22-06-2025

5401CMD303031250003 MD

PHYSICS

1)

The value of at for the equation is

(1) 3
(2) –1
(3) –4
(4) 7

2) An experiment measure quantities a, b, c and P is calculated from P = . If percentage error

in a, b, c are 1%, 3%, 2% respectively, the maximum percentage error in P will be :-

(1) 8%
(2) 11%
(3) 6%
(4) 13%

3) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
dimensional formula :-

(1) [P1 A1/2 T–1]

(2) [P1 A1 T–1]
(3) [P1 A–1 T1]
(4) [P2 A1 T1]

4) Percentage error in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. The error in
the estimates of kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed will be –

(1) 8%
(2) 2%
(3) 12%
(4) 10%

5)

A physical quantity P is given by P= . The quantity which brings in the maximum percentage
error in P is
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

6) If the error in the measurement of radius of circle is 3%, then calculate the error in measurement
of area of circle :-

(1) 5 %
(2) 8 %
(3) 3 %
(4) 6 %

7) Match list I and II select the correct answer for option (A) (B) (C) and (D) respectively
(A) spring constant (1) M1L2T-2
0 0
(B) pressure (2) M L T-1
0
(C) frequency (3) M1L T-2
1 -1 -2
(D) work (4) M L T

(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 4 3 1 2
(3) 4 3 2 1
(4) 3 4 1 2

8) The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is:

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

9) The resistance is where and What is the total

error in R ?

(1) 5%
(2) 7%
(3) 5.2%

(4)

10) In a certain system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s.
The unit of kinetic energy will be:

(1) 0.1 erg

(2) 1 erg
(3) 10 erg
(4) None of these

11) The velocity of a particle depends upon time t as v = a + bt + ct2 ; If the velocity in (m/s) the
dimension of c will be :-

(1) [M1L1T–3]
0
(2) [M L1T–2]
0
(3) [M L1T–3]
(4) [M1L1T–2]

12) If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc , then the physical quantity will be :-

(1) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
(2) work if a = 1, b = 2, c = –2
(3) force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
(4) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2

13) If 3.8 × 10–6 is added to 4.2 × 10–5 giving due regard to significant figures, then the result will
be :-

(1) 4.58 × 10–5

(2) 4.6 × 10–5
(3) 4.5 × 10–5
(4) None of these

14) A wave is propagating along x-axis in a medium, so that displacement y of particle at any
position x, at any time t is given by :

where a, b and c are constants. Choose the incorrect option (s).

(1) dimension of b is [T]

(2) dimension of a is [T2]
(3) dimension of c is [L]

(4)
is dimensionless

15) A dimensionless quantity

(1) Never has a unit

(2) Always has a unit
(3) May have a unit
(4) Does not exist
16) Which of the following is an fundamental quantity ?

(1) Force
(2) Velocity
(3) Length
(4) Density

17) Assertion :- Light year and year, both measure time.

Reason :- Light year is the time taken by the light to reach the earth from the sun.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

18) Match the type of unit (Column A) with its corresponding example (Column B):

Column-A Column-B
(a) Base unit (i) N
(b) Derived SI unit (ii) hp
(c) Improper unit (iii) rad
(d) Practical unit (iv) kg-wt
(e) Supplementary unit (v) kg
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(v), (e)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(v)
(4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)

19) Young's modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed in C.G.S. unit, it will be equal to :-

(1) 1.9 × 1010

(2) 1.9 × 1011
(3) 1.9 × 1012
(4) 1.9 × 1013

20) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s,
2.42 s, 2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average absolute error is

(1) 0.1 s
(2) 0.11 s
(3) 0.01 s
(4) 1.0 s

21) The velocity of a freely falling body changes as gp hq where g is acceleration due to gravity and h
is the height. The value of p & q are :-
(1)
1,

(2) ,

(3)
, 1
(4) 1, 1

22) Zero error of an instrument introduces

(1) Systematic errors

(2) Random errors
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

23) The determination of the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) by simple pendulum method

employs the formula, . The expression for the relative error in the value of 'g' is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The potential function of electrostatic field is given by V = 2x2 – 3xy2z + 4yz then electric field at
point (0, 1, 1)m will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) The force on a charge situated on the axis of a dipole is F. If the charge is shifted to double the
distance, the new force will be :

(1) 4F
(2) F/2
(3) F/4
(4) F/8

26) A uniformly charged infinite wire is placed along 'y' axis having linear charge density 'λ1'. A
semicircle wire having linear charge density 'λ2' centred at (R, 0) is placed as shown. Find the ratio

of . If electric field at (R, 0) is zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) An electron and a proton are set free in a uniform electric field. The ratio of their accelerations
is :–

(1) unity
(2) zero

(3)

(4)

28) Consider a conducting spherical shell of radius R with its centre at the origin, carrying uniform

positive surface charge density. The variation of the magnitude of the electric field and the
electric potential V(r) with the distance r from the centre, is best represented by the graph (Here
dotted line represents potential curve and bold line represents electric field curve) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) Consider the following statements about electric dipole and select the correct ones :-
S1 : Electric dipole moment vector is directed from negative charge to positive charge.
S2 : The electric field of a dipole at a point with position vector depends on | | as well as the
angle between and .

S3 : The electric dipole potential falls off as and not as .

S4 : In a uniform electric field, the electric dipole experiences no net forces but a torque .

(1) S2, S3 and S4

(2) S3 and S4
(3) S2 and S3
(4) all four

30) An oil drop carrying a charge of 2 electrons has a mass of 3.2 × 10–17 Kg. It is falling freely in air
with terminal speed. The electric field required to make the drop move upwards with the same
speed is :

(1) 2 × 103 V/m

(2) 4 × 103 V/m
(3) 3 × 103 V/m
(4) 8 × 103 V/m

31)

Surface charge density of a thin disc having radius R varies with distance r from centre as σ =
, (r ≠ 0) then total charge of disc is :-

(1) 2πσ0R
2

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) A negatively charged particle is placed in uniform horizontal electric field. Charge particle move
under the action of electric force and gravitational force. If initially charge particle is at rest, then
which of the following diagram correctly represent the path of the particle :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Following are graphs of electric field variation with distance (r) for four different charge
configurations. Choose the correct correspondence.

