13-07-2025

5401CMD303031250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle moves 15 m in east direction. Suddenly it takes a sharp right turn and moves 20 m in
South direction. The direction of displacement of the particle can be written as :-

(1) 37o S of E
(2) 53o S of E
(3) 37o N of E
(4) 53° N of E

2) A particle starts its motion along x-axis whose acceleration is constant (a = 4 m/s2) its
displacement in 5th second is :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 25 m

3) A body covers part of a circular path. The ratio of distance and displacement is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)

The displacement of the particle is given by . The initial velocity and initial
acceleration are respectively

(1) b, –4d
(2) –b, 2c
(3) b, 2c
(4) 2c, –4d

5) If a car covers of the total distance with speed v1 and distance with speed v2 then
average speed is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A car travels half the distance with a constant speed of 40 m/s and the remaining half with a
constant speed of 60 m/s. The average speed of the car in m/s is

(1) 42
(2) 50
(3) 48
(4) 45

7)

A particle is moving with velocity 5 m/s towards east and its velocity changes to 5 m/s north in 10
sec. Find the acceleration.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle moves on a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by S = t3 – 6t2
+ 3t + 4 meters. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 42 m/s
(3) –9 m/s
(4) –15 m/s

9) A car is moving with speed 'v' can be stopped by applying breakes after at least 'x' m. If same car
is moving speed of 4v then it can be stopped by applying same breakes after at least 'y' m. Find the
ratio of x and y :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

10) A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of distance travelled during the 4th and 3rd sec.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The graph below shows the velocity versus time graph for a body Which of
the following graphs represents the corresponding acceleration versus time graphs

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The variation of velocity of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the figure. The

distance travelled by the particle in 4 s is :

(1) 25 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 55 m
(4) 60 m
13) A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves in a straight line with an acceleration as shown

below. The velocity of the particle at t = 3 s is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

14) Position-time graph is given. Find average speed in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec :-

(1) 5 m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 2 m/s

(4)
m/s

15)

A motor car covers part of total distance with V1 = 10 km/hr, second part with V2 = 20 km/hr

and rest part with V3 = 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car ?

(1) 18 km/hr
(2) 45 km/hr
(3) 6 km/hr
(4) 22.5 km/hr

16) A particle starts its motion from (2,0) to (20,0) & finally reaches to (–25,0). Find the magnitude
of displacement :- [All values are in cm]

(1) 25cm
(2) 27cm
(3) 23cm
(4) 29cm

17)

The velocity of a particle moving on the x-axis is given by V = x2 + x where V is in m/s and X is in m.
Find its acceleration in m/s2 when passing through the point X = 2m :-

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 11
(4) 30

18) The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The
displacement and distance travelled by the body in 6 sec are respectively

(1) 8 m, 16 m
(2) 16 m, 8 m
(3) 16 m, 16 m
(4) 8 m, 8 m

19) The position x of a particle varies with time t, as x = at2–bt3. The acceleration of the particle will
be zero at time t equals to

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The initial velocity of a particle is 10 m/sec and its retardation is 2 m/sec2. The distance covered
in the fifth second of the motion will be.

(1) 1m
(2) 19m
(3) 50m
(4) 75 m

21) A cars starts from rest, moves with an acceleration a and then decelerates at a constant rate b
for sometime to come to rest. If the total time taken is t, the maximum velocity of car is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)
Draw (v-t) curve from above curve :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Two equal and opposite charges of masses m1 and m2 are accelerated in a uniform electric field
through the same distance. What is the ratio of their accelerations, if their ratio of masses is m1/m2=
0.5?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A metallic conductor having charge Q with cavity is shown in figure. A point charge +q inserted
into cavity, keeping insulated from conductor. The total charge on outer surface of conductor is:

(1) Q
(2) (Q – q)
(3) (Q + q)
(4) q

25) Regular hexagon with side length 'a' is shown in fig. Find EA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Two point charges +9e and +e are kept at a distance a from each other. Where should we place
a third charge q on the line ioining the two charges so that it may be in equilibrium.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27)

Three infinitely charged sheets are kept parallel to X, Y-plane having charge densities as shown in
figure. Then, the value of electric field at 'P' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A circular ring carries a uniformly distributed positive charge and lies in X–Y plane with centre
at origin of coordinate system. If at a point (0, 0, z) the electric field is E, then which of the following
graph is correct?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) A dipole is placed in uniform electric field such that potential energy of dipole is minimum (U).
The work done by external agent in rotating a dipole by 180° is :-

(1) U
(2) +2U
(3) –2U
(4) –U

30) Charge on both surfaces of middle metal plate is :-

(1) x = –2Q, x' = 0

(2) x = +2Q, x' = 0
(3) x = –2Q, x' = +4Q
(4) x = –4Q, x' = +2Q

31) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find

the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) A wire of resistance R is stretched so that it's length increases by 20%. Find percentage change
in it's resistance :-

(1) 40%
(2) 44%
(3) 42%
(4) 22%

33) Current passes through a solution of sodium chloride. In 1.00s, 2.68 × 1016 Na+ ions arrive at the
negative electrode and 3.92 × 1016 Cl– ions arrive at positive electrode. Determine the current and
the direction in which it is flowing :-

(1) 1.056mA, positive to negative electrode

(2) 10.56mA, positive to negative electrode
(3) 1.056mA, negative to positive electrode
(4) 10.56mA, negative to positive electrode

34) For a wheatstone bridge shown; R1 > R2 and R3 = R4. The direction of current in wire AB is :

(1) From A to B
(2) No current flows in AB
(3) From B to A
(4) Data is not sufficient

35) Which of the following dependence of drift velocity :-

2
(1) vd ∝ E
(2) vd ∝
(3) vd = constant
(4) vd ∝ E
36) A conductor wire having 1029 free electrons/m3 carries a current of 20 A. If the cross-section of
the wire is 1mm2, then the drift velocity of electrons will be :- (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C)

(1) 1.25 × 10–5 ms–1

(2) 6.25 × 10–3 ms–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 ms–1
(4) 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1

37) The resistance of a wire is 20 ohm. It is so stretched that the length becomes three times, then
the new resistance of the wire will be :-

(1) 6.67 ohm

(2) 60.0 ohm
(3) 120 ohm
(4) 180.0 ohm

38) Consider a solid wire of square cross–section (fig.). Its resistance between square faces is R1 and

between rectangular faces is R2 then R1/R2 is

(1) a/b
(2) b/a
(3) a2/b2
(4) b2/a2

39) In general the resistance of a conductor increases with increase in temperature. The
temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire at 0°C is 0.001°C–1. lts resistance is one ohm at 25°C.
The temperature at which its resistance will become 1.4 Ω is :-

(1) 435°C
(2) 425°C
(3) 325°C
(4) 225°C

40) The V-I graph for a conductor makes an angle θ with the Y-axis, where V denotes voltage and I

denotes current. The resistance of the conductor is given by :-

(1) sin θ
(2) cos θ
(3) tan θ
(4) cot θ

41) If a copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer. The percentage change in its resistance is :-

(1) 0.2% increase

(2) 0.2% decrease
(3) 0.1% increase
(4) 0.1% decrease

42) Variation of current passing through a conductor at the voltage applied across its ends is varied
as shown in figure. If the resistance is determined at the points A, B and C, then resistances at :-

(1) C and D are equal

(2) B is higher than at A
(3) C is higher than at B
(4) A is higher than at C

43) Find equivalent resistance A and B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A wire of resistance 12 ohms per meter is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The
resistance between its two diametrically opposite points A and B as shown in the figure, is :-
(1) 0.6 πΩ
(2) 3 Ω
(3) 6 πΩ
(4) 6 Ω

45) Each Resistance is R. Find RAB :-

(1) R

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid

(2) 3-Cyano-4-amino hexanoic acid
(3) 3-Amino-4-ethyl-5-cyano pentanoic acid
(4) 3-Amino-5-cyano hexanoic acid

2) Which one is homocyclic compound :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

3) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 4-Bromo-2-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid

(2) 5-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentanoic acid
(3) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid
(4) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid

4)

The IUPAC name of the compound :

is :-

(1) 1,2,3-di hydroxy propane

(2) 3-hydroxy pentane-1, 5-diol
(3) 1,2,3-hydroxy propane
(4) Propane-1,2,3-triol

5) Common Name of given compound is :-

(1) Neopentyl alcohol

(2) Tert pentyl alcohol
(3) Tert butyl alcohol
(4) Neopentane

6) The IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 3, 4-Dimethylbut-2-en-4-ol
(2) 3-Methylpent-2-en-4-ol
(3) 3-Methylpent-3-en-2-ol
(4) 1, 2-Dimethylbut-2-en-1-ol

7)

The IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 4-Methylcyclopent-1-en-2-ol
(2) 5-Methylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol
(3) 2-Methylcyclopent-4-en-1-ol
(4) 3-Methylcyclopent-1-en-2-ol

8)

IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 3-Carboxy-2-pentene
(2) 3-Ethyl-2-buten-4-oic acid
(3) 2-Ethyl-2-butenoic acid
(4) 2-Ethylidene butanoic acid

9) What is the correct relationship between the following compounds ?

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Identical

10) & CH3–CH=CH–CH2–Cl are

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Ring chain isomers
(3) Not isomers
(4) Position isomers
11)

(1) Position isomers

(2) Metamer
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Chain isomers

12) and are

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Chain isomers

13)

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Functional group isomer
(3) Position isomer
(4) (2) and (3) both

14) Identify the relationship between the given compound

(1) Position isomers

(2) Chain isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Metamers

15) Diene & Aklyne & are example of

(1) Metamerism
(2) Functional Isomer
(3) Positional Isomer
(4) Chain Isomer
16) Total σ + π bonds in benzene are :-

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) None

17) Which of the following has zero dipole moment

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

18) Identify the incorrect structure

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which of the following has tetrahedral structure ?

(1) CCl4
(2) SO2
(3) H3PO4
(4) 1 & 3 both
20) Which of the following is correct order of σ-bond strength?
(I) 2s – 2s (II) 2s – 2p
(III) 2p – 2p (IV) 3s – 3s

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) III > I > II > IV

21) Which of the following is hyper valent molecule :-

(1) BF3
(2) IF7
(3) CCl4
(4) H2O

22) Total number of bond pair and lone pair of electron in XeF4 molecule respectively :-

(1) 9, 7
(2) 8,4
(3) 6, 9
(4) 8, 9

23) Nitrogen forms N2 but phosphorus do not forms P2, but it exists as P4 the reason for this is :

(1) Triple bond is present between phosphorus atoms

(2) 2pπ - 2pπ bonding is strong
(3) 3pπ - 3pπ bonding is weak
(4) Multiple bond is formed easily

24) Which of the following is a polar molecule ?

(1) XeF4
(2) BF3
(3) SF4
(4) SiF4

25) Which is not correctly matched ?

(1) XeO3 → Trigonal Pyramidal

(2) ClF3 → Bent T-shape
(3) XeOF4 → Square pyramidal
(4) XeF2 → Linear

26) The hybrid orbitals used by P in PCl5 are :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Which of the following has the smallest bond angle?

(1) H2O
(2) CO2
(3) NH3
(4) BeCl2

28) In which of the following reaction hybridisation of underlined atom doesn't change ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

29) In which excited state, iodine shows covalency = 7 :

(1) 1st excited state

(2) 2nd excited state
(3) 3rd excited state
(4) ground state

30) Assertion: In PCl5 axial bonds have been found to be slightly longer than equatorial bonds.
Reason : axial bond pairs suffer more repulsive interaction from equatorial bond pairs

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) The oxidation number of oxygen in KO3,Na2O2 is :

(1) 3, 2
(2) 1, 0
(3) 0, 1
(4) –0.33, –1

32) Oxidation numbers of P in , S in and that of Cr in are respectively :-

(1) –3, +6 and +6

(2) +5, +6 and +6
(3) +3, +6 and +5
(4) +5, +3 and +6

33) Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one mole of oxalate ion (C2O42–) in acidic medium :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3

(4)

34) Which one is incorrect statement :

(1) Fluorine always shows –1 oxidation state in combined state.

(2) Hydrogen always shows +1 oxidation state in combined state.
(3) Sodium always shows +1 oxidation state in combined state.
(4) Calcium always shows +2 oxidation state in combined state.

35) 5.6 g KOH completely neutralises 0.1 mole of H3POx. Thus x is:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

36) If number of electrons present in x+3 is 16, then number of protons in x will be

(1) 16
(2) 13
(3) 18
(4) 19

37) The charge on the atom containing 17 protons, 18 neutrons and 18 electrons is :-

(1) +1
(2) -2
(3) -1
(4) Zero

38) If mass of electron is doubled, mass of neutron is halved, mass of proton is same. Then at mass
of 8O16 would:-

(1) increased by 25%

(2) increased by 50%
(3) reduced by 25%
(4) reduced by 50%

39) Match the list I and II and pick the correct matching from the code given below :-

List I List II

A Isotope a

B Isobar b

C Isotone c

D Isosters d

E Isodiapheres e CO2 & N2O

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) A 100 watt bulb emits light of λ = 400 Å, the number of photons/sec emitted by the bulb will be-

(1) 5 × 1016
(2) 2 × 1019
(3) 20 × 1029
(4) 5 × 1015

41) Energy of electron in second orbit of He+ is -

(1) –6.80 eV
(2) –13.6 eV
(3) –27.20 eV
(4) –54.4 eV

42) The KE of electron in He+ will be maximum in ?

(1) 3rd orbit

(2) 2nd orbit
(3) 1st orbit
(4) n = ∞
43) An hydrogen atom (ionisation energy 13.6 eV) jumps from third excited state to first excited
state. The energy of photon emitted in the process is :-

(1) 1.89 eV
(2) 2.55 eV
(3) 12.09 eV
(4) 12.75 eV

44)

The ratio of the radii of two Bohr orbits of H-atom is 4 : 1. What would be their nomenclature :

(1) K and L
(2) L and K
(3) N and L
(4) 2 and 3 both

45) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000 Å and 6000 Å

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 4

BIOLOGY

1) The cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does replicates its DNA. This
statement is correct for :

(1) G1 - phase
(2) G2 – phase
(3) S-phase
(4) M-phase

2) In which one of the following options two events of cell cycle are not correctly matched with their
particular phase ?

Events Phase

Centriole duplication in the cytoplasm

(i)
(1) of animal cell S
(ii) DNA replication in nucleus

(i) Splitting of centromere

(2) Movement of centriole toward opposite Anaphase
(ii)
poles of cell
 (i) Activity of recombinase enzyme
(3) Crossing over between non sister Pachytene
(ii)
chromatid

(i) Terminalisation of chiasmata

(4) Diakinesis
(ii) Nucleolus disappear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) "Chromosomes material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes". This statement

correct for :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

4) A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase :-

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 92
(4) 44

5) Select the events that do not occur in interphase stage of cell cycle :-
(a) RNA and protein synthesis
(b) Cytoplasmic growth
(c) Polymerisation of spindle fiber protein
(d) Disappearance of golgi bodies and ER
(e) Condensation of chromatin

(1) c, d and e
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and c

6) If the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1, after S phase the number of
chromosomes in the cell will be :-

(1) 2n
(2) 4n
(3) n
(4) 3n
7)

A plant cell has 24 chromosomes and 2C content of DNA at G1. What must be the chromosome
number and DNA content inside cell at anaphase of mitosis ?

(1) 24, 4C
(2) 48, 2C
(3) 48, 4C
(4) 24, 2C

8) If mitotically dividing vegetative cell of flowering plant at G1 stage has 20 chromosome with 20pg
DNA then in anaphase cell will has :-

(1) 20 chromosomes/40pg DNA

(2) 40 chromosomes/40pg DNA
(3) 40 chromosomes/80pg DNA
(4) 10 chromosomes/40pg DNA

9) At which stage of cell division these events occur ?

Initiation of assembly Spindle fibres attach to Chromosomes cluster at

of mitotic spindle kinetochores of chromosome opposite spindle poles

(1) Prophase Metaphase Anaphase

(2) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(3) Prophase Anaphase Telophase

(4) Prophase Metaphase Telophase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) The four figures (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different stages of mitotic cell
division. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct
description and key events ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
 Stage Description Key event

Bivalent Chromosomes align on

(1) D Prophase Followed by G2 Phase
the equatorial plate

Condensation of chromosome Daughter chromosome move to

(2) B Metaphase
completed opposite poles

Homologous chromosome
(3) C Telophase Longer and highly complex
separate

Centromere is towards poles and Centromere split and

(4) A Anaphase
chromatids trailing behind chromatids separate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Choose the incorrect option for essentiality of the cell to divide by mitosis
(A) Usually results in the production of cells with identical genetic complement.
(B) Growth of unicellular organisms is due to meiosis
(C) Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(D) Cell repair Options :-

(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C
(3) Only C
(4) Only B

12) In which stage protein synthesis takes place ?

(1) G1-Phase
(2) G2-Phase
(3) S-Phase
(4) All of these

13) Which one of the following stage is correctly described with its event ?

(1) Anaphase I Chromosome with single chromatid

(2) Pachytene Synaptonemal complex formation

(3) Zygotene Crossing over between chromosome

(4) Metaphase-I 2 Metaphase plate are present

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14)

At which stage of meiosis, do these events occur ?

Formation of
Bivalents more Terminalisation
synaptonemal
clearly visible of chiasmata
complex
(1) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene
(2) Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis
(3) Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene Diplotene Diakinesis
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Which of the following statements are related with the first phase of karyokinesis in mitosis ?
(A) Morphology of chromosomes can be most easily studied.
(B) Centrioles, which had undergone duplication during S phase, begin to move towards opposite
poles of the cell.
(C) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
(D) The initiation of condensation of chromatin.

(1) C,D
(2) B, D
(3) A, B
(4) B, C

16) How many bivalent are observed in metaphse I of a meiocyte if 23 chromosomes are present in
gametes :-

(1) 46
(2) 23
(3) 92
(4) Cannot be determined

17) Few events of cell cycle is given below. Arrange these events in ascending order and select the
correct option given below :-
(A) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(B) Chromosomes lost their individuality
(C) Centromere division & formation of daughter chromosome
(D) Attachment of chromosomal fiber on kinetochore
(E) Chromosome replication

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) A → D → C → E → B
(3) A → D → E → C → B
(4) E → A → D → C → B

18) Which one of the following statement is incorrect:-

(1) M-phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle

(2) Cell division is a progressive process
(3) Prophase follows the S and G0 phases of interphase
(4) Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

19)

Which of the following is wrongly matched-

(1) M phase - Most dramatic phase

(2) Cell cycle duration in Yeast - 90 minutes
(3) G0 phase - metabolically inactive
(4) S phase- DNA replication

20)

Appearance of chaismata is the feature of :-

(1) Leptotene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Zygotene
(4) Diakinesis

21) The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their
centromeres. This is correct for which of the following phases?

(1) Anaphase-II
(2) Anaphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase-I

22) Study the following option carefully and select the correct option ?
(i) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(ii) Chromosomes are fully condensed
(iii) Nucleolus disappears

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diakinesis
23) Which of the following event takes place during prophase of mitosis ?

(1) Condensation of chromatin material initiates

(2) Centromere split and chromatids separate
(3) Centriole or centrosomes begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell
(4) Both (1) & (3)

24) How many bivalents are present in primary spermatocyte of human during metaphase-I ?

(1) 46
(2) 92
(3) 23
(4) Either 23 or 46

25) If the pollengrain of a plant has 40 pg of DNA in its nucleus then how much DNA would a cell of
the same organism have in metaphase-I of meiosis ?

(1) 40 pg
(2) 120 pg
(3) 160 pg
(4) 80 pg

26) The Figures of cork cells as seen by Robert Hooke were published in his book :-

(1) Origin of species

(2) Plant kingdom
(3) Genera plantarum
(4) Micrographia

27) Read the following statements and choose right option regarding them :-
(I) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existance.
(II) Anton von leeuwenhock first saw and described a live cell.

(1) Statement I and II both are incorrect

(2) Statement I correct and II incorrect
(3) Statement I and II both are correct
(4) Statement I incorrect and II correct

28) When centromere is located near the center than chromosome is

(1) Acrocentric
(2) Telocentric
(3) Metacentric
(4) Sub-metacentric

29) Densely stained structure near the nucleus is :-

(1) Golgibody
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Lysosomes
(4) Ribosomes

30) Centrioles have :-

(1) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules

(2) 9 Peripheral doublet microtubules
(3) 2 centrally located microtubules
(4) An organisation like the cart wheel

31) Assembly of 60s and 40s subunit of ribosome produces :-

(1) 80 s
(2) 70 s
(3) 100 s
(4) 50 s

32) Tonoplast is the surrounding membrane of :-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Nucleus
(3) Vacuole
(4) Lysosome

33) Middle lamella is made of

(1) Cellulose
(2) Pectin
(3) Calcium pectate
(4) Lignin

34) Microtubules are the constituents of :-

(1) Spidle fibers, cilia, centrioles

(2) Cilia, flagella, peroxysome
(3) Centrioles, chromatin, spindle fibers
(4) Centrosome, nucleosome, centrioles

35) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mitochondria:

(1) They divide by fission

(2) The matrix possesses single circular DNA
(3) The cristae decrease the surface area
(4) They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
36) Nucleous is spherical structure present in nucleus and usually attached to chromatin at specific
site called

(1) Euchromatin
(2) Nucleolar organizer region
(3) Microtubule organizing centre
(4) Secondary constriction-II

37) Which one is correct for heterochromatin of eukaryotic nucleus ?

(1) It stains densely with basic dyes

(2) It is highly condensed in interphase
(3) It is highly expanded in interphase, stains densely with acidic dyes
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) Identify A to D in the diagrammatic representation of internal structure cilia/flagella :

A-Dynein arms, B-Central microtubule,

(1)
C-Plasma membrane, D-Radial spoke
A-Plasma membrane, B-Central microtubule,
(2)
C-Dynein arms, D-Radial spoke
A-Plasma membrane, B-Dynein arms,
(3)
C-Central microtubule, D-Radial spoke
A-Plasma membrane, B-Dynein arms,
(4)
C-Radial spoke, D-Central microtubule

39) Identify the labelled part A, B, C and D in given figure of chloroplast :-

A B C D
(1) Stroma Stroma lamella Thylakoid Granum
(2) Cytosol Stroma lamella Thylakoid Granum
(3) Cytoplasm Granum Thylakoid Stroma
Stroma
(4) Stroma Thylakoid Granum
lamella

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) During the different stages of cell division, cells show chromosomes in place of the nucleus. The
chromosomes can be classified into four types,such as metacentric, submetacentric, acrocentric and
[Link] is the basis of such categorization of chromosomes ?

(1) Length of chromosomes

(2) Position of the secondary constriction
(3) Length of DNA
(4) Position of the centromere

41) Read the following statement carefully and identify the two correct statements and select the
correct option :-
(A) Function of mitochondria and chloroplast are co-ordinated with other endomembrane system
components.
(B) Function of ER and Golgi Body are co-ordinated.
(C) Vacoule, golgi body, lysosome and endoplasmic reticulam are the part of endomembrane
system.
(D) Ribosome are attached on ER, so ribosomes are part of endomembrane system.
Options :

(1) B and C
(2) A and C
(3) B and D
(4) A & D

42) Name the passages through which movement of RNA and protein molecules takes place in both
direction between the nucleus and the cytoplasm:-

(1) Porins
(2) Perinuclear space
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Nuclear pore

43) Assertion :- Proteins shows lateral movement in the lipid bilayer.

Reason :- Lipid bilayer is quasi-fluid in nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44)

Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is not correct ?

(1) The number of mitochondria in a cell depends on the physiological activity of cell.
(2) New mitochondria are formed by the pre-existing ones through binary fission.
(3) Mitochondria are devoid of ribosomes.
(4) Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration.

45)

Algal cell wall is composed of :-

(1) Cellulose, galactose, Hemicellulose, mineral like CaCO3.

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin and protein
(3) Cellulose, chitin and some other complex polysaccharide.
(4) Cellulose, galactans, mannans, mineral like CaCO3.

46) Most abundant element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

47) Polyunsaturated fatty acids are

(1) Oleic acid, linoleic acid and linolenic acid

(2) Oleic acid, palmitic acid and arachidonic acid
(3) Linoleic acid, linolenic acid and stearic acid
(4) Linoleic acid, linolenic acid and arachidonic acid

48) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Ribozymes are deoxyribonucleic acids with catalytic power.
(b) Oils have lower melting point and hence remain as liquid in winters.
(c) Majority of simple lipids have both glycerol and fatty acids.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding the carboxyl carbon.

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (b), (c)

49) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Lectin i. Sataturated fatty acid

 b. Glycerol ii.

c. α-amino acid iii. Trihydroxy alcohol

d. Palmitic acid iv. Concanavalin A

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

50) Lactose composed of :-

(1) Glucose + Glucose

(2) Glucose + Galactose
(3) Galactose + Mannose
(4) Glucose + Fructose

51) If a protein is imagined as a line, then the left end can be represented by :-

(1) The first amino acid and its carboxyl terminal

(2) The last amino acid and its amino terminal
(3) The first amino acid and its amino terminal
(4) All of these

52) In the given structure R1, R2 and R3 represents ?

(1) Amino acid

(2) Fatty acid
(3) Lecithin
(4) Carbohydrate

53) What is the no. of chiral atom in βD glucose :-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

54) False statement for glycogen molecule is :-

(1) β - 1'- 4" linkage, unbranched

(2) α - 1'- 4" linkage, branched
(3) Polymer of α-glucose
(4) α - 1' - 6" branch linkage

55) Which of the following bond is absent in the tertiary structure of proteins :-

(1) Disulfide bond

(2) Hydrophobic bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

56) Given below is the structure of :-

(1) oleic acid

(2) Galactose
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) Palmitic acid

57) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
(b) The R group could be a methyl (–CH3) or ethyl (–C2H5) or higher no. of –CH2 group (1 carbon to
19 carbon) in fatty acids
(c) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 21 carbon atom including the carboxyl carbon.
Option

(1) Statement (a), (b) and (c)

(2) Statement (a), (b) only
(3) Statement (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

58) Which of the following is not a polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) :-

(1) Linoleic acid

(2) Linolenic acid
(3) Arachidonic acid
(4) Arachidic acid
59) Assertion : Cellulose does not give I2 test.
Reason : Cellulose does not contain complex helices.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

60) Assertion : Polysaccharides are non-reducing .

Reason : In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is
called the non-reducing end.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

61) Assertion : When iodine comes into contact with starch, it forms a blue colour.
Reason : Starch have structure without helix , iodine trap in its branches to give blue colour.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

62)
Identify the enzyme class responsible for given reaction

(1) Hydrolases
(2) Oxidoreductases
(3) Isomerases
(4) Lyases

63) How many statements are correct from given below ?

A - Protein is present in acid insoluble fraction
B - Lecithin is a glycolipid
C - Abrin is a secondary metabolite
D - Cell wall of fungi is made of chitin

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

64) Inulin is a polymer of

(1) Fructose
(2) Glucose
(3) Mannose
(4) Ribose

65) Assertion (A) Carbohydrates are more suitable for the production of energy in the body than
proteins and fats.
Reason (R) Carbohydrates can be stored in the tissues as glycogen and can be used for the
production of energy, whenever necessary.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

66) How many of the following statements [A-D] are correct :-

(A) Leucine & Valine are neutral amino acids
(B) Lysine & Arginine are basic amino acids
(C) Alanine is basic amino acid
(D) Tryptophan is the simplest amino acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Which of the following is not an example of aromatic amino acid.

(1) Tryptophan
(2) Phenylalanine
(3) Tyrosine
(4) Alanine

68) Identify the incorrect pair

(1) Lectins - Concanavalin-A

(2) Insulin - Hormone
(3) Starch - Homo polysaccharide
(4) Maltose - Invert Sugar

69) Glycosidic bond is formed between :-

(1) Carbon and oxygen atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides

(2) Carbon and hydrogen atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides
(3) Hydrogen and oxygen atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides
(4) Two carbon atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides
70)

(1) X is C-terminal amino acid and Y is N- terminal amino acid

(2) Both X and Y are C-terminal Amino acids.
(3) X is N-terminal amino acid and Y is C-terminal amino acid
(4) Both X and Y are N-terminal amino acid.

71) The amino acids are acidic, basic and neutral based on the number of

(1) Amino groups and hydrogen

(2) Amino and carboxyl group
(3) Carboxyl groups and hydrogen
(4) Only carboxyl groups

72) The chemical and physical properties of amino acids are essentially based on :

(1) Amino group only

(2) Carboxyl group only
(3) R functional group only
(4) Amino group, carboxyl group and R functional group.

73) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of certain type of polysaccharide identify the parts
labelled ABCD and select the right option about them :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

α(1–6) α(1–4)
Branching Linear
(1) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage

α(1–4) α(1–6)
Linear Branching
(2) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage
 α(1–6) α(1–4)
Branching Linear
(3) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage

α(1–6) α(1–4)
Linear Branching
(4) glycosidic glycosidic
chain chain
linkage linkage
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Choose the correct option for the given structure :-

(1) Never occurs in free form

(2) More abundant in blood
(3) Structure is aldopentose
(4) It is non rotatory

75)

The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature
and substrate concentration).
What do the two axis (X and Y) represent ?

X -axis Y-axis

(1) Temperature Enzyme activity

(2) Substrate concentration Rate of reaction

(3) Enzymatic activity Temperature

 (4) Enzymatic activity pH
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76) The correct order of chemical composition of living tissues/cells in term of % of the total cellular
mass is

(1) Nucleic acid > Proteins > H2O>Carbohydrate>Ions>LIpid

(2) H2O>Proteins>Nucleic acid >Carbohydrate>Lipid > Ion
(3) H2O>Proteins>Carbohydrate>Nucleic acid >Lipid>Ions
(4) Lipid>Ions>Carbohydrate>H2O>Proteins>Nucleic acid

77) The given structural formulas represent amino acids (labelled by as X, Y and Z)

Identify the correct name of X, Y and Z.

(1) Alanine, serine and glycine respectively.

(2) Tyrosine, cysteine and glutamic acid respectively.
(3) Glycine, alanine and serine respectively.
(4) Cysteine, glutamic acid and tyrosine respectively.

78) According to enzyme substrate complex theory :-

Enzyme + Substrate A
B Enzyme + Product.
In the following reaction A and B is :-

(1) A → E.P., B → E.S.

(2) A → E.S., B → E.P.
(3) A → E.P., B → E.P.
(4) A → E.P., B → E.I.

79)

All of the following are made up of cellulose except :

(1) Plant cell wall

(2) Cotton fibres
(3) Exoskeleton of arthropods
(4) Paper made from plant pulp

80) Statement A : All the carbon compounds that we obtain from living tissues can be called
biomolecules. Statement B : Living organisms also possess inorganic elements and compounds.

(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect

(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

81) Which of the following compound is an example of phospholipid

(1) Amino acid

(2) Triglycerides
(3) Palmitic acid
(4) Lecithin

82) Which one of the following statement is correct with reference to enzymes ?

(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

83) Co-enzymes differ from prosthetic groups in that

(1) They require metal ions for their activity

(2) They can act as cofactor for many enzymes
(3) They are tightly bound to apoenzymes
(4) Their association with apoenzyme is transient

84) Read the following statements. Find out how many are corrects :-
(A) RuBisCO is most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere
(B) Biomacromolecules have a hierarchy of structures-primary, secondary, tertiary and quatenary.
(C) Lecithin contain a phosphorylated nitrogenous compound.
(D) Biomicromolecules are polymers

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

85) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Concanavalin A = Primary metabolite

(2) Rubber = Polymeric substance = Primary metabolite
(3) Palmitic acid = Saturated fatty acid
(4) Both 1 & 3

86) What is the nature of following biomolecule?

(A) Collagen
(B) Trypsin
(C) Antibody
(D) Receptor
(E) GLUT–4

(1) A, B, C, D, E are proteins

(2) A, B, C, D are proteins and E is lipid
(3) A, B, C are proteins and D, E are carbohydrates
(4) D, E are lipids A, B, C are carbohydrates.

87) Fructose is a/an :-

(1) Aldopentose
(2) Aldohexose
(3) Ketohexose
(4) Ketopentose

88) If a long protein chain is folded upon itself like a hollow woolen ball, it can represent all the
following features, except

(1) It gives a 3-dimensional view

(2) Give rise to tertiary structure
(3) Necessary for the many biological activities of proteins
(4) It can maintain its shape only by peptide bonds

89) Which amino acid is non essential for human body ?

(1) Phenylalanine
(2) Glycine
(3) Arginine
(4) Methionine

90) Assertion (A) : In zwitter ion form of monomeric unit of protein, exist as electrically neutral
moiety.
Reason (R) : All amino acids gives zwitteric form at same pH.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true But (R) is False.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are False.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 4 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 2 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 2 2 2 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 2 4 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 1 3 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 4 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 1 1 2 4 4 4 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 4 2 3 1 3 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

θ = 53°, S of E

2) =u+

=0+
= 2 × 9 = 18 m

3) = =

4)

5)
6)

7)

8) s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4

v= = 3t2 – 12t + 3

a= = 6t – 12
a = 0, t = 2 sec.
at t = 2 sec.
v = 3 × 22 – 12 × 2 + 3
= 12 – 24 + 3 = –9 m/s

9)

S= ⇒ S ∝ V2
x : y = 1 : 16

10)

11) From t = 0 to t = t1 slope is const. and negative so,

acceleration is constant and negative. From t = t1 to t = t2 slope is constant and positive, so
acceleration is positive and constant

12)

13) Area of a-t curve gives change in velocity.

14) Average speed = 30/15 = 2 m/s

15)

16)

Displacement =
Magnitude of displacement = 27 cm

17)

∵ v = x2 + x

∴ = (x2 + x) (2x + 1)
at x = 2m, a = [(2)2 + 2] [2 × 2 + 1]
∴ a = 30 m/s2

18) Displacement = Summation of all the area with sign

∴ Displacement = 8 m
Distance =Summation of all the areas without sign
=
∴ Distance = 16 m.
 19)

20) Concept:
When a particle moves with retardation (negative acceleration), its velocity decreases over
time. The distance covered in the nth second of motion can be calculated using the formula
derived from kinematics:

Where:

A. sn = distance covered in the nth second

B. u = initial velocity
C. a = acceleration (retardation is taken as negative acceleration)
D. n = the second being considered

Given Data:

A. Initial velocity, u = 10 m/s

B. Retardation, a = - 2 m/s2
C. n = 5 seconds

We need to find s5, the distance covered in the 5th second.

Formula Application:
Using the formula:

Substitute the given values:

Simplify step by step.

Calculation:

A. Calculate for n = 5;

B. Substitute u = 10, a = - 2 and = 9 into the formula:

C. Simplify the acceleration term:

 D. Substitute and solve:

s5 =
s5 = 10 - 9 = 1m
Final Answer:
The distance covered in the fifth second of motion is 1 meter.
Correct Option: 1.1 m

21)

Question Asking About:

In this question we have to find the maximum velocity of car for given conditions

Given Data:
Initial velocity of car (starts from rest) m = 0

Acceleration of car = a

Deceleration of car = b

Total time taken = t

Key Concept:
Equation of motion with constant acceleration.

Formula:

V = μt at

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Let at acceleration for time t1 and deceleration for time t2 then

t1 + t2 = t ….(1)

from v = μ + at

v = final velocity

μ = Initial velocity

a = acceleration

t = time

for acceleration

vmax = 0 + at1 (v = vmax)

vmax = at1 ...(2)

for deceleration :
 The velocity at the end of time t1 i.e vmax will be the initial velocity for time internal t2 and final
velocity will be 0.

for acceleration

from v = m + at

⇒ 0 = vmax + (-b / t2)

⇒ 0 = at1 – bt2 [vmax = at1 → from – 2, a = -b]

⇒ t2 =

Putting value of t2 in equation (1)

⇒ t1 + t2 ⇒ t1 + =t

⇒ = t ⇒ t1 = ….(3)

Putting value of t1 in equation (2)

Vmax = at1 ⇒

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

22)

If the original curve is a straight line, the slope (velocity) is constant. So, the v-t curve will be a
horizontal line. If the original curve is a parabola, the slope is changing, and the v-t curve will
be a straight line (representing acceleration).
Key points to remember:

A. Slope = Velocity:
The slope of a position-time graph is the velocity.
B. Area under the curve = Displacement:
The area under the velocity-time curve represents the displacement of the object.
C. Shape of the curve:
The shape of the v-t curve reveals information about the acceleration of the object.
D. Non-uniform motion:
If the original curve is not a straight line, the v-t curve will be a non-linear curve, indicating
non-uniform motion.

23)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks to find the ratio of accelerations of two particles with
equal but opposite charges when they are accelerated through the same distance in a uniform
electric field. The ratio of their masses is given, and we want to determine how their
accelerations compare.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of electric force acting on charged
particles in a uniform electric field and Newton's second law of motion, which relates force,
mass, and acceleration. Since the electric force is the same magnitude on both charges due to
equal charge and field, the difference in acceleration comes from their masses.

Relevant Formulas: Electric force on a charge: Newton's second law: Where: -

is the charge magnitude - is the electric field strength - is the mass of the particle - is
the acceleration

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Since both charges have charge and are in the same electric
field , the force on each is . 2. Acceleration of each charge is . 3. For the two

masses and , the accelerations are: 4. The ratio of accelerations is:

5. Given , then: 6. Therefore: This shows that the

particle with mass accelerates twice as fast as the one with mass .

Tips and Tricks: For particles with equal charges under the same electric field, acceleration
ratio is simply the inverse of their mass ratio.

Common Mistakes: 1. Confusing the direction of force with magnitude when calculating
acceleration ratio. 2. Using the ratio directly for acceleration ratio instead of its
reciprocal. 3. Forgetting that force magnitude is the same for both charges.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices like 0.5, 1, or 3 do not correctly invert the mass
ratio. Since acceleration is inversely proportional to mass, if the mass ratio is 0.5, the
acceleration ratio must be 2, not 0.5 or 1 or 3.

24)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the total charge on the outer surface of a metallic
conductor that initially has charge Q and contains a cavity. A point charge +q is placed inside
the cavity, but it does not touch or affect the conductor directly. We need to find how the
charge distributes on the conductor's outer surface in this scenario.

Underlying Concept: When a charge is placed inside a cavity within a conductor, the
conductor redistributes its free electrons to maintain zero electric field inside the conducting
material. This causes an induced charge of opposite sign on the inner surface of the cavity. By
conservation of total charge, the rest of the charge must move to the outer surface of the
conductor. This principle follows electrostatic shielding and Gauss's law.

Relevant Formulas: where = total charge originally on the conductor,

= induced charge on inner cavity surface, = charge on outer surface of the
conductor.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: The point charge +q inside the cavity induces a charge of
-q on the inner cavity surface.

Step 2: Using charge conservation,

Step 3: Solving for the outer charge,

Tips and Tricks: Remember that induced charges appear on the surfaces to maintain
electrostatic equilibrium. The total charge on the conductor remains constant, so any induced
charges on the inner surface must be balanced by opposite charges on the outer surface.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the charge +q inside the cavity simply adds to the conductor's
surface charge without affecting distribution. Forgetting the induced negative charge on the
inner surface caused by the charge inside the cavity.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Q alone ignores the influence of the +q charge inside
the cavity; Q - q incorrectly subtracts q from the total; q alone neglects the original charge Q
on the conductor.

25)
Enet = 2E cos 60° + E' = E + E'

26) distance from +e =

27)

The electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge is uniform that is distance
independent. So, at point P, by principle of superposition of electric field,

or
 28) 1. Question Explanation:
A circular ring with uniform positive charge lies in the XY-plane. The task is to identify the
correct electric field variation E along the z-axis.
2. Concept Based:
The electric field E on the z-axis due to a charged ring depends on the charge distribution
symmetry. E is maximum at z ≠ 0 and zero at z = 0.
3. Formula Used:

where Q = total charge, R = ring radius, z = distance along z-axis, and k = Coulomb constant.
4. Calculation:

A. At z = 0: Ez = 0 (field cancels out due to symmetry).

B. For z > 0: Ez increases, reaches a maximum, then decreases as z → ∞.
C. Graph 3 correctly depicts this behavior.
D. Direction of E will be reversed with +z & -z direction.

29) 1. Question Explanation:

The question asks for the work done by an external agent in rotating a dipole by 180° in a
uniform electric field, when the dipole's potential energy is minimum.
2. Concept Based:
The potential energy of a dipole in an electric field depends on its orientation. Work is done
when the dipole is rotated, which changes its potential energy. The work is the energy
difference.
3. Formula Used:

A. Potential Energy:
B. Work Done: W = U' - U = change in potential energy

4. Calculation (Brief):

A. Initial potential energy at

B. Final potential energy at
C. Work done:

W = - 2(- PE)
then from the equation No. ①
W = - 2U

30)

QTotal = 3Q + Q – 2Q = 2Q charge on outer surfaces of first and third plates

=
 31)

32) Question Explanantion:

A wire is stretched to increase its length by 20%. We need to find the percentage chage in
resistance assuming volume remains constant.
Concept:
Resistance changes wit length and area, under constant volume, stretching increases
resistance due to decreased cross-setional area.
Formula:

We use the resistance formula involving volume:

Where:

A. R = Resistance
B. p = Resistivity
C. L = Length of the wire
D. V = Volume (remains constant)

Also, percentage change in resistance:

Calculation:

0
Let original length be L , then:
After stretcjomg, the new length is:

New resistance:

Now, calculate percentage change:

Final Answer: 44% (Option 2)

33)

Current
 = 10.56 mA

Direction of current is from positive electrode to negative electrode as Na+ are positively charged
while Cl– are negatively charged.

34)

As
∴ VB > VA ⇒ current from B to A

35)
vd ∝ E

36) = 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1

37)

When wire is stretched R ∝ ℓ2

38) R1 = & R2 =

39) 1.4 = R0 [1+ α(T – 0)] ... (1)

1 = R0 [1+ α(25 – 0)] ... (2)

⇒ T = 435°C {∵ α = 0.001°C–1}

40)

R = tanθ
{θ angle with current axis}
here, R = tan(90- θ)
R = cot θ
41) on stretching volume remains same
V = Aℓ.

42)

Slope of VI curve = Resistance

Slope is continuously decreasing in the diagram.

43) Explanation :
We need to find the effective resistance between points A and B in the given circuit by
simplifying the network step by step using series and parallel combinations.

Concept :
Series and parallel combination of resistors.

Formula :
Series : R = R1 + R2

Parallel :

Calculation :
We can redraw circuit as :

⇒ ⇒

Final answer : Option (1)

44)

ℓ1= πr = ℓ2 = π(10) × 10–2

 ℓ1 = ℓ = 0.1π
R1 = Rr = (0.1π) (12) = 1.2 π

RAB = = 0.6π

45)

Effective circuit is

RAB =

CHEMISTRY

46) A. Question - The question about the correct the IUPAC name of the given compound.
B. Concept:

A. IUPAC nomenclature for organic compounds with multiple functional groups

C. Answer Explanation:
3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid

D. Final Answer: (Option 1).

47) (A) Question Explanation :

The question asks which one of the following is homocyclic compound.

(B) Given data :

Homocyclic compound.
 (C) Concept :
A Homocyclic compound is a cyclic (Ring shaped) molecule where all the atoms forming the
ring are save element (carbon).

(D) Answer Explanation:

All three compounds are Homocyclic

48) Special suffix used for carboxylic acid

4-bromo-2-methyl cyclopentane carboxylic Acid

49) : Propane-1,2,3-triol

A. PFG = alcohol

Suffix = ol

A. PCC has 3 carbon atoms.

B. Alcohols are at C-1, C-2 and C-3

50) Old NCERT XIth, Part-II, Pg. # 340-341

51)
3-Methyl pent-3-en-2-ol
52)
5-methyl cyclopent-2-en-1-ol

53)
2-Ethyl-2-butenoic acid

54) Chain isomers = same M.F. but different main chains.

55) & CH3–CH=CH–CH2–Cl

Both compounds having same molecular formula but one is open chain and another one is a
cyclic. So these are ring chain isomers.

56)
→ PCC is different & molecular formula is same so these compounds are chain isomer of each
other.

57) Asking about : Relation between two structures.

Concept : Compound having some molecular formula but have different functional groups are
called as functional group isomers.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :

Since CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH and have same moleculeve formula C4H8O2 but

have different functional group hence both are functional group isomers.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

58)
Since function group is different so they are functional group isomers.

59) 2° and 3° amines are functional isomers having same molecular formula.

60)

Staggered form is produced when the rearrangement of −CH3​ groups takes place. Ethane in
eclipsed form on rotation by 60° forms staggered form, this minimize repulsion and increase
the stability.

61)

62)

63)

64)

Explanation:

A. Tetrahedral structure arises when a central atom is bonded to four other atoms with no
lone pairs, resulting in bond angles of approximately 109.5°.
Concept:

A. CCl₄ (Carbon Tetrachloride):

A. Carbon is the central atom with 4 valence electrons.

B. It forms 4 single bonds with four chlorine atoms.

C. There are no lone pairs on the central carbon atom.

D. Therefore, CCl₄ has a tetrahedral structure.

B. SO₂ (Sulfur Dioxide):

A. Sulfur is the central atom with 6 valence electrons.

B. It forms 2 double bonds with two oxygen atoms.

C. There is one lone pair on the central sulfur atom.

D. This lone pair causes a bent (V-shaped) structure due to electron pair repulsion.

C. H₃PO₄ (Phosphoric Acid):

A. Phosphorus is the central atom with 5 valence electrons.

B. It forms one double bond with one oxygen atom and three single bonds with three
hydroxyl (-OH) groups.

C. There are no lone pairs on the central phosphorus atom.

D. The four oxygen atoms are arranged around the phosphorus atom, forming a
tetrahedral arrangement.

Answer option 4, (1 & 3 both).

65) 2p-2p > 2s – 2p > 2s-2s > 3s – 3s

 Extent of overlapping ∝ directional character ∝ .

66)

Explanation

A. A hypervalent molecule is one where the central atom has more than eight electrons in
its valence shell. This often occurs in elements from the third period and beyond due to
the availability of d-orbitals for expansion (though the role of d-orbitals in bonding is
debated).

Concept

A. BF₃: Boron has 3 valence electrons, and each Fluorine contributes 1, making a total of 6
electrons around Boron. Boron is electron-deficient, not hypervalent.

B. IF7: Iodine has 7 valence electrons, and each of the 7 Fluorine atoms contributes 1,
making a total of 14 electrons around Iodine. This exceeds the octet rule.

C. CCl₄: Carbon has 4 valence electrons, and each Chlorine contributes 1, making a total of
8 electrons around Carbon. Carbon follows the octet rule.

D. H₂O: Oxygen has 6 valence electrons, and each Hydrogen contributes 1, making a total
of 8 electrons around Oxygen. Oxygen follows the octet rule.

A. Therefore, IF7 is the hypervalent molecule as Iodine has 14 electrons in its valence shell.

Answer option 2, (IF7).

67)

Explanation

A. Determine valence electrons, form bonds, and count remaining lone pairs.

Concept

A. Xe valence e⁻: 8
B. 4 F valence e⁻: 7 in each atom.
C. Total e⁻ of Xe involve in bond formation: 4
D. Remaining e⁻ in Xe: 4 (2 Lone pair)
E. 4 Xe-F bonds: Use 4 × 2 = 8 e⁻ (4 bond pairs)
F. Remaining e⁻ in 4 F = 4 × 6=24 (12 lone pairs)
 G. Around the central Xe atom: 4 bond pairs (8 Electrons), 2 lone pairs (4 electrons).
H. Total in molecule: 4 bond pairs, 14 lone pairs.

Answer option 2, (8,4)

68) In case of P. 3pπ–3pπ bonding weak i.e. why multiple bond between 3p – 3p is absent. so to
complete valency. it exists on P4 molecule

69)

Asking for:

Identify the polar molecule from the given options: XeF₄, BF₃, SF₄, and SiF₄.

Concept:

A. Polar Molecule: A molecule with a net dipole moment due to an uneven distribution of
electron density.
B. Dipole Moment: A measure of the polarity of a molecule.
C. Molecular Geometry: The spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, which affects the
overall dipole moment.
D. Electronegativity: The tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons.

Formula:

A. Dipole moment (μ) is a vector quantity.

Solution/Explanation:

A. XeF₄ (Xenon Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: Square planar

B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
xenon atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.
B. BF₃ (Boron Trifluoride):

A. Shape: Trigonal planar

B. Arrangement: The three fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
boron atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.
C. SF₄ (Sulfur Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: See-saw
B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms and one lone pair are arranged around the central
sulfur atom in a see-saw shape.
C. Polarity: The lone pair creates an uneven distribution of electron density, resulting in a
polar molecule.
D. SiF₄ (Silicon Tetrafluoride):

A. Shape: Tetrahedral
B. Arrangement: The four fluorine atoms are symmetrically arranged around the central
 silicon atom.
C. Polarity: The bond dipoles cancel each other out, resulting in a nonpolar molecule.

Therefore, SF₄ is the only polar molecule among the given options.

Answer : Option : 3

70)

XeO3 (sp3-Hybridisation)
1 ℓp + 3 s (Pyramidal shape)

71)

PCl5 → sp3d

72)

73)

74)

75)

AB3L2 means sp3d and in sp3d lone pair at equatorial

76)

+1 + 3(x) = 0 (for KO3)

+2 + 2x = 0 (for Na2O2)

77)

Explanation :- Question is asking oxidation numbers of elements in different compounds

Concept :- This question is based on Oxidation numbers of elements.

Solution :- In PO4–3 → oxidation state of phosphorus

n - 8 = –3 ⇒ x = +5
SO4–2 → Oxidation state of Sulphur
x - 8 = –2 ⇒ x = +6
Cr2O72– → Oxidation state of chromium
2x – 14 = – 2 ⇒ x = + 6

Answer :- 2

78)

Equivalents of O.A. = equivalents of R. A.

∴ n × (2 × 3) = 1 × (2 × 1)

or n = .
or

Hence, n × 6 = 1 × 2

n=

79)

F = –1 O.S. always
H = +1, –1

80) Eq. of KOH =

Eq. of acid required = 0.1
Thus 0.1 mol. of acid = 0.1 eq. of acid (acid is monobasic)
Thus monobasic acid is H3PO2 or X = 2

81) 16 + 3 = 19 Proton
 82) +17 – 18 = –1

83)

Asking : Mass of 6O16 atom

Concept : Mass of atom is sum of mass of fundament particles in atoms

Solution : Mass of oxygen atom

= 8mp + 8mn
(Mass of electron is negligible)

= 8 mp +
= (8 + 4) unit = 12 unit

Reduction in mass of oxy = ​

= 25% reduced

84)

Explanation

A. A (Isotope) - c ( ): Isotopes have the same atomic number (number of protons) but
different mass numbers (number of neutrons).

B. B (Isobar) - a ( ): Isobars have the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

C. C (Isotone) - b ( ): Isotones have the same number of neutrons.

D. D (Isosters) - e (CO2 & N2O): Isosters have the same number of atoms and electrons.

E. E (Isodiapheres) - d ( ): Isodiapheres have the same difference between the number of

neutrons and protons.

Answer option 4, (A-c, B-a, C-b, D-e, E-d).

85)

= 2 × 1019
 86) n = 2, He+, Z = 2

87)

n↓ KE↑

88) Explain → We have to find energy of photon

Formula →
Ans

89)

Bohr’s Radius : r =

90)

Therefore, the ratio of their energies is 2:1.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI Pg.#163 (4th para) (II line)

92)

Explain Question : This question is asking to find the incorrect match where one or both
events do not occur in the stated phase.

Concept : This question is based on Cell cycle phases: G1, S, G2, M phase

Explanation : Anaphase
 (i) Splitting of centromere – Correct

Happens during anaphase of mitosis/meiosis II.

(ii) Movement of centrioles toward opposite poles – Incorrect

This occurs during prophase, not anaphase. During prophase, centrioles move to opposite
poles to set up the spindle apparatus.

Final answer : 2

93) NCERT (XI) Pg # 164

94) Explanation -

A. During Metaphase in mitosis, the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell. The
number of chromosomes remains the same as in the original cell.

B. Given that the cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes, during Metaphase, it will still have 42
chromosomes.

Correct Answer: 2. 42

95) NCERT Pg. # 163,164

96) NCERT Pg # 163

97) NCERT Pg # 168

98)

Explanation -

In G₁ phase, the cell has 20 chromosomes and 20 pg DNA.

A. During S phase, DNA replication occurs, doubling the DNA content to 40 pg, but the
chromosome number remains 20 (each chromosome now has two sister chromatids).

B. In anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles, making them
individual chromosomes.

So, in an anaphase cell, there are 40 chromosomes (as chromatids are now considered separate
chromosomes) and 40 pg DNA (since no DNA replication occurs during mitosis).

Correct answer: 2. 40 chromosomes / 40 pg DNA

99)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164,165, 166

100) NCERT XI pg.# 165, 166

101) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 125

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 163, Para - 1, 2, 3

103) NCERT XI Pg # 126, 127

104) NCERT-XI Pg. # 168

105) Explanation :
The question asks which compound i most reactive towards ESR (EAS)

Concept :
Electrophilic substitution Reaction (ESR) effect of substituents so reactivity. Activating and
deactivating groups.

Solution :

(1) Phenol :- The -OH group is strongly electron donating due to reso. (Its
activating)

(2) Chlorobanzene:- –Cl is electron withdrawing group by inductive effect (Its

deactivity)

(3) Benzyl alcohol :- The –CH2–OH group is weakly activating or donating via
hyperconjugation of 2αH
(4) Nitrobenzene:- –NO2 is strongly electron withdrawing group making the ring
highly deactivated)
so Phenol is most reactive for ESR.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

106) No. of bivalent in meiocyte = no. of chromosome in gamete.

107) A = Prophase B = Telophase C = Anaphase D = Metaphase E = S Phase

108) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 164

109)

NCERT (XI)
Hint - is metabolically active

110)

NCERT, Page-126, Para-3

111) NCERT, Page No. # 169

112) NCERT XI, Page No. # 126

113)

NCERT XI Pg # 164

114) No. of bivalent in cell = No. of chromosome in gametes

115)

In pollengrain DNA = C
In metaphase I DNA = 4C

116) Module No.-1, Pg. # 167

 117) NCERT XI Pg. # 125

118) When centromere is located near the centre then chromosome is Sub-Metacentric.

119) NCERT XI Pg No. # 133

120) Centrioles have an organisation like the Cart Wheel.

121)

NCERT-XI Pg#98

122)

NCERT-XI Pg#96

123)

NCERT-XI Pg#101

124)

Microtubules are hollow, tubulin-based structures that play a role in:

A. Spindle fibers ➔ Help in chromosome movement during cell division.

B. Cilia & Flagella ➔ Provide cell motility ( 9+2 microtubule arrangement).
C. Centrioles ➔ Involved in spindle formation and organizing microtubules.

125)

NCERT XI Pg # 135

126) Module No. 1, Pg. # 189

127)

128) A - Plasma membrane, B - Dynein arms, C - Central microtubule, D - Radial spoke

This follows the 9+2 microtubule arrangement in cilia/flagella, where dynein arms facilitate
movement, and radial spokes provide structural support.

129) NCERT XI Pg. # 136

130) NCERT XI Pg. # 139

 131) NCERT-XI, Pg # 133, 8.5.3

132) NCERT XI Pg. # 138

133)

NCERT Pg. # 131, 132

134) NCERT Pg. # 139,135

135) NCERT, Pg. # 94

136) Explanation:
Oxygen makes up about 65% of our body mass, primarily as part of water (H₂O).Therefore,
the answer is Oxygen.

The correct answer is 2.

137)

Explanation:
Polyunsaturated fatty acids have multiple double bonds in their carbon chain.

Linoleic, linolenic, and arachidonic acids all have multiple double bonds.

The other options either have one double bond (oleic) or no double bonds (palmitic and
stearic).

Correct Answer: Option 4 (Linoleic, linolenic, arachidonic)

138)

Question Explanation : Correct statements

Concept : This question is based on Lipids, Proteins

Solution :

A. Oils → Lower Melting point

A. Liquid in winters
B. Simple Lipids → Glycerol + fatty acids.
C. (b), (c) correct

Final Answer : option (4)

139)
 Concept;
Lectin: A carbohydrate, Glycerol: A simple polyol compound. α-amino acid: The basic
building block of proteins,Palmitic acid: A common saturated fatty acid with 16 carbon
atoms.

Explanation ;
a. Lectin: Lectins are carbohydrate-binding proteins. Concanavalin A is a specific example of
a lectin. Therefore, 'a' matches with 'iv'.
b. Glycerol: Glycerol is a molecule with three hydroxyl groups (-OH), making it a trihydroxy
alcohol. Therefore, 'b' matches with 'iii'.
C. α-amino acid: An α-amino acid is the basic structural unit of proteins. The general
structure includes an amino group and a carboxyl group attached to the alpha carbon. This is
the definition of an α-amino acid. Therefore, 'c' matches with 'ii'.

A. d. Palmitic acid: Palmitic acid is a long-chain fatty acid with no double bonds in its
hydrocarbon chain, making it a saturated fatty acid. Therefore, 'd' matches with 'i'.

Final Answer : (1) : a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

140)

Lactose is a disaccharide (a sugar made of two monosaccharides). It is composed of:

A. Glucose

B. Galactose

141) NCERT Page No. 149

142)

NCERT Page No. # 145

143)

Question: What is the no. of chiral atom in βD glucose :-

Explanation: Chiral carbons have four different groups attached. Count the carbons with four
unique attachments in the glucose molecule.

Answer: Option (1). 5

144)

Question Explanation : False – For Glycogen

 Concept : This question is based on Polysaccaride

Solution :
→ β - 1, 4 - Linkage, Unbrcenched
→ Glycogen is branched polysaccaride.

Final Answer : option (1)

145)

The bond absent in the tertiary structure of proteins is 4. Phosphodiester bond.

Explanation : Phosphodiester bonds are found in the backbone of DNA and RNA, not in
protein structure.

146) NCERT XI Pg.# 145

147)

Question Explanation : Correct statement

Concept : This question is based on Lipids

Solution :

A. Lipids- water insoluble

A. R-Group –CH3, –CH2 , –C2H5
B. Palmitic Acid - 16C
A. A, B, C are correct

Final Answer : option (1)

148)

Question Explanation : Polyunsaturated fatty acid.

Concept : This question is based on Lipids

Solution :

A. Arachidic acid
A. Hare double bonds

Final Answer : option (4)

149) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Polysaccharide
Solution :- The iodine test is typically used to detect the presence of starch due to its helical
structure, which traps iodine and gives a blue color. Cellulose does not give a color change
with iodine. Cellulose has a straight, unbranched $\beta-1,4-$ glucan chain with extensive
hydrogen bonding between chains, resulting in a rigid, linear structure, not a helix.
Answer :- 1

150) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason

Concept :- This question is based on Polysaccharide
Solution :- Most polysaccharides (like starch, glycogen, cellulose) are non-reducing because
their anomeric carbon atoms are involved in glycosidic bonds, making them unavailable to act
as reducing agents.
In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is called
the non-reducing end. The reason doesn't explain why polysaccharides are non-reducing.
Answer :- 2

151)

Concept:

A. Iodine and Starch Reaction: Iodine forms a blue color when it binds to starch,
specifically to the helical structure of amylose (a component of starch).

B. The reason provided incorrectly describes the structure of starch, suggesting no helix
and stating that iodine traps in branches, which is not accurate.

Explanation:

A. The Assertion is true: Iodine reacts with starch to give a blue color.

B. The Reason is incorrect: Starch has a helical structure in amylose, not without it. Iodine
fits into this helix to form the blue color.

152)

The Correct Answer is :

Option (4) : Lyases

Solution :
Lyases are enzymes that catalyze the addition or removal of groups without hydrolysis or
oxidation-reduction. They typically form double bonds.

153)

Statements A, C and D are correct

 154)

NCERT [Link] 149

155)

NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 148

156) NCERT Pg. # 144, 2rd para

157) Explanation :- The question is asking about not an example of aromatic amino acid
Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- Alanine lacks an aromatic ring (cyclic structures with alternating double bonds) so
Alanine is not an aromatic amino acid. Aromatic amino acids are phenylalanine, tyrosine, and
tryptophan.
Answer :- 4

158) NCERT Page No. # 146,147,148

159) Concept

A. Glycosidic Bond: A covalent bond that joins a carbohydrate molecule to another group, which
can be another carbohydrate.
B. Monosaccharides: Simple sugars with hydroxyl (-OH) groups attached to carbon atomS

Explanation:

A. The glycosidic bond forms when a hydroxyl group (-OH) from one monosaccharide reacts with
a hydroxyl group (-OH) from another monosaccharide.
B. This reaction involves the carbon atom of one sugar and the carbon atom of the other sugar,
with an oxygen atom bridging the two carbons.
C. A water molecule is released during this process.
D. Therefore the bond is formed by Carbon and oxygen atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides.

Final Answer
1. Carbon and oxygen atoms of two adjacent monosaccharides

160)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking you to identify which amino acid, X or Y, is at the
N-terminal end and which is at the C-terminal end of a peptide chain based on their positions.

Underlying Concept: In a peptide or protein chain, the N-terminal amino acid is the one with
a free amino group (-NH2) at its start, while the C-terminal amino acid is at the end and has a
free carboxyl group (-COOH). Peptides are always synthesized and read from the N-terminal to
the C-terminal.
Tips and Tricks: A simple way to recall this is: N for "start" (like the beginning of the
alphabet) and C for "end". So the first amino acid is N-terminal and the last amino acid is C-
terminal.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the termini by assuming the last amino acid is the
N-terminal or that both X and Y could be the same terminal types.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices stating both X and Y are N-terminals or both
are C-terminals are incorrect because a peptide chain has only one N-terminal (start) and one
C-terminal (end). The choice that X is C-terminal and Y is N-terminal is incorrect because the
sequence runs from N-terminal at the beginning (X) to C-terminal at the end (Y).

161)

Concept:
Amino acids are classified based on the type of functional groups present in their side chains
(R groups). These include amino and carboxyl groups.

Explanation:

A. Option 2: Correct as amino and carboxyl groups are involved in the classification.

162) NCERT Pg # 104-105

163)

Question Explanation :
Identification of A, B, C, D

Concept :
This question is based on Polysaccharide-Carbohydrate.

Solution :
Part A → Linear chain

Part B → Branching chain

Part C → α-1, 4-Glycosidic bond

Part D → α-1,6-Glycosidic bond.

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : 2

164) Explanation: The given structure resembles L-ascorbic acid (Vitamin C), which does not
occur in free form because it is always involved in biological reactions as an antioxidant. It is
not an aldopentose (which would be ribose) and does not freely circulate in the blood like
glucose. Hence, option 1 is correct.

165)

Question Explanation :
Axis-X-Y representation.

Concept :
This question is based on Enzyme.

Solution :
X-axis → temperature
Y-axis → Enzyme activity

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

166)

A. Water (H2O) is the most abundant component, making up about 60-70% of a cell's mass.

B. Proteins are the next most abundant, contributing around 15-20%.

C. Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) follow, accounting for a smaller portion, around 1-5%.

D. Carbohydrates typically contribute about 1-2%.

E. Lipids (fats) are also present in cells, usually around 2-4%.

F. Ions (like sodium, potassium, calcium) are present in small amounts but are crucial for
cellular functions.

Thus, option 2 is the correct one.

167)

Question Explanation : Identification- x, y, z

Concept : This question is based on Amino acid

Solution :
x→ → Glycine

y→ → Alanine

z→ → Serine

Final Answer : option (3)

168)

Concept

A. Enzyme-Substrate Complex (ES): The temporary complex formed when an enzyme binds
to its substrate.

B. Enzyme-Product Complex (EP): The temporary complex formed when the enzyme is
bound to the product before it is released.

Explanation

A. The first step in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is the binding of the substrate to the
enzyme's active site, forming the enzyme-substrate complex (ES). Therefore A is ES.

B. After the reaction occurs, the product is bound to the enzyme forming the enzyme-
product complex (EP) before it is released. Therefore B is EP.

Final AnswerThe correct answer is (2) : A → E.S., B → E.P.

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 111

170)

NCERT Pg. no. 158

171) NCERT Page No. 106

172) NCERT

173) NCERT Pg. No.118

174) NCERT Page # 160

175) NCERT Pg. # 144 & 146

176)

Explanation

A. Collagen (A): Is a structural protein.

B. Trypsin (B): Is an enzyme, and therefore a protein.

C. Antibody (C): Is an immunoglobulin, which is a protein.

D. Receptor (D): Receptors are proteins that bind to ligands.

E. GLUT-4 (E): Is a glucose transporter, which is a protein.

All the given biomolecules are proteins.

Final Answer : The correct answer is 1. A, B, C, D, E are proteins.

177)

The correct answer is 3. Ketohexose.

Fructose is a simple sugar (monosaccharide) that has a ketone group (making it a ketose) and
six carbon atoms (making it a hexose)

178)

NCERT Pg. # 150

179)

Amino acids are classified into essential and non-essential based on whether the human body
can synthesize them.

Final Answer : Glycine

180) Explanation :- The question is asking about assertion and reason
Concept :- This question is based on Proteins
Solution :- In the zwitterionic form, an amino acid has both a positive charge (–NH3+) and a
negative charge (-COO), making the overall molecule electrically neutral. Each amino acid has
a specific isoelectric point at which it exists as a zwitterion. The isoelectric point varies
depending on the side chain (R group) of the amino acid.
**** Replace word zwitteric to zwitterion **** in the reason
Answer :- 3