80% impure CaCO3 is heated completely is :-

(1) 8.96 L
(2) 1.8 L
(3) 18 L
(4) 20.16 L

4) The number of electrons present in 1·8 ml of H2O is (d = 1gm/ml) :–

(1) 6·02 × 1023

(2) 6·02 × 1024
(3) 6·02 × 1022
(4) 6·02 × 1025

5) An enzyme peroxidase has 5% by weight of sulphur (S = 32) its minimum molecular weight will
be–

(1) 320
(2) 640
(3) 1280
(4) 480
6) Vapour density of gas is 11.2 volume occupied by 2.4g of this at STP will be :-

(1) 11.21L
(2) 2.24L
(3) 22.4L
(4) 2.4L

7) Determine moles present in 3.9 g Benzene :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.05
(3) 2
(4) 1

8) How many atoms are contained in a mole of Ca(OH)2 ?

(1) 30 × 6.02 ×1023 atoms/mol

(2) 5 × 6.02 ×1023 atoms/mol
(3) 6 × 6.02 × 1023 atoms/mol
(4) None of the above

9) Which of the following contains maximum number of atom?

(1) molecules of CO2

(2) 22.4 L CO2 gas at STP
(3) 0.44 gm of CO2
(4) 0.001 moles of CO2

10) Weight of a carbon sample is 1.2 × 10–3 g. Calculate no. of carbon atom present in this sample
[NA = 6 × 1023] [Atomic mass of C = 12]

(1) 10–4
(2) 6 × 1019
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 6 × 1025

11) The number of molecules present in a drop of water if its volume is 0.05 ml

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) In empirical formula of a compound is CH. Its molar mass is 78. The molecular formula of the
compound will be [Atomic mass C = 12, H = 1]:
(1) C2H2
(2) C3H3
(3) C4H4
(4) C6H6

13) Which has maximum number of atoms

(1) 24 g of C
(2) 56 g of Fe (56)
(3) 27 g of Al (27)
(4) 108 g Ag (108)

14) 11.2 cm3 of hydrogen gas at STP, contains _______moles

(1) 0.0005
(2) 0.01
(3) 0.029
(4) 0.5

15) The hydrocarbon contains 79.87% carbon and 20.13% of hydrogen. What is its empirical formula
?

(1) CH
(2) CH2
(3) CH3
(4) C2H5

16) 2.7g of Al react with 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3

(1) 8g O2
(2) 2.4g O2
(3) 9g O2
(4) 4g O2

17) The mass of 1 molecule of hydrogen is approximately:

(1) 1.66 × 10–24 g

(2) 3.3 × 10–24 g
(3) 3g
(4) 0.8 × 10–24 g

18) Morden atomic weight scale is based on :

(1) H–1
(2) C–12
(3) C–14
(4) C–16

19) For the reaction 2P + Q → R. 8 moles of P and 5 moles of Q will produce :

(1) 8 moles of R
(2) 5 moles of R
(3) 4 moles of R
(4) 13 moles of R

20) A hydrocarbon contain 80% C and the vapour density of compound is 30, the molecular formula
of compound is :-

(1) CH3
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H12
(4) CH4

21) How many grams of CaO will be produced on the decomposition of 20 g of CaCO3 : CaCO3 → CaO
+ CO2

(1) 1.12 g
(2) 4.48 g
(3) 11.2 g
(4) 56 g

22) Which is an example of the law of multiple proportionals :

(1) CO & CH4

(2) CO & CO2
(3) CO & C2H4
(4) CO2 & C2H4

23) At same temperature and pressure, calculate the ratio of moles of CO2 and CH4 in same volume :-

(1) 3 : 5
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

24) Volume of O2 require at STP to burn 10 litre methane will be :-

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

(1) 10 lit.
(2) 20 lit.
(3) 40 lit.
(4) 30 lit.

25) Rearrange the following in the order of increasing masses:

(i) 0.5 mole of O3
(ii) 0.5 gm atom of oxygen
(iii) 3.011 × 1023 molecules of O2
(iv) 5.6 litre of CO2 at STP

(1) ii > iv > iii > i

(2) ii < iv < iii < i
(3) i < iii < ii < iv
(4) i > iii > ii > iv

26) The chloride of a metal contains 71% chlorine by weight and the vapour density of it is 50. The
atomic weight of the metal will be:

(1) 29
(2) 58
(3) 35.5
(4) 71

27) A compound contains 54.55% cabon, 9.09% hydrogen and 36.36% oxygen. The empirical formula
of this compound is-

(1) C3H5O
(2) C4H8O2
(3) C2H4O2
(4) C2H4O

28) The hydrated salt Na2SO4.nH2O undergoes 50.3% loss in weight on heating and beome
anhydrous. The value of n will be:

(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 10

29) The mass of carbon present in 0.5 mole of K4[Fe(CN)6] is -

(1) 1.8 gm
(2) 18 gm
(3) 3.6 gm
(4) 36 gm

30) 20 mL of CO2 gas are passed over excess of red hot coke the volume of CO evolved is :
CO2(g) + C(s) → 2CO(g)
(1) 10 mL
(2) 20 mL
(3) 30 mL
(4) 40 mL

31) When gases combine or are produced in a chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by
volume provided all gases are at same temperature and pressure. This law is known as –

(1) Dalton's Law

(2) Gay Lussac's Law
(3) Avogadro's Law
(4) Law of Lavoisier

32) 1 amu is equal to :-

(1)
× mass of one C–12 atom
(2) 1.66 × 10–24 g
(3) 1.66 × 10–27 kg
(4) All

33) 18 g Al will react with (atomic wt. Al = 27) 2Al + O2 → Al2O3 :-

(1) 8 g O2
(2) 26 g O2
(3) 16 g O2
(4) 9 g O2

34) The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively.
What will be the molecular formula of the compound ?

(1) C9H18O9
(2) C6H12O6
(3) CH2O
(4) C2H4O2

35) What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1L of
propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions:-

(1) 5 L
(2) 10 L
(3) 7 L
(4) 6 L

SECTION-B
1)

The volume of gas at NTP produced by precipitation of 63.5 g of Ca2+, according to the
reaction : Cu+2 + H2S → CuS + H2 :-

(1) 22.4 L
(2) 22.4 mL
(3) 11.2 L
(4) 44.8 L

2) Which of the following is incorrect.

The following reaction occurs : (S = 32, Cl = 35.5)

1.0 g of CS2 and 2.0 g of Cl2 reacts.

(1) 0.714 g CS2 is used in the reaction

(2) 0.286 g CS2 is in excess
(3) 1.45 g of CCl4 is formed
(4) 0.8 g Cl2 is in excess

3) One mole of P4 molecules contain :-

(1) 1 molecule
(2) 4 molecules

(3)
× 6.022 × 1023 atoms
(4) 24.088 × 1023 atoms

4) In victor Mayer's method 0.2 g of a volatile compound on volatilisation gave 56 ml of vapour at

STP. Its molecular weight is :

(1) 40
(2) 60
(3) 80
(4) 120

5) If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is halved and mass of electron is doubled, find out
the % change of at wt. of 6C12

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

6) A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. Its vapour density is 140. The value of x must be :-
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 10

7) Assertion : Pure water obtained from different sources such as river, well, sea etc. always
contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 1 : 8 by mass.
Reason : When two elements combine with each other to form two or more than two compounds,
the masses of one of the elements which combine with fixed mass of the other, bear a simple whole
number ratio to one another.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) If Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.

8) Number of atoms present in 128 g SO2 is :-

(1) 2NA
(2) 4NA
(3) 6NA
(4) 3NA

9) Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density =1 gcm–3) is :-

(1) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 ×10–23 cm3
(3) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3

10)

How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g
of HCl ? (Atomic wt. of Pb=207)

(1) 0.011
(2) 0.029
(3) 0.044
(4) 0.333

11) 1 L of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as 1 Lof CO2 under similar conditions. Then the molecular
formula of the hydrocarbon is -

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) C2H4
(4) C3H6

12) Equal mass of oxygen, hydrogen and methane are taken in a container in identical conditions.
What is the ratio of their moles :-

(1) 1 : 16 : 1
(2) 1 : 16 : 2
(3) 8 : 1 : 8
(4) 16 : 1 : 8

13) Which of the following contains maximum number of oxygen atoms ?

(1) 1 g of O
(2) 1 g of O2
(3) 1 g of O3
(4) all have the same number of atoms

14) What is the mass per cent of oxygen in ethanol?

(1) 52.14%
(2) 13.13%
(3) 16%
(4) 34.73%

15) The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of sodium ferrocyanide Na4[Fe(CN)6], is-

(1) 2
(2) 6.023 × 1023
(3) 8 × 6.02 × 1023
(4) 4 × 6.02 × 1023

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Assertion:– The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

Reason:– The biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
2) Humus is degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrient. Occur by the process
known as :-

(1) Decomposition
(2) Humification
(3) Mineralisation
(4) Catabolism

3) The same species belonging to two or more trophic levels can be represented by

(1) Food chain

(2) Food web
(3) Pyramid
(4) Standing crop

4) Which of the following relation is correct regarding GPP and NPP of an ecosystem?

(1) NPP= GPP-Animal respiration

(2) NPP= GPP + Animal respiration
(3) NPP= GPP - Plant respiration
(4) NPP= GPP + Animal respiration

5) Which of the following is man-made ecosystem?

(1) Forest
(2) Pond
(3) Grassland
(4) Cropland

6) Two main structural features of an ecosystem are

(1) Species composition and stratification

(2) Species composition and productivity
(3) Productivity and energy flow
(4) Nutrient cycling and stratification

7) Which ecosystem will have least biomass at producer level ?

(1) Forest
(2) Grass land
(3) Pond
(4) Tree

8) Energy storage at the consumer level is called :-

(1) Gross primary productivity

(2) Secondary productivity
(3) Net productivity
(4) Net primary productivity

9) Primary production is

(1) Expressed in terms of weight (gm-2) or energy (kcal m-2)

The amount of biomas or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants
(2)
during photosynthesis
The amount of inorganic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during
(3)
photosynthesis
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) Assertion (A) : Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services the soil formation accounts
for about 50 percent.
Reason (R) : The cost of climate regulation and habitat for wild life are about 6 percent each.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

11) Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same
ecosystem at the same time ?

(1) Grass
(2) Fish
(3) Wolf
(4) Deer

12) The amount of nutrient such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium etc. present in the unit
area of soil at given time is called

(1) Standing crop

(2) Standing state
(3) Detritus
(4) Physical structure

13) The second trophic level in a lake is :-

(1) Phytoplankton
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Decomposers
(4) Both (1) & (3)

14) Secondary producers are :-

(1) Plants
(2) Herbivore
(3) Carnivore
(4) Omnivores

15) Given below is a food chain of terrestrial ecosystem.

Grass →Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
If the solar energy is 10,00,000 J , what will be the amount of energy obtained by Frog and hawk
respectively?

(1) 100 J, 1J
(2) 1000 J, 10 J
(3) 1000 J, 100 J
(4) 10000 J, 100 J

16) The reason(s) for low productivity of oceans is that:

(1) Light decreases with depth

(2) Nitrogen becomes limiting
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Nutrients become unlimiting

17) The annual net primary productivity (NPP) of the whole biosphere is approximately ________
billion tons. The NPP of ocean is ________ billion tons whereas that of terrestrial ecosystem is ________
billion tons.

(1) 170, 115, 55

(2) 130, 50, 80
(3) 120
(4) 170, 55, 115

18) Identify the pyramid

(1) Pyramid of number

(2) Pyramid of biomass
(3) Pyramid of energy
(4) Pyramid of biomass in lake

19) Match the following :

Column - I Column - II
 Presence of 3-4 layer of
(I) (A) Phytoplankton
plant in a forest

(II) Biosphere (B) Stratification

(III) Man made ecosystem (C) Global ecosystem

(IV) Pioneer in Hydrosere (D) Crop field

(1) I – C, II – B, III – D, IV – A
(2) I – C, II – A, III – D, IV – B
(3) I – A, II – C, III – B, IV – D
(4) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A

20) Which one of the following is not step of decomposition ?

(1) Fragmentation
(2) Humification
(3) Stratification
(4) Mineralisation

21) Assertion (A) : In Ecosystem Net primary productivity is less than gross primary productivity.
Reasons (R) : Gross primary productivity minus photosynthesis losses is the net primary
productivity.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

22)

Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called

(1) Stratification
(2) Scarification
(3) Standing crop
(4) Standing state

23) Most important climatic factors that regulate the rate of decompsition are

(1) Temperature and soil moisture

(2) Soil pH and aeration
(3) Aeration and temperature
(4) Moisture and soil pH

24) Standing crop is :-

(i) Biomass in a unit area
(ii) Number of living organism in unit area
(iii) Amount of nutrient such as nitrogen calcium in unit area
(iv) Amount of detritus in unit area

(1) only i
(2) i & ii
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

25) Except for the……………….., sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth.

(1) Hydro-thermal ecosystem

(2) Lake ecosystem
(3) Grassland ecosystem
(4) Tree ecosystem

26) Which one is the correct food chain?

(1) Eagle → Snake → Grasshopper → Grass → Frog

(2) Frog → Snake → Eagle → Grasshopper → Grass
(3) Grasshopper → Grass → Snake → Frog → Eagle
(4) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle

27) When the two ecosystems overlap each other the area is called.

(1) Ecotone
(2) Niche
(3) Edge effect
(4) Ecotypes

28) Identify the possible link 'M' in the following food chain:

(1) Ichthyophis
(2) Rabbit
(3) Wolf
(4) Frog

29) Productivity is expressed in terms of __________________ to compare the productivity of different

ecosystems.

(1) gm–3 yr–1 or kcal m–3 yr–1

(2) gm–1 yr–1 or kcal m–1 yr–1
(3) g–2 m–2 yr–1 or kcal–2 m–2 yr–1
(4) gm–2 yr–1 or kcal m–2 yr–1

30) One food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels. Some of the
organisms are linked also. These natural interconnections of food chains is known as

(1) A community
(2) An ecosystem
(3) Food webs
(4) Biogeochemical cycles

31) Climax community is in a state of

(1) Near equilibrium

(2) disorder
(3) constant change
(4) non-equilibrium

32) crow and cockroach are

(1) Herbivores
(2) Carnivores
(3) saprotrophs
(4) omnivores

33) The 10% energy transfer law of food chain was given by

(1) Lindeman
(2) Tansley
(3) Stanley
(4) Weismann

34) What can be correct for following food web :-

(1) J is decomposer
(2) C is herbivore
(3) I is primary carnivore
(4) F is carnivore
35) Consider the pyramid of energy of an ecosystem given below : If T4
is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value at T1 ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 10000 J
(4) 10,00,000 J

SECTION-B

1) Assertion:– The energy pyramid is always upright.

Reason:– Some energy is always lost as heat at each step when energy flows from a particulartrophic
level to the next trophic level.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

2) Limitation of ecological pyramids is/are

(1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(2) It assumes a simple food chain, it does not accommodate a food web
(3) Saprophytes are not given any place
(4) All of the above

3) The base of each pyramid represents the _________ or the _________ while the apex represents
_________.

(1) Consumers, First trophic level, Top trophic level.

(2) Producers, First trophic level, Top level consumer.
(3) Producers, Second trophic level, Top level consumer.
(4) Consumer, Second trophic level, Top level consumer.

4) Net primary productivity

(1) Does not depend on environmental factors

(2) Of ocean is higher than terrestrial ecosystems
(3) Is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs
(4) Is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers

5) Which of the following is an example of Transducer

(1) Phytoplanktons
(2) Zooplanktons
(3) Small Fish
(4) Large Fish

6) Assertion :- Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process

Reason :- Low temperature and anaerobiosis favours decomposition

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) The figure shows an ecological pyramid. What must be correct for this pyramid ?

(1) It is a pyramid of number in aquatic ecosystem

(2) It is pyramid of number in grassland.
(3) It is a pyramid of biomass in grassland.
It is a pyramid of biomass in a pond where small standing crop of phytoplanktons support large
(4)
standing crop of zooplanktons.

8) Which statement is incorrect about food chain ?

(1) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem

(2) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not directly sun
(3) Detritus food chain may be connected to grazing food chain at some places
(4) In grazing food chain size of organisms commmonly decreases at higher level

9) Primary producer at deep sea hydrothermal vents ecosystem are :-

(1) Green algae

(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Coral reefs

10) Match the column :

 Leads to accumulation
(a) Fragmentation (i) of a dark coloured amorphous
substance.

Water-soluble inorganic
(b) Humification (ii) nutrients go down into the soil
horizon.

Bacterial and fungal enzymes

(c) Catabolism (iii) degrade detritus into simpler
inorganic substances.

Detritivores break down detritus

(d) Leaching (iv)
into smaller particles.
(1) a–iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

11) Which of the following is a sedimentary cycle ?

(1) Carbon cycle

(2) Nitrogen cycle
(3) Phosphorous cycle
(4) Oxygen cycle

12) A chart is given to represent the phosphorus cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem. Find out what A, B,

C and D represents in the flow chart.

A—Producers, B—Detritus,
(1)
C—Soil solution, D—Litter fall
A—Litter fall, B—Soil solution,
(2)
C—Detritus, D—Producers
A—Detritus, B—Producers,
(3)
C—Litter fall, D— Soil solution
A—Soil solution, B—Litter fall,
(4)
C—Litter fall, D—Detritus

13) The two major differences between carbon and phosphorus cycle are:
A. Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs
B. Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much greater than carbon inputs
C. Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between organism and environment is not negligible
D. Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible:

(1) A,B
(2) B,D
(3) A,D
(4) B,C

14) Identify the possible link "A" in the following food chain :
Plant → Insect → Frog → "A" → Eagle

(1) Cobra
(2) Parrot
(3) Rabbit
(4) Wolf

15) In aquatic ecosystem major source of energy flow is :-

(1) Grazing food chain

(2) Parasitic food chain
(3) Detritus food chain
(4) Both (1) and (2)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Partial pressure at which Hb saturation is 50%

(1) 25 mmHg
(2) 40 mmHg
(3) 35 mmHg
(4) 50 mmHg

2) Internal gills are found in

(1) Ascaris
(2) Whale
(3) Bony fishes
(4) All of these

3) Persons living at high altitude will have :-

(1) High alveolar capacity

(2) More number of erythrocytes
(3) Haemoglobin curve shifts towards right
(4) All of these

4) The given figure illustrates the changes in lung volume during the process of breathing :-

The change from II to III indicates the

(1) movement of diaphragm away from the lungs

(2) expansion of the thoracic cavity
(3) movement of air out of the lungs
(4) expansion of ribs.

5) During normal respiration without any effort the volume of air inspired or expired is called as :-

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Expiratory reserve volume

6) Every 1000 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around how much ml of O2 to the tissue under
normal physiological conditions?

(1) 5 mL
(2) 1.4 mL
(3) 15 mL
(4) 50 mL

7) Match the column-I to column-II and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Inspiratory capacity (i) IRV + EC

(b) Vital capacity (ii) TV + IRV

(c) Residual volume (iii) TLC - VC

(D) FRC (iv) TLC - IC

(1) a–i; b–iii; c–ii; d–iv
(2) a–iv; b–i; c–iii; d–i
(3) a–iii; b–i; c–ii; d–iv
(4) a–ii; b–i; c–iii; d–iv

8) Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disease?

(1) Diptheria
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Tuberculosis
(4) Silicosis & Abestosis

9) Pneumotaxic centre present in which part of brain.

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

10) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the midthoracic cavity, which divides at the level
of___A ___ into a right and left primary bronchi. Which option is sutaible for 'A'.

(1) 6th thoracic vertebra

(2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(3) 4th thoracic vertebra
(4) 3th thoracic vertebra

11) Which of the following option indicated the breathing stage of the diagram.

(1) Expiration
(2) Insipiration
(3) Exhalation
(4) Both 1 and 3

12) Healthy man can inspire or expire approx._____to_______ml of air/min.

(1) 4000-6000
(2) 8000-10,000
(3) 6000-8000
(4) 2000-4000

13) 1 lit of deoxygenated blood deliver ______CO2 to alveoli in normal conditions

(1) 4ml
(2) 40ml
(3) 50ml
(4) 100ml

14) Route of air during expiration.

Alveoli Bronchioles Trachea Bronchi Larynx Pharynx Nasal cavities External

(1)
nares
Alveoli Bronchioles Trachea Bronchi Pharynx Larynx Nasal cavities External
(2)
nares
External nares Nasal
(3)
cavities Pharynx Larynx Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles Alveoli
Alveoli Bronchioles Bronchi Trachea Larynx Pharynx Nasal cavities External
(4)
nares

15) Respiratory Organ in tadpole larva of frog is

(1) Moist skin

(2) Buccal cavity
(3) Gills
(4) Lungs

16) The respiratory centre which regulates respiration is located in

(1) cerebellum
(2) medulla oblongata
(3) cerebral peduncle
(4) the vagus nerve.

17) About 97% of oxygen is transported by RBC remaining 3% is :-

(1) Dissolved in plasma

(2) Retained in lungs
(3) Attached to cell membranes
(4) Found Inside mitochondria

18) After deep inspiration, capacity of maximum expiration of lung is called :-

(1) Total lung capacity

(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Inspiratory capacity

19) Relaxation of diaphragm and external inter costal muscle leads to _______ .

(1) Normal expiration

(2) Forcible expiration
(3) Normal inspiration
(4) Forcible inspiration

20) Which group of animals respire through lungs?

(1) Earthworm and insects

(2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods
(4) Reptiles, birds and mammals

21) Structures not supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings are/is

(1) Initial bronchioles

(2) Tertiary bronchi
(3) Trachea
(4) Respiratory bronchioles

22) Arrange the following points of respiration in correct sequence :-

(a) Breathing
(b) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue
(c) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
(d) Utilisation of O2 by the cell
(e) Transport of gases by the blood

(1) abcde
(2) acbde
(3) acebd
(4) adceb

23) Which of the following statements is incorrect for pneumotoxic centre ?

(1) It is located in Pons

(2) It can alter respiratory rate
(3) It increases duration of inspiration
(4) It can moderate the functions of respiratory rhyhtm centre

24) In the given diagram what will be the partial pressure of O2 at A, B and C
(1) 104 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
(2) 95 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg, 40mm Hg
(3) 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg
(4) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg

25) Major muscle of normal inspiration is :

(1) Diaphragm muscle

(2) External intercostel muscle
(3) Internal intercostal muscle
(4) Abdominal muscle

26) Larynx is made up of :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Only epithelium

27) Assertion : A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is
plotted against the pO2
Reason : Foetal Hb has higer affinity for O2 than adult Hb.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

28) Which one is not associated with oxygen dissociation from oxyhaemoglobin:

(1) Increase in pH
(2) Increase in H+ concentration
(3) Increase in CO2 concentration
(4) Increase in P5O value

29) Assertion : Aortic arch and carotid artery have sensitive area, that can recognize changes in
CO2 and H+ concentration
Reason : VRG of medulla is inactive during normal breathing.

(1) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

30) Hypoxia is:-

(1) No O2 in inspired air

(2) Low pO2 in blood
(3) Low pO2 & high pCO2
(4) Slow breathing.

31) The part starting from external nostrils up to terminal bronchioles is not associated with

(1) Gaseous exchange

(2) Clearing air from foreign particles
(3) Humidification of air
(4) More than one option is correct

32) Given below is a list of some structures of human respiratory system in a box.

Initial bronchiole, Alveoli, Primary bronchi, Secondary bronchi,

Trachea, Tertiary bronchi, Terminal bronchiole, Respiratory bronchiole

How many of them do not possess incomplete cartilaginous rings?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

33) Value of FRC is

(1) ERV + RV
(2) TV + ERV
(3) TV + IRV
(4) 2500-3000 ml

34) Assertion : During normal inspiration intra pulmonary pressure decrease.

Reason : Intra pleural pressure increase due to contraction in muscle of diaphragm.

(1) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(2) Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

35) What is the function of pleural fluid

(1) Reduces friction on the lungs surface

(2) Protect the lungs from external shock
(3) Create intrapleural pressure on lungs
(4) All of these

SECTION-B

1) Respiratory distress syndrome can be caused due to deficiency of :-

(1) Lecithin
(2) Mucopolysaccharide
(3) Hyaluronic acid
(4) None

2) Decrease in P50 value shows the decrement of which of the following ?

(1) 2, 3, Di–phosphoglycerate
(2) Temperature
(3) pH
(4) Both (1) and (2)

3) Vital capacity of Lungs is ?

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TV + IRV + RV
(3) TLC – RV
(4) IRV + ERV

4) How much CO2 is transported as bicarbonate

(1) 3%
(2) 70%
(3) 7%
(4) 23%

5) Limulus respire through

(1) Green gland

(2) Book gills
(3) Ctenidea
(4) Skin

6) Inspiration and expiration are carried out by creating pressure gradients between atmosphere
and the alveoli with the help of specialised muscles.

(1) Phrenic muscles

(2) inter costal muscle
(3) Abdominal muscle
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7) Which instrument helps in clinical assessment of pulmonary functions?

(1) Sphygmomanometer
(2) Stethoscope
(3) Spirometer
(4) Electrocardiograph

8) A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body
tissues. This O2 :-

(1) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise

(2)
Raises the of blood to 75 mm of Hg
(3) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
(4) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues
9) Match the column I and column II :-

(1) I - D, II - C, III - A, IV - B
(2) I - D, II - C, III - B, IV - A
(3) I - A, II - D, III - B, IV - C
(4) I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - D

10) Haldane effect is :-

(1) Formation of oxyhaemoglobin helps CO2 free from Hb

(2) Formation of carbaminohaemoglobin make Hb free from O2
(3) Effect of low pH on dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) Effect of CO2 conc. on dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin

11) Which of the following statement is not correct for lecithin produced in lungs.

(1) It is produced by Pneumocyte-I

(2) It is a phospholipid
(3) It act as surfactant
(4) It reduces surface tension in alveoli and prevent its collapsing

12) In which animal, diaphragm has no role in respiration

(1) Frog
(2) Rat
(3) Camel
(4) Rabbit

13) Fibrosis of lungs that cause serious lung damage is a characteristic feature of

(1) Bronchial asthma

(2) Emphysema
(3) Asbestosis
(4) Pertussis

14) In human, primary sites of exchange of gases is.

(1) Conducting zone
(2) Terminal bronchiole
(3) Initial bronchiole
(4) Alveoli

15) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration is called.

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Expiratory capacity
(4) Residual volume
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 1 3 2 1 4 3 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 4 2 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 1 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 4 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 1 2 4 4 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 1 3 4 3 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 1 2 1 4 1 4 4 3 1 4 1 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 2 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 1 3 1 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 3 1 4 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 4 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

13)

Let m EavbFc
Dimensionally, we write it as
[M] = K[ML2T–2]a[LT–1]b[MLT–2]c
For dimensional balance
a + c = 1; 2a + b + c = 0; 2a + b + 2c = 0
solving these equations, we get
a = 1, b = –2, c = 0
m Ev–2

14)

Unit of a = unit of P × unit of V2

=
= Dyne × cm4

15)

Dimension of at = [M0L0T0 ] \ [ ] = [T–1]

Again so

17)

E= KFa Ab Tc

Q a = 1, a + b = 2 b=1

and – 2a – 2b + c = – 2 c=2
E = KFAT2

22)

[a] = [PV2]

23)

The correct relation for time period of simple pendulum is T = 2p (1/p)1/[Link], the given relation is
numerically incorrect as the factor of 2 is missing. But it is dimensionally correct.

25)

Error in AB
= ± 0.075 = ± 0.08
Therefore AB = (0.25 ± 0.08) m

26)

At is dimensionless so [At] =1 [A] =[T–1]. Also [x] = so [B] = [L–1T–1].

= ± 0.075 = ± 0.08
Therefore AB = (0.25 ± 0.08) m

27)

n2 =

38)

Time
Putting the dimensions in the above relation

Comparing the powers of M, L and T

…(i)
…(ii)

CHEMISTRY

53) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

200 × = 40

mol = 0.4

CO2 = 0.4
Volume = mol × 22.4
= 0.4 × 22.4
= 8.96 (L)

55)

Min. M.W. =
 =

63)

(1) moles of C = 24/12 = 2, So no. of atoms = 2NA

(2) moles of Fe = 56/56 = 1, So no. of atoms = NA
(3) moles of Al = 27/27 = 1, So no. of atoms = NA
(4) moles of Fe = 108/108 = 1, So no. of atoms = NA

73) According to Avogadro's Law : Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and
pressure, have the same number of molecules.

95) PbO + 2HCl —→ PbCl2 + H2O

1 mol 2mol 1 mol 1 mol

Given moles of PbO =

moles of HCl =
here PbO is limiting reagent
∵ 1 mol PbO gives 1 mol of PbCl2
∴ 0.029 mol PbO gives 0.029 of PbCl2

96)

wt. of 1 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 1 L of CO2

∴ wt. of 22.4 L of hydrocarbon = wt. of 22.4 L of CO2
(mol. wt of CO2) = 44 g
C3H8 have mol. wt = 44

BOTANY

106)

NCERT Page No: 242

107)

NCERT Pg.# 249

108) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 243

110)

NCERT, Page No. 255(E), 280 (H)

111) NCERT XII, Pg. # 249 (E), 274 (H)

 114)

NCERT XII Pg # 257

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 249, Fig. 14.4

120)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 243

121)

NCERT Pg. # 243

122) Ncert Pg No: 242

123) Ncert Pg No: 244

133)

Allen module pg no.26

137) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 214

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 248

139)

NCERT Pg:243

141) NCERT, Pg. # 244

144) NCERT Pg # 222

148) NCERT XII, Pg # 254

150) NCERT Pg. No. 246

ZOOLOGY

155) NCERT XI # 271

156)
NCERT-XI, PG No. 274

188) NCERT XI # 272