(1) infinitely
large charged
sheet
(i)

(2) infinite
line charge
(ii)
(3) uniformly
charged
spherical
(iii) shell

(4) uniformly
charged solid
sphere
(iv)
(1) (i)(2), (ii)(3), (iii)(4), (iv)(1)
(2) (i)(3), (ii)(4), (iii)(1), (iv)(2)
(3) (i)(3), (ii)(4),(iii)(2),(iv)(1)
(4) (i)(4),(ii)(3),(iii)(2),(iv)(1)

34) Match the column

Column-I Column-II

(a) Electric field outside a conducting charged sphere (e) Constant

Electric potential outside a conducting charged directly proportional to distance

(b) (f)
sphere from centre

Electric field inside a non-conducting charged inversely proportional to distance

(c) (g)
sphere from center

Electric potential inside a charged conducting inversely proportional to the square

(d) (h)
sphere of distance from center
(1) a - h, b - g, c - e, d - f
(2) a - e, b - f, c - h, d - g
(3) a - h, b - g, c - f, d - e
(4) a - g, b - h, c - f, d – e

35) Two point charges of repel each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given
an additional charge of , then force will become

(1) 4 N (attractive)
(2) 60 N (attractive)
(3) 4 N (repulsive)
(4) 12 N (attractive)

36) The ratio of coulomb's electrostatic force to the gravitational force between an electron and a
proton separated by some distance is 2.4 × 1039. The ratio of the proportionality
constant, to the Gravitational constant G is nearly (Given that the charge of the proton and electron
each = 1.6 × 10–19 C, the mass of the electron = 9.11 × 10–31 kg, the mass of the proton = 1.67 ×
10–27 kg):

(1) 1020
(2) 1030
(3) 1040
(4) 10

37) In millikan's oil drop experiment, an oil drop carrying a charge Q is held stationary by a potential
difference 2400 V between the plates. To keep a drop of half the radius stationary, the potential
difference had to be made 600V. What is the charge on second drop ?

(1)
(2)

(3) Q

(4)

38) Match the column :-

Electric
(a) (p) Scalar
field

(b) Charge (q) Vector

(c) Potential (r) Additive

(d) Flux
(1) a → q ; b → p, r ; c → r, q ; d → p
(2) a → q ; b → p, r ; c → p, r ; d → p, r
(3) a → r ; b → q, r ; c → p, q ; d → p,q
(4) a → p ; b → p, q ; c → q, r ; d → p, r

39) For the given figure, correct option is :-

(1) VP = 0 ; EP = 0
(2) VP ≠ 0 ; EP = 0
(3) VP = 0 ; EP ≠ 0
(4) VP ≠ 0 ; EP ≠ 0

40)

For the given figure, net dipole moment is :-

(1) 5qx
(2) qx
(3) Zero
(4) None
41) Two small electric dipoles, one of dipole moment at point A and the other of dipole moment
at point B, are as shown in the figure. The torque experienced by the dipole is :-

(1) Zero
(2) ∞
(3) Can't determined
(4) None of these

42) Two large, parallel conducting plates X and Y, kept close to each other, are given Q1 and Q2 (Q1 >
Q2). The four surfaces of the plates are A, B, C and D, as shown

(i) The charge on A is

(ii) The charge on B is

(iii) The charge on C is

(iv) The charge on D is

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv)
(4) All

43) The electric field at a point B between the conducting spherical shell is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) Zero

44)

A and B are two concentric metallic hollow spheres. If A is given a charge q while B is earthed as
shown in figure, then

(1) Charge density of A and B are same

(2) Electric field inside and outside A is zero
(3) Electric field between A and B is not zero
(4) Electric field inside and outside B is zero

45)

Electric charge is uniformly distributed over a long straight wire of radius 1 mm.

The charge per cm length of the wire is Q coulombs. A cylindrical surface of radius 50 cm and length
10 cm encloses the wire symmetrically as shown in fig. The total flux passing through the cylindrical

surface is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Mass of NaOH that must be added to water to prepare 500mL of 2M aqueous solution is-

(1) 30g
(2) 10g
(3) 20g
(4) 40g

2) If the vapour density of gas X2 is 30, then molar mass of the gas is

(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 120
(4) 15

3) 12 L of H2 and 11.2 L of Cl2 are mixed and reacted to give HCl. The composition by volume of
mixture is :

(1) 24 L of HCl (g)

(2) 0.8 L Cl2 and 20.8 L HCl (g)
(3) 0.8 L H2 and 22.4 L HCl (g)
(4) 22.4 L HCl (g)

4) In the following reaction the value of 'X' is – H2O + → + 2H+ + X

(1) 4e–
(2) 3e–
(3) 2e–
(4) 1e–

5) Calculate value of (a+b) in following reaction:-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 3

6) How many litre of 0.1 M Sr(OH)2 can be neutralized completely by 5L of 0.1 N H2SO4 : –

(1) 5L
(2) 2.5 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 7.5 L

7) At 25°C for complete combustion of 5 mol propane (C3H8). The required volume of O2 at STP will
be.

(1) 560 L
(2) 560 mL
(3) 360 L
(4) 360 mL

8) Relative density of a volatile substance with respect to CH4 is 4. Its molecular weight would be –

(1) 8
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 128

9) Which of the following statements are not true for the reaction : 4Fe + 3O2 → 4Fe+3 + 6O–2
(a) It is a redox reaction
(b) Metallic iron is a reductant
(c) Fe+3 is a reductant
(d) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe+3
Correct option is :

(1) c, d
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, d

10) In the reaction

MnO4– + SO3–2 + H+ → SO4–2 + Mn2+ + H2O

– +
(1) MnO4 and H both are reduced
– +
(2) MnO4 is reduced and H is oxidised
– 2–
(3) MnO4 is reduced and SO3 is oxidised
– 2–
(4) MnO4 is oxidised and SO3 is reduced

11) The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S and H2SO4 respectively are :–

(1) 0, +1, –2 and +6

(2) +2, 0, +2 and +6
(3) 0, +1, +2 and +4
(4) –2, 0, +2 and +6

12) 2 mole of N2H4 loses 20 mole of electrons determine final O.N of Nitrogen

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +5
(4) –3

13) The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of C2O4–2 in acidic
solution is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

14) In which of the following the oxidation number of oxygen has been arranged in increasing order
:-

(1) OF2 < KO2 < BaO2 < O3

(2) BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2
(3) BaO2 < O3 < OF2 < KO2
(4) KO2 < OF2 < O3 < BaO2

15) Equivalent mass of FeC2O4 in the change, FeC2O4 → Fe3+ + CO2 is :-

(1) M/3
(2) M/6
(3) M/2
(4) M/1

16) Correct IUPAC name of the following compound :

(1) 4-Ethyl-2-methyl aniline

(2) 3-Methyl-1-ethyl aniline
(3) 1-Amino-2-methyl-4-ethyl benzene
(4) 4-Amino-3-methyl-1-ethyl benzene

17) The number of carbon atoms in principal carbon chain of given compound is :-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3
18) IUPAC name of following :-

(1) 1, 1, 1-Trichloro-2, 2-dibromo ethane

(2) 1, 1-Dibromo-2, 2, 2-trichloro ethane
(3) 2, 2-Dibromo-1, 1, 1-trichloro ethane
(4) 1-trichloro-2-bromo ethane

19) Maximum no. of hetero atoms are present in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In which of following numbering of parent carbon chain is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Select the correct priority for principal group :- (Acc. to IUPAC)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 1-ethyl-2, 2-dimethylcyclohexane

(2) 2, 2-dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
(3) 1, 1-dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexane
(4) 2-ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane

23) What is the IUPAC name for the following compound ?

(1) Benzene carbonitrile

(2) Benzene cyanide
(3) Phenyl cyanide
(4) Cyanophenyl

24) ; How many 2° carbon present in above compound?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

25) What is the common name for the following structure ?

(1) isobutane
(2) t-butane
(3) n-butane
(4) sec-butane

26) Which of the following is homocylic compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) The IUPAC name of the compound is -

(1) 1-chloro-2-bromocylohexane
(2) 1, 2-bromochlorocyclohexane
(3) 4-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexane
(4) 1-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexane

28) IUPAC name of given compound ?

(1) 3-cyano-2-hydroxy pentanedinitrile

(2) 2-hydroxy propane - 1, 2, 3-tricarbonitrile
(3) Propane - 1, 2, 3-tricarbonitrile
(4) Propane – 1, 2, 3-tricarbonitrile-2-ol

29) IUPAC name of the hydrocarbon (A) is

(1) 2-Ethyl-5-methylhexane
(2) 5-Ethyl-2-methylhexane
(3) 2,5-Dimethylheptane
(4) 2,5-Dimethyl-5-ethylpentane

30) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II
Functional Group Suffix
(A) –CHO (P) Sulpho
(B) –SO3H (Q) Al
(C) –SH (R) Oyl chloride
(D) –COCl (S) thiol
(1) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R
(2) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(3) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
(4) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R
31)

The correct order of size is :-

(1) Fe > Co > Ni

(2) Co ~ Ni > Cu
(3) Ne > F > O
(4) Ne > O > F

32) Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

(1) MgO
(2) BeO
(3) SiO2
(4) CaO

33) Identify the correct group, block & period for element atomic number (z) = 47 :-

(1) 5th group, d-block, 4th period

(2) 11th group, d-block, 5th period
(3) 7th group, p-block, 5th period
(4) 6th group, d-block, 5th period

34) The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is

(1) Al(OH)3 , LiOH

(2) Be(OH)2 , Mg(OH)2
(3) B(OH)3 , Be(OH)2
(4) Be(OH)2 , Zn(OH)2

35)

Select correct option related to given equations:-

I. Cl Cl–1
II. Cl
III. Cl+1

IV. Cl+1 Cl+2

(1) |E.A. of Cl in (I)| = |I.P. of Cl in (III)|
(2) |I.E. of Cl in (III)| = |I.E. of Cl+1 in (IV)|
(3) |E.A. of Cl in (I)| = |I.E. of Cl– in (II)|
(4) |I.E. of Cl–1 in (II)| = |I.E. of Cl in (III)|

36)

The correct order of electron negativity for O, O+ and O– is -

(1) O– > O > O+
(2) O > O+ > O–
(3) O+ > O– > O
(4) O+ > O > O–

37) Correct order of electron gain enthalpy is

(1) N < C < P < Si

(2) N < C < Si < P
(3) O < F < S < Cl
(4) O < S < F < Cl

38) Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

(1) MgO
(2) BeO
(3) BaO
(4) CaO

39) An element whose IUPAC name is ununtrium (uut) belongs to :-

(1) s-block
(2) p-block
(3) d-block
(4) ƒ-block

40) The radii of F, F–, O and O2– are in the order of :-

(1) O2– > F– > F > O

(2) F–> O2– > F > O
(3) O2– > O > F– > F
(4) O2– > F– > O > F

41) The correct order of size would be:-

(1) Ni < Pd Pt
(2) Pd < Pt < Ni
(3) Pt > Ni > Pd
(4) Pd > Pt > Ni

42) Select which of the following is incorrect order of I.E. ?

(1) Cu > Ag > Au

(2) Cu < Zn > Ga
(3) Hg > Zn > Cd
(4) Ti > Ga > In

43) The correct periodic trend according to the mentioned property is

(1) HF < HCl > HBr > HI : Acidic character

(2) NO < NO2 < N2O5 : Basic nature
(3) SO2 < SO3 : Acidic Nature
(4) Li2O > Na2O > K2O : Basic character

44) For an element, the successive ionization energy values (in eV atom–1) are given as follows 12.32,
26.84, 44.56, 65.73, 203.9, 251.12, 308.4
The element that satisfies the above values is

(1) Si
(2) Ca
(3) Al
(4) S

45) Statement I : Actinide contraction is more as compared to lanthanide contraction.

Statement II : 5f electrons have much lower shielding effect as compared to 4f electrons because 5f
orbitals are more diffused than 4f orbitals.

If both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
(1)
Statement I.
If both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation for
(2)
Statement I.
(3) If Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) If both Statement I and Statement II are false.

BIOLOGY

1) Which is not found in bacteria ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) DNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm

2) Salt linkage between larger and smaller subunit of ribosome is formed with the help of :-

(1) Ca2+
(2) Na+
(3) Mg2+
(4) K+

3)
Substances that have a ___A___, find it difficult to pass through the membrane; their movement is to
be ___B___.

A B

(1) Hydrophilic moiety Uphill

(2) Hydrophilic moiety Facilitated

(3) Hydrophobic moiety Facilitated

(4) Hydrophobic moiety Downhill

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Spindle fibres are composed of :

(1) Collagen
(2) Actin
(3) Spectrin
(4) Tubulin

5) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell theory to give it a final shape ?

(1) R. Hooke
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Mendel
(4) C.P. Swanson

6) Algal cell wall is made up of :-

(1) Hemicellulose, Xylan only

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose, Pectin only
(3) Cellulose, Galactan, Mannans, Minerals
(4) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Proteins, Pectins only

7) Depending upon the ........, membrane proteins can be classified as integral or peripheral :-

(1) Size
(2) Sedimentation rate
(3) Ease of extraction
(4) Molecular weight

8) Na-K pump an example of :-

(1) Active transport
(2) Passive transport
(3) Diffusion
(4) Facilitated diffusion

9) The lipid component of cell membrane mainly consists of :-

(1) Phosphoglycerides
(2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycolipid
(4) Sphingolipid

10) For how many of the following, the fluid nature of cell membrane is important ?
Cell growth, Endocytosis, Secretion, Cell division, Inter cellular junction.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

11) Which of the following cell organelle is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes :-

(1) RER
(2) Glyoxisome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Plastid

12) In ribosomes, 'S' (Svedberg's unit) stands for:-

(1) Centrifugation coefficient

(2) Rate of Diffusion
(3) Sedimentation coefficient
(4) Rate of Translation

13) The most acceptable model for plasma membrane is :-

(1) Trilamellar model

(2) Unit membrane model
(3) Fluid mosaic model
(4) Sandwitch model

14) Ribosomes of bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplasts are of :-

(1) 50s type

(2) 80s type
(3) 70s type
(4) 55s type

15) In a given diagram of cilia which letter represents radial spoke, interdoublet bridge and central

sheath respectively.

(1) C,B,E
(2) A,B,F
(3) B,A, F
(4) A,C,F

16) Enzymes for Kreb's cycle are situated in

(1) Mitochondrial Matrix

(2) Outer mitochondria membrane
(3) Inner mitochondria membrane
(4) Perimitochondrial space

17) An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm is

collectively refered to as the :-

(1) Centrosome
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) Spindle fiber
(4) Endomembrane system

18)

Basal body have :-

(1) 9 + 0
(2) 9 + 2
(3) 2 + 9
(4) 11 + 0

19) In mitochondria, F0–F1 particles are located in:-

(1) Outer membrane

(2) Inner membrane
(3) Intermembrane space
(4) Matrix
20) Which one of the following statement is wrong for nucleous ?

(1) Related with NOR

(2) Nucleolus is spherical strucutre present in the nucleoplasm
(3) Nucleolus is a site for synthesis of active ribosomal protein.
(4) The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm

21) A Chromosome has centromere in almost centre, B chromosome has centromere slightly
away from centre, C chromosome has centromere very near to one end of chromosome while D
chromosome has centromere on one end.
What is A, B, C & D ?

A B C D

(1) Metacentric Submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric

(2) Metacentric Submetacentric Telocentric Acrocentric

(3) Metacentric Acrocentric Submetacentric Telocentric

(4) Metacentric Acrocentric Telocentric Submetacentric

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Study the following diagram carefully and identify the correct match

(1) C = Stromal lamella

(2) E = Stroma
(3) C = Granum
(4) 2 & 3 Both

23) Shape of animal cell is maintained by :

(1) Cell membrane

(2) Cell wall
(3) cytoskeleton
(4) 2 & 3 both

24) Which of the following is not observed in interphase nucleus of human liver cell ?

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Chromatin
(3) Chromosome
(4) Nuclear envelop

25) An element present in middle lamella is :-

(1) Calcium
(2) Potassium
(3) Sodium
(4) Iron

26)

Read the following statements about mitochondria

A. Mitochondria are easily visible under microscope without specific staining
B. These are the site of aerobic respiration
C. Mitochondria divide by fission
D. These possess single stranded DNA molecules

(1) Only A is incorrect

(2) B and D are correct
(3) A,B and C are correct
(4) Both A and D are incorrect

27) Which of the following statements about lysosomes is incorrect ?

(1) They may be autophagic

(2) They are filled with acid hydrolases
(3) They are monomorphic and uniform in structure and function
(4) They can digest proteins, nucleic acids, lipids and carbohydrates

28) Which one is wrong for cilia ?

(1) Per cell number of cilia are more than flagella

(2) Cilia are larger than flagella
(3) Causing the movement of either the cell or surounding fluid.
(4) Covered with plasma membrane

29)
Consider the given figure and which of the following are not concern with it :-
(a) Divide by fission
(b) Produce cellular energy (ATP)
(c) Chlorophylls are found
(d) Matrix possesses enzymes for dark reaction
(e) Site of aerobic respiration
(f) Ribosomes are smaller than cytoplasmic ribosome

(1) a, b, e, f
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) c, d, e, f
(4) c, d

30) Starch storing plastid is known as :-

(1) Leucoplast
(2) Aleuroplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Elaioplast

31) How many cell organelles are devoid of membrane:

Nucleolus, Peroxisome, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Centriole.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

32) Read the following statements and find out the correct statement:
a. Mitochondria is typically sausage shaped or cylindrical
b. The inner compartment of the mitochondria is called stroma and of chloroplast is called matrix
c. Mitochondria and bacteria both divide by fission
d. Chromoplasts have fat insoluble carotenoid pigments like carotene and xanthophylls
e. Plastids are found in all plant cells and euglenoids

(1) b, c, e
(2) a, b, d
(3) c, d, e
(4) a, c, e

33)

List-I List-II

a Cell wall i Protein synthesis

b Cell membrane ii Hydrolytic enzyme

c SER iii Lipid synthesis

d RER iv Cellulose

e Lysosome v Quasifluid nature

Match the following and choose the correct option :-
(1) a = v b = iv c = iii d=i e = ii
(2) a = i b = ii c = iii d = iv e=v
(3) a = iv b=v c=i d = iii e = ii
(4) a = iv b=v c = iii d=i e = ii

34) The accompanying diagram shows a chromosome, in which label A is

(1) Secondary constriction

(2) Kinetochore
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Chromatin

35) Size of perinuclear space is :-

(1) 100-500 nm
(2) 20-40 nm
(3) 10-50 nm
(4) 50-100 nm

36) How many peripheral microtubule (doublet) are present in T.S. of cilia/flagella?

(1) Two
(2) Zero
(3) Four
(4) Nine

37) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized by :-

(1) Lysosomes
(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Ribosomes

38) Centromere is located at the tip of chromosome is :-

(1) Metacentric
(2) Sub-metacentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Telocentric
39) Read the following statements and choose right option regarding them :-
(I) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existance.
(II) Anton von leeuwenhock first saw and described a live cell.

(1) Statement I and II both are incorrect

(2) Statement I correct and II incorrect
(3) Statement I and II both are correct
(4) Statement I incorrect and II correct

40) A flat membranous tubule which connect two granum in the stroma called.

(1) Stroma protein

(2) Stroma membrane
(3) Stroma lamellae
(4) Thylakoid

41) Nucleoprotein fibers are called chromatin net. These are observed during :-

(1) Interphase nucleus

(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Late prophase

42) Spherical and membraneless structure is :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Lysosome
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Nucleolus

43) Tonoplast is a :-

(1) Covering layer of golgi complex

(2) Covering layer of vacuoles
(3) Covering layer of microbodies
(4) Non-living cytoplasmic content

44) The minute cytoplasmic connections between plant cells are called :-

(1) Chiasmata
(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Tractile fibres
(4) Ultra-cellular strands

45) Which of following is not present in nucleus :-

(1) Chromatin thread
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Nucleosome
(4) Oxysome

46) Supra oesophageal ganglion supply nerve to:-

(1) Compound eye, Antennae

(2) Compound eye, Labrum
(3) Labrum, Antenna
(4) All of them

47) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of male reproductive system of a cockroach. Identify the

parts labelled W, X, Y and Z :-

W-Phallic gland, X-Titilator

(1)
Y-Pseudopenis, Z-Ejaculatory duct
W-Phallic gland, X-Pseudopenis
(2)
Y-Titilator, Z-Seminal vesicle
W-Phallic gland, X-Pseudopenis
(3)
Y-Titilator, Z-Ejaculatory duct
W-Phallic gland, X-Pseudopenis
(4)
Y-Titilator, Z-Vas deferens

48) Read the following statements (A-D) which are related to cockroach and find out the true (T) and
false (F) statements :-
(A) Cockroaches are included in class insecta of phylum arthropoda.
(B) Head of cockroach lies anteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal body axis.
(C) Each thoracic segment bears a pair of wings and legs.
(D) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites (tergites ventrally and
sternites dorsally)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) T T F T
(2) T F F T
(3) T F F F
(4) T T F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49)
In male cockroach, genital pouch is formed by the fusion of-

(1) 7th, 8th, 9th terga

(2) 8th, 9th sterna
(3) 9th terga and 10th sterna
(4) 9th and 10th terga and 9th sterna

50)

Which of the following organs helps in excretion in cockroach-

(1) Fat body

(2) Nephrocyte
(3) Urecose glands
(4) All

51) Identify the structure from figures A, B, C which is not correctly matched with their function.

(1) A – Mandible → Help in grinding.

(2) B – Labrum → Upper lip of cockroach.
(3) C – Maxilla → Form lateral wall of pre oral cavity.
(4) B – Hypopharynx → Tongue

52) Read the following statements w.r.t digestive system of cockroach

(i) Crop is present in between oesophagus and gizzard in midgut.
(ii) 6-8 blind tubules called gastric caecae are present at the junction of midgut and hindgut.
(iii) Proventriculus has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and inner six chitinous teeth.
Choose the correct option.

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct, (iii) is incorrect

(2) (i) and (iii) are correct, (ii) is incorrect
(3) (ii) and (iii) are correct, (i) is incorrect
(4) (i) and (ii) are incorrect, (iii) is correct

53) Which of the following statement is false for heart of cockroach?

(1) It is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either side
(2) Heart is myogenic
(3) Alary muscles are related to heart
(4) Blood from sinuses enter the heart through ostia and pumped anteriorly
54) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option w.r.t. cockroach :
(a) Pair of testes are located in the __(A)__, __(B)__ segments.
(b) A pair of spermatheca is present in the __(C)__ which opens into the __(D)__.
(c) The development of P. americana is __(E)__.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Genital
(1) 2th-6th Abdominal 6th segment Holometabolous
chamber

Genital
(2) 4th-6th Abdominal 6th segment Paurometabolous
chamber

(3) 4th-6th Thoracic 6th segment Genital pore Paurometabolous

Genital
(4) 2th-6th Thoracic 5th segment Paurometabolous
chamber
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Statement-I :- Each thoracic segment of cockroach bears a pair of legs.

Statement-II :- Hind wings of cockroach are transparent, membranous.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

56) Given below are two statement one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) :- If head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.
Reason (R) :- The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the belly side
of its body.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explantion of (A)

57) If a female produce 10 oothecae on an average & an ovary release 16 ova at a time then how
many fertilized eggs produced by female on an average?
[Assume - all ova are fertilized with sperm at all time]

(1) 120 eggs

(2) 126-160 eggs
(3) 160 eggs
(4) 126 eggs

58) Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air of oxygen during respiration in an
adult male cockroach as it enter the animal body?

(1) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissue

(2) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuse into cells.
(3) Mouth, trachea, bronchial tubes, oxygen enter into cells.
(4) Spiracle, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuse into cells

59) Read the given statements and select the correct option for Periplaneta
Statement A: Foregut is lined by chitinous cuticle.
Statement B: This region does permit maximum digestive, secretory or absorptive activity.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct and statement B is the correct explanation for statement A.
Both statements A and B are correct but statement B is not the correct explanation
(2)
for statement A.
(3) Both statement A and B are incorrect.
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.

60) Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth:

(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum

(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum

61) Assertion : In cockroach, the mouthparts consisting of a labrum, a pair of mandibles, a pair of
maxillae, and a labium.
Reason : Anterior end of head beares appendages forming biting and chewing type of mouth parts.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

62) Assertion : Malpighian tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated cells.

Reason : Waste product of cockroach is uric acid.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

63) Assertion : The development of Periplaneta americana is parurometabolous.

Reason : There is development through nymphal stage the nymph grows by moulting about 13
times to reach the adult form.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

64) Out of following how many structures are belong to female reproductive system of cockroach?
Spermatheca, Testis, Oviduct, Collateral gland, Mushroom gland, Phallic gland, Ovipositor process,
Seminal vesicle.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

65) Identify A, B, C in given diagram :-

(1) A–Head, B–Circular-muscles, C–Anal-cerci

(2) A–Anterior-Aorta, B–Alary muscles, C–Anal-Style
(3) A–Anterior-Aorta, B–Alary muscles, C–Anal-cerci
(4) A–Posterior-Aorta, B–Alary muscles, C–Anal-Cerci

66) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B,

C and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaea.

67)

Given below is a list of some structure in frog :-

Metanaphric kidney, Copulatory pads in male, Diaphragm, Amniotic eggs.

How many of the above structures are present in frog.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Select the correct rout for the passape of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

69) Which of the following structure attaches testes to kidney ?

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Mesovarium
(3) Nuptial pad
(4) Copulatory pad

70) Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.
Select the best option from the following statements.
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm.
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature.
(d) Heart is autoexcitable

(1) Only(d)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (c)and(d)
(4) Only(c)

71) Read the following statements for frog and choose the correct option-
(A) Long, folded and bilobed tongue present in frog
(B) Frog drinks water through buccal cavity
(C) Hind limbs have copulatory pads
(D) In water, respiration occur through moist body surface
(E) One paired mesonephric kidney present on lateral side of vertebral column

(1) Only A, C and D are correct

(2) Only B, D and E are correct
(3) Only A, D and E are correct
(4) All A, B, C, D and E are correct

72) Given below is a list of some structure : Diaphragm, Tail, Anus, Cloaca, Teeth on Upper jaw,
Nictitating membrane and the cortex and medulla in kidney. How many of the above structure are
not found in Rana tigrina ?
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

73) Assertion (A) : The system for control and coordination is highly evolved in the frog.
Reason (R) : Sensory papillae ; taste buds and nasal epithelium are cellular aggregations around
nerve endings

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct

74)

Identify the correct statements:-

(A) Frogs are beneficial for mankind because they eat insects and protect the crop.
(B) In frogs there are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
(C) External ear is absent in frog.
(D) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number arising from testes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) A, B, D only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) A, B, C only

75) Assertion- In frog digestion of food take place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted
from the wall of stomach.
Reason - Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

76) Which of the following statement is correct for frog ?

(1) Webbed digits are found in forelimb of female frog.

(2) Frogs have 8 fingers in forelimbs.
(3) Female frog have copulatory pods in forelimbs.
(4) Forelimbs are large and muscular than hindlimbs.

77) Choose the appropriate option given below :

 A B C D E

(1) Gall bladder Lung Ovary Testis Rectum

(2) Gall bladder Lung Fat bodies Testis Rectum

(3) Gall bladder Lung Testis Kidney Rectum

(4) Gall bladder Lung Fat bodies Kidney Rectum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Select the incorrect statement regarding frog

(1) Heart is a muscular structure situated in the upper part of the body cavity.
(2) Final digestion take place in the intestine.
(3) Frog excretes urea and thus is a uricotelic.
(4) There are 10 pair of cranials nerves arising from the brain

79) Frog differs from human in possessing:

(1) Thyroid as well as parathyroid gland

(2) Paired cerebral hemisphere
(3) Hepatic portal circulation
(4) Nucleated red blood cells

80) In heart of frog ventricles open into a sac like_____ on ventral side of heart.

(1) Vena cava

(2) Aorta
(3) Sinus venous
(4) Conus arteriosus

81) Read the following statements & choose correct for frog -
(i) Male reproductive organ consist of pair of yellow ovoid testes.
(ii) Cloaca is common opening for faecal, urine & sperm
(iii) Mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time
(iv) Development shows larval stage.

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, & iv
(4) iii, iv

82) Assertion (A) : Frogs maintain ecological balance

Reason (R) : These serve as an important link of food chain and food web in the ecosystem.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct (R) is correct

83) Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure.

(1) A-Vasa efferentia, B-Cloacal aperture, C-Adrenal gland, D-Urino genital duct, E-Fat bodies
(2) A-Urino genital duct, B-Vasa efferentia, C-Fat bodies, D-Cloacal aperture, E-Adrenal gland
(3) A-Adrenal gland, B-Urino genital duct, C-Cloacal aperture, D-Vasa efferentia, E-Fat bodies
(4) A-Fat bodies, B-Adrenal gland, C-Cloacal aperture, D-Vasa efferentia, E-Urino genital duct

84) Jointed filamentous structures, present on tergum of 10th segment in both male and
female cockroach are :

(1) Caudal style

(2) Filifom antenna
(3) Anal style
(4) Anal cerci

85) Which of the following is incorrect for nervous system of cockroach?

(1) If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still survive for as long as one week.
(2) In head region, the brain is represented by supra-oesophageal ganglion.
(3) It is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
(4) Three ganglia lie in thorax and six in the abdomen

86) Out of following structures how many structures belongs to male reproductive system of
cockroach?
Testes, Spermatheca, Mushroom glands, Collateral glands, Phallic gland, Ovipositor process,
Seminal vesicle.

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

87) Which of the following structure is related to formation of middle layer of spermatophore in
Periplaneta?

(1) Utriculi majores

(2) Utriculi breviores
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Conglobate gland

88) The body of cockroach is ____a____ and divisible in to _____b____ distinct regions.

(1) a → Unsegmented, b → 4
(2) a → Segmented, b → 3
(3) a → Unsegmented, b → 3
(4) a → Segmented, b → 4

89) In the reproductive system of male cockroach a characterstic......A.......is present in the 6 to 7

abdominal segments, which functions as.
Accessory reproductive gland ? Select the correct answer about 'A'

(1) Collaterial gland

(2) Mushroom gland
(3) Stink gland
(4) Salivary gland

90) Out of following which match is incorrect for cockroach ?

(1) Crop-used for storage of food

(2) Gizzard-helps in grinding the food particles
(3) Hepatic caeca - at junction of midgut and hindgut
(4) Malpighian tubules - 100 to 150 in number
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 1 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 4 3 4 1 3 4 4 1 4 4 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 4 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 3 2 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 1 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 1 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 4 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 3 4 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 2 2 4 4 1 4 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 1 3 4 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 1 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Example: If the equation were "2t + 5 = 15", then to find the value of 't', you would solve the
equation:

2)

P=
% P = 3% Ea + 2% Eb + % EC
% E 'P' = (3 × 1) + (2 × 3) + 2

= 3 + 6 + 2 = 11 %

3) [Energy] = [FL] =

4)

% error in K.E. :–

= (2%) + 2 (3%) = 8 %

5)

Quantity C has maximum power. So it brings maximum error in P.

6)

∵ A = πR2

∴
= 2 × 3%
= 6%

7)

Spring constant
0
K= [M1L T-2]
pressure [M1L-1T-2]
0 0
frequency = [M L T-1]
work = [M1L2T-2]

8) Defination based

9)

= 7%

10) Kinetic energy = , Unit of kinetic energy

= (mass) = (100g)
2 2
= 1 g cm / s = 1 erg

11) Similar physical quantity can be added & substracted

v = ct2
m/s = cs2

12)
= [M1L1T–2] [L1]= [M1L2T–2] a = 1, b = 2, c = –2

13)

3.8 × 10–6 + 4.2 × 10–5 = (0.38 + 4.2) × 10–5 = 4.58 × 10–5 ≡ 4.6 × 10–5

14)

⇒ [b] = T & [C] = [L]

&
is dimensionless

15)

Angle = Dimensionless but unit = radian

relative density = Dimensionless and is unitless so dimensionless quantity may have a unit.
16) Length is fundamental quantity

17)

Light year used to measure distance.

year to measure time
One light year is equal to distance travelled by Light in One year.

18) Base unit → kg

Derive unit → N or (kgms–2)
Improper unit → kg-wt
Practical unit → hp
Supplementary unit → radian

19) y = 1.9 × 1011 N/m2

1N = 105 dyne; 1 m = 102cm

y = 1.9 × 1011 ×
= 1.9 × 1012 dyne/cm2

20) Average value

Now

Mean absolute error

21) [v][g]p[h]q
[L1T–1] = [L1T–2][L]q
p+q=1
–2q = –1

q= ,p=

22)

A zero error in an instrument introduces a systematic error

23)
24)

at

25) F = qE ⇒ F=q

If distance doubled ⇒ forces becomes

26) (θ = 180°)

EInfinite wire = (d = R)
λ1 = λ2

27)

qE = ma

a= (q,E → constant)

28)

29) All are correct

(Refer dipole)

30) mg = F = 6πηrυ
qE – mg = F = 6πηrυ
qE = 6πηrυ + mg = 2mg

E
 = = 2 × 103 V/m

31)

Let us assume an elemental ring of radius 'r' & thickness 'dr', then charge on ring

dQ = σ (Area of shaded region)

= σ (2πrdr)

= (2πrdr)

32)

33)

(i) inside 0 outside

Hence hollow sphere

(ii) inside E r outside

Hence solid sphere

(iii) hence line charge

(iv) E = constant = charge sheet

34) conceptual
35)
After adding charge

attractive

36)

= 14.26 × 1019
= 1.426 × 1020
≈ 1020

37) For balancing qE = mg = Vρg

qV ∝ r3 ⇒

38) Electric field → vector

and charge, potential and flux are scalar and additive.

39) ;

40) Pnet = q(x)

41)

Torque then torque on due to

but angle between and is 180° so
42) The outer surfaces of extreme plates have same charge (total charge/2), facing surfaces

have equal and opposite charges.

43)

For point B - E(4πr2) = (By Gauss's law)

qin = 0 ⇒ E = 0

44)
EA = EB = 0
EC ≠ 0 and nonuniform.

45)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the total electric flux passing through a
cylindrical surface that symmetrically encloses a long charged wire. The wire has a uniform
charge distribution per unit length, and the cylinder surrounds a specific length of the wire.
The goal is to use this information to calculate the electric flux through the cylinder.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is Gauss's law from electrostatics. Gauss's
law relates the electric flux through a closed surface to the charge enclosed by that surface.
Since the wire has a uniform linear charge density, the total enclosed charge in a certain
length of wire can be found by multiplying the linear charge density by that length. The
electric flux is then the enclosed charge divided by the permittivity of free space.

Relevant Formulas: Gauss's law: where is the electric flux, is the total
charge enclosed by the surface, and is the permittivity of free space.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Given the linear charge density as coulombs per centimeter.
2. The length of the cylindrical surface is 10 cm, so the charge enclosed is

. 3. Applying Gauss's law: Therefore, the total flux passing

 through the cylindrical surface is .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that for a line of charge, the enclosed charge is the linear charge
density multiplied by the length contained within the Gaussian surface. Gauss's law simplifies
flux calculation for symmetrical charge distributions.

Common Mistakes: One common mistake is to include the radius of the cylinder in the
charge calculation, even though only the length of the wire matters. Another is to forget to
convert units consistently or to apply Gauss's law incorrectly.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers involving or scaled incorrectly by factors
related to radius (like 50 or ) ignore that the flux depends only on the enclosed charge, not
the surface area or radius of the cylinder. The flux depends directly on the total charge inside,
which is , and not on the radius.

CHEMISTRY

46)

47) [Link] = V.D × 2

[Link] of X2 = 60

48)

Step 1

Write the balanced chemical equation:H2​(g)+Cl2​(g)→2HCl(g)

Step 2

Identify the limiting reagent. Since we have 12 L of H2 and 11.2 L of Cl2, Cl2 is the limiting
reagent.

Step 3

Calculate the volume of HCl produced: 11.2 L of Cl2 will react with 11.2 L of H2 to produce
22.4 L of HCl.

Step 4

Calculate the remaining volume of H2:12 L−11.2 L=0.8 L

Final Answer:
The final mixture will contain 0.8 L of H2 and 22.4 L of HCl.

49)

H2O + → + 2H+ + X
X = 2e–

50)

MnO4– + 5Fe+2 +8H+ → Mn+2 + 5Fe+3 + 4H2O

51) N1V1 = N2V2

0.1 × 2 × x = 5 × 0.1
x = 2.5 L

52)

C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

1 mol C3H8 —— 5 mol O2
5 mol C3H8 —— 25 mol O2
∴ = 25 × 22.4 = 560 L

53)

V.D =

4=
m = 64

So, V.D. =
V.D. of substance = 4
but V.D. of CH4 = 8
V.D. of substance = 32 mol wt. = 2 × 32

54)

55) 1. Explaining Question

The question describes a redox reaction involving permanganate (MnO4–) and sulfite (SO2) ions
and asks to identify which species are oxidized and reduced.
 2. Concept

A. Oxidation: An increase in oxidation number.

B. Reduction: A decrease in oxidation number.
C. Oxidizing Agent: A substance that oxidizes another substance and is itself reduced.
D. Reducing Agent: A substance that reduces another substance and is itself oxidized.

3. Solution
• The oxidation state of Mn in MnO4– is +7, and in Mn2+ it is +2. Therefore, Mn is reduced.
• The oxidation state of S in SO32– is +4, and in SO42– it is +6. Therefore, S is oxidized.

4. Final Answer
(3) MnO4– is reduced and SO32– is oxidized

56)

57) 2 mole N2H4 → 20 mole e–

1 mole N2 H4 → 10 mole e–
2 N atom → 10 mole e–
1 N atom → 5 mole e–
N–2 → N+3 + 5e–

58)

Explanation

A. This is a redox titration problem. We need to balance the half-reactions for KMnO₄ and C₂O₄²⁻
in acidic solution and then use stoichiometry to find the mole ratio.

Concept

A. Oxidation half-reaction (C₂O₄²⁻ → CO₂): C₂O₄²⁻ → 2CO₂ + 2e⁻ (Carbon is oxidized from +3
to +4)
B. Reduction half-reaction (MnO₄⁻ → Mn²⁺ in acidic solution): MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺
+ 4H₂O (Manganese is reduced from +7 to +2)
C. Balance the electrons: Multiply the oxidation half-reaction by 5 and the reduction half-
reaction by 2 to equalize the number of electrons transferred: 1 5C₂O₄²⁻ → 10CO₂ + 10e⁻
2MnO₄⁻ + 16H⁺ + 10e⁻ → 2Mn²⁺ + 8H₂O
D. Overall balanced redox reaction: Add the two balanced half-reactions: 2MnO₄⁻ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ +
16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O
E. Mole ratio: From the balanced equation, 2 moles of KMnO₄ (MnO₄⁻) react with 5 moles of
C₂O₄²⁻.
F. Moles of KMnO₄ for 1 mole of C₂O₄²⁻: (Moles of KMnO₄) / (Moles of C₂O₄²⁻) = 2 / 5 If moles
of C₂O₄²⁻ = 1, then moles of KMnO₄ = (2/5) * 1 = 2/5

Answer option 3, (2/5).

59) 2

60)
n-factor of

E=

61) NCERT XIth Pg.#339 Para-3

62)
Priority order in PCC selection PFG > no. of multiple bond > No. of C > No. of substituent

63)

64) It has two heteroatoms

65) Lowest locant

66) Priority order of functional group

67)
2-ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane

68)

fact
69)
Star marked are 2°C

70)

fact

71)

Only carbon atoms are present in ring.

72)

1-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexane

73)

Solution/Explanation:

Question Explanation:

IUPAC name of given compound is :-

Given Data:

The structure of the compound is

Concept:

Question is related to IUPAC naming of IUPAC name of hydrocarbon derivatives having more
than one functional group

Selection of Parent Carbon Chain

Priority order: Principal Functional Group > Multiple Bond > Maximum No. of Carbon atoms
> Substituents

Numbering of Parent Carbon Chain:

Priority order: Principal Functional group > Multiple bond > Substituents > Alphabetical
order
Explanation:

If an unbranched carbon chain is directly linked to more than two like functional groups, the
organic compound is named as a derivative of parent alkane which does not include the carbon
atom of the functional groups. These are named by use of suffix such as tricarbonitrile (for
three -CN groups).

The compound having principal functional group a cyanide (-CN). And junior functional group
are a hydroxyl group (-OH) (prefix = hydroxy) attached to carbon 2 of the chain.

Final Answer: 2

Level Easy

74) Explanation:
IUPAC naming Alkene

Concept:
IUPAC name

Solution:

2, 5 - dimethyl heptane

Correct option: (3)

75) Fact
76)

Correct order of size

Ne > O > F

77)

BeO = amphoteric oxide

MgO, CaO = Basic

78) NCERT-XI, Part-I, Periodic Table

79)

Amphoteric compounds are those which behaves both as an acid and base.
Many metals such as copper, tin, zinc, lead, aluminium, beryllium form amphoteric oxides or
hydroxides.

80)
EA of Cl = IE of
(I) (II)

81) O+, O, O– ⇒ Z same but different Zeff

Zeff ∝ positive charge ∝

Zeff ∝ electronegativity
So, order :- O+ > O > O–

82) More EA release more will be e– gain enthalpy.

83) BeO is amphoteric rest all are purely basic in nature.

84)

UUT – 113
Group – 13
p-Block

85)

cationic < Neutral < Anionic

 86) Lanthanoid Contraction

87)

Cu Ag Au
10 1 10 1
4f 5d 6s1
14 10
3d 4s 3d 5s
In Au, poor screening is provided by 4f subshell e¯.
∴ Zeff increases and ionization energy also increases.
∴ Au > Cu > Ag is correct order.

88)

(A) Acidic character :- Δ E.N. ↓ B.L.↑, Acidic character ↑

HF < HCl < HBr < HI

(B) :- Basic nature

(C) :- Acidic nature

(D) Li2O < Na2O < K2O
(down the group basic character increases for oxides)

89) Si :- [Ne]3s23p2
After removing 4 electrons from outermost shell it will achieve stable noble gas configuration
so removing e– from it well require higher I.E.

90)

Lanthanide contraction < Actinide contraction

BIOLOGY

91)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which of the given cellular components is not
present in bacteria. It provides four options: Mitochondria, DNA, Ribosome, and Cytoplasm,
and asks to identify which one bacteria do not have.

Underlying Concept: Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms, meaning they lack membrane-
bound organelles. They do have DNA, ribosomes, and cytoplasm, but they do not have
mitochondria, which are found only in eukaryotic cells.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that mitochondria are called the 'powerhouses of the cell' and
are only found in eukaryotic cells, not prokaryotes like bacteria.

Common Mistakes: Confusing bacteria with eukaryotic cells and assuming that all cellular
components are present in bacteria.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: DNA is present in bacteria as they contain their genetic
material. Ribosomes are present for protein synthesis. Cytoplasm is the fluid inside cells where
organelles reside. Only mitochondria are absent because bacteria produce energy differently.

92)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which ion helps to form the salt linkage between the
larger and smaller subunits of a ribosome. In simpler terms, it wants to identify the specific
charged particle that stabilizes the connection between these two parts of the ribosome.

Underlying Concept: Salt linkages in biological molecules refer to the interactions between
oppositely charged ions or groups that help stabilize the structure. Ribosomes are made of two
subunits, and their interaction is stabilized by positively charged ions. Among common metal
ions, magnesium ion (Mg^{2+}) is known to play a key role in stabilizing the ribosome
structure by neutralizing the negative charges on the RNA and forming salt linkages between
subunits.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Mg^{2+} ions are frequently involved in stabilizing RNA
and ribosome structures because of their +2 charge, which can effectively neutralize negative
charges.

Common Mistakes: Assuming monovalent ions like Na^{+} or K^{+} play the main role in
binding ribosome subunits, when in fact divalent ions like Mg^{2+} are more important for
such stability.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Ca^{2+}, Na^{+}, and K^{+} are other common ions
but they do not specifically help form salt linkages between ribosomal subunits. Na^{+} and
K^{+} are monovalent and less efficient, and Ca^{2+} is not typically involved in ribosome
stabilization.

93) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 176

94)

NCERT Page No. # 164

95) NCERT XI pg.# 126

96)

Algal cell wall is made up of Cellulose, Galactan, Mannans, Minerals

97) NCERT XI Pg # 131

98) NCERT page 132

99) NCERT XI, Pg. # 131

100) Module - 6 Pg. # 183

101) NCERT-XI, Pg#126

102) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 136; para-8.5.6

103) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 132, para-01

104) NCERT XI, Pg. # 135-136, Para-01, 02

105) NCERT-Pg. No. 137, Fig. 8.9

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 97

107) NCERT, Pg#136, Para.-8.5.7

108) NCERT XI, Pg.# 138

109) The correct answer is: 2. Inner membrane

Explanation:
The F0-F1 particle (also known as ATP synthase) are located in the inner membrane of the
mitochondria. They are responsible for synthesizing ATP during oxidative phosphorylation.

110) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 138, Para - 04

111) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 139 Para : II

112) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 136 Fig.8.8

113) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 137 : 8.5.7

 114) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 100

115) NCERT Pg. # 132

116)

NCERT -134,135

117) SPARK Module Eng. Pg.# 129, 130

िहदी पे ज # 6, 7

118)

NCERT, Pg. # 99

119) NCERT-XI Pg#97

120)

Asking About :-
The type of plastid that specializes in storing starch.

Concept :-
Understanding the different types of plastids and their functions in plant cells.

Solution or Explanation :
Plastids are a diverse group of organelles fount in plant and algal cells.
Amyloplasts are specifically adapted for storing starch granules.
They are commonly found in storage tissues like roots and tubers.

Answer : 3. Amyloplast

121)

The correct answer is:

A. Two

Explanation: Among the listed cell organelles:

A. Nucleolus is membrane-less. It is a dense region within the nucleus where ribosomal

RNA (rRNA) is synthesized.

B. Centriole is also membrane-less. It is involved in cell division but does not have a
membrane.
 The other organelles:

A. Peroxisome, Lysosome, Mitochondria, and Chloroplast all have membranes.

So, only the Nucleolus and Centriole are devoid of membranes.

122) Module No.6 Pg.# 177,179

123)

NCERT Pg. # 93, 94, 95, 96

124)

NCERT Page No. 101

125) NCERT Pg # 138

126) NCERT Page No. 137

127) NCERT Page # 138

128) NCERT Page # 139

129) NCERT XI Pg. # 125

130) NCERT XI, Page # 136, Para 8.5.5

131) NCERT XI, Page # 138, Para 8.5.10

132) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 138, Para No. 8.5.10

133) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134

134) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 132

135) NCERT, Page No. # 138

136) NCERT XI pg# 144

137) W-Phallic gland, X-Titilator

Y-Pseudopenis, Z-Ejaculatory duct

138) NCERT XI Pg. # 111-112

139)

NCERT Page # 112

140)

NCERT XI Page # 114 (I Para)

141) NCERT-XI Pg. # 112

142) NCERT page: 113

143) NCERT (XI) Pg # 114 IInd Para

144) NCERT Pg # 114, 115

145)

NCERT Pg. # 112

146) NCERT XIth, Pg 114 (E), 114(H)

147) NCERT Pg. # 115

148) NCERT Pg. # 113

149) [NCERT Pg. 113]

The presence of cuticle acts as barrier.

150)

The correct answer is Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon →

Rectum.
Here's the sequence of the alimentary canal in a cockroach:
• Pharynx: The muscular region that helps in swallowing food.
• Oesophagus: A long tube that carries food to the crop.
• Crop: A sac-like structure that stores food temporarily.
• Gizzard: A muscular organ that grinds food.
• Ileum: The longest part of the midgut, where digestion and absorption occur.
• Colon: The hindgut, where water absorption takes place.
• Rectum: The last part of the hindgut, where solid waste is stored before being expelled.

151) NCERT Pg. # 112

152) NCERT Pg. # 114

153) NCERT Pg. # 115

154) NCERT (XI) Pg # 115 Ist Para

155) NCERT Pg. # 113

156) Pg. No. 119 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

157) Module Pg.# 161,162

158) NCERT Pg. # 118

159) NCERT Pg. # 119

160)

NEET 2017 question

161)

NCERT Pg. # 80, 82

162) Diaphragm: Frogs do not have a diaphragm for respiration. They breathe through their
skin and lungs.
Anus: Frogs have a cloaca, a single opening for the digestive, urinary, and reproductive
systems.
Tail: Frogs do not have tails in their adult stage. Cortex, medulla and pyramid absent in
kidney of frog ans-1

163) NCERT, Page No. 83

164) NCERT Pg. No. # 119, 120

165) NCERT Pg.# 82

166) NCERT Pg. # 116

167) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 81

168) NCERT Pg. # 82,83

169) NCERT Page No.- 82;

170) NCERT Pg.# 82

171) NCERT Pg.# 84

172)

Page No. 84

173)

Pg. No. 119 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

174) [NCERT Pg. 111]

175) The nervous system of cockroach is spread throughout the body. The head holds a bit of
nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral (belly-side) part of its body.

176) NCERT XI pg.#114, IVth para

177) Ejaculatory duct is muscular tube which runs backwardly in midventral region to open in
male genital aperture. It has glandular lining which secretes middle wall layer of
spermatophore.

178) Old NCERT-XI, Page # 111

The body of cockroach is segmented and divisible in to three distinct regions– Head, Thorax &
Abdomen.

179) NCERT Pg. # 114, Para 7.4.2

180)

NCERT-XI, Page No. 